SMART MDCAT COACHING

SMART MDCAT FLP TEST 01

Number of MCQS=200
Timer for online test= 200 min
Pattern of test= PMC
Test type= Full syllabus
MCQS= Keys and Explanation
Conducted= On Google forms through WhatsApp group
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BIOLOGY SECTION
1.Viruses utilize the biosynthetic machinery of ______for the synthesis of their own nucleic
acid and protein.

(A) Host (B) Own

(C) Both A and B (D) None

2.The retrovirus has a special enzyme called

(A) Transcriptase (B) Cellulase

(C) Reverse transcriptase (D) Ligase

3.Viruses may not replicate in

(A) Blood cell (B) Blood plasma

(C) Skin cell (D) Hepatocytes

4.WOF is false statement about viruses?

(A) Viruses contain both DNA and RNA (B) Viruses are non-cellular

(C) No independent metabolic activities (D) Tiny and infectious agents

5.Chloropyll a is ____ and Chlorophyll b is a ____

(A) Blue-violet; Yellow-green (B) Blue-green; Yellow-green

(C) Blue-green; Blue violet (D) Blue-violet; Yellow-blue

6.Accessory photosynthetic pigment is

(A) Carotenoid (B) Chlorophyll a

(C) Chlorophyll b (D) Both A and C

7.The end products of alcoholic fermentation and lactic acid fermentation are;

(A) Ethanol, Pyruvic acid (B) Ethanol, lactic acid

(C) Methanol, Pyruvic acid (D) Methanol, Lactic acid

8.Which is not true about non cyclic electron pathway?

(A) It absorbs photons in PS1 (B) It is a long pathway

(C) It produces ATP (D) Carbon dioxide fixation

9.Difference between respiration and combustion is that respiration being;

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(A) Multistep reaction (B) Intracellular

(C) Enzyme controlled (D) All of the above

10.In cyclic phosphorylation the products are

(A) FADH (B) ATP

(C) ATP and NADPH (D) NADPH

11.The bond responsible for energy storage in lipid is

(A) C-H (B) C-N

(C) C=O (D) C-O

12.Two mono-saccharides are joint through a ____ bond called _____ bond

(A) Covalent, Glycosidic (B) Covalent, Disulphide

(C) Ionic, Glycosidic (D) ionic, Disulphide

13.Which class of carbohydrate is considered as non-sugar.

(A) Mono-saccharides (B) Disaccharides

(C) Polysaccharides (D) Oligosaccharides

14.Polar molecules can readily dissolve in water. This is because;

(A) Polar molecule can form H-bond with water.

(B) Polar molecules can replace water-water interaction with more energetically fav inter;

(C) Polar charged water can interact with other charged molecules
(D) All polar molecules are amphipathic in nature.

15.Water is liquid at room T the most important reason for this is;

(A) High BP of water (B) high MP of water

(C) High heat of vaporization of water (D) Cohesive force in water

16.WOF does not reside in nucleus?

(A) DNA (B) Chromosome

(C) Protein (D) RNA

17.The entire cell wall of prokaryotic cell is often regarded as;

(A) Sacculus (B) Chitin

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(C) Murien (D) None

18.A special protein carrier in plasma membrane is

(A) Catalaze (B) Lipase

(C) permease (D) Arginase

19.WOF modifies lipids and proteins?

(A) Golgi body (B) Mitochondria

(C) Ribosomes (D) SER

20.WOF does not possess lysosome?

(A) Animal cells (B) Erythrocytes

(C) Hepatocytes (D) Muscle cells

21.The cytoplasmic processes which carry impulses towards the cell body is

(A) Axon (B) Dendron

(C) Cell body (D) Myelin sheath

22. WOF is the direction of stimulus in reflex circuit?

(A) Motor neuron-sensory neuron-associative neuron

(B) sensory neuron-motor neuron-associative neuron

(C) sensory neuron-associative neuron-motor neuron

(D) none
23.The net difference in charge between inner and outer surface of non-conducting neuron is
called;

(A) Electrical potential (B) Membrane potential

(C) Resting membrane potential (D) None

24.When an impulse reaches synaptic knob, the synaptic vesicle fuses with;
(A) Postsynaptic membrane (B) Presynaptic membrane

(C) Neurotransmitter (D) Synaptic cleft

25.Speed of the impulse conduction depends upon

(A) Diameter of axon (B) Myelinated sheath

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(C) Both A and B (D) Axon branches

26. If somatotropin is produced in excess during early life, it leads to

(A) gigantism (B) dwarfism

(C) thick skin (D) hirsutism

27.Prolactin stimulates

(A) Egg production (B) Milk production

(C) Food production in uterus (D) Rupturing of egg

28.Excess MSH is secreted in disease

(A) Addison's disease (B) Epilepsy

(C) Gigantism (D) Crushing's disease

29.insulin inhibits the

(A) Hydrolysis of glycogen (B) Cell utilization of glucose

(C) Low level of blood sugar (D) Conversion of glucose into lipid and protein.

30.All of the following are triploblastic except;

(A) Amphibian (B) Mollusca

(C) Coelenterate (D) Echinodermata

31.Round worms are classified as

(A) Acelomates (B) Pseudo coelomate

(C) Coelomate (D) Deuterostome

32.In annelids which type of blood circulatory system is present?

(A) Closed blood circulatory system (B) Open blood circulatory system

(C) Both A and B (D) None

33.The process of shedding of exoskeleton is called

(A) Ecdysis (B) Ecdysome

(C) Thyroxine (D) Triiodothyronine

34.All of the following are cartilaginous fish except

(A) Dog fish (B) Cod fish

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(C) Ray (D) Skates

35.Non-protein part of enzyme is known as

(A) Co-factor (B) Activator

(C) Holoenzyme (D) Coenzyme

36.Some enzymes are involved in the synthesis of protein, are integral part of

(A) Mitochondria (B) Ribosomes

(C) EPR (D) Nucleus

37.WOF is an inhibitor in a chemical reaction

(A) Cyanide (B) Antibodies

(C) Anti-metabolities (D) All of the above

38."Changes in an organism are influenced by what the organism wants and then over many
generations of the offspring are born with these changes."
This statement was proposed by__

(A) Darwin (B) Lamarck

(C) Mendel (D) Wallace

39.Darwin's theory is also known as

(A) Theory of independent assortment (B) Theory of natural selection

(C) Theory of segregation (D) Theory of extinction

40.Choose the correct option

(A) Darwin--survival of the fittest (B) Darwin--no extinction

(C) Lamarck--acquired transmission (D) Both A and C

41.All the hens living in a region are true breeding white in color. The allele for the trait is to
be
(A) Fixed in gene pool (B) mobile in gene pool

(C) Random in gene pool (D) Stationary in gene pool

42.WOF perfectly describes immunity?

(A) The capacity to recognize any foreign invader

(B) Mobilization of cell and cell products to destroy foreign invader

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(C) A and B

(D) None
43.Monocyte differentiate into

(A) T cells (B) B cells

(C) Macrophages (D) Neutrophils

44.Humoral immunity is responsible for circulation of ___ throughout the blood

(A) Antibodies (B) Antigens

(C) Killer cells (D) Macrophages

45.A person has undergone tissue transplant. But his body experience rejection to the tissue.
This type is called?

(A) Humoral immunity (B) Phagocytosis

(C) cell mediated immunity (D) Antigen specific immunity

46.Artifically induced immunity involves

(A) Introduction of antigens in the body (B) Introduction of antibodies in the body

(C) Introduction of antiserum in body (D) All off the above

47.The association with the root of higher plants help____ uptake by the plants.

(A) Water (B) Mineral

(C) Both A and B (D) None

48.In human, in addition to circulatory system, there is another transport system called;
(A) Respiratory system (B) Excretory system

(C) Lymphatic system (D) Digestive

49. The right atrium receives ____ blood through____

(A) Deoxygenated, vena cava (B) Oxygenated, Vena cava

(C) Deoxygenated, Aorta (D) Oxygenated, Aorta

50.The valves between right atrium and right ventricle is

(A) Bicuspid (B) Tricuspid

(C) A and B (D) None

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51.The relaxed phase of heart is

(A) Systole (B) Diastole

(C) Distension (D) None

52.WOF is found in all bacteria?

(A) Granules (B) Slime

(C) flagella (D) Ribosome

53.Example of rod shaped bacteria

(A) Bacillius (B) Vibrio

(C) staphylococcus (D) Hyphomicobactarium

54.Bacterial endospore functions in

(A) Reproduction (B) Storage

(C) Survival (D) Protein synthesis

55.In human, only one ovum is usually discharged from the ovary at one time, this
mechanism is termed as

(A) ovulation (B) Fertilization

(C) Corpus Leutenum (D) Menstrual cycle

56.In which part of oviduct does the fertilization take place?

(A) Proximal (B) Distal

(C) In between proximal and distal (D) None

57.One follicle fully grows, while the rest broken down by regenerative phase. This process is

(A) Death of follicle (B) Atresia

(C) Epelipsia (D) Uterine distribution

58.Estrogen inhibits the secretion of

(A) LH (B) FSH

(C) Progestrone (D) Androgen

59.Follicle cells after releasing the egg, modified to form a

(A) Graffian follicle (B) Corpus leutenum

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(C) Fetus (D) Endometrial layer

60.Myoglobin is present in ____ of skeletal muscle fiber.

(A) Sarcoplasmic reticulum (B) Nucleus

(C) Scrolemma (D) Sarcoplasm

61.All or no response is based upon:

(A) All muscle fiber participates in contraction

(B) All myofilaments contract together

(C) All myofibril contract togather

(D) The whole muscle bundle participates in contration

62. Tetanus is caused by

(A) Low level of Ca (B) Aerobic bacterium

(C) Anaerobic bacterium (D) Virus

63.Each myosin is surrounded by_____ actin filaments.

(A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 9 (D) 2

64. WOF is not ball and socket joint?

(A) Knee joint (B) Hip joint

(C) Shoulder joint (D) None

65.When two contrasting pairs of traits are followed together in the same cross, alleles in
each pair are inherited or assorted independently into gametes is Mendel's principal of;

(A) Law of segregation (B) Law of independent assortment

(C) Law of dominance (D) Law of unit character

66.Different alleles of a gene that are both expressed in a heterozygous condition is called;
(A) Codominance (B) Incomplete dominance

(C) Over dominance (D) Complete dominance

67.If a defective gene occurs on the X chromosome, it will normally be transmitted to male
offspring only by the;

(A) Mother (B) Father

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(C) Segregation (D) Mutation

68.What is the risk of Hemophilic baby boy when mother is colorblind, and father is normal?
(A) 0 percent (B) 25 percent

(C) 50 percent (D) 100 percent

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CHEMISTRY SECTION
69. WOF compounds has the highest percentage of oxygen?

(A) CH3CO2H (B) CH3OH

(C) H2O (D) C6H12O6

70. 1 mole of Mg contains mass 24g. calculate the mass of one mg atom in grams.

(A) 6.02x10^23 (B) 3.97x10^-23

(C) 6.02x10^23 (D) 3.97x10^23

71.the magnetic quantum number for p-orbital is;
(A) 1 (B) +1, 0, -1

(C) +1, 0 (D) None

72. WOF statement is not true?

(A) The e/m value for positive rays can be different for different gases.
(B) The type of gas used has no effect on cathode rays

(C) The e/m value for cathode rays from H gas is 1836 more than that of cathode rays

(D) All are true

73. What is the value of Azimuthal quantum number for d subshell?

(A) 0 (B) 1

(C) 2 (D) 3

74. Formula (2l+1) is used to determine;

(A) number of electrons in shells (B) Number of electrons in subshells

(C) Number of orbitals in subshell (D) number of subshells in shells.

75. WOF statement of Avogadro's hypothesis is true?

(A) The volume of the gas is directly proportional to the density of gas

(B) The varying pressure is directly proportional to the density of gas

(C) Atomic or molar mass is directly proportional to the density of gas

(D) The varying T is directly proportional to the density of gas

76. A gas behaves mostly ideally at;

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(A) high T and low P (B) Low T and high P

(C) high P and high T (D) Low P and low T

77. At higher altitudes the BP of water;

(A) same (B) increases

(C) decreases (D) none

78.A constant mass of a gas occupies volume of x cm3 at 10c. Provided the pressure of the gas
is kept constant at what T will the V of the gas become 15x cm3?

(A) 15C (B) 151.5C

(C) 424.5C (D) 6.67C

79. The molar gas constant R has a value of

(A) 8.31KJ/mole (B) 62.4 dm3 torr K-1 mol-1

(C) 0.0821dm3 torr k-1 mol-1 (D) 760mm hg k-1 mol-1

80. Among the following which does not exist in allotrope?

(A) Carbon (B) Sulpher

(C) Tin (D) silver

81.WOF is not prostate of Kinetic particle theory?

(A) The pressure exerted on the walls of container is due to the collision of gas particles.

(B) The gas particles have negligible mass and volume as compared to the container.

(C) The velocity of all gas particles is not same.

(D) The collision of particles suffers no energy loss.

82. WOF shows anisotropic properties?

(A) Diamond (B) Graphite

(C) Sodium chloride (D) Steel

83. Ammonia is widely used manufacture fertilizers and explosives. The Haber-Bosch process
is used to produce tremendous amount of Ammonia out of nitrogen gas and H gas under high
P.
N2(g) + 3H2(g) -------- 2NH3(g) ΔH= -92.6kj/mol

If we apply Le Chatelier's principle, then WOF statement is true?

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(A) Extracting more ammonia out will shift the reaction to left.

(B) Increasing T will shift reaction to right.

(C) Adding more N2 and H2 will shift the reaction to right.

(D) None

84. What about Kc is not true?

(A) It is the ratio of rate of formation of product and rate of decomposition of reactant.
(B) It has no fixed units.

(C) T changes will affect the equilibrium position.

(D) All are true statements.

85. The solubility of NH4Cl in NH4OH is less than its solubility in pure water because;
(A) NH4Cl forms complex with water (B) Common ion effect

(C) Formation of acidic buffer (D) Ksp of NH4cl is less than NH4OH

86. 75 % of a first order reaction is completed in 36 min. What is the half life of reaction?

(A) 27 min (B) 24 min

(C) 18 min (D) 42 min

87. What is true for zero order reaction?

(A) The rate of reaction is equal to rate constant. (B) The half life is constant

(C) The rate of reaction does not depend upon T (D) None
88. In the given energy diagram. WOF is rate determining step?

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(A) A-B (B) B-C

(C) C-D (D) D-E

89. 2 moles of x substance were burnt. It gave off 8.36j of energy. What is the energy released
in cal/mol?
(A) 1 cal/mol (B) 2 cal/mol

(C) 4.18 cal/mol (D) 8.36 cal/mol

90. What is true about enthalpy of O2 at standard conditions?

(A) It is negative (B) It is positive

(C) It is unity (D) it is zero

91. WOF statement is incorrect?

(A) When ammonium chloride is dissolved in water T of solution falls.

(B) Neutralization reaction is always exothermic.

(C) Bomb calorimeter is used to determine absolute value of enthalpy.

(D) Most spontaneous reactions are exothermic

92. WOF is not a state function?

(A) Internal energy (B) Entropy

(C) Work (D) Temperature

93. What is total heat content of system?

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(A) Internal energy (B) Heat

(C) Work (D) Enthalpy

94. Born Haber cycle is application of ___________

(A) 1st law of thermodynamics (B) Hess's law

(C) Oswald's law (D) Carnot's law

95. In electrolysis of CuSO4 what happens to cathode and anode rays?

(A) cathode =increase anode=decrease (B) cathode =decrease anode=increase

(B) cathode =decrease anode=increase (D) cathode = increase anode=increase

96.WOF is worst conductor of electricity?

(A) Hg (B) Distilled water

(C) NaCl(l) (D) Dilute sugar solution

97. What is the true electron affinity of O-1

(A) It is always endothermic (B) It is always exothermic

(C) It can be endo or exo (D) It does not result in energy change

98. WOF has strongest force?

(A) Covalent attraction (B) Dipole dipole force

(C) Hydrogen bond (D) Ion induced force

99. WOF is correct according to increasing ionic radius?

(A) Li+<Na+<S-2>O-2 (B) Na+<S-2>Li+>O-2

(C) O-2<Na+>S-2<Li+ (D) Na+<O-2<S-2<Li+

100. WOF has highest MP?

(A) Mg (B) Be

(C) Li (D) Na

101. Reason for the decrease in the MP from VA to VIIIA is

(A) Strength of London forces (B) Number of electrons

(C) Due to presence of 3D network (D) None

102. Transition metals have

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(A) Magnetic properties (B) Incomplete d orbital system

(C) distinctive coloring (D) All of the above

103. WOF pair are isoelectric to each other?

(A) Fe+3, Mn+2 (B) Cr+3, Ti+2

(C) Cu+2, Ni+4 (D) Fe+2, Mn+2

104. Pyridine is an example of

(A) Alicyclic compound (B) Aromatic compound

(C) Cyclic compound (D) Non aromatic

105. Diethyl ether and ethyl alcohol are examples of

(A) Isomerism (B) catenation

(C) Hyberdization (D) Reforming
106. Which is not a cyclic compound?
(A) Benzene (B) Toluene

(C) Xylene (D) Hexane 107. Which is not the

107.characteristic of constitutional isomers?
(A) They differ on how atoms are connected.

(B) They have different IUPAC names.

(C) They have same physical and chemical properties.

(D) They may have same functional groups.

108. catalytic hydrogenation of alkenes exhibits;

(A) Condensation reaction

(B) Substitution reaction

(C) Elimination reaction

(D) Addition reaction

109. Alkanes are insoluble in

(A) Ether (B) Benzene

(C) Water (D) Carbon tetrachloride

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110. Benzene will undergo

(A) Addition reaction (B) Elimination reaction

(C) Substitution reaction (D) Condensation reaction

111. Which one is dehydrating agent?

(A) P4O10 (B) CaOCl2

(C) MgO2 (D) HNO3

112. Conversion of 2-butyne to cis 2-butene is done through;

(A) partial hydrogenation (B) Hydro halogenation

(C) Substitution (D) Nitrification

113. Sn2 reaction means;

(A) It is a two-step reaction (B) It undergoes bimolecular transition state

(C) It has racemic mixture of two products. (D) It is sp2 hybridized

114. In SN1 reaction;

(A) Molecules configuration is retained (B) Molecules configuration is inverted

(C) Both A and B (D) None

115. What functional group is added to alcohol to undergo esterification process.

(A) Water (B) Aldehyde

(C) Carboxylic acid (D) Ketone

116. WOF is secondary alcohol?

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(A) (B)

(C) (D)
117. WOF tests can not be useful in identifying aldehydes or ketones?

(A) Benedict's test (B) Tollen's test

(C) Felhing's test (D) Lucas test

118. What is the second step of two-step process of nucleophile addition in aldehydes and
ketones?

(A) Loss of leaving group (B) Electrophilic attack

(C) Nucleophilic attack (D) Protonation

119. By treating CO2 with Grignard's reagent following compound is obtained;

(A) Aromatic compounds (B) Alcohols

(C) Carboxylic acids (D) Ethers

120. Carboxylic acid is prepared by hydrolysis of nitrile in acid condition. If acetonitrile
undergoes hydrolysis, then what will be the product?

(A) Formic acid (B) Acetic acid

(C) Propionic acid (D) Nitric acid

121. Identify the following protein structure;

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(A) i) primary ii) β-pleated ii) a-pleated (B) i) Primary ii) Tertiary ii) Secondary

(C) i) Primary ii) Quaternary ii) Secondary (D) i) Primary ii) β-pleated iii) a-helix

122. Albumin and globulins are defined as;

(A) Simple protein (B) Derived proteins

(C) Conjugated proteins (D) Fibrous protein

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PHYSICS SECTION
123. Acceleration of this body will be;

(A) Zero (B) Constant

(C) Uniformly increasing (D) Uniformly decreasing

124. A car at rest starts moving with linear uniformly increasing velocity. After 20 seconds it
attains the max velocity of 80 m/s. What is the distance covered during this time?

(A) 200m (B) 400m

(C) 800m (D) 1600m

125. The range of projectile will be max when 2 θ=

(A) 30 (B) 45

(C) 90 (D) 60

126. What is decrease in KE, when the linear momentum of body decreases by 50%?

(A) 25% (B) 50%

(C) 75% (D) 125%
127. A bullet of 8g is fired from a rifle of mass 8kg moves with velocity 400m/s. Find the recoil
of the gun.

(A) 0.8m/s (B) 0.1m/s

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(C) 0.64m/s (D) 0.4m/s

128. A car travels at speed of 10m/s at first quarter of its journey and at 20m/s in the rest of
time of the journey. What is the avg speed?

(A) 15m/s (B) 20m/s

(C) 10m/s (D) 17.5m/s

129. Force-displacement graph area under the curve represents;

(A) Potential energy (B) Work done

(C) Power (D) Change in energy

130. A bag is dropped from the top of a building 15m high. At what height from the ground its
velocity will be14m/s

(A) 3m (B) 5m

(C) 10m (D) 12

131. The product of KE and PE of a bod is 4. If the mass of body is doubled then the product
become;
(A) 8 (B) 2

(C) 16 (D) No change

132. KwH is the unit of

(A) Energy (B) Power

(C) Temprature (D) Time

133. Energy stored by the water in a dam is

(A) KE (B) PE

(C) Flow energy (D) Elastic potential

134. A man whirl 15g stone around his hand by a 2m string. what is the force applied by the
stone on hand if it completes one rev around hand in 1s?

(A) 3/25 π (B) 0.12 π²

(C) 8/25 π (D) 1.2 π²

135. When a vehicle is moving in a straight path, suddenly turns, the max force will be
applied by

(A) front wheels (B) rare wheels

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(C) outer wheels (D) inner wheels

136. Equations of angular motion are applied when

(A) Displacement is uniform (B) velocity is uniform

(C) Acceleration is uniform (D) Axis of rotation is not fixed

137. A sea diver draws her legs and arms closer, while diving to make some more
somersaults, she does so because it helps her to;

(A) Increase angular velocity (B) Increase angular momentum

(C) Increase moment of inertia (D) All of these

138. If the radius of circle is increased, centripetal force will______

(A) Decrease (B) Increase

(C) Same (D) None

139. Waves produced on the surface of water in a lake are_______

(A) Transverse (B) Longitudinal

(C) Stationary (D) None

140. WOF is not transported by the waves?

(A) energy (B) Disturbance

(C) Matter (D) All of the above

141. What is the wavelength of following stationary wave?

(A) 2L/3 (B) 3L/2

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(C) L/2 (D) None

142. WOF does not affect the speed of sound wave?

(A) density (B) pressure

(C) Temperature (D) All of these
143. Both constructive and destructive interference between two waves takes place equally
when the waves are out of phase by

(A) 0 (B) 90

(C) 180 (D) Any angle

144. 1st law of thermodynamics deals with;

(A) Quality of energy (B) Quantity of energy

(C) Both A and B (D) None

145. WOF has one value of specific heat of capacity?

(A) Solid (B) Liquid

(C) Both A and B (D) Gases

146. The heat supplied to the gas at constant volume is;

(A) mCvΔT (B) mCv

(C) mCv/ΔT (D) mCpΔT
147. The ratio of specific heat of air at constant pressure and specific heat at constant volume
is;

(A) greater than one (B) less than one

(C) one (D) infinity

148. A system undergoes an isothermal contraction such that the pressure increases from
100kPa to 400 kPa and the volume of the system decreases from 4cm3 to 1cm3 then the
change in isothermal energy is;
(A) 4J (B) 40J

(C) 400J (D) Zero

149. Flux through an area will be max if the vector area is_______ to the field.

(A) Perpendicular (B) Parallel

(C) At any angle (D) Inclined
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150. The flux through any closed surface is ______ times the total charge enclosed in it.

(A) ϵ⋅ (B) 1/ ϵ⋅
(C) 1/ϵ⋅^2 (D) ϵ⋅^2
151. A proton is placed in a uniform electric field of 100N/C is allowed to go perpendicularly
through a distance of 10cm. What is its velocity?

(A) 400m/s (B) 4.4x10^4m/s

(C) 5x10^4m/s (D) 10^10m/s

152. How fast or slow a capacitor is charging or discharging depends upon

(A) Time constant (B) Capacitance

(C) Voltage (D) Current

153. If charges are doubled and distance between them is halved the Coulombic force will
become_____

(A) 16 times (B) 8 times

(C) 4 times (D) Double

154. Two parallel wires conducting current in the same direction;

(A) are equal (B) attract each other

(C) repel each other (D) none

155. If the resistances of 2 and 5 are connected in parallel. Equivalent resistance will be___

(A) 2/5 (B) 7/5

(C) 7 (D) 10/7

156. Wheatstone bridge is the practical application of

(A) Ohm's law (B) Coulomb's law

(C) Kirchhoff's rule (D) None

157. A charge of 72 C passes through a wire in 1 hour. What is the current in wire?

(A) 0.01 A (B) 3.6mA

(C) 0.02 A (D) 7.3mA

158. Reciprocal of resistance is called___

(A) Conductance (B) Conductivity

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(C) Resistivity (D) Coefficient

159. A uniform magnetic field is being directed into the page and an electron and a proton
are moving in circular orbits at equal speeds. using the fact, the proton is massive and
positive compared to electron which is negative, what can be said sizes of orbits and direction
of motion of two particles?

(A) e travels clockwise along the larger circle, while proton anticlockwise along smaller.

(B) e travels anticlockwise along smaller circle while proton travels clockwise along larger

(C) e travels clockwise along smaller while proton travels anticlockwise along smaller

(D) None

160. When does a magnetic field exert force on charged particle?

(A) Always (B) If particle is moving along the field lines.

(C) If particle is moving across the field lines. (D) If particle is at rest.

161. Work done by magnetic force is

(A) Zero (B) 1

(C) IVB (D) Infinite

162. A 5m wire is carrying the current of 2A is at right angle to the uniform magnetic field of
0.5T. The force on the wire is_____

(A) 2N (B) 20N

(C) 5N (D) 50N
163. An electron is projected along the axis of circular conductor carrying some current.
Electron will experience force along the_____

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(A) upward direction (B) Downward direction

(C) undeflected (D) none

164. The energy lost in transformer is due to__

(A) Hysteresis loss (B) Eddy's current

(C) Both A and b (D) None

165. Lenz's law states that;

(A) The product of current and resistance is constant and equals to the applied voltage.

(B) Induced EMF is directly proportional to change in flux.

(C) Direction of induced current is such that it opposes the cause which produces it.

(D) None
166. A step down transformer has a ratio of 20. Input of primary coil is 5A. Find the value of
current in secondary.
(A) 20A (B) 50A

(C) 100A (D) 110A

167. Number of diodes required for full wave rectification__

(A) 5 (B) 4

(C) 2 (D) 10

168. WOF remains constant during half wave rectification?

(A) Frequency of current (B) Time period

(C) Amplitude (D) All of these

169. The fluctuation in the rectified DC can be made smooth using filter circuit which uses a

(A) Capacitor (B) Resistor

(C) Inductor (D) None

170. In the given diagram, during the negative half cycle upper node is negative and lower
node is positive. Which of these diodes will be reverse biased?

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(A) D2, D4 (A) D2, D4

(C) D2, D3 (D) D1, D4

171. Energy of photoelectrons depend upon

(A) Current (B) Frequency

(C) type of metal (D) both B and C

172. The unit of Planck constant is same as that of__

(A) Power (B) Momentum

(C) Angular momentum (D) Angular frequency

173. The Balmer series lies in ____ region.

(A) UV (B) Visible

(C) Infrared (D) None

174. Hydrogen spectrum consists of line in

(A) UV (B) Visible

(C) Infrared (D) Far infrared

175. When beta particle is emitted out of any nucleus, its atomic number___

(A) Increases by one (B) Decreases by one

(C) Decreases by 2 (D) Remains same

176. The half life of a nucleus is 9.7 hours. What is its decay constant?

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(A) 1.99x10^-6 sec (B) 3.22x10^-5 sec

(C) 3.22xx10^-6 sec (D) 2x10^-5 sec

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ENGLISH SECTION
177. Choose the word that is most nearly similar in meaning to the word in capital letters:

BESEECH
(A) starving (B) implore

(C) weak (D) highly skilled

178. Choose the word that is most nearly similar in meaning to the word in capital letters:

RAVENOUS
(A) starving (B) implore

(C) easily broken (D) highly skilled

179. Choose the pair of words that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in
the pairs of words in capital

INTEREST: USURY
(A) frugal : fragile (B) enmity : friend

(C) sand : dune (D) frugality : parsimony

180. You____ try reading this book.

(A) Could (B) Be

(C) Are (D) Have

181. If you ______ not wish to wat the cookies, I ____ eat them.

(A) Do, would (B) Does, can

(C) Do, will (D) Does, shall

182. Ali ___ always there for you whenever you needed him.

(A) was (B) were

(C) is (D) have been

183. She____ going to college, but I ___ staying home.

(A) has, am (B) was, am

(C) were, am (D) is, am

184. Just____ the books on my desk.

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(A) leave (B) left

(C) stay (D) let

185. I could not get a seat in the front row ____ I came early.

(A) As (B) When

(C) Though (D) None

186. Alina hates kitchen work, ____ she can do any house work.
(A) or (B) nor

(C) when (D) if

187. You have to arrive at the station on time____ you will miss the train.

(A) therefore (B) if

(C) otherwise (D) because

188. We made it___ time.

(A) on (B) in

(C) at (D) through

189. When I'll sleep, I have to get my books____ the table.

(A) off (B) in

(C) into (D) onto

190. I have not seen Ramsha___ last month.

(A) since (B) for

(C) from (D) on

191. Come ____ the classroom with me.

(A) on (B) into

(C) onto (D) over

192. Choose the correct grammatically sentence:

(A) He does not go to the school. (B) He does go to school.

(C)He does not goes to school. (D) He do not go to school.

193. Choose the correct grammatically sentence:

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(A)She have lived in this house for all her life.

(B) She has lived in this house all her life.

(C)She have lived in this house all her life

(D) She has live in this house for all her life.

194. Choose the correct grammatically sentence:

(A) you have qualify the exam. (B) You qualified the exam.
(C) You did qualified the exam. (D) You did qualify the exam.

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LOGICAL REASIONING SECTION

195. Look carefully for the pattern, and then choose which pair of numbers comes next.

28 25 5 21 18 5 14
(A) 11 5 (B) 10 7

(C) 11 8 (D) 5 10

196. Look carefully for the pattern, and then choose which pair of numbers comes next

8 11 21 15 18 21 22
(A) 25 18 (B) 25 21

(C) 25 29 (D) 24 21

197. Look carefully for the pattern, and then choose which pair of numbers comes next
2 8 14 20 26 32 38

(A) 2 46 (B) 44 50

(C) 42 48 (D) 40 42
198. In these series, you will be looking at both the letter pattern and the number pattern. Fill
the blank in the middle of the series or end of the series.

SCD, TEF, UGH, ____, WKL

(A) CMN (B) UJI

(C) VIJ (D) IJT

199. In these series, you will be looking at both the letter pattern and the number pattern. Fill
the blank in the middle of the series or end of the series.

B2CD, _____, BCD4, B5CD, BC6D

(A) B2C2D (B) BC3D

(C) B2C3D (D) BCD7

200. I. The police authority has recently caught a group of house breakers.

II. The citizens group in the locality have started night vigil in the area.
(A) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect

(B) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect

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(C) Both the statements I and II are independent causes

(D) Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

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KEY & EXPLANATION

1. Virus is non-living outside the host cell. It utilizes the machinery of host for production of
nucleic acid and protein. A
2. It is an enzyme that catalyzes the transcription to form Viral DNA. C
3. Viruses can only replicate in living cells because they lack metabolic machinery. Blood without
blood cell is called "Blood plasma", hence viruses can't replicate in it. B
4. Viruses contain DNA or RNA, but not "DNA and RNA" both at once. A
5. Chloropyll a is blue green and chloropyll b is yellow green. Due to change in structure, they have
different colors. B
6. Both carotenoid and cholorophyll b are accessory pigments, they absorb light and transfer to
cholorophyll a. D
7. B
8. Carbon dioxide fixation does not take place in light-dependent reaction rather it takes place in
light-independent reaction. D

9. Combustion is not multistep, intracellular or enzyme controlled. All these are characteristics of
cellular respiration. D
10. B
11. C-H bonds are main source of energy in lipid molecules. A
12. A glycosidic bond is a type of covalent bond that joins carbohydrate molecule to another
carbohydrate molecule or other group of molecule. A
13. Polysaccharides are not sweet in taste, hence considered as non -sugar. C
14. Water reacts with polar molecules to get more energetically favorable molecule. B
15. D
16. Nucleus has chromosome in it. Chromosomes are composed of DNA and proteins. RNA is
found mainly in cytoplasm of cell, although it is usually synthesized in the nucleus. D
17. A
18. C
19. A
20. Erythrocytes cells lack nucleus along with other organelles to accommodate max oxygen. B
21. B
22. C
23. C
24. The nerve impulse travels from one neuron to another neuron through synapse. Nerve reaches
the end of the neuron called presynaptic membrane from where it travels to postsynaptic
membrane of second neuron. B
25. Speed of nerve impulse depends upon how thick the axon is and whether it is myelinated or
not. Myelinated neuron travels nerve impulse faster in the form of saltatory movement. C
26. Somatotropin is growth hormone. it promotes height. If produced in high quantity results in
gigantism. A
27. B
28. D
29. A
30. C

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31. B
32. A
33. A
34. Cod fish have bony skeleton. B
35. A
36. Cod fish have bony skeleton. B
37. D
38. B
39. B
40. D
41. If all the members of a population are homozygous for the same allele, that allele is said to be
FIXED in a gene pool. A
42. C
43. C
44. A
45. C
46. A
47. B
48. Lymphatic is also transport system in which lymph drains from tissue into the blood. C
49. A
50. B
51. B
52. D
53. A
54. C
55. A
56. A
57. B
58. B
59. B
60. D
61. All or no response states that all of its myofibrils take part in contraction. The degree of
contraction depends upon number of fibrils participate. C
62. C
63. B
64. A
65. B
66. A
67. X chromosome is passed from mother to son. Y chromosome is passed from father to son.
Daughter gets X chromosomes from both mother and father. A
68. The gene of hemophilia is located on x chromosomes of mother, since sons get their x
chromosome from mother only and there is no allele of hemophilia on Y chromosome. All the
sons will get the defective x chromosome from mother and become hemophilic. A
69. Formula for calculating percentage
mass of oxygen in compound/total mass of compound x 100 C

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70. Particles=m/M x 6.02x10^23

m=1xM/ 6.02x10^23
m=24/ 6.02x10^23= 3.97x10^-23 B
71. B
72. Since proton is 1836 heavier than an electron, the e/m value for positive rays should be 1836
lesser than that of cathode. C
73. The azimuthal quantum number l has the value 0,1,2,3 for s,p and d subshells respectively C
74. C
75. C
76. A
77. At higher altitude air pressure gets lower. Therefore, since the boiling points occurs only when
the vapour pressure of liquid equals atm pressure, the BP of water will generally be lower T at
higher altitudes.C
78. Using charles law we know;
v1/t1=v2/t2 (only applicable in K scale)
T2= 1.5x 285= 424.5k or 151.5C B
79. B
80. D
81. The particles are assumed to have neglibale volume as compared to the volume of container
but their masses are not negligable. D
82. Graphite shows anisotropic behaviour, because it conducts electricity in a direction parallel to
its layers only. None of the other substances shows anisotropic behaviour. B
83. C
84. D
85. B
86. 75%of completion of reaction means that two half lives have passed. Therefore the half life of
the reaction is 18 min
36/2= 18 min C
87. A
88. The rate determining is the slowest step of series of elementry reactions. it is described to have
highest activation energy. Higher the activation, slower will be reaction. In this figure highest is
C-D therefore it is rate determining step. C
89. 1 cal= 4.18 J so 2 moles of X gave 2 cal of energy.B
90. Enthalpy of pure substance at standard condition is always zero D
91. Bomb calorimeter is used to calculate enthalpy change of solution. C
92. C
93. D
94. B
95. At cathode, cu+2 ions are reduced to Cu and deposited, which increases its mass. At anode, the
Cu electrode oxidizes to give Cu+2, therefore its mass decreases. A
96. Distilled water because of the absence of ions. Water is only partially hydrolyzed to give H+ and
-OH ions, which are not sufficient enough to conduct electricity. B
97. A
98. Distilled water because of the absence of ions. Water is only partially hydrolyzed to give H+ and
-OH ions, which are not sufficient enough to conduct electricity. A
99. A

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100. B

1. Lighter molecules in these groups exist as small covalent molecules rather than 3D networks;
these small molecules have London forces. A
2. D
3. Fe+3= Ar - 4s2, 3d3
Mn+2=Ar- 4s2, 3d3 A
4. C
5. A
6. D
7. Constitutional isomer differ in the way atoms are connected. They have different chemical and
physical properties. C
8. D
9. Alkanes are insoluble in polar solvent like water. C
10. Aromatic compounds like benzene mostly undergo Electrophilic substitution reaction. C
11. A
12. A
13. SN2 reaction exhibits a second order kinetics when bimolecular transition state is generated and
both alkyl halide and nucleophile appear in the rate equation. B
14. As this reaction takes place in two steps, so there is 50% chance of both config; as there is space
for both left and right side of the carbon. C
15. Alcohol and carboxylic acid generate a fruity smell called esters and condensation of water
occurs. C
16. Phenol can not be described as alcohol because it has a benzene ring and also sp2 hybridized.C
17. Lucas test is a chemical test the classification of alcohol. D
18. A nucleophilic reaction in aldehyde and ketone is a 2 step process. The first step is nucleophile
attacks the carbonyl group in order to break the pi bond. The second step is "Protonation" where
H+ from reagent protonated the electron rich site to form an additional product. D
19. C
20. B
21. D
22. A
23. B
24. Vi=0
vf=vi+at
a= vf-vi/t
a= 80-0/20= 4m/s2

2as= vf2=vi2
S= (80)²/2x4
S= 800m C
25. C
26. P²=2m(KE)
as momentum decreases by 50% then
(0.5P)²= 2m (KE)
0.25 P² = 2m (KE)
Shows that KE remains 25% of the original, which means a 75% decrease.C

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27. V=mv/M
V=0.008x400/8
V= 0.4 m/s D
28. The time for 1st quarter of journey= t
The time for other 3 quarters of journey= 3t
Total time of journey= 4t

Speed in the first quarter wrt to time= v1=s1/t

Speed in the rest of three quarters of journey wrt to time= v2=s2/3t

Vavg= Total distance/ total time= s1+s2/4t= s1/4t+ s2/4t= v1/4+ 3v2/4=10/4+3x20/4= 17.5m/s
D
29. B
30. Loss in PE= Gain in KE
mg(h1-h2)= 1/2 mv²
9.8 (15-h2)= 1/2x 14²
H2= 5m B
31. When the mass of a body is doubled, its KE and PE become twice.
2KE x 2PE= 4
doubled
4KE x 4 PE= 16 C
32. A
33. B
34. 1 rev/s= 2π rad/s
Fc= mrw²
Fc= 0.12π² B
35. C
36. B
37. A
38. A
39. A
40. C
41. Total number of wavelengths in the length is 3λ/2
L=3λ/2 λ=2L/3 A
42. B
43. B
44. 1st law of thermodynamics states that total energy of a system remains constant. So it deals
with quantity of energy. B
45. All the incompressible substances have 1 value of specific heat capacity.C
46. Heat supplied to mass m of a gas to increase its T through ΔT is given as mCvΔT A
47. Cp/Cv=n=1.4 A
48. D
49. B
50. B
51. Energy required to move in an electric field;
W= qv

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where; V=Ed= 100 x 0.1= 10v

This energy is equal to KE of proton;
qv= 1/2mv²
q= charge on proton= 1.6x10^-19C
m= mass of proton= 1.67^10-27kg

solving for v gives,

V= 4.4x10^4m/s B
52. A
53. F=kq1q2/r^2
F= 2x2/(0.5)^2
F= 16 A
54. Reason is that same direction of current in wire produces the magnetic field which is cancelled
between the wires and force from the outer sides of the wire which causes them to come close
and attract. A
55. In parallel circuit
1/Req= 1/R1+ 1/R2
Req= R1R2/ R1+R2
Req= 10/7 A
56. C
57. C
58. A
59. Use the left hand rule to realize that e has to rotate clockwise and it is smaller in size, hence
travels along smaller circle C
60. C
61. magnetic force is merely a bending force and it only acts perpendicular to motion, so the work
done is zero. A
62. F=ILBSINa
F= 2x5x0.5= 5N A
63. A
64. C
65. C
66. Ns/Np= 1/20= Vs/Vp
Vs/Vp= Ip/Is
solving for Is
Is= 100A C
67. B
68. D
69. A
70. B
71. D
72. C
73. B
74. D
75. A

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76. half life= 9.7x3600s

we know that
decay constant=λT1/2=0.693
Substituting the values we get;
λ=2x10^-5 secD
77. B
78. A
79. D
80. A
81. we use do/does to complete negative present tense. Will is used to form a future simple tense.A
82. A
83. D
84. A
85. C
86. B
87. C
88. B
89. A
90. A
91. B
92. A
93. B
94. B
95. his is an alternating subtraction series with the interpolation of a random number, 5, as every
third number. In the subtraction series, 3 is subtracted, then 4, then 3, and so on. A
96. This is an alternating addition series, with a random number, 21, interpolated as every third
number. The addition series alternates between adding 3 and adding 4. The number 21 appears
after each number arrived at by adding 3. B
97. This is a simple addition series, which begins with 2 and adds 6.B
98. There are two alphabetical series here. The first series is with the first letters only: STUVW. The
second series involves the remaining letters: CD, EF, GH, IJ, KL C
99. Because the letters are the same, concentrate on the number series, which is a simple 2, 3, 4, 5,
6 series, and follows each letter in order

100. Both the statements are clearly backed by a common cause, which is clearly an increase in the
number of thefts in the locality D

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