UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2025
PRELIMS REVISION
PROGRAM
POLITY
SECTIONAL TEST - 01
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Q1. Consider the following:
1. Balance between preservation of core values and adaptability to new circumstances.
2. Fragmentation of power across different institutions to prevent subversion.
3. Sole reliance on traditional values without any external influence.
Which of the above factors are contributing to the effectiveness of the Indian Constitution?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q2. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the distinction between positive and negative
liberty as concepts of freedom?
a) Negative liberty emphasizes freedom from external constraints, while positive liberty focuses on the
capacity and resources to act upon one's will.
b) Negative liberty prioritizes collective action and social welfare, while positive liberty centers on individual
autonomy and non-interference.
c) Negative liberty is primarily concerned with economic equality, while positive liberty champions freedom
of speech and expression.
d) Negative liberty advocates for a strong state to ensure individual well-being, while positive liberty
promotes limited government intervention in citizens' lives.
Q3. Consider the following statements:
1. The principle of the supremacy of the Constitution.
2. The provision of Fundamental rights.
3. The establishment of an independent judiciary with the power of judicial review.
Which of the above features of the Indian Constitution contribute to the establishment and functioning of
constitutional government in the country?
a) 1 and 3 only
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b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2 only
Q4. Consider the following:
1. The inclusion of Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Introduction of Tenth schedule in Indian Constitution by 52nd Amendment in 1985.
3. The establishment of an independent judiciary
4. The adoption of a parliamentary system of government
5. A federal structure of the government
How many of the following reflect the Indian Constitution's commitment to establishing a welfare state?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the impact of the 'basic structure' doctrine on the Indian
Constitution:
1. It limits the amending power of the Parliament, preventing alterations to core constitutional principles.
2. It empowers the Supreme Court to review and potentially strike down constitutional amendments.
3. It has resulted in complete rigidity of the Constitution, making any changes practically impossible.
4. It solely relies on a fixed list of 'basic features' explicitly mentioned in the Constitution.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 4 only
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Q6. Consider the following statements:
1. The Preamble has been amended only once, through the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act.
2. The Preamble is a declared as a element of Basic Structure constitution
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q7. This regime is imposed to restore the breakdown of law and order due to any reason. It suspends the
government and ordinary law courts. During its operation, military authorities are vested with abnormal
powers. It does not ipso facto result in the suspension of the writ of habeas corpus.
Which of the following best describes the above type of situation?
a) Financial Emergency
b) Martial Law
c) National Emergency
d) President's Rule
Q8. According to the Supreme Court judgement, the Preamble is non-justiciable. What does it imply?
a) The Preamble is legally binding in Indian courts
b) The Preamble can be amended
c) The Preamble’s provisions cannot be enforced by courts
d) The Preamble is a legislative source of power
Q9. Consider the following statements:
1. India's membership in the Commonwealth of Nations and the United Nations Organization (UNO) limits
its sovereignty.
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2. The adoption of a republican form of government automatically guarantees social and economic equality
for all citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q10. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution has been subject to judicial interpretation and debate. In this
context, consider the following statements:
1. The amendment of the Preamble requires a simple majority of Parliament not a special majority of
Parliament.
2. The Supreme Court has consistently held that the Preamble is merely a declaratory statement and cannot
be used to interpret the provisions of the Constitution.
3. The Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution and reflects its fundamental values and objectives.
How many of the above statements accurately reflects the Supreme Court's stance on the Preamble?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Q11. Consider the following pairs:
(State/Union Territory] [Year of Creation/Modification)
1. Dadra and Nagar Haveli - integrated as a union territory in 1961
2. Arunachal Pradesh - became a full state in 1987
3. Uttarakhand - established as a state in 2006
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
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a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Q12. How does the concept of single citizenship in India impact the rights of individuals living in different
states?
a) It limits the rights of individuals based on their caste and religion.
b) It mandates different rights for residents of different states.
c) It ensures uniform political and civil rights for individuals across the country.
d) It abolishes the need for any local governance structures.
Q13. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The classification of Indian territory into states and union territories implies a uniform
application of constitutional provisions across all states.
Statement II: The existence of special provisions for certain states and scheduled areas highlights the Indian
Constitution's flexibility in addressing regional and cultural diversity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II explains Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-l is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q14. Consider the following situations concerning the incorporation of territory:
1. The entire population of a new territory automatically becomes citizens.
2. The population in the new territory maintains citizenship of the previous country while becoming a
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citizen of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q15. With reference to the concept of citizenship in the Indian Constitution, consider the following
statements:
1. Indian citizens owe allegiance only to the Union and not to individual states.
2. The Constitution deals with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship after its commencement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q16. With reference to the 'Overseas Citizen of India Cardholders', consider the following statements:
1. Registration of an OCI Cardholder can be canceled if he/she has shown disaffection towards the
Constitution of India.
2. An OCI Cardholder is eligible to vote in Indian elections.
3. Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) Cardholders are eligible for appointment as teaching faculty in IITs and
Central Universities.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
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c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q17. Which of the following statements is not a feature of the Fundamental Rights as described in the Indian
Constitution?
a) Some rights are available only to citizens, while others are available to all persons.
b) Fundamental Rights are absolute and cannot be restricted by the state.
c) Fundamental Rights can be enforced against arbitrary actions of the state.
d) They can be suspended during a National Emergency except rights under Articles 20 and 21.
Q18. With reference to Rights and Duties, which of the following statements is incorrect?
a) Rights safeguard individual interests while Duties promote societal harmony.
b) Rights are obligations upon state while Duties are claims of citizens against state.
c) Rights provide legal entitlements while Duties reflect moral obligations.
d) Rights can be restricted by the State while Duties can be enforced by the State.
Q19. The purpose of defining 'State' in Article 12 is to:
1. Ensure accountability of governmental and non-governmental entities for potential violations of
Fundamental Rights
2. Clarify the distinction between the executive and legislative functions of the State
3. Limit the power of the judiciary
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
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Q20. Consider the following pairs:
[Article] [Subject Matter]
1. Article 14 - Right to peacefully assemble and hold processions without arms.
2. Article 16(4) - Reservation for SC and ST in public employment
3. Article 26(c) - Right to acquire movable and immovable property by religious
denomination
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Q21. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Even a custom or usage having the force of law can be challenged in the courts for violating
Fundamental Rights.
Reason (R): Article 13 considers a wide range of legal instruments, including non-legislative sources, as 'law'
to assess their consistency with Fundamental Rights.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Q22. With reference to the Mandal Commission, consider the following statements:
1. It was appointed in line with the terms of Article 340 of the Constitution.
2. It recommended reservation for SCs and STs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
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a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q23. With reference to the prohibition of discrimination under Article 15 of Indian Constitution, consider the
following statements:
1. The state is permitted to make special provisions for women and children.
2. The state is permitted to make special provisions for the advancement of any socially and educationally
backward classes of citizens.
3. The state is permitted to make special provisions for citizens with foreign nationality.
4. The state can legislate for the reservation of jobs in the private sector for economically weaker sections.
How many of the given statements are correct ?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Q24. With reference to the Rule of Law, consider the following statements:
1. The 'Rule of Law', embodied in Article 14, is a part of the basic structure of the Indian Constitution.
2. It permits arbitrary power as long as it does not affect individual rights.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q25. With reference to Article 18, consider the following statements:
1. It prohibits the state from conferring an academic distinction on a foreigner.
2. National awards like Padma Shri and Padma Bhushan are not considered as titles under Article 18.
3. It reinforces the Preamble's objective of securing equality of status and opportunity for all citizens
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q26. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the Fundamental Right given in Article 19 of the
Constitution of India?
a) It includes the freedom of the press.
b) The State can impose reasonable restrictions on this right in the interest of the sovereignty and integrity
of India.
c) It includes the right to strike.
d) It is available only to the citizens of India.
Q27. Which of the following statements is incorrect with regard to the Right to Constitutional Remedies
provided in the Article 32 of the Constitution of India ?
a) It empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
b) It is considered the heart and soul of the Indian Constitution.
c) It allows an aggrieved individual to directly approach the High Court, bypassing the lower courts, for the
enforcement of their Fundamental Rights.
d) It is a Fundamental Right in itself, guaranteeing citizens the right to seek judicial protection of their other
Fundamental Rights.
Q28. What was the effect of the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 on the right to property in India?
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a) It confirmed the right to property as a fundamental right, enhancing its protection under the
Constitution.
b) It abolished the right to property as a fundamental right, making it a constitutional/legal right instead.
c) Article 301 was inserted in the Constitution of India.
d) It removed Articles 31A, 31B, and 31C, thereby completely abolishing the right to property from the
Constitution.
Q29. With reference to the Right to be Forgotten, consider the following statements:
1. It refers to the individual’s ability to have one’s digital footprint removed or erased.
2. In India, the IT Act of 2000 explicitly provides for the right to be forgotten.
3. The right to be forgotten is an inherent aspect of the right to privacy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q30. Although the Indian Constitution does not contain any classification of Directive Principles. However,
on the basis of their content and direction, they can be classified into certain broad categories. In this
context consider the following Directive Principles:
1. Securing for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the country.
2. Protecting the environment and promoting afforestation.
3. Using scientific methods in agriculture and animal husbandry.
Above mentioned Directive Principles are a part of which of the following categories?
a) Socialist Principles
b) Gandhian Principles
c) Liberal-Intellectual Principles
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d) None
Q31. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Political experts like K.T. Shah compared the Directive Principles of State Policy to ‘a cheque
on a bank, payable only when the resources of the bank permit’.
Statement-II: Article 37 of the Constitution states that these principles are fundamental in the governance of
the country.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II explains Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q32. Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes Fundamental Rights from Directive
Principles of State Policy in terms of their nature?
a) Fundamental Rights are positive as they require the State to do certain things; Directive Principles are
negative as they prohibit certain actions.
b) Fundamental Rights are justiciable and legally enforceable; Directive Principles are non-justiciable and
not legally enforceable.
c) Fundamental Rights aim at social and economic democracy; Directive Principles aim at political
democracy.
d) Both are enforceable by the courts in case of violation.
Q33. Consider the following pairs:
[Item 1] [Item 2]
1. Champakam Dorairajan case (1951) - Directive Principles subordinate to
Fundamental Rights
2. Golaknath case (1967) - Fundamental Rights are sacrosanct
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3. 25th Amendment Act (1971) - Introduced Article 31C
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Q34. Which one of the following legislations in India directly implements the directive mentioned in Article
47 under Part IV of Indian Constitution?
a) Right to Education Act (RTE), 2006
b) Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005
d) National Food Security Act, 2013
Q35. With reference to Fundamental duties, consider the following statements:
1. Fundamental Duties are applicable only to Indian citizens and not to foreigners.
2. Like the Directive Principles, Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable and cannot be enforced by the
courts directly.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q36. Which of the following legal provisions give effect to some of the Fundamental Duties enshrined in the
Constitution?
1. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act of 1967
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2. The Representation of People Act of 1951
3. The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act of 1971
Select the correct code
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2 and 3 only
Q37. Consider the following statements about the significance of Fundamental Duties:
1. They create a feeling that citizens are active participants in national goals.
2. They ensure equality and freedom by themselves.
3. They aim to strengthen democracy by balancing rights and duties.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q38. Consider the following statements about the principle of Judicial Supremacy as a feature of the Indian
Constitution:
1. The Constitution grants the Supreme Court the power to interpret the law and review the
constitutionality of legislation.
2. The Constitution mandates that judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the
President, ensuring their independence from the executive branch.
3. The Constitution provides for the removal of judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts through a
rigorous impeachment process.
4. The Constitution empowers the judiciary to issue writs to enforce Fundamental Rights and provide
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remedies against government actions.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) All four
d) None
Q39. How does the application of the Separation of Powers principle differ in a parliamentary system like
India compared to a presidential system like the USA?
a) Both parliamentary and presidential systems apply the Separation of Powers principle identically, with
clear and distinct roles for the legislature, executive, and judiciary.
b) In a parliamentary system, the judiciary is completely subordinate to the executive, while in a
presidential system, it operates independently with no oversight from the legislature.
c) Parliamentary systems typically have a stronger head of state with unlimited powers, while presidential
systems grant significant executive powers to the head of state, making them both head of state and head
of government.
d) In a parliamentary system, the executive is drawn from and accountable to the legislature, while a
presidential system maintains a stricter separation with independent elections for the executive and
legislature.
Q40. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate
definition of Social Justice?
a) Equal treatment of all citizens without discrimination between people on the basis of economic factors
b) Absence of privileges being extended to any particular section of the society, and improvement in the
conditions of backward classes
c) Providing opportunities for the development of selected personalities.
d) Providing all citizens equal access to all political offices and equal voice in the government
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Q41. "It refers to a political system in which the supreme power lies with the citizens who elect
representatives to govern on their behalf. This system emphasizes the rule of law, the separation of powers,
and the protection of individual rights and freedoms, ensuring that no single entity holds absolute
authority."
Which of the following is described in the above paragraph?
a) Totalitarianism
b) Federalism
c) Republic
d) Sovereignty
Q42. Which of the following statements correctly identifies the difference between a "Nation" and a
"State"?
a) A Nation is primarily defined by its legal and political structure, while a State is characterized by its
collective beliefs and aspirations of its people.
b) A Nation is a legal entity that fulfills the security needs of its citizens, while a State is merely an
administrative unit without cultural significance.
c) Every Nation is necessarily a State, but every State is not necessarily a Nation.
d) A Nation consists of a community of people linked by shared beliefs, while a State is a political entity that
includes government, territory, and sovereignty.
Q43. Which of the following statements accurately describes the difference between the 'Territory of India'
and the 'Union of India'?
a) The 'Territory of India' signifies the Union's authority to alter its borders, while the 'Union of India'
indicates the potentially destructible nature of the Indian state.
b) The 'Union of India' has formal recognition under the Indian Constitution, whereas the 'Territory of India'
is nowhere acknowledged in it.
c) The 'Union of India' is a broader term than the 'Territory of India.'
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d) The 'Union of India' refers to the federal relationship between the Union and states only, while the
'Territory of India' encompasses not only states but also Union Territories and other territories acquired by
India.
Q44. Consider the following statements:
1. When the citizen has obtained the citizenship by fraud.
2. When the citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India.
3. When the citizen has been engaged in an unlawful communication with an enemy during a time of war.
In how many of the above cases, there will be a compulsory termination of Indian citizenship?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Q45. With reference to the the acquisition of citizenship through naturalization in India, consider the
following statements:
1. Parliament has the power to grant a certificate of naturalization to any person.
2. Any person can acquire citizenship by naturalization if he/she is ordinarily a resident of India for 6 years.
Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q46. With reference to the writ of mandamus, consider the following statements:
1. It compels a public official to perform a mandatory duty which they have failed to execute.
2. It can be issued against private individuals or bodies for neglecting public duties.
3. It is used to prevent a lower court from exceeding its jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Q47. With reference to the Directive Principles of State Policy, consider the following statements:
1. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to
establish Social and Economic Democracy.
2. Harmonious balance between the Directive Principles of State Policy and the Fundamental Rights is part
of 'basic structure' of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q48. With reference to the concept of 'Police State', consider the following statements:
1. Its main objective is the establishment of economic and social democracy in a country.
2. In a police state, citizens are usually allowed to express dissenting opinions freely.
3. This concept is based on the theory of Laissez-Faire.
How many of the above statements are correct ?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
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Q49. Consider the following statements:
1. Framers of the constitution incorporated the duties of the State in the Constitution in the form of
Directive principles of state policy.
2. Fundamental duties serve as a warning against anti national and anti social activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q50. Consider the following statements regarding Basic Structure of the Indian Constitution:
1. The basic structure doctrine actively promotes the doctrine of judicial supremacy in India.
2. High courts in India are empowered to strike down only those laws that violate basic structure of the
constitution.
3. The bill amending the basic structure of the constitution cannot be initiated by the state legislative
assemblies.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
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