Multiple Choice Questions B) Clostridium perfringens

C) Staphylococcus aureus
1. What is the primary cause of most food spoilage? D) E.coli
A) Chemical reactions
B) Insect activity 12. What is the primary role of *k-casein* in milk?
C) Microbial activity A) Iron transport
D) Physical damage B) Stabilizing casein micelles
C) Lactose digestion
2. Which factor does NOT contribute to food spoilage? D) Fat globule formation
A) Moisture content
B) Time 13. Which food is most associated with Vibrio
C) Oxygen parahaemolyticus infections?
D) UV light exposure A) Undercooked poultry
B) Raw oysters
3. Dark, Firm, Dry (DFD) meat is caused by: C) Unpasteurized milk
A) Low glycogen levels before slaughter D) Canned beans
B) High pH (>6.2)
C) Rapid post-mortem pH drop 14. The "danger zone" for bacterial growth in food is:
D) Excessive freezing A) 0–4°C
B) 5–60°C
4. Which microorganism dominates spoilage in tropical C) 60–100°C
climates? D) >100°C
A) Penicillium
B) Aspergillus 15. Which mold produces patulin in spoiled apples?
C) Saccharomyces A) Aspergillus flavus
D) Pseudomonas B) Penicillium expansum
C) Rhizopus stolonifer
5. What is the minimum water activity (Aw) D) Botrytis cinerea
for Aspergillus growth?
A) 0.95 16. Lactococcus lactis is primarily used in:
B) 0.75 A) Yogurt fermentation
C) 0.60 B) Cheese starter cultures
D) 0.50 C) Soy sauce production
D) Wine making
6. Which bacterium produces heat-resistant spores that
survive pasteurization? 17. Which pathogen is linked to hemolytic uremic
A) Lactobacillus syndrome (HUS)?
B) Bacillus cereus A) Salmonella
C) E.coli B) E.coli O157:H7
D) Pseudomonas C) Campylobacter
D) Listeria
7. What is the primary spoilage indicator for fish?
A) Lactic acid 18. What is the main spoilage mechanism in fatty fish?
B) Trimethylamine (TMA) A) Proteolysis
C) Ethanol B) Oxidative rancidity
D) CO₂ C) Lactic acid fermentation
D) Glycolysis
8. Which foodborne illness is caused by a pre-formed
toxin? 19. Which preservation method targets water activity
A) Salmonellosis (Aw)?
B) Botulism A) Pasteurization
C) Campylobacteriosis B) Drying
D) Listeriosis C) Vacuum packing
D) Fermentation
9. Listeria monocytogenes is a concern because it:
A) Grows at refrigeration temperatures 20. Saccharomyces uvarum is used to ferment:
B) Produces aflatoxins A) Ale beers
C) Requires high salt concentrations B) Lager beers
D) Is anaerobic C) Red wines
D) Yogurt
10. Hurdle technology combines:
A) Multiple preservation methods 21. Which food preservation method relies on CO₂ to
B) Only heat and pH control inhibit microbial growth?
C) Chemical preservatives alone A) Canning
D) Freezing and dehydration B) Modified Atmosphere Packaging (MAP)
C) Pasteurization
11. Which organism causes "rice spoilage" with emetic D) Freeze-drying
toxins?
A) Bacillus cereus
22. The "blowing" defect in cheese is caused by: 33. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of
A) Lactobacillus foodborne viruses?
B) Clostridium tyrobutyricum A) Require living host cells to replicate
C) Saccharomyces B) Can survive freezing temperatures
D) Pseudomonas C) Produce toxins in food
D) Often transmitted via fecal-oral route
23. Which fish spoilage organism produces histamine?
A) Shewanella putrefaciens 34. The Maillard reaction in food primarily involves:
B) Photobacterium phosphoreum A) Protein and carbohydrate interaction
C) Morganella morganii B) Fat oxidation
D) Vibrio vulnificus C) Pectin degradation
D) Starch gelatinization
24. The primary spoilage organism in UHT milk is:
A) Bacillus cereus 35. Which preservation method uses ionizing radiation to
B) Lactobacillus kill microorganisms?
C) Geotrichum (mold) A) Pasteurization
D) Micrococcus B) Irradiation
C) Ultrasonication
25. Which vegetable spoilage is caused by Erwinia D) Ohmic heating
carotovora?
A) Soft rot 36. The "swollen can" defect in canned foods indicates:
B) Black spot A) Under-processing
C) Gray mold B) Over-processing
D) Scab C) Normal fermentation
D) Proper sealing
26. Alicyclobacillus spoilage in juices is detected by:
37. Which yeast is most tolerant to high sugar
A) Gas production
concentrations?
B) Rancid odors
A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C) Medicinal off-flavors (guaiacol)
B) Zygosaccharomyces rouxii
D) Slime formation
C) Candida albicans
D) Debaryomyces hansenii
27. The "backslop" method refers to:
A) Using previous fermentate as a starter culture
38. The "bitty cream" defect in milk is caused by:
B) High-pressure processing
A) Bacillus cereus
C) Chemical preservation
B) Pseudomonas fragi
D) Irradiation
C) Micrococcus luteus
D) Alcaligenes viscolactis
28. Which toxin is heat-stable and causes rapid vomiting?
A) Botulinum toxin 39. Which foodborne pathogen produces Shiga toxin?
B) Staphylococcal enterotoxin A) Salmonella enterica
C) Aflatoxin B) Escherichia coli O157:H7
D) Ciguatoxin C) Campylobacter jejuni
D) Listeria monocytogenes
29. Byssochlamys fulva is a concern in canned fruits
because it: 40. The "blue mold" defect in citrus fruits is caused by:
A) Produces mycotoxins A) Penicillium italicum
B) Survives pasteurization (heat-resistant ascospores) B) Aspergillus flavus
C) Causes browning C) Botrytis cinerea
D) Ferments sugars to alcohol D) Rhizopus stolonifer

30. The main spoilage issue in vacuum-packed fish is: 41. Which psychrotrophic bacterium is primarily
A) Oxidative rancidity responsible for spoilage in vacuum-packed
B) Photobacterium producing TMA refrigerated meats?
C) Lactobacillus souring A) Lactobacillus sakei
D) Mold growth B) Carnobacterium divergens
C) Brochothrix thermosphacta
31. Which microorganism is responsible for the D) Leuconostoc gelidum
"ropiness" defect in bread?
A) Bacillus subtilis 42. The "fruity" off-flavor in spoiled milk is caused by the
B) Lactobacillus plantarum production of:
C) Saccharomyces cerevisiae A) Ethyl butyrate
D) Aspergillus niger B) Diacetyl
C) Acetaldehyde
32. The "black spot" defect in eggs is caused by: D) Butyric acid
A) Pseudomonas fluorescens
B) Proteus vulgaris 43. Which foodborne parasite has a life cycle involving
C) Alternaria alternata undercooked pork and muscle cysts?
D) Clostridium sporogenes A) Toxoplasma gondii
B) Taenia solium
 C) Trichinella spiralis
D) Giardia lamblia 54. The "red heat" discoloration in cured meats is caused
by:
44. The D-value for Clostridium botulinum spores at A) Halobacterium salinarum
121°C is approximately: B) Serratia marcescens
A) 0.1 minute C) Micrococcus roseus
B) 0.21 minutes D) Kocuria rhizophila
C) 1.0 minute
D) 2.1 minutes 55. Which parasite forms heat-resistant oocysts that
survive on leafy greens?
45. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of A) Cryptosporidium parvum
thermophilic flat sour spoilage in canned foods? B) Giardia duodenalis
A) No gas production C) Toxoplasma gondii
B) pH remains above 4.6 D) Cyclospora cayetanensis
C) Caused by Geobacillus stearothermophilus
D) Swollen cans 56. The 16S rRNA gene is most useful for identifying:
A) Bacterial species
46. The "cheesy" odor in spoiled butter is primarily due B) Fungal species
to: C) Viral strains
A) Butyric acid D) Parasitic stages
B) Diacetyl
C) Acetic acid 57. PCR targeting the invasion plasmid antigen (ipaH)
D) Propionic acid gene detects:
A) Salmonella
47. Which yeast is most associated with spoilage of high- B) Shigella
sugar products like honey? C) E. coli
A) Zygosaccharomyces bailii D) Campylobacter
B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C) Debaryomyces hansenii 58. Whole genome sequencing is particularly valuable for:
D) Candida krusei A) Strain-level discrimination in outbreak
investigations
48. The "sulfide stinker" spoilage in canned corn is caused B) Measuring toxin production
by: C) Determining water activity tolerance
A) Desulfotomaculum nigrificans D) Assessing thermal resistance
B) Clostridium sporogenes
C) Bacillus coagulans 59. High Pressure Processing (HPP) is ineffective against:
D) Thermoanaerobacterium thermosaccharolyticum A) Vegetative bacteria
B) Bacterial spores
49. Which mold produces cyclopiazonic acid in cheese? C) Viruses
A) Penicillium camemberti D) Yeasts
B) Aspergillus flavus
C) Fusarium graminearum 60. Pulsed Light Technology primarily works by:
D) Byssochlamys nivea A) Generating reactive oxygen species
B) Damaging DNA via UV-C light
50. The F-value in thermal processing refers to: C) Creating localized heat spots
A) Time required to destroy spores at 121.1°C D) Disrupting membrane potential
B) Temperature required for pasteurization
C) Water activity threshold for microbial growth 61. The "3-class attributes" sampling plan is used for:
D) pH limit for acid-tolerant bacteria A) Pathogen testing
B) Indicator organisms
51. Which norovirus genogroup is most associated with C) Mycotoxin analysis
foodborne outbreaks? D) Allergen testing
A) GI
B) GII 62. Which ISO standard applies to Listeria detection?
C) GIII A) ISO 6579
D) GIV B) ISO 11290
C) ISO 16654
52. The "glass-like" crystals sometimes found in spoiled D) ISO 4833
canned tuna are composed of:
A) Tyrosine 63. Yogurt batches show inconsistent acidity. Your first
B) Histamine investigation step should be:
C) Struvite (magnesium ammonium phosphate) A) Check fermentation temperature logs
D) Calcium oxalate B) Test raw milk for antibiotics
C) Verify starter culture viability
53. Which hepatitis virus has the longest incubation D) Measure dissolved oxygen
period (15-50 days)?
A) Hepatitis A 64. Canned green beans exhibit flat sour spoilage despite
B) Hepatitis B meeting process schedules. The most likely root cause
C) Hepatitis E is:
D) Hepatitis C A) Under-processing
B) Post-process contamination
C) Thermophilic spore load in raw product
D) Incorrect headspace
Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 26. ______ is the mold that produces aflatoxins in peanuts.

1. The breakdown of fats by lipolytic enzymes releases 27. The enzyme __________ converts TMAO to TMA in fish
__________, causing rancid odors. spoilage.

2. ____ is the fungus responsible for blue cheese veining. 28. __________ is the primary LAB in yogurt fermentation.

3. The ________ test confirms milk pasteurization by 29. The "__________ effect" describes how combined
detecting enzyme inactivation. preservation methods enhance food safety.

4. __________ fermentation produces lactic acid as the 30. __________ is the pathogen causing "rice-water
sole end product from glucose. stools" in cholera.

5. The infectious dose for Shigella is as low as 31. __________ test detects coliform bacteria in water and
__________ CFU. dairy products.

6. __________ is the primary yeast used in beer brewing. 32. __________ is the process of breaking down starch
into simpler sugars.
7. Clostridium botulinum toxin is destroyed at _______ °C.
33. The bacterium __________ causes "late blowing" in
8. Sauerkraut fermentation begins with _______ bacteria. Swiss cheese.

9. The __________ pathway converts pyruvate to 34. __________ is the primary mold involved in tempeh
propionate in Swiss cheese. fermentation.

10. _______ is the term for microbial protein used as food. 35. The __________ pathway converts glucose to ethanol
and CO₂ in yeast.
11. __________ is the enzyme that breaks down pectin in
plant cell walls. 36. __________ is the term for microbial spoilage of wine
causing a vinegar-like taste.
12. The neurotoxin produced by C. botulinum is called
37. The enzyme __________ breaks down lactose into
________________.
glucose and galactose.
13. __________ cheese is characterized by white mold
38. __________ is the process of controlled decomposition
(Penicillium camemberti).
in meat aging.
14. The primary carbohydrate in milk is _________. 39. The mold ____ produces ochratoxin A in stored grains.

15. __________ is the process of converting glycogen to 40. __________ is the term for the cloudiness in beer
lactic acid post-mortem in meat. caused by protein-polyphenol complexes.

16. Leuconostoc mesenteroides initiates fermentation in 41. The __________ theory explains microbial succession
__________. in fermented foods based on changing environmental
conditions.
17. The minimum pH for Lactobacillus growth is
approximately __________. 42. __________ is the process where LAB convert malic
acid to lactic acid in wine.
18. __________ is the term for microbial spoilage of meat
under vacuum packaging. 43. The bacterium _____ causes "ropiness" in maple syrup.

19. Aspergillus oryzae is used in the production of ______. 44. __________ is the term for heat-resistant fungal spores
that survive pasteurization.
20. The _______ test detects coliforms in pasteurized milk.
45. The enzyme __________ breaks down hydrogen
21. __________ is the process of breaking down proteins peroxide in raw milk.
into amino acids.
46. __________ is the primary spoilage yeast in soy sauce
fermentation.
22. The bacterium __________ causes "late blowing" in
cheese due to butyric acid production.
47. The __________ pathway is used by Zymomonas
mobilis for ethanol production.
23. __________ is the primary spoilage yeast in fruit juices.
48. _________ is the term for microbial production of
24. The "__________ test" checks milk pasteurization by slimy polysaccharides in spoiled beverages.
detecting alkaline phosphatase.
49. The mold __________ produces sterigmatocystin in
25. __________ is the term for microbial succession in stored grains.
sauerkraut fermentation.
50. __________ is the process where histidine is Answer: It grows at 4°C, survives high salt, and causes
decarboxylated to histamine in fish. severe infections (meningitis, fetal death) in
immunocompromised individuals.
Essay Questions
11. Explain how Penicillium roqueforti contributes to blue
1. Compare and contrast aerobic respiration and cheese flavor and texture.
fermentation in microorganisms. Include ATP yield, end Answer:
products, and examples of foods affected by each  Lipolysis: Breaks down fats to free fatty acids (e.g.,
process. butyric acid).
Answer: Aerobic respiration yields 36–38 ATP/glucose  Proteolysis: Softens texture via protein
via glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and ETC, producing CO₂ and degradation.
H₂O (e.g., spoilage by Pseudomonas). Fermentation  Methyl ketones: Produces pungent flavors (e.g., 2-
yields 2 ATP/glucose, producing organic compounds heptanone).
(e.g., lactic acid in yogurt, ethanol in beer).
12. Compare spoilage patterns in fresh vs. frozen fish.
2. Explain how hurdle technology extends shelf life, using Answer:
salad bowl preservation as an example.  Fresh fish: Bacterial spoilage
Answer: Combines refrigeration (low temperature), (Pseudomonas, Shewanella) → TMA, H₂S odors.
acidified dressing (low pH), and washing (microbial  Frozen fish: Oxidative rancidity (fat degradation) →
reduction) to inhibit pathogens synergistically. off-flavors; ice crystals damage texture.

3. Describe the sequence of microbial succession in 13. Describe the role of Leuconostoc in vegetable
sauerkraut fermentation and the role of salt. fermentations.
Answer: Leuconostoc initiates (mild acid), followed Answer:
by Lactobacillus (strong acid). Salt controls spoilage  Initial fermenter: Lowers pH with lactic acid,
microbes and extracts nutrients. inhibiting pathogens.
 CO₂ production: Creates anaerobic conditions
4. Discuss the clinical significance of aflatoxins, including for Lactobacillus.
sources and health effects.  Flavor: Contributes diacetyl (buttery notes).
Answer: Produced by Aspergillus flavus in grains/nuts;
causes liver cancer (chronic) and acute toxicity 14. Outline the steps to prevent Clostridium botulinum in
(vomiting, death). canned foods.
Answer:
5. Analyze why vacuum-packed meat spoils differently  Acidification: pH <4.6 inhibits spore germination.
than aerobically stored meat, citing dominant microbes  High-temperature processing: 121°C for 3+
and spoilage indicators. minutes.
Answer: Vacuum packs favor Lactobacillus (sour  Avoid bulging cans: Indicates gas production.
odors); aerobic
15. Discuss the nutritional benefits of fermented foods.
6. Explain the role of Pseudomonas in spoilage of Answer:
refrigerated meat. Include key metabolites and sensory  Probiotics: Enhance gut microbiota
changes. (e.g., Lactobacillus in yogurt).
Answer: Pseudomonas thrives at refrigeration  Bioavailability: Breakdown of anti-nutrients (e.g.,
temperatures, metabolizing amino acids to produce phytic acid in tempeh).
sulfides, amines, and esters, causing putrid odors,  Vitamins: Synthesis of B vitamins (e.g., folate in
slime, and discoloration. kimchi).

7. Compare the fermentation pathways 16. Explain the biochemical changes that occur during the
of Saccharomyces cerevisiae (beer) ripening of cheese, including the roles of starter and
and Lactobacillus (yogurt). non-starter microorganisms.
Answer: S. cerevisiae uses alcoholic fermentation Answer:
(glucose → ethanol + CO₂), while Lactobacillus uses  Starter cultures (e.g., Lactococcus) produce lactic
homofermentative pathways (glucose → lactic acid). acid and lower pH
 Secondary microbiota (e.g., Propionibacterium in
8. Describe how mastitis affects milk quality and safety. Swiss cheese) produce CO₂ (eyes) and flavor
Answer: Mastitis increases bacterial counts (>10⁶ compounds
CFU/ml) and leukocytes, introducing pathogens (S.  Enzymes (rennet, microbial proteases) break down
aureus, E. coli) and reducing shelf life. casein to peptides and amino acids
 Lipolysis generates free fatty acids that contribute
9. Outline the steps in an outbreak investigation, from to flavor
confirmation to control measures.
Answer: 17. Compare and contrast the spoilage patterns of fresh
 Confirm outbreak (case clustering). poultry versus red meat, including dominant
 Verify diagnosis (lab tests). microorganisms and detection methods.
 Define cases (symptoms/exposure). Answer:
 Analyze data (person, place, time).  Poultry: Higher initial contamination (skin, gut
 Implement controls (recalls, hygiene). flora); dominated by Pseudomonas and
Campylobacter; spoils faster (2-4 days at 4°C)
10. Why is Listeria monocytogenes a critical concern in
ready-to-eat foods?
  Red meat: Lower initial counts; dominated by  CCP2: Acid development monitoring (pH <5.3 by
Brochothrix and LAB; longer shelf life (5-7 days at 6h)
4°C)  CCP3: Salt penetration (aw <0.92)
 Detection: Both show slime and off-odors at >10⁷  CCP4: Aging temperature (<10°C for soft cheeses)
CFU/cm²; poultry spoils at lower TMA levels  CCP5: Surface mold control (humidity <85%)

18. Describe the hurdle technology approach in food 24. Explain the phenomenon of "heat activation" in
preservation, using fermented sausages as an example. bacterial spores and its implications for thermal
Answer: processing of low-acid canned foods.
Multiple barriers: Answer:
 Low aw (drying/salt)  Dormant spores require heat shock (80-85°C) to
 Low pH (LAB fermentation) germinate
 Nitrites (cure)  Can lead to underprocessing if not accounted for
 Smoking (phenols)  Requires extended come-up time in retorting
 Competitive microbiota  Critical for establishing safe thermal processes
 Combined effect prevents pathogen growth while
allowing desirable fermentation 25. Discuss the emerging challenge of psychrotolerant
Bacillus cereus in refrigerated ready-to-eat foods,
19. Explain how modified atmosphere packaging (MAP) including detection methods and control strategies.
extends the shelf life of fresh-cut vegetables, including Answer:
optimal gas mixtures and microbial challenges.  Grows at 4-8°C in extended shelf-life products
Answer:  Produces both emetic and diarrheal toxins
 Typical gas mix: 3-5% O₂, 5-10% CO₂, balance N₂  Detection: PCR for toxin genes, selective media
 CO₂ inhibits aerobic spoilage organisms  Control: Modified atmosphere, bacteriocins,
(Pseudomonas) competitive flora
 Low O₂ prevents oxidative browning but must
avoid anaerobic conditions 26. A batch of pasteurized milk develops sour flavors and
 Challenge: Potential for anaerobic pathogen gas production after 10 days of refrigeration.
growth (Listeria) Laboratory analysis shows Gram-positive, catalase-
negative rods. Identify the likely spoilage organism and
20. Discuss the role of bacteriocins in food preservation, explain how it survived pasteurization.
including examples of producing organisms and their Answer:
applications.  Likely organism: Lactobacillus spp. (thermoduric)
Answer:  Survival mechanism: Heat-resistant non-
 Bacteriocins: Antimicrobial peptides (e.g., nisin sporeforming bacteria
from Lactococcus lactis)  Source: Post-pasteurization contamination or
 Targets: Gram-positive pathogens (Listeria, biofilm in equipment
Clostridium)  Prevention: Improved sanitation and lower storage
 Applications: Dairy products, canned foods, meat temperatures
products
 Advantages: Natural, heat-stable, synergistic with 27. A restaurant serves undercooked hamburgers at a
other preservatives picnic. Within 3 days, 15 people develop bloody
diarrhea, and 3 children experience kidney failure.
21. Analyze the biochemical basis for the "secondary Identify the pathogen and explain its virulence factors.
fermentation" phenomenon in beer spoilage, including Answer:
the roles of Brettanomyces and Pediococcus species.  Pathogen: E. coli O157:H7
Answer:  Virulence factors:
 Brettanomyces produces acetic acid and phenolic a. Shiga toxin (inhibits protein synthesis)
compounds (4-ethylphenol) b. Intimin (attachment)
 Pediococcus produces diacetyl and lactic acid c. Hemolysin (tissue damage)
 Complex interactions between wild yeast and  Complications: HUS due to toxin damage to kidney
bacteria create "off" flavors glomeruli
 Occurs during prolonged storage or contamination
28. Explain how quorum sensing influences biofilm
22. Compare the molecular mechanisms of aflatoxin vs. formation in dairy processing equipment.
patulin toxicity in contaminated foods, including their Key points:
cellular targets and health effects.  Autoinducer molecules (e.g., AHLs) accumulate at
Answer: high cell density
 Aflatoxin: Binds to DNA (guanine), causes liver  Triggers expression of EPS production genes
cancer; inhibits protein synthesis  Leads to persistent contamination points
 Patulin: Reacts with sulfhydryl groups, causes  Control strategies include quorum quenching
neurotoxicity; kidney damage enzymes
 Both are mycotoxins but differ in stability
(aflatoxin heat-stable, patulin degrades) 29. Describe the mechanism of non-thermal inactivation by
cold plasma treatment.
23. Design a HACCP plan for artisanal cheese production, Key points:
identifying critical control points from raw milk  Reactive species (O₃, •OH) damage cell
reception to aging. membranes
Answer:  UV component disrupts DNA
 CCP1: Milk pasteurization (72°C/15s)  Works at ambient temperatures
  Effective against surface contaminants 3. Calculate the water activity of a solution with 20%
NaCl.
Answer: ~0.85 (using Raoult's law approximation)
True/False Questions 4. A thermal process has z-value of 10°C. How much time
is needed at 111°C to equal 1 minute at 121°C?
1. All molds produce mycotoxins. Answer: 10 minutes (10°C decrease = 10x longer time)
2. High-pressure processing can kill bacterial spores. 5. If lactic acid bacteria double every hour in a food, how
3. Staphylococcus aureus intoxication can be prevented many generations occur in 8 hours?
by reheating food. Answer: 8 generations (2^n = population increase)
4. Vacuum packaging extends shelf life by inhibiting
aerobic microorganisms. Advanced Calculations
5. Yeasts are generally more heat-resistant than bacterial
spores. A thermal death time curve shows D121 = 0.25 min and z =
8°C. Calculate the processing time at 115°C needed for 12D
Matching Questions reduction of C. botulinum.
Solution:
Match the spoilage organism with the food:  Temperature difference: 121-115 = 6°C
1. Alicyclobacillus acidoterrestris  Log cycle reduction: 6/8 = 0.75 → 10^0.75 = 5.62x
2. Zygosaccharomyces bailii longer
3. Photobacterium phosphoreum  Time at 115°C: 0.25 min × 5.62 × 12 = 16.86
4. Byssochlamys fulva minutes
5. Leuconostoc mesenteroides  Answer: 16.9 minutes

A. Vacuum-packed fish Case Study: Multi-State Outbreak

B. Fruit juices
C. Canned fruits A 2023 outbreak linked to packaged salads affected 12
D. Honey states with 87 cases of Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC)
E. Sauerkraut O157:H7. Traceback identified:

Short Answer Questions PFGE pattern EXHX01.0064

1. List three intrinsic factors that affect microbial growth WGS core genome multilocus sequence typing (cgMLST)
in food. matched irrigation water samples
Answer: pH, water activity (aw), nutrient content
2. Name two Gram-negative psychrotrophic spoilage 90% of cases reported consuming Brand X "Spring Mix"
organisms in milk.
Answer: Pseudomonas spp., Alcaligenes spp. The most definitive evidence for source attribution was:
3. What are the three main types of foodborne disease? A) PFGE pattern
Answer: Infection, intoxication, toxico-infection B) Patient questionnaires
4. Give two examples of biogenic amines found in spoiled C) cgMLST results
fish. D) Product testing
Answer: Histamine, putrescine Answer: C
5. What is the purpose of adding nitrites to cured meats?
Answer: Inhibit Clostridium botulinum, stabilize color This outbreak demonstrates the importance of:
A) Supplier water testing
Laboratory Practical Questions (explanations in key sheet) B) Modified atmosphere packaging
C) Chlorine washes
1. You observe Gram-positive rods forming endospores in D) Irradiation
a spoiled canned food. What is your presumptive Answer: A
identification?
2. A milk sample reduces methylene blue in 30 minutes at
37°C. Interpret this result.
3. Describe how you would differentiate Salmonella from
Shigella on selective media.
4. What biochemical test confirms Listeria
monocytogenes?
5. You isolate a Gram-negative, oxidase-positive rod from
spoiled fish. What is the most likely genus?

Calculation Questions

1. A food has a D-value of 2 minutes at 121°C for C.

botulinum. How many log reductions occur in a 12-
minute process?
Answer: 6 log reductions (12/2 = 6D)
2. If a food has 10^5 CFU/g of Salmonella and you apply a
3D process, what is the final count?
Answer: 10^2 CFU/g