CA 1

INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTION
[Link] Executive Department does not supervise and control the numerous correctional
institutions nationwide?
[Link]
[Link]
[Link]
[Link]

2. This pertains to the study of prisons and punishment management; the theory and
practice of how crime is punished, how prisoners are managed, and how rehabilitation is
handled -
A. Latin word POENA
B. penalty
C. penology
D. correction

3. The Head of the Bureau of Corrections is known as the _____ of the Bureau of
Corrections.
A. Chief
B. Director
C. Superintendent
D. Secretary

4. Nympha, a woman, was convicted of a crime punishable by not more than two years.
Since she is a woman, she will be imprisoned under the jurisdiction of
A. CIW
B. BuCor
C. BJMP
D. DSWD

5. What are the types of jails that are not run and managed under the DILG?
A. Provincial jails
B. City jails
C. District jails
D. None of the above

6. Provincial Jails were first established during the American regime. At present, who acts
as head of these jails?
A. Warden
B. Director
C. Provincial Governor
D. Provincial Director

[Link] designation for the key position as Chief, BJMP needs a rank of at least ______
A. Director General
B. Director
C. Chief Superintendent
D. Senior Superintendent

[Link] was originally constructed as a detention jail in Philadelphia and was converted into a
state prison which later became the first American Penitentiary.
A. Walnut Street Jail
B. Alcatraz prison
C. Auburn Prison
D. Elmira Reformatory

9. A place of confinement for persons awaiting trial or court action and where the
convicted offenders serve short sentences or penalty of imprisonment is known as -
A. Jail
B. Penitentiary
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 C. Gaols
D. Prison

10. The act of prisoner trying to convert or induce another to change his religious beliefs,
sect or the like to another while under confinement is referred to as -
A. Proselytizing
B. Fraternization
C. Initiation
D. Inducement

11. A warrant issued by the court bearing its seal and signature of the judge directing the
jail or prison authorities to receive the convicted offender for service of sentence or
detention is known as-
A. Mandamus
B. Mittimus
C. Warrant of Commitment
D. Commitment Notice

[Link] entrusting for confinement of an offender to a jail by competent court or authority

for investigation, trial and or service of sentence is referred to as -
A. Safekeeping
B. Imprisonment
C. Detention
D. Commitment

[Link] were abandoned or unusable ships, which were converted into prisons as a
means of relieving prison congestion and also known as “floating hells”
A. Galleys
B. Cisterns
C. Hulks
D. Ergastulum

14. Which among the following choices is true?

A. Correction is the weakest pillar of Philippine CJS
B. Penology is a broad study of punishment
C. The goal of correction at present is reformation and rehabilitation
D. All of these

15. Which of these refers to the assigning or grouping of offenders according to their
sentence, gender, age, nationality, health, criminal record, etc.?
A. Classification
B. Security
C. Safe Keeping
D. Diversification

16. A newly committed insular prisoner undergoes diagnosis and treatment as part of the
admission process. Where will this process be carried out?
A. Reception and Dialysis Center
B. Insular Prisoner Medical Center
C. Private or Government Hospitals to whom the Prison has MOA
D. None of these

17. Who is tasked with the gathering and collecting of information and other data of every
prisoner into a case study to determine the work assignment, the type supervision and
degree of custody and restriction under which an offender must live in jail?
A. Classification Board
B. Diagnostic Board
C. Custody and Treatment Board
D. Disciplinary Board

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18. It is organized and maintained in jails for the purpose of hearing disciplinary cases
involving violation of jail rules and regulations by the inmates.
A. Classification Board
B. Regulatory Board
C. Disciplinary Board
D. Custody and Treatment Board

19. The head of a District Jail who is responsible in its direction, supervision and control is
referred to as -
A. District Superintendent
B. Municipal Jail Warden
C. City Jail Warden
D. None of these

20. During movement or transfer of inmates, what is the standard inmate to jail officer
ratio to be observed?
A. 1:2
B. 1:5
C. 2:1+1
D. 1:1+1

21. If the inmate chose to stay in the place of confinement notwithstanding with the
existence of calamities or catastrophes, what is the period of deduction to be granted in
his favor under the new law?
A. One-fifth (1/5) of the period of his sentence
B. One-third (1/3) of the period of his sentence
C. Four-fifth (4/5) of the period of his sentence
D. Two-fifth (2/5) of the period of his sentence

22. In the City of Pines, Mrs. Beautiful was convicted of a felony punishable with arresto
mayor having a duration of 1 month and 1 day to 6 months. If she will be imprisoned
because of such conviction, what will be her classification as sentenced prisoner?
A. Municipal
B. National
C. Provincial
B. None of these

23. A device, contrivance, tool, or instrument used to hold back, keep in, check or control
an inmate must be under the prescribed standards. Instruments like this may include
which of the choices?
A. instrument of restraint
B. contraband
C. handcuff
D. jail break

24. The Auburn prison is well-known for its feature such as prisoners are confined in their
own individual cells during the night and congregate work in shops during the day. The
Pennsylvania prison system is otherwise known as -
A. Congratulation system
B. Congregate system
C. Solitary system
D. Separate system

25. The old name of Old Bilibid Prison which was first located in Manila prior to its transfer
at Muntinlupa was given by the Spaniards. For those inmates who wish to view the
remains of a deceased relative, they must first obtain ________.
A. court order
B. Carcel y Presidio Correccional
C. leave of court
D. May Halique Estate
26. What does it mean if an inmate is given a “shakedown” before admission?
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 A. Processing of record, taking fingerprint and photograph
B. Body search in order to check for contrabands
C. Validating his commitment paper
D. verification of his identity

27. These personnel provide a system of sound custody, security and control of inmates
and their movements and also responsible to enforce prison or jail discipline. (Eduardo,
2011).
A. escort platoon
B. security platoon
C. security group
D. disciplinary group

28. It was promulgated in 1433 as one of the most extensive and severe law that
describes harsh punishment in the Philippines.
A. Hammurabi Code
B. Kalantiao Code
C. Maragtas Code
D. Sumakwel Code

29. An inmate maybe granted parole based on which of the following grounds?
A. He has earned good conduct time allowance credit
B. He has served the minimum period of his sentence
C. He was certified by court with the recommendation of the DOJ Secretary
D. He was credited with good behavior while serving prison term

30. It is one form of punishment whereby convicts will serve some time in jail before being
released on probation or a combination of imprisonment and fine.
A. split sentence
B. shock imprisonment
C. shock incarceration
D. combined sentence

31. Aside from protecting the public, imprisonment has for its latest objective which is to
restore the person to his normal life that was damaged by his criminal or wrongful act.
This is meant by _______.
A. rehabilitation
B. reformation
C. deterrence
D. recovery

32. In the New Bilibid Prison, the medium security prisoners are provided with what color
of uniform?
A. Sampaguita brown
B. blue
C. tangerine
D. orange

33. An Act Prohibiting the Imposition of Death Penalty in the Philippines was approved on
what date?
A. R.A 9346
B. RA. 9436
C. July 26, 2008
D. June 24, 2006

34. The imprisonment of a convicted offender that is equivalent to serve eight pesos
(8.00) per day subject to certain rules, for failure to pay fine is called subsidiary
imprisonment while the deductible period of imprisonment from the sentence is ________.
A. Subsidiary imprisonment
B. Preventive Imprisonment
C. Secondary Imprisonment
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 D. Split sentence

35. Who among the following is not a classification of BJMP detainees?

A. Person undergoing investigation
B. Person awaiting or undergoing trial
C. Person who was issued judgment
D. None of these

36. The oldest penal colony in the Philippines can be one of the choices below whereas,
the
youngest is ________.
A. Leyte Regional Prison
B. San Maron Penal Farm
C. San Ramon Penal Colony
D. Iwahig Penal Colony

37. If the convict has no property with which to meet the fine mentioned by the law, he
shall be subject to a subsidiary personal liability at the rate of one day for each amount
equivalent to the highest minimum wage rate prevailing in the Philippines _________ of the
rendition of judgment of conviction by the trial court.
A. at the time
B. prior to the time
C. after the time
D. fifteen (15) days

38. Punishment is imposed to criminals with one of its purpose is to warn potential
offenders so that they may not commit the same other crimes. This justification of
punishment is known as -
A. expiation
B. deterrence
C. retribution
D. incapacitation

39. A monetary penalty imposed on an offender and paid to the court is not the question
but the practice of requiring offenders to financially compensate crime victims for the
damage the offenders caused refers to ________.
A. penalty
B. restitution
C. fine
D. blood money

40. Corporal punishment may include the following acts except -

A. mutilation
B. pillory
C. ducking stool
D. B and C

41. It pertains to the principle of separating homogeneous type of prisoners that requires
special treatment and custody.
A. classification
B. diversification
C. quarantine
B. modification

42. This refers to the process of assessing the prisoners in all aspects in order to
determine the appropriate reformation and rehabilitation programs applicable to them
A. classification
B. diversification
C. quarantine
D. casework

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43. The officials directed prisoners into productive activities including educational and
vocational-technical programs where their good behavior and productivity could earn them
time-off of their sentence. These are salient features of what is called to be the forerunner
of modern penology known as the ________.
A. Walnut Street Jail
B. Borstal Institution
C. Elmira Reformatory
D. New Gate Prison

44. The Corpus Juris Civilis which is literally translated as Body of Civil Law was
promulgated by whom?
A. Justinian I
B. Burgundian King
C. The Twelve Tables
D. Hammurabi

45. One reason of contemporary criminal punishment is to correct criminals and transform
their behavior rather than merely penalizing them. This statement is known as -
A. Reparation
B. Conversion
C. Reformation
D. Reprimand

46. Punishment after committing a crime is given with one of its purpose to make up for
misdeed or to make reparation for a mistake by the remorse or repentance of the offender.
This purpose of punishing a person pertains to -
A. expiation
B. retribution
C. penalization
D. realization

47. What is the most commonly used factor in diversifying prisoners?

A. age of the jailer/s
B. degree of custody
C. degree of education
D. health of the offenders

48. The putting of offenders in prison for the purpose of protecting the public and at the
same time rehabilitating them by requiring the latter to undergo institutional treatment
program is referred as-
A. Incarceration
B. rehabilitation
C. detention
D. moral lesson

49. Prisoners sentenced to more than three years are classified as-
A. Insular Constabulary
B. National Penitentiary
C. City Prisoner
D. None of the above
50. Public humiliation of criminals as form of punishment is also known as -
A. public execution
B. social degradation
C. banishment
D. retribution

51. During the 16th up to the 18th century, a criminal may be sent away from a place with
further prohibition to come or enter within a specified territory. What is this ancient form of
punishment?
A. exile
B. banishment
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 C. transportation
D. Either A or B

52. The theory in penal science which maintains that punishment gives lesson to the
offender and the would-be criminals is called-
A. deterrence or morality
B. deterrence or executory
C. deterrence or publicity
D. deterrence or exemplary

53. It is a special and lawful deduction of an inmate's penalty based on his conduct,
behavior or attitude inside the jail or prison.
A. Special Time Allowance
B. Good Conduct Time Allowance
C. Special Deduction Allowance
D. Special Conduct and Behavioral Allowance

54. Which among the following is not under the umbrella of DILG?
A. District Jails
B. Provincial Jails
C. City Jails
D. None of these

55. The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm, a National Penitentiary in the Philippines under
the BUCOR is located in ________.
A. Occidental Mindoro
B. Palawan
C. Davao
D. Zamboanga

56. In the history of correction, thinkers during the reformatory movement were the major
influences of today’s correctional system. One of this is the “mark system” which was
introduced by _______.
A. Zebulon Brockway
B. Alexander Maconochie
C. Walter Crofton
D. Pope Clement XI

57. What law known as An Act Prohibiting the Imposition of Death Penalty in the
Philippines?
A. R.A. 7659
B. R.A. 8177
C. R.A. 9346
D. R.A. 9263

58. What is the legal basis of changing the Bureau of Prison to Bureau of Correction?
A. R.A. 9263
B. E.O. 292
C. Proclamation no. 945
D. Both B and C

59. It is a house of correction in London which was anciently used for locking up,
employing and whipping beggars, prostitutes and other misfits. It also served as a
workhouse for vagabonds, idlers and rogues during that those times.
A. Gaol
B. hulks
C. Bridewell workhouse
D. Walnut Street Jail
60. In 1936, the City of Manila exchanges its Muntinlupa property with the Bureau of
Prisons originally intended as a site for boys’ training school. What is the Spanish name of
Old Bilibid Prison which is now being used as the Manila City Jail?
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 A. May Halique Estate
B. Carcel y Presidio Correccional
C. “Tandang Sora State”
D. Oroquieta Street Penitentiary

61. It was provided by the BJMP manual that the jail officers on duty should conduct
regular inmate count at least how many times within 24 hours?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. every 12 hours

62. In jails, the inmates’ welfare and development include the following activities EXCEPT -
A. livelihood
B. recreational
C. spiritual
D. technical

63. Which among the following choices is NOT a basis of release of a convicted inmate?
A. convalescence period
B. Court’s order
C. serious medical treatment
D. full service of sentence

64. He was once a sheriff of Bedfordshire in 1773 who devoted sometime of his life to
prison
reforms by recommending changes of prison systems and practices.
A. John Howard
B. William Penn
C. Zebulon Brockway
D. Alexander Maconochie

65. The classification procedure whereby prisoner’s case history is taken and his
personality is being studied through examination and observations pertains to -
A. treatment planning
B. observation
C. diagnosis
D. examination

66. What is the lawful thing to be done whenever an accused has undergone preventive
imprisonment for a period equal to the possible maximum imprisonment of the offense
charged to which he may be sentenced and his case is not yet terminated?
A. He shall be released immediately without prejudice to the continuation
of the trial thereof
B. He shall be adjudicated for the purpose of determining his criminal liability, if any
C. He shall be advised to apply for probation if not appeal
D. Any of the above

67. According to the new law on GCTA, at any time during the period of imprisonment, an
inmate shall be allowed another deduction of how many days for each month of rendering
study, teaching or mentoring service?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

68. Mr. Gwapo, while undergoing preventive imprisonment, escaped from his place of
incarceration due to a catastrophe but returned in the same institution within forty-eight
(48) hours. Can he claim special time allowance for loyalty?
A. No, because he is not a sentenced prisoner
B. No, because he only undergoing preventive imprisonment
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 C. Yes, because he is covered under the law
D. Yes, because he obeyed the Warden’s order to come back after within the said
period

69. Mr. Gago, while being a detention prisoner, was previously granted with good conduct
time allowance. He was convicted with the crime of which he was charged so he appealed
his case. Is he deprived to avail of allowances for good conduct?
A. Yes, because he was already convicted with the crime of which he was charged
B. Yes, because his filing of appeal forfeited his privilege of availing such
C. No, because no matter what, he has the right to appeal
D. No, because appeal made by the accused cannot deprive him of
entitlement to allowances for good conduct

70. The principle “eye for an eye and tooth for a tooth” in imposition of punishment is
found in _______.
A. Hammurabi Code
B. Code of Draco
C. Code of Kalantiao
D. Maragtas Code

71. Which of the following term best describes the essence of corporal punishment?
A. physical torture
B. barbaric punishment
C. reformative punishment
D. fatal measures

72. Which among the following is included in the fragmented system of Philippine
institutional corrections?
1. DOJ 2. DSWD 3. DND 4. DILG 5. DENR 6. DOF
A. 2, 3 & 4
B. 1, 2 & 4
C. 1, 4 & 6
D. 3, 4 & 5

73. Under the RA 10159, subsidiary penalty is equivalent to the ______ minimum wage rate
prevailing in the Philippines.
A. highest
B. lowest
C. ideal
A. moderate

74. It is the first U.S. prison exclusively for women established in 1837 in Ossining, New
York.
A. Mt. Pleasant Female Prison
B. Women's Correctional Institute
C. Mt. Carmel Correctional Center
D. New York's Women's Dormitory

75. The best term that is directly related to inmates’ diversification is _________.
A. classification
B. segregation
C. institutionalization
D. facilitation

76. Which among the following choices is true or nearly true?

A. Mittimus is issued usually after conviction
B. Commitment Order (CO) is only for light penalties
C. Mittimus is for prison, Commitment Order is for jail
D. CO is the most practical order being issued

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77. A residence or center designed to ease people back into society after their release
from an institution such as prison pertains to ________.
A. Placement center
B. Separation center
C. Halfway house
D. Pre-release house

78. Which of these refers to the assigning or grouping of offenders according to their
sentence, gender, age, nationality, health, criminal record, etc.?
A. Classification
B. Security
C. Custody
D. Diversification

79. In foreign settings, this pertains to a period of leave granted to a prisoner, usually as a
reward for good behavior and to reduce incarceration costs.
A. furlough
B. mark system
C. GCTA
D. special time allowance

80. Intermittent sentencing is famous in its other term known as-

A. “weekend jails”
B. “half-day break”
C. “vacation jails”
D. “jail leaves”

81. Where is the prisoner be incarcerated whose sentence is to serve more than 3 years of
imprisonment?
A. District Jail under BJMP
B. National prison under DILG
C. Municipal Jail under BJMP
D. None of the above

82. The ________ is for jails and ________ is for prisons.

A. Wardress, Superintendent
B. Director, Chief
C. inmate, detainee
D. DOJ, DILG

83. The court convicted Mr. Handsome a certain crime punishable by the Revised Penal
Code. During the promulgation of judgment, the court ordered the said convict to pay
5,000 pesos as a reimbursement of the hospitalization bill incurred by the victim. This
ordered payment is what type of civil damage?
A. Actual
B. Moral
C. Exemplary
D. Liquidated

84. What is the highest rank observed in the BJMP in accordance with its new structure?
A. Director General
B. Deputy Director General
C. Director
D. Chief Superintendent

85. PO2 Istiko, detained Lastiko for a crime punishable by correctional penalty. After the
lapse of 18 hours, the former failed to physically and personally deliver the latter to proper
judicial authorities. Is the former liable of “delay in the delivery of detained persons to
proper judicial authorities?”
A. Yes, because there is the overt act of “failure to deliver”
B. Yes, because that is the prescribed period for the said penalties
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 C. No, if lstiko was able to make the necessary actions to charge Lastiko
within the duration
D. No, because the prescribed duration for the said penalty is 36 hours

86. In relation to the preceding item, the proper judicial authorities being referred to
______.
A. Fiscals
B. Courts of justice
C. Lawyers of Public Attorney’s Office
D. Any of the above

87. The court ordered the immediate release of Miss Bibingka who is under the custody of
the law However, the jailer in charge with her custody refused to release her on account
that she is so beautiful to be always stared at by that concerned jailer. What is the liability
of the jailer?
A. Arbitrary Detention
B. Infidelity on the custody of prisoners
C. Delay in the delivery of detained person to proper judicial authorities
D. Delaying release

88. B, is outgoing jail officer guarding A. He is waiting for C to take over his post but he
was late for about 30 minutes. During the time when B is waiting for C, A escaped using
the backdoor which was left unlocked by B. Who is liable for the escape of A?
A. A, for the crime evasion through negligence
B. B, because A is still under his custody during the time of escape
C. C, because the escape happened during his shift; only that he was late
D. None, because turn-over of duty and responsibility did not take place

89. If the prisoner escapes through the negligence of the public officer, what is the degree
of gravity of penalty to be suffered by the latter?
A. Light penalties if the escapee is a detention prisoner
B. Less grave penalties if the escapee is sentenced prisoner
C. Penalties depend upon the gravity of crime committed by the escapee
D. The same penalty whether the escapee is a convict or a detention
prisoner

90. B was incarcerated in jail as a consequence of his criminal act. While his case is
pending, he successfully escaped from the custody of the said jail. His escape will make
him liable for what crime?
A. Evasion of service of sentence
B. Evasion through negligence
C. Conniving with or consenting to evasion
D. None of the above

91. If goal is to provide inmates with skills that will improve their eligibility for jobs upon
release, which among the following the programs of the Bureau of Corrections is
appropriate for this goal?
A. Work and Livelihood Services
B. Education and Skills Training
C. Sports and Recreation
D. Moral and Spiritual

92. This pertains specifically to a convicted drug offender who volunteered to undergo
treatment and rehabilitation at the Therapeutic Community Center (TCC), and is qualified
for admission
A. TCC client
B. TCC inmate
C. TCC respondent
D. TCC recipient

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93. The Bureau of Correction (BuCor) which is under the Department of Justice is headed
by a Secretary. Is this statement false?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Sometimes
D. It depends

94. What is the designation of the heads of the Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm, Sablayan
Prison and Penal Farm including the New Bilibid Prison?
A. Warden
B. Director
C. Superintendent
D. Chief

95. Upon admission in the Reception and Diagnostic Center, an inmate shall be placed in
the quarantine for how many days?
A. 5
B. 15
C. 30
D. 60

96. Which among the following choices belongs to minimum security classification of
inmates?
A. Those who have only six months more to serve before the expiration of
their maximum sentence
B. Those first-time offenders sentenced to life imprisonment who have already
served five (5) years in a maximum-security prison
C. Those who are criminally insane or those with severe personality or emotional
disorders that make them dangerous to fellow inmates or the prison staff
D. All of the above

97. An inmate who has been confirmed to be mentally abnormal or insane may be
transferred to a mental hospital. Who will authorize or approve the said transfer?
A. Director of Bureau of Corrections
B. Chief of the Reception and Diagnostic Center
C. Secretary of the Department of Justice
D. The court who issued the conviction

98. Medical facilities of prisons have their infirmaries in which these are utilized for what
purpose?
A. Caring and treatment of sick inmates
B. Medical check-up and other related services rendered to inmates
C. Laboratory testing for inmates
D. Counseling and other forms of spiritual activities

99. Ganda Linda, who just arrived from Hongkong, went to the New Bilibid Prison at 8:30 in
the evening to visit his brother who was imprisoned there to serve his life sentence. Is she
allowed to enter the compound for visiting purpose?
A. No, unless the President of the Republic of the Philippines will authorize her
B. No, because it is in violation of prison rules and/or policies
C. Yes, because it is a special case
D. Yes, because she is a woman and she is not considered dangerous

100. It is considered as the youngest penal farm under Bureau of Corrections.

A. Iwahig Penal Colony
B. Correctional Institute for Women
C. Leyte Regional Prison
D. Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm

101. It pertains to a law entitled “An Act Imposing Death Penalty on Certain Heinous
Crimes” and so considered as the Death Penalty Law in the Philippines.
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 A. RA 7659
B. RA 8177
C. RA 9346
D. RA 8355

102. Which among the following statement is true in the admission of inmates in prison?
A. It shall be made in an area that is physically separated from the general
prison population.
B. It shall be made in a shortest possible time to give no opportunity of escape
C. It shall be properly coordinated with the Secretary of Justice
D. It shall be immediately informed to the inmate’s family without unnecessary
delay

103. The following facts are the observations made by John Howard regarding the
conditions of prisons EXCEPT-
A. Unsanitary conditions of prisons
B. Jailers were not salaried officers
C. Prisoners have no personal counterparts for the salary of jailers
D. Prisoners acquitted by the courts are still kept in prison because they had not
paid their prison fees

104. A, B, C, and D were charged with the crimes of theft, robbery, homicide and murder
respectively. As a result, they were convicted to suffer 6 months, 18 months, 8 years and
20 years respectively. This illustration simply tells us that the penalties imposed are -
A. correctional
B. not lethal
C. commensurate to the offenses
D. practical

105. Which among the following were recorded vocational activities of inmates at the
Correctional Institute for Women?
1. Poultry 2. Piggery 3. Laundry 4. Babysitting 5. Book
writing
6. Cultivation of crops [Link] of foreigners
A. 1,2, &3
B. 1,2, &6
C. 2,4, &6
D. 3,6, &7

106. The Davao Penal Colony situated at Davao del Norte, was formally established on by
virtue of Act No. 3732 on what date?
A. January 6, 1923
B. January 13, 1923
C. January 21, 1932
D. January 16, 1936

107. The Davao Prison and Penal Farm has partnerships with the Tagum Agricultural
Development Co. (Tadeco) where there are more or less 800 prisoners working for the
latter’s _________.
A. fishery
B. lumber production
C. rice plantation and production
D. banana plantation

108. Mr. Bravo was charged with a non-bailable offense in which the only resort he can do
is to stay inside the jail all throughout the period until his case will be decided by the
court. If ever he will be convicted, is this period of detention deductible from his imposed
sentence?
A. Yes, if the sentence imposed is the minimum period of the stated penalty
B. Yes, because the detention period is considered preventive
imprisonment
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 C. No, because it is not consistent with the provision of the law
D. No, because it is a non-bailable offense

109. When will a penalty becomes a capital punishment?

A. If it is reclusion perpetua
B. If the Chief Executive cannot extend his pardoning power
C. If it is tantamount to distierro with absolute perpetual disqualifications
D. If it is death

110. Mr. Charlie was charged of a felony punishable by prision correctional. This means
that the duration of his penalty is ranging from _________ in case of conviction.
A. 1 month and 1 day to 6 months
B. 6 months and 1 day to 6 years
C. 6 years and 1 day to 8 years
D. 6 years and 1 day to 12 years

111. Mr. Delta, a showbiz personality with renowned standings was detained at Magbabato
District Jail for violation of B.P. 22 otherwise known as “Bouncing Check Law”. With respect
to this particular circumstance, Mr. Delta is then classified as -
A. High risk inmate
B. Ordinary inmate
C. VIP inmate
D. High profile inmate

112. These are set of activities in jails that are intended to maintain inmates’ physical
fitness, reduce stress, and allow them to socialize with their co-inmates as well as jail
personnel.
A. religious services/activities
B. visitation services/activities
C. sports and recreation activities
D. health services/activities

113. The word penology is believed to have been originated from Latin word _______ which
would either mean pain, punishment, penalty, or suffering.
A.“punimia”
B. “peno”
C. “poenemi”
D. “poena”

114. The varied programs of prisons are centered for the welfares and development of
inmate as these are translated into services or activities. Among these different types of
programs, what is the best suited to be extended for illiterate inmates?
A. Work and Livelihood Programs
B. Education Programs
C. Skills Training
D. Healthcare Services

115. The driver of a truck, driving without license, met an accident and was taken to the
hospital. While being guarded by the policeman with the intention to later file a case of
driving without license, the said driver escaped. Is the policeman liable for infidelity in the
custody of prisoner?
A. Absolutely no
B. Absolutely yes
C. It depends
D. Either yes or no

116. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

A. maiming
B. ducking stools
C. flogging
D. mutilation
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117. Once inmates gathered together in one place within the jail/prison compound, it is
called ______.
A. mob
B. riot
C. crowd
D. jailbreak

118. Olin G. Blackwell is ________.

A. the last warden of Alcatraz Prison
B. the first warden of Alcatraz Prison
C. the author of closing Alcatraz Prison
D. the most notorious inmate of Alcatraz Prison

119. Who is the alter-ego of the warden?

A. Assistant Warden
B. Jail Officers
C. Inmates
D. DILG Secretary

120. Who authored the closure of Alcatraz prison?

A. James Edward
B. James Bennett
C. James Alcatraz
D. James Johnston

121. This is a Roman building used to hold in chains dangerous slaves, or to punish other
slaves. It is usually subsurface, built as a deep, roofed pit-large enough to allow the slaves
to work within it and containing narrow spaces in which they slept.
A. Sing sing Prison
B. Underground cisterns
C. Ergastulum
D. Galleys

122. It pertains to an old name of jail in England which is being utilized as pre-trial
detention facility where prisoners are locked in poorly conditioned cells.
A. Hulks
B. Galleys
C. Cisterns
D. Gaols

123. It was historically noted to be the earliest attempt by the Romans to create a code of
law. This became instrumental in codifying their laws that cover civil, criminal and religious
matters.
A. Babylonian Code
B. Sumerian Code
C. Laws of the Twelve Tables
D. Justinian Code

124. Aside from the authorized regular GCTA to which colonist are entitled for, they are
further credited of how many days of GCTA for each calendar month?
A. 5 days
B. 6 days
C. 7 days
D. 8 days

125. Who has the authority to approve the revocation of the colonist status of inmates?
A. Prison Superintendent
B. Court
C. Secretary of the Department of Justice
D. Director of BuCor
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126. During the treatment and rehabilitation process, what would be needed action to be
done by the Therapeutic Community Center staffs in order to determine the behavioral
changes of their clients?
A. execution
B. consolidation
C. evaluation
D. examination

127. What is the inmate’s classification if they have already served one-half (1/2) of their
minimum sentence or one-third (1/3) of their maximum sentence, excluding Good Conduct
Time Allowance?
A. Minimum
B. Medium
C. Maximum
D. Colonist

128. The Warden may request reconsideration from the court to recall and disapprove the
previous order allowing inmate to be brought out from jail to view the remains of their
deceased relatives in what particular circumstance?
A. The deceased relative is lying-in-state in a place within thirty (30)-kilometer
radius from the place of confinement of the inmate
B. The detainee has record to escape or has previous record of escapes
C. The detainee is classified as high risk/high profile and the jail has adequate
resources to ensure his/her safety and security
D. Any of the above

129. What is the standard duration for the national prisoners who are allowed and
authorized to their deceased relative in the place where the remains lie-in state?
A. three hours
B. 8 hours
C. not more than 12 hours
D. it depends, for as long it is daylight hours with tight security measures

130. The following are the rights to which inmates under the custody of jail must be
entitled EXCEPT -
A. Right to be informed of the regulations governing the detention center
B. Right to adequate food, space and ventilation, rest and recreation
C. Right to practice his/her religious beliefs and moral precepts
D. Right to education and skills training

131. In the early times, this is one among the so-called houses of correction, or
workhouses functioned as slave labor camps, where unpaid prisoners produced
marketable goods cheaply. This was established to help prisoners acquire special skills
through their labor as craftspeople.
A. Walnut Street Jail
B. Pillory or stocks
C. Bridewell workhouse
D. Maine State Prison

132. Connecticut State Prison is formerly a copper mine and was leased by the General
Court to be utilized as a public gaol and workhouse where the prisoners are being
employed in mining, its name during that time is ________.
A. Simsbury State Workhouse
B. The Newgate Prison
C. Connecticut Town’s Prison
D. All of the above
133. One former penal settlement in southeastern Australia was described as a huge penal
colony from 1830 to the 1870s where transported criminals from England are
accommodated. It was eventually praised as a model prison for replacing brutal beatings

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with solitary confinement and “silent treatment.” This is referring to what penal
settlement?
A. Mc Prince Penal Settlement
B. Tasmania State Prison
C. The Great Prison of Australia
D. Port Arthur

134. A form of early prison usually an underground tank for water or rainwater used to
detain offenders undergoing trial and to hold sentenced offenders pertains to _______.
A. Gaol
B. Ergastulum
C. Borstal Institution
D. Cisterns

135. The Irish system, a modification of the “mark system”, was practiced in the Irish
Prison in 1854. Who introduced this system?
A. Walter Crofton
B. John Howard
C. Alexander Maconochie
D. Zebulon Brockway

136. The diagnostic period for the newly received inmates requires that they must have to
stay and remain at the Reception and Diagnostic Center for how many days?
A. 15
B. 30
C. 60
D. 90

137. Carcel means ______ prison while presidio mean ________ prison.
A. male, female
B. short period, long period
C. female, male
D. minor, adult

138. With respect to structure, there are how many deputy chiefs in the BJMP
organization?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

139. The BJMP is mandated to _______ the administration and operation of all district, city
and municipal jails nationwide with pronged tasks of safekeeping and development of
inmates.
A. direct, supervise and control
B. exercise judicial jurisdiction over
C. manage, establish and organize
D. implement the rules and regulations of

140. Which among the following is NOT a major source of guidelines or sanctions in all the
aspects of operation and administration of jails or prisons in the Philippines?
A. BJMP and BUCOR Manuals
B. UN Minimum Rules for the Treatment of Prisoners
C. Revised Penal Code
D. The PNP Manual

141. National prisoners undeniably spent longer period of days of stay inside the prison. It
is in this premise that all inmates eligible for release shall undergo a seminar in
preparation for his life outside prison. This activity is referred to as-
A. Furlough seminar
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 B. Half-way seminar
C. Pre-release seminar
D. Post-conviction seminar

142. It pertains to the specific section of the Diagnosis and Care Services of the RDC that
is tasked to prepare and submit report embodying the IQ as well as the aptitude and
personality profile of the newly received inmates.
A. Psychology Section
B. Psychiatric Section
C. Medical Section
D. Sociology Section

143. Who among the following is classified as provincial prisoner?

A. Eric whose sentence is eight (8) months imprisonment
B. Rolex whose sentence is twenty-four (24) months of imprisonment
C. Elmer whose sentence is thirty-six (36) months of imprisonment
D. All of the above

144. What is the required document to be signed by the jail inmate if he/she agreed to
abide by the same disciplinary rules imposed upon convicted inmates?
A. Warden’s certification
B. detainee’s manifestation
C. court's notification
D. disciplinary consultation form

145. The Jail Classification and Disciplinary Board is chaired by whom?

A. Warden
B. Deputy/Assistant Warden
C. City/District/Municipal Senior Jail Executive Officer
D. Jail Trustee

146. Under the UN minimum Rules for the Treatment of Prisoners, the following are the
categories of prisoners to be separated EXCEPT -
A. men and women
B. young and adult
C. detained and convicted
D. None of these

147. A program of activity inside the jail or prison directed to restore an inmate’s self-
respect thereby making a law-abiding citizen after serving his sentence pertains to _______.
A. reformation
B. rehabilitation
C. modification
D. revitalization

148. Instruments of restraint shall never be applied or used to punish inmates. Which
among the following items are NOT considered and identified as instruments of restraint?
A. handcuffs
B. strait-jacket
C. leg irons
D. None of these

149. Who among the following inmates has the best description of a jail aide?
A. Mario who requires less or minimal supervision than other prisoners
B. Macario who was given special privileges
C. Mariano who is always allowed to work alone
D. Marco who can exercise partial authority over other prisoners

150. Visitation services for inmates are designed to ________.

A. establish close and/or harmonious working relationship between inmates
B. nurture love of God and respect to humanity
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 C. promote moral and social supports to the inmates
D. maintain and nourish bonding of non-inmate members of the family

151. What is the compelling reason of properly identifying the inmate before
his/her release from the jail institutions?
A. It is in strict adherence to the BJMP rules and procedures
B. To be properly reflected in the records for future reference
C. To ensure that he/she is the same person received and will be
released
D. To avoid being charged with any administrative offenses

152. The following were declared by the BUCOR at present as non-operational

national prisons EXCEPT:
A. Bontoc Prison
B. Fort Bonifacio
C. Corrigidor Prison Stockade
D. Clark Military Prison

153. Which among the following describes the Auburn Prison System?
1. Housing of inmates in individual cells at night
2. Inmates were housed on several different levels according to their age and the
seriousness of their offense
3. Guards strictly enforced silence among inmates
4. Inmates are living and working in isolation
5. Prisoners were trained in close-order drill with uniforms and rifles
A. 1, 2, & 3
B. 1, 3, & 5
C. 2, 3, & 5
D. 3, 4, & 5

154. This was considered as “the new penology” because it incorporated the
latest, state-of-the-art scientific advancements in correctional methods.
A. Borstal Institution
B. Irish Prison
C. Norfolk Island Prison
D. Elmira State Reformatory

155. The released inmate shall be issued a Certification of Discharge by whom?

A. Warden
B. Court
C. DILG Secretary
D. BJMP Chief

156. Carpeta otherwise known as “inmate record” that contains the personal and
criminal records of inmates is further called as ______.
A. jail book
B. jacket
C. flyer
D. folder

157. The Board of Pardon and Parole shall recommend to the President the grant of
executive clemency when any of the extraordinary circumstances are present.
Which of the following circumstances is NOT included in this category?
A. The trial court or appellate court in its decision recommended the grant of
executive clemency for the inmate
B. Evidence which the court failed to consider, before conviction which would
have justified an acquittal of the accused
C. Inmates who are suffering from minor, non-contagious or
illness/disease, and similar kinds that restrict their physical
activities
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 D. None of the above

158. Reprieve, Absolute Pardon, Conditional Pardon with or without Parole

Conditions and Commutation of Sentence as may be granted by the President of
the Philippines are generally known as-
A. Presidential Discretions
B. Executive Summary
C. Executive Privileges
D. None of these

159. Probation and Parole Officer must submit a report concerning violations
committed by a parolee/pardonee on the conditions of his release on parole or
conditional pardon while under supervision. Such report to be submitted is called
_________.
A. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
B. Fact-finding Report
C. Infraction Report
D. Recommendation Report

160. This is a historic prison because of its known best features in reforming and
rehabilitating young offenders even to these days.
A. Elmira Reformatory
B. Pennsylvania State Prison
C. Borstal Institution
D. Norfolk Island Reformatory

161. After the expiration of the maximum sentence of a parolee or pardonee, who
will issue his/her Certificate of Final Release and Discharge?
A. Secretary of DOJ
B. President of the Republic of the Philippines
C. Concurrency of congress
D. Board of Pardon and Parole

162. This pertains to the reduction of the duration of a prison sentence of a

prisoner granted by Chief Executive.
A. Conditional Pardon
B. Commutation
C. Reprieve
D. Amnesty

163. The following are characteristics of inmates who belong to the maximum
classification. Which word is not related to the group?
A. intractable
B. incorrigible
C. invaluable
D. None of these

164. In the Maconochie’s prison system, a prisoner became eligible for release
when he had obtained the required number of credits, which were accumulated for
good conduct, hard work and study. This early release of an inmate prior to the
completion of his/her sentence is otherwise known as -
A. ticket of leave
B. “mark system”
C. good conduct time allowance
D. intermittent jail leave

165. Except in the case of parole, who is the recommending authority for the Chief
Executive’s grant of executive clemency?
A. Secretary of DOJ
B. Director of BUCOR
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 C. Concurrency of congress
D. Board of Pardon and Parole

166. The jails nationwide have basic guidelines in handling inmates with special
needs such as female, drug dependents, handicapped, sex deviates, and ________.
A. Alcoholics
B. Foreigners
C. Mentally-ill
D. All of these

167. In the United States and Canada, younger offenders may be sentenced to
highly regimented, military-style correctional programs. With this, official subject
offenders to strict discipline and physical training. Institutions like this pertains to
_________.
A. boot camps
B. youth centers
C. juvenile training centers
D. halfway house

168. This refers to a beating administered with a whip or rod, with blows commonly
directed to the person’s back as a form of judicial punishment.
A. branding
B. flogging
C. mutilation
D. All of the above

169. Blood money or “man payment” is a compensation or payment given to the

relatives of the murdered victim as an alternative punishment. This is famously
known as-
A. reparation
B. wergild
C. hudud
D. restitution

170. Prisoners have been incarcerated for the protection of society and for the
purpose of
incapacitation, deterrence and retribution. It emphasizes maintenance of security
and order
through the authority of prison officers who strictly impose discipline towards
prisoners. This concept is based on what model of criminal treatment?
A. Custodian
B. Responsibility
C. Reintegration
D. Rehabilitation

171. Close confinement in a cell is only allowed as a form disciplinary punishment

for inmates on what particular ground?
A. Inmate committed grave offenses such as immoral or lascivious acts
B. Inmate is deemed incorrigible inmate, when other disciplinary
measures had been proven ineffective
C. Inmate voluntarily subjects himself to it with written manifestation
D. All of the above

172. What country is recorded as the pioneer in transporting criminals to a distant

colony?
A. Australia
B. Great Britain
C. France
D. Rome

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173. During the early times, prisoners suffered a widespread of disease caused
generally by poor sanitations and overcrowding. One disease that became an
epidemic during those times is the “jail fever” which is known in its real name as -
A. Typhus
B. Dengue
C. HIV
D. Chicken pox

174. In Walter Crofton's prison system, this final stage of imprisonment prior to
release requires that the prisoners are supervised by unarmed guards and given
sufficient freedom responsibility to demonstrate their fitness for release. To fully
attain this purpose, it is needed that the prisoners must be transferred at the
facility known as _________.
A. Halfway house
B Midway house
C. Intermediate Prison
D. Pre-release Prison

175. This is one well-known prison in the history located in Augusta, having an
original layout of underground cells and deep holes into which prisoners were
lowered each night and brought up in the daytime to labor in the stone quarry on
the prison property.
A. Mamertine Prison
B. Underground cisterns
C. Maine State Prison
D. Ergastulum

176. This is a type of prison similar to the next preceding item that was
constructed in Rome in the 7th century. This consisted of a vast network of
dungeons under the city’s main sewer that held political dissidents and criminals
for short periods of time in cramped, miserable conditions.
A. Sing sing Prison
B. Underground cisterns
C. Maine State Prison
D. Mamertine Prison

177. C was convicted by the court of a pardonable offense. After granting an

absolute pardon in his favor, he also claimed for exemption from his civil indemnity
amounting to Two Thousand (2,000) Pesos. Is this claim by C valid under the law?
A. Yes, because the pardon granted is absolute, not conditional
B. Yes, because the civil liability is below five thousand (5,000) pesos
C. No, because granting him pardon is not an exemption from civil
liability
D. No, because it must be the court that will say so, not by virtue of claim

178. B was convicted of a crime and made to suffer both the sentence imposed
and the accessory penalty of temporary special disqualification for the exercise of
the right of suffrage. A national election will be certainly held during the time of
serving his sentence. Is B allowed to vote?
A. No, because his conviction is a crime involving moral turpitude
B. No, because that is what the law provided
C. Yes, because right of suffrage referred to in this provision pertains to
holding of public office only
D. Yes, because the above-mentioned accessory penalty is not perpetual

179. It was historically known as the “house of halfway to hell” located in

Devonshire, England which was built purposely to hold French prisoners.
A. Dartmoor Prison
B. Bridewell Prison
C. Sing sing Prison
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 D. Port Arthur

180. What type of sentence wherein the offender is required to spend a specified
number of hours of public service work, such as collecting trash in parks or other
public facilities? (Eduardo, 2011)
A. Social degradation
B. Community Service
C. Public Deterrence
D. Community-based correction

181. A mittimus is deemed in due form if it contains or if it bears the _______ of the
judge and the _______ of the court. (Eduardo, 2011)
A. seal: signature
B. seal: commitment order
C. signature: dry seal
D. signature: commitment order

182. This refers to an early American prison which was considered as the
forerunner of modern penology.
A. Auburn Prison
B. Elmira Reformatory
C. Pennsylvania Prison
D. Walnut Street Jail

183. This prison built in Philadelphia was considered to be significant in the

historical evolutions of prison because one of its features is the separation of men
from women and children during evening hours in reasonably clean, solitary cells
and encouraged humane treatment of inmates.
A. Auburn Prison
B. Elmira Reformatory
C. Borstal Institution
D. Walnut Street Jail

184. This refers to an ancient means of punishing criminals particularly in some

tribe carried out by cutting or removing vital parts of reproductive system with the
end view of making them incapable to feel sexual urges or drives.
A. Castration
B. Mutilation
C. Sexual Destruction
D. Sexual Mechanical Reversion

185. Incapacitation refers to the act of making an individual physically “incapable”

of committing a crime against any member of the society. This can be achieved by
________.
A. incarceration
B. banishment
C. mutilation or cutting of limbs
D. All of the above

186. The penalty of arresto mayor has what duration?

A. 1 day to 30 days
B. 1 month and 1 day to 6 months
C. 6 months and1 day to 6 years
D. None of the above

187. Which among the choices must be observed during the execution of a death
convict?
A. It must take place in a penitentiary or billibid in a space open for public
view

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 B. It may be witnessed by any authorized person but not exceeding
six (6)
C. It cannot be witnessed by a person below 21 years of age
D. All of the above

188. Jail/prison/correction officers are generally considered as-

A. Justice of the Peace
B. Safekeeping or custodial officers
C. Law enforcement officers
D. Peace and order officers

189. Allowance for good conduct construed that during the first two years of
imprisonment, any inmates shall be entitled for or shall be allowed a deduction of
________ for each month of good behavior.
A. five days for RPC: twenty days for the new law
B. five days for RPC: twenty-three days for the new law
C. eight days for RPC: twenty days for the new law
D. eight days for RPC: twenty-three days for the new law

190. Referring to the next preceding item, what shall be applied during the sixth to
tenth year of imprisonment?
A. eight days for RPC: twenty-three days for the new law
B. eight days for RPC: twenty-five days for the new law
C. ten days for RPC: twenty-three days for the new law
D. ten days for RPC: twenty-five days for the new law

191. Is a detention prisoner or a prisoner undergoing preventive imprisonment

entitled for special time allowance?
A. Yes, according to the new law
B. No, according to the new law
C. Doubtful, because it was not vividly expressed by the law
D. None of these

192. A public officer or employee is liable for “delay in the delivery of detained
person to the proper judicial authorities” if the detained a person for some legal
ground and failed to deliver the latter to proper judicial authorities within how
many hours for afflictive or capital penalties?
A. 12
B. 18
C. 36
D. 48

193. Among the following, which felony involves a private person?

A. Arbitrary detention
B. Illegal detention
C. Expulsion
D. B and C

194. A, a sentenced prisoner, has satisfactorily completed the service of his

sentence. Immediately after being informed by the reliable prison staff about A’s
completion of service of sentence, B, the prison superintendent instructed the
guards on duty to release A without delay. Considering this fact, is B liable for any
criminal or administrative case for his action?
A. No, because the sentence is completely served
B. No, because the release was without delay
C. Yes, because he has no authority to order release of prisoners
D. Yes, because he did not verify the truthfulness of such information

195. Riots, noise barrage, hostage takings, jailbreak, etc., are examples of man-
made
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disturbances inside the jail compound. The word jail break is simply described as -
A. inmates forcefully escaping from jail
B. unorganized group of inmates creating loud and distracting noise
C. group of inmates physically attacking each other
D. All of the above

196. The privilege of sending and receiving mail that is extended to inmates shall
be properly supervised and handled to obviate the possibility of smuggling
contraband and to use this medium as a means of illicit communication. This
means of control is known as-
A. Mail privacy
B. Mail screening and monitoring
C. Mail confidentiality
D. Mail censorship

197. Inmates shall be classified to determine their entitlement to prison privileges.

Which among these classifications has more corresponding entitlement to prison
privileges?
A. Detainee
B. Third class inmate
C. Second class inmate
D. First class inmate

198. Penology is in short, the study of ________.

A. crime
B. criminal
C. Punishment
D. All of the above

199. Inmates who are sixty- five (65) years old and above, without pending case
and whose convictions are not on appeal belong to what classification?
A. Colonist
B. Minimum Security Prisoner
C. Medium Security Prisoner
D. Maximum Security Prisoner

200. What is the lowest form of disciplinary punishment for jail inmates?
A. Reprimand
B. Temporary cancellation of recreational activities
C. Cancellation of visiting privileges
D. Extra-fatigue exercises

CA 2
NON-INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTION
1. This theory view parole as a privilege, which can be revoked if offender violates the
conditions of early release.
Section S: S.Y. 2024-2025/C.P.A
 A. Contract theory
B. Custody theory
C. Positivist theory
D. Grace theory

2. Refers to the supervision/surveillance by a probation and parole officer of a parole.

A. Director
B. Parole Supervision
C. Board
D. Parolee

3. This refers to the Director of the Bureau of Corrections.

A. Director
B. Regional Director
C. Warden
D. District Director

4. Refers to a prisoner who is released on parole.

A. Pardonee
B. Carpeta
C. Parolee
D. Prisoner

5. Products made by prisoners are sold in the open market.

A. Lease System
B. Contract System
C. Public Works and Ways System
D. Public Account System

6. Temporary stay of the execution of sentence capable only to death sentence.

A. Reprieve
B. Amnesty
C. Pardon
D. Commutation of sentence

7. When a contractor merely engages in prison labor and the state retains control of the
prisoner, the prison labor is classified as:
A. Lease System
B. Contract System
C. Public Works and Ways, System
D. Public Account System

8. Ministration of the sick is an important function of the:

A. Chaplain
B. Custodial officer
C. Medical Officer
D. Psychiatrist

9. Provides development and acquisition of skills necessary for successful work in a

socially accepted occupation while in prison.
A. Vocational training program
B. Education program
C. Work program
D. Prison labor

10. It provides an environment that will be conducive to the mental and physical
development of an inmate.
A. Vocational training program
B. Work program
C. Recreational program
D. Education program
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11. It is an integral part in prisoner's rehabilitation which serves as an outlet human
expression and a form of release from one's inherent desire to create.
A. Music
B. Sports
C. Arts and Craft
D. Drama and literary activities

12. It helps in the improvement of the prisoner in the cultural and practical aspect of social
living.
A. Recreational program
B. Arts and Crafts
C. Sports Activities
D. Library service

13. Which among the following is not a part of an ideal medical service in a prison facility?
A. Medicine and Surgery
B. Psychiatry
C. Dentistry
D. None of the foregoing

14. A mild form of punishment which is enough deterrence for prisoners with clean records
who want to be considered for early release.
A. Counsel and reprimand
B. Solitary confinement
C. Loss of privilege
D. Loss of good time

15. It is not to be considered as a punishment when used to prevent an inmate from

influencing witnesses or of preventing injury to himself or others.
A. Counsel and reprimand
B. Solitary confinement
C. Loss of privilege
D. Loss of good time

16. It aims to obtain clear case description and social history as well as help solving
immediate family problems of the inmate.
A. Casework
B. Case method
C. Counseling
D. Individualized treatment

17. It provides extensive diagnosis and treatment to discover the cause of a prisoner's
maladjustment and improve his behavior.
A. Casework
B. Clinical services
C. Counseling
D. Individualized treatment

18. This are peer groups on a non-official basis; correctional agents could work with the
community workers in dealing with the traditional peer group.
A. Intimates
B. Gatekeepers
C. Social Persuader
D. Correctional volunteer

19. It provides some opportunities for inmates of a normal sex life.

A. Homosexuality
B. Sodomy
C. Masturbation
D. conjugal visit
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20. Inmates who have attained the status of _______ are allowed by law to live with them
with their families, it is a common practice in Sablayan, Iwahig
and Davao Prison and Penal Farm.
A. Trustees
B. Colonists
C. Parolees
D. Both A and B

21. Referred to as the Law on Working Detention.

A. Act No, 1533
B. Act No. 3316
C. Act No. 3326
D. Act No, 4103

22. Law on prescription of penalty.

A. Act No. 1533
B. Act No. 3316
C. Act No, 3326
D. Act No, 4103

23. Basis for granting good conduct time allowance for inmates.
A. Act No. 1533
B. Act No. 3316
C. Act No. 3326
D. Act No. 4103

24. Indeterminate Sentence Law is what Act.

A. Act No. 1533
B. Act No. 3316
C. Act No. 3326
D. Act No. 4103

25. Empowered by law to exercise supervision over jails by means of standard setting to
promote discipline of inmates and secure reformation and safe custody of prisoners of all
classes.
A. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
B. Bureau of Prisons
C. Bureau of Corrections
D. Commission on Human Rights

26. Nature of conditional pardon given to inmates in which the recipient must accept it
before it takes effect, and the pardonee is under obligations to comply imposed therein.
A. Contract
B. Privilege
C. Punishment
D. Act of grace

27. In the practice and procedure of probation, who is considered as the most important
person?
A. Probationer
B. Probation officer
C. Chief Probation Officer
D. Probation Aides

28. Unit within the probation office charged with the task of selecting defendants for
probation.
A. Investigation division
B. Supervision division
C. Custodial division
D. RDC
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29. It pertains to information regarding significant family, personal, economic factors of
the offender's life.
A. social history
B. Marital status
C. Antecedent
D. Character and behavior

30. Primary basis in granting parole:

A. Response with correctional treatment
B. Progress within the correctional institution
C. Good behavior and rapport among inmates and prison guards
D. Both a and b

31. Parole although not a form of executive clemency is:

A. Judicial function
B. Executive function
C. Legislative function
D. Court function

32. In the Philippines the members of the Board of Pardon and Parole is
A. Full-time board
B. Part time board
C. Governmental agency
D. non-governmental organization

33. This is prepared by the prison's classification committee for the purpose of indicating
what is essential for the best interest of the future parolee and contains an appraisal of the
prisoner's personality and need for adjustment upon return to society.
A. Pre-release Progress Report
B. Pre-Board Summary
C. Parole Referral Summary
D. Post Sentence investigation Report

34. It is used by the parole board as a guide in determining prisoner's the eligibility for
parole and preparing his parole program.
A. Pre-release Progress Report
B. Pre-Board Summary
C. Parole Referral Summary
D. Post Sentence investigation Report

35. A parole officer undertakes what broad function?

A. Community protection
B. Service to individuals
C. Supervision of parolee
D. Both a and b

36. This is a method of helping parolees by which the parole office performs referral
services.
A. Manipulative technique
B. Executive technique
C. Case work technique
D. Guidance and counseling technique
37. Refers to a formal group or association organized to promote Social or individual
welfare.
A. Community agencies
B. social service exchange
C. Family service agencies
D. NGO's

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38. A security facility, usually operated by the police for temporary detention of persons
held under custodial investigation.
A. Lock-up
B. Workhouse jail
C. Ordinary jail
D. Detention center

39. Frank, an inmate who is unable to sleep and eat while serving his sentence due to
loneliness and despair should undergo:
A. Rehabilitation
B. Guidance
C. Corrections
D. counseling

40. A publicly managed bail program under which the offender deposits percentage of the
bail amount.
A. Percentage Bail
B. Supervise Release
C. Cash Bail
D. supervise work Release.

41. Who is the granting authority in giving probation to qualified petitioners?

A. Court
B. Probation officer
C. President
D. Board of indeterminate sentence

42. Under the Indeterminate sentence law, who acts as chairman of the board of pardon
and paroles?
A. DILG Secretary
B. DOJ Secretary
C. PNP Chief
D. President

43. Minimum period of probation provided by law.

A. 1 year
B. 2 year
C. 3 years
D. 4 years

44. It refers to the community's reaction to convicted offenders.

A. Corrections
B. Probation
C. Rehabilitation
D. Parole

45. Under rules and methods employed by probation, what is the maximum number of
minor violations that would result in the revocation of the probation order?
A. 5 violations
B. 4 violations
C. 3 violations
D. 2 violations

46. The merging of supervision of parole and probation is mandated by what law?
A. Executive Order 392
B. Executive Order 292
C. PD 968
D. RA 4221

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47. This is a private organization provides bail for the indigent defendants who meet the
agency/s eligibility requirements, and provides like those of a professional bondsman, but
no cost to the bailed.
A. Percentage Bail
B. Cash Bail
C. Fully secured Bail
D. Privately secured Bail

48. Under our laws when will probationer report to his designated probation officer?
A. Upon initial interview
B. Upon the completion of the PSIR
C. Upon court order
D. Within 72 hours after probation order has been granted

49. A US law which allowed convicts to be gainfully employed during the day while
residing in prison.
A. Huber Law
B. Harbard Law
C. Split Sentence Law
D. Furlough Law

50. Probation was first introduced in the Philippines during what colonial period?
A. Spanish
B. American
C. Japanese
D. British

51. It refers to the continuing relationship between the probationer and the probation
officer.
A. Initial Interview
B. Post Sentence Investigation
C. Supervision
D. Orientation

52. Before the travel of probationer outside the jurisdiction of the City/ Provincial Probation
Office, application for court approval should be filed within how many days?
A. 45 days
B. 30 days
C. 15 days
D. 5 days

53. A French and Belgian innovation to probation which requires no supervision on the
condition that the probationer would not commit an offense within a prescribed period.
A. Split Sentence
B. Surprise
C. Furlough
D. Parole

54. Within how many days should the request for outside travel be filed by the probationer
to the probation office, prior to the date of his intended departure?
A. 5 days
B. 10 days
C. 15 days
D. 30 days

55. It refers to the note given to police agencies which signifies that the probationer is
under the supervision of his designated probation officer.
A. Chrome Card
B. Kardex Card
C. Flash Sheet
D. Field Sheet
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56. The maximum period of probation when the sentence is not more than one year.
A. 6 years
B. 4 years
C.2 years
D. 1years

57. When will the court deny application for probation of a petitioner?
A. Petitioner is a foreigner.
B. Petitioner is a drug dependent.
C. Petitioner violates the condition.
D. Petitioner can be treated well in an institution.

58. When will you close the probation case?

A. When the probationer absconds the place.
B. When he incurred violations.
C. When there is recommendation for revocation.
D. When the termination order is approved.

59. Under PD 603, should a juvenile offender become incorrigible during his reformation
period, he is brought to the court for __________.
A. Release
B. pronouncement of judgement
C. Probation
D. Pardon

60. It refers to the relation between CPPO and the SPPO and the Probationer.
A. Supervision
B. Courtesy supervision
C. Executive supervision
D. administrative supervision

61. The probationer is not exempted from the legal effects of his punishment upon final
discharge.
A. Penalty
B. Fine
C. Civil liability
D. Criminal liability

62. The unprecedented achievement of martial law which transported the Philippine
corrections toward the modern system of convict rehabilitation.
A. Price control
B. Peace and order
C. Probation law
D. Infrastructure programs

63. Probation started in what country, in the year 1841?

A. England
B. France
C. United States of America
D. Spain

64. Sponsored House Bill 393, "An Act establishing Adult Probation in
Philippines.
A. Juan Ponce Enrile
B. Teodulo C. Natividad
C. Pres. Ferdinand E. Marcos
D. Ramon Bagatsing Sr.

65. A procedure by which prisoners are selected for release on the basis on individual
response and progress.
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 A. Probation
B. Parole
C. Pardon
D. Amnesty

66. The primary purpose of probation

A. Rehabilitation
B. Welfare of the community
C. Retribution
D. Punitive sanction

67. Effect of Executive Order 292.

A. Courtesy Supervision
B. Administrative Supervision
C. Creation of the Board of Pardon and Parole
D. Merging Supervision

68. This decree mandated the disqualification of the petitioner's application for probation
is an appeal is perfected.
A. PD 603
B. PD 968
C. PD 1990
D. PD 1257

69. Created the Board of Pardons and Parole.

A. Indeterminate sentence Law
B. Executive order 292
C. Probation Law
D. House Bill 393

70. The preliminary form filed up by the probationer within 72 hours after the release of
his probation order.
A. Work Sheet
B. Filed notebook
C. Flash Sheet
D. Chrome Card

71. It is the supervision undertaken by other probation office which is not permanent in
nature.
A. Merging Supervision
B. Courtesy Supervision
C. Transfer Supervision
D. Operational Supervision

72. Brief of an investigation conducted by probation officer not within the jurisdiction of
the court.
A. Post Sentence Investigation Report
B. Pre-sentence investigation report
C. Courtesy investigation report
D. Initial Investigation report

73. It is a continuing state of good order.

A. Discipline
B. Morale
C. Communication
D. Loyalty

74. It is the alternative for jail confinement in modern penology.

A. Parole
B. Probation
C. Pardon
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 D. Amnesty

75. Refers to the mental condition of individuals or groups regarding courage, hope, zeal
and confidence in the present principles and way of life.
A. Virtue
B. Fortitude
C. Moral
D. Positive Discipline

76. In determining whether a petitioner may be placed on probation the court shall
consider information relative to which of the following?
A. Character
B. Antecedents/environment
C. Mental/physical conditions of the offender
D. All of these

77. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of __________.

A. Punishment
B. Enjoyment
C. Treatment
D. Incarceration

78. The law that suspends the sentence of minor offenders whose age ranges from (9)
years to under (18) years and places them in rehabilitation centers.
A. PD 603
B. PD 923
C. PD 968
D. PD 1202

79. When shall probation order take effect?

A. Three days after issuance
B. Three days prior to issuance
C. Upon its issuance
D. Upon reporting to the probation officer

8O. Mainly responsible for the implementation of a prisoner’s treatment program?

A. RDC
B. Warden
C. Classification Committee
D. All the above

81. Under Art. 8. Sec. 10, par (b) of the Philippine Constitution, pardoning power is vested
with the:
A. Chief executive
B. Judiciary
C. Legislature
D. Department of Justice

82. It refers to a disposition after which the defendant after conviction and sentence is
released, subject to the conditions imposed by the court.
A. Parole
B. Probation
C. Pardon
D. Amnesty

83. Regarded as the father of Philippine Probation.

A. Ramon Bagatsing Sr.
B. Teodulo C. Natividad
C. Pres. Ferdinand E. Marcos
D. Juan Ponce Enrile

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84. Signed into law R.A. 968, an Act establishing Probation in the Philippines.
A. Ramon Bagatsing Sr.
B. Teodulo C. Natividad
C. Pres. Ferdinand E. Marcos
D. Juan Ponce Enrile

85. He was referred to as the father of English Probation.

A. Matthew Devenport Hill
B. Edward Savage
C. John Augustus
D. Alexander Rice

86. A Boston shoemaker who advocated alcoholics and youthful! offenders and known as
the father of probation.
A. Matthew Devenport Hill
B. Edward Savage
C. John Augustus
D. Alexander Rice

87. In the year 1887, this former Boston Chief of Police was appointed as the first
probation officer in the whole world.
A. Matthew Devenport Hill
B. Edward Savage
C. Alexander Rice
D. John Augustus

88. What law established probation in the Philippines for the first time?
A. PD 968
B. RA 968
C. Act 4221
D. RA 4221

89. Formerly, pardon was applied to a member of the______ who committed crimes and
occasionally to those convicted of offenses against the monarchy.
A. Rebellious family
B. Royal family
C. Mendicant family
D. Indigent family

90. Celebrated case which paved the way for the abolition of the first probation law.
A. People Vs. Vera, 37 O.G. 164
B. People Vs. De Vera, 376 0.G. 164
C. Vera Vs. people, 376 O.G. 164
D. De Vera Vs. People, 376 0.G. 164

91. Historic signing of PD 968 which transported Philippine Criminal Justice system to the
20th century.
A. July 22, 1976
B. July 23, 1976
C. July 24, 1976
D. August 7, 1935
92. Within how many days after the verdict must a petitioner file his application for
probation?
A. 10 days
B. 15 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days

93. Maximum number of probationers under supervision of a probation aide?

A. 3
B. 5
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 C. 7
D. 9

94. Maximum period of probation for a person convicted to suffer prision correctional.
A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 6 years
D. 8 years

95. It serves as the basis in granting probation for qualified petitioners.

A. Post Sentence investigation Report
B. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report
C. Admissions Summary
D. Behavior Report

96. Minimum number of days given to probation officers in accomplishing PSIR.

A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days

97. After receiving the PSIR, within how many days must a judge decide whether to grant
or deny probation?
A. 5 days
B.15 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days

98. It refers to a person placed under probation.

A. Petitioner
B. Probationer
C. Probation officer
D. Convict

99. It refers to a suspension of sentence after which the convict is released upon serving
the minimum sentence imposed by law and subject to his good behavior and positive
reaction to rehabilitation programs.
A. Probation
B. Pardon
C. Parole
D. Amnesty

100. A person placed under probation for the maximum period imposed by law would have
to report to his probation officer how many times per month?
A. Once
B. Twice
C. More than twice
D. All of the above

101. A probationer on medium supervision should report to his probation officer how many
times a month?
A. Once
B. Twice
C. Thrice
D. More than four times

102. Can a probationer pursue prescribed secular study or vocational training while on
probation?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Neither
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 D. None of these

103. Refers to those who are confined in correctional facilities awaiting verdict on their
cases.
A. Probationers
B. Detention prisoners
C. Parolees
D. Accused

104. A method of helping the parolee by altering environmental conditions to bring out
satisfactory social adjustment.
A. Manipulative technique
B. Executive technique
C. Guidance and Counseling technique
D. Casework technique

105. This states that incarceration should establish in the convicts the will to lead law
abiding and self-supporting lives after their release in prison.
A. United Nations Standard Minimum Rules for the treatment of prisoners.
B. Indeterminate sentence Law
C. Prison Law
D. Probation Law

106. It is regarded as the most important program that aids in the rehabilitation of
prisoners.
A. Recreational program
B. religious program
C. educational program
D. Employment of prisoners

107. Derived from a French word meaning word of honor.

A. Probation
B. Parole
C. Pardon
D. Amnesty

108. Probation proceeds on the theory that the best way to pursue its goal orient the
criminal sanction toward the_______ sentencing.
A. Individual setting
B. Community setting
C. Prison setting
D. None of these

109. Its purpose is to bring update case history of the prisoner and verify parole plans or
work and residence.
A. Pre-parole investigation
B. Reclassification
C. Admissions Summary
D. Parole investigation

110. Its primary concern is the proper selection of prisoners to be released on parole.
A. Pre-parole investigation
B. Reclassification
C. Admissions Summary
D. Parole Investigation

[Link] structure and intensive programs designed for individuals involved in the criminal
justice system, programs involve a military-style approach.
A. Bootcamps
B. Diversion
C. Restitution
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 D. Recreational program

112. The first probation law was passed in the year 1878, in.
A. Chicago
B. Massachusetts
C. England
D. Pennsylvania

113. When does probation started?

A.1841
B.1896
C. 1938
D. 1932

114. Also known as Bureau of Correction Law of 2013.

A.10707
B.10575
C.10705
D.10175

[Link] application for probation should be filed?

A. Appellate court
B. Trial court
C. Board of Pardons and Parole
D. Office of the Solicitor General

116. Pardon can be extended to any of the cases, EXCEPT:

A. Impeachment
B. Estafa
C. Carnapping
D. Parricide

[Link] is considered as the forerunner of parole?

A. Solitary system
B. Congregate System
C. Benefits of clergy
D. Mark System

118.A term means a friend of a court.

A. Amigos Curiae
B. Amigos Curae
C. Amicus Curiae
D. Amicus Curiae

119. a process that offers individuals involved in the criminal justice system an alternative
to traditional incarceration.
A. diversion
B. Restitution
C. Parole
D. Probation

120. 1. After granting the probation, the probationer must present himself to the probation
officer within.
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 32 hours
D. 72 hours

121. Forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT

A. Commutation
B. Amnesty
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 C. Reform Model
D. Probation

122. A French word meaning “word of honour”.

A. Pardon
B. Parole
C. Probation
D. Amnesty

123. A person place on probation?

A. Prisoner
B. Probation aid
C. Parole
D. Probationer

124. Generally, bail is a matter of?

A. Right
B. Parole
C. Privilege
D. Pardon

125. Coined the word “probation” derived from the latin word “probare”.
A. John Augustus
B. Matthew Davenport Hill
C. Teodolo C. Natividad
D. Edward N. Savage

126. Presidential Decree 968 established the _______ System.

A. Juvenile Justice
B. Adult Probation
C. Family Welfare
D. Civilian Police

127. It is an extension of institutional correction.

A. Parole
B. Probation
C. Pardon
D. Amnesty

128. The President of the Philippines who issued Proclamation No. 51 granting amnesty to
those who collaborated with the Japanese during the World War II.
A. Elpidio Quirino
B. Diosdado Macapagal
C. Manuel Roxas
D. Ramon Magsaysay

129. It is granted by the Chief Executive without and conditions to it, presumably to do
away with the miscarriage of justice. It extinguishes criminal liability.
A. Parole
B. Absolute pardon
C. Amnesty
D. Pardon

130. A method halting or suspending formal criminal proceeding against a person who has
violated a statue in Favor of processing through non-original disposition.
A. Deviation
B. Reprieve
C. Probation
D. Diversion

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131. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier sentence to a less serious one or a
longer term to a shorter term.
A. Amnesty
B. Reprieve
C. Commutation
D. None of these

[Link] is also known as “Binding over for good Behaviour.

A. Recognizance
B. Judicial Reprieve
C. Benefits of Clergy
D. Transportation

133. He is a former Police chief hired as the first paid American probation officer in 1878.
A. Samuel June Barrows
B. Brig. Gen. Clarence Powers
C. Edward Savage
D. Governor Gen. Murphy

134. The purpose of this meeting is to evaluate the inmate's readiness for easy release.
A. Pre-release treatment
B. Pre-parole interview
C. Classification meeting
D. Admissions meeting

135. A program specifically planned to prepare the offender prior to his release on parole.
A. Pre-release treatment
B. Pre-parole interview
C. Classification meeting
D. Admissions meeting

136. Refers to the officer-in-charge of provincial, city, municipality, or district jail.

A. Warden
B. Regional Director
C. Board
D. Parole Supervision

137. When prisoners are used for repairing buildings, roads, bridges and flood control, this
type of prison labor is:
A. Lease System
B. Contract System
C. Public Works and Ways System
D. Constructor

138. Privilege granted to a prisoner that shall entitle him to a deduction of his
imprisonment, under Article 97 RPC.
A. GCTA
B. Indeterminate Sentence
C. Release Document
D. Outside travel

[Link] serves to wipe away the guilt of a pardonee and makes him innocent as if he has
not committed any crime.
A. Conditional pardon
B. Pardon
C. Absolute pardon
D. Amnesty

140. Under this system, a Contractor supplies raw materials and pays the state for work or
output produced by the prisoner.
A. Lease System
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 B. Contract System
C. Price-Piece System
D. Public Account System

141. Those who have been once on probation under the Probation Law:
A. Are qualified to apply for probation.
B. Are disqualified to apply for probation.
C. May be granted for another probation.
D. Should be confined in prison.

142. Parole maybe granted if the inmate.

A. Finishes considerable portion of sentence
B. Finishes minimum sentence
C. Deserves to be released by reason of good behavior
D. Has considerable good conduct time allowance credit

143. This is a form of executive clemency which removes the effects of a crime but does
not remove the guilt itself. The grantee here is bound to follow certain restrictions,
violations of which may be a ground to recommit him back to prisons.
A. Absolute pardon
B. Commutation
C. Amnesty
D. Conditional pardon

144. The various forms of executive clemency are as follows, except one.
A. Commutation or reduction of sentence.
B. Grant of Pardon
C. Reprieve or temporary suspension of sentence.
D. Parole

145. What is then the other type of executive clemency that needs the concurrence of
congress?
A. Amnesty
B. Parole
C. Pardon
D. Absolute Pardon

146. It is a change of the decision of the court made by the Chief Executive by reducing
the degree of the penalty inflicted upon the convict, or by decreasing the length of the
imprisonment of the original sentence.
A. Commutation of Sentence
B. Reprieve
C. Pardon
D. Amnesty
147. An alternative to incarceration granted after a convicted person served a part of his
sentence and is allowed to complete a sentence at large, subject to restrictions and
supervision.
A. Probation
B. Parole
C. Work release
D. Halfway houses

148. the Department of Justice which provides a less costly alternative to imprisonment of
offenders who are likely to respond to individualized community-based treatment
programs.
A. BJMP
B. Provincial Government
C. Bureau of Corrections
D. Parole and Probation Administration

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149. Post sentence investigation report must be submitted by the probation officer to the
court within
A. 20 days
B. 60 days
C. 30 days
D. 90 days

150. For how many days shall the Judge of the court who issued an order for the conduct
of Post Sentence investigation to resolve and decide on the issue of whether to grant
probation applied for by the petitioner?
A. 10 days from the receipt of the PSIR
B. 15 days from the receipt of the PSIR
C. 20 days from the receipt of the PSIR
D. 30 days from the receipt of the PSIR

151. The Adult Probation Law of 1976 was drafted and authored by TEODULO C.
NATIVIDAD together with his committee composed of the Five (5) Pillars of the
Criminal Justice System. It was signed into law on July 24, 1976, by then President
Ferdinand E. Marcos.
A. Presidential Decree 968
B. Presidential Decree 698
C. Presidential Decree 986
D. Presidential Decree 896

152. The court may grant probation after the PSI report. PSI means?
A. Prison Sentence Information
B. Personal survey Information
C. Post Service Investigation
D. Post Sentence Investigation

153. It refers to commission of another crime during services of sentence of

penalty imposed for another previous offense.
A. Recidivism
B. Quasi-recidivism
C. Delinquency
[Link] de delito

[Link] is not a matter of __________.

A. Privilege
B. Grace
C. Right
D. Requirement

155. How many years is the term of office of a probation aide?

A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4

156. Which of the following countries started to practice probation?

A. France
B. Germany
C. Spain
D. USA

157. Under the roles of community corrections staff, this help offenders identify
and address their problems and needs.
A. Act as Counsellors
B. Law Enforcement Role
C. Police
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 D. Capitan

158. This theory assumes that parolees will remain in the custody of the parole
board. Although they are permitted to serve their sentences in the community,
offenders face legal restriction which abridge their freedom.
A. Contract theory
B. Grace theory
C. Custody Theory
D. Specific Deterrence Theory

159. Refers to the Board of Pardons and Parole.

A. Board
B. Inmate
C. Director
D. President

160. This is a kind of Post-Booking Release without bail or without supervision

where defendants are put on their honor to report when scheduled.
A. Release on Own Recognizance
B. Third -Party Release
C. Unsecure Bail
D. Conditional Release.

161. The term probation was coined by John Augustus derived from the Latin word
“Probatio”, which means.
A. Testing on
B. test/Prove
C. D’honeur
D. Convict

162. It establishes the probation system in the Philippines.

A. House bill 393
B. Act 4221
C. PD 969
D. PD 603
a. Parolee
b. Pardonee
c. Client
d. Petitioner

163. The prisoner who applies for the grant of executive clemency or parole.
A. Parolee
B. Pardonee
C. Client
D. Petitioner

164. It is where the maximum Prisoner is located.

A. NBP
B. Camp Bukang Liwayway
C. San Ramon prison and penal farm
D. Camp sampaguita

165. It is where the medium security prisoner is located.

a. NBP
b. Camp Bukang Liwayway
c. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
d. Camp sampaguita
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166. Defined as a relationship in which one endeavours to help
another and solve his problem of adjustment it is distinguished from advice
and admonition in that it implies mutual consent.
A. Counselling
B. Control
C. Custody
D. Classification

167. Refers to either a prisoner or detainee confined in jail.

A. Inmate
B. Escape
C. Prisoner
D. Detainee

168. Diether a convict whose application for probation has been granted but fails
to report to the proper probation officer within 72 hours upon receipt of notice or a
probationer whose whereabouts cannot be determined for more than a month:
A. absconding probationer
B. wanted person
C. fugitive from justice
D. absconding petitioner.

169. Serves primarily as a mechanical release of felt physical tension while in

prison for male inmates, it is based on itself-gratification.
A. Homosexuality
B. Sodomy
C. Masturbation
D. Conjugal Visit

170. In the practice and procedure of probation, who is considered the most
important person?
A. Probationer
B. Probation officer
C. Chief Probation Officer
D. Probation aides

171. This a method of helping parolees by which the parole office performs referral
services.
A. Manipulative technique
B. Executive technique
C. Casework technique
D. Guidance and counselling technique

172. A unit within the probation office is charged with selecting defendants for
probation.
A. Investigation division
B. Supervision division
C. Custodial division
D. RDC

173. The period of punishment which is probation able is extended from 6 years
and 1 day.
A. P.D. 1257
B. P.D. 76
C. P.D. 1990
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 D. E.O. 29

174. The period of punishment which is probation able is lowered again from 6
years and 1 day to 6 years or less.
A. P.D. 1257
B. P.D. 76
C. P.D. 1990
D. E.O. 292

175. It renamed the Probation Administration into Parole and probation

Administration.
A. P.D. 1257
B. P.D. 76
C. P.D. 1990
D. E.O. 292

176. In accordance with Section 19, Article VII of the 1987 Philippine Constitution,
the President has the plenary power to grant executive clemency.
A. Yes
B. True
C. No
D. False

177. Refers to the correctional activities that takes place in the

community that directly addressed to the offender and aimed at helping him to
become a law-abiding Citizen.
[Link] 1
[Link] 2
C. Institutional Correction
D. Non-institutional Correction\

178. The President may prevent the collection of fines or confiscation of property.
A. Post Sentence Investigation
B. Release Document
C. Recognizance
D. Remission

179. A city or region or church where state agents were forbidden to enter for
purposes of arresting the accused.
A. Post Sentence Investigation
B. Release Document
C. Recognizance
D. Sanctuary

180. Refers to the final report submitted by the Probation and Parole
Officer on his supervision of a parolee/pardonee as basis for the latter’s final
release and discharge.
A. Post Sentence Investigation
B. Supervision
C. Transportation
D. Summary Report

181. Sending or putting away of an offender to another colony. It was an attempt

to substitute for brutal punishment at home and an opportunity for rehabilitation in
a new country.
A. Post Sentence Investigation
Section S: S.Y. 2024-2025/C.P.A
 B. Supervision
C. Transportation
D. Summary Report

182. Where to apply the release on recognizance?

A. Dept. of Justice
B. Presiding Judge of court
C. Custodial-Correction Office
D. Chaplain

183. First case handled by John Augustus.

A. Sex Maniac
B. Drunkard
C. Substance
D. CICL

184. __________ is the security given for the release of person in custody of the law,
furnished by him or a bondsman, conditioned upon his appearance before any
court as required under the conditions provided by the law.
A. Parole
B. Pardon
C. Bail
D. Probation

[Link] offender under custody can be released to a responsible person in the

community as provided under __________
A. RA 6035
B. RA 6036
C. RA 6136
D. RA 6037

186. When shall one apply for bail?

A. Before conviction by MTC of an offense not punishable by death
B. Before conviction by RTC of an offense not punishable by death
C. After conviction by RTC of an offense not punishable by death
D. After conviction by MTC of an offense not punishable by death

187. ___________ authorizes the release of detained offender who has undergone
preventive imprisonment equivalent to the maximum imposable penalty for the
offense charge.
A. PD 603
B. RA 6036
C. BP 85
D. RA 6127

188. From among the following, who may apply for preventive imprisonment?
A. He files his petition for probation.
B. Have served minimum of his imprisonment.
C. His probation is granted.
D. Detention prisoner who is not a recidivist

189. Probation is a matter of ___________ and such, its grant or denial rests solely
upon the sound’s discretion of the trial court.
A. Privilege
B. strength
C. Right
Section S: S.Y. 2024-2025/C.P.A
 D. Benefit

190. An agency of the Philippine government under the Department of Justice

responsible for providing a less costly alternative to imprisonment of first-time
offenders who are likely to respond to individualized community-based treatment
programs.
A. DOJ
B. PPA
C. BPP
D. CORRECTION

191. Otherwise known as “THE INDETERMINATE SENTENCE LAW.

A. ACT
B.4103
C. ACT. 42
D. PD 968

192. hat are emphasized under the custodial model of correctional institutions?
A. reintegration into society rehabilitation and correction
B. security, discipline and order
C. rehabilitation and correction
D. physical and mental upliftment

193. What is the security classification of inmates who have two (2) or more
escape records but have served 8 years since recommitment?
A. minimum security
B. maximum security
C. optimum security
D. medium security

194. Pardon is exercised when the person is ___________________________.

A. already convicted
B. not yet convicted
C. about to be convicted
D. serve the sentence.

195. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of ______________________.

A. Punishment
B. Treatment
C. Enjoyment
D. Incarceration

196. In the Philippines, the Board of Pardon and Parole members are.
A. Full-time board
B. Part-time board
C. Government agency
D. NGO

197. Parole although not a form of executive clemency is...

A. Judicial function
B. Executive function
C. Legislative function
D. Court function

198. What is referred to as hustling inside the prison?

A. befriending a prison guard.
Section S: S.Y. 2024-2025/C.P.A
 B. selling illegal commodities.
C. doing assigned prison assignment.
D. reporting illegal activities

199. It was an age of response to the industrialization, urbanization, technological

change, and advancement of science that had revolutionized the landscape.
A. age of reform
B. age of reason
C. age of correction
D. age of enlightenment

200. Who is the Father of Modern Penology and Parole?

A. Alexander Maconochie
B. John Augustus
C. John Howard
D. Maconochie

CA3
THERAPEUTIC MODALITIES

1. Is a self-help social learning treatment model used for clients with problems of drug
abuse and other behavioral problems such as alcoholism, stealing, and other anti-social
tendencies.
A. Community Therapy
B. Therapeutic Community Modality
C. Treatment Modalities
D. Therapeutic Models

2. Which of the following describes the goals and functions of therapeutic community
modality program?
I. The program helps participants live as a community of concerned people with
expectations and commitment that foster individual change and positive growth.
II. PDLs as participants of the program help each other discover and establish their self-
worth, inherent talents and potentials.

Section S: S.Y. 2024-2025/C.P.A

III. The goal of the program is to help inmates gain the ability to return to the mainstream
of society and live a productive life.
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

3. In the concept of therapeutic community, this term refers to the group of PDLs helping
each other facilitate reformation while serving sentence inside confinement area.
A. Brothers/Sisters
B. Family
C. Jail/Prison Staff
D. Community3

4. It was introduced by Dr. Maxwell Jones to treat soldiers who had developed neurosis or
“shell-shock syndrome” during and after the World War II.
A. Hierarchical Therapeutic Community
B. Democratic Therapeutic Community
C. Therapeutic Community Modality
D. Therapeutic Community

5. It is a self-help community set up by Charles Dederich in San Francisco in 1959, which

uses the community of peers and role models as change agents rather than professional
clinicians and trained correctional officers. It is less democratic in operation and more
hierarchical in structure.
A. Democratic Therapeutic Community
B. Community Modality
C. American Therapeutic Community
D. Hierarchical Therapeutic Community

6. Rehabilitation and reformation program of the BJMP where all PDLs under custody are
provided with three meals, adequate supply of potable water, uniform, and hygiene kits.
A. Health Services
B. Enhancement Program
C. Provision of Basic Needs
D. Livelihood Program

7. Refers to instructional programs for courses that focus on the skills required for a
particular job function or trade.
A. Vocation
B. Vocational Skills
C. Vocational Training
D. Survival Skills

8. A rehabilitation program of the BJMP which aims to provide opportunities for PDLs to
achieve basic education.
A. Counselling
B. Educational Program
C. Skills Training
D. Enhancement Program

9. It includes a wide range of counselling techniques and therapy programs which address
the psychological problems of inmates, including suicidal thoughts and feelings of
rejection which may lead to disruption of peace and order within the prison compounds.
A. Work and Livelihood
B. Sports and Recreation
C. Healthcare Service
D. Medical Services

10. While serving their sentence in jail, the PDLs undergo skills training to prepare them
for employment or starting their own business after release.
A. Skills Training/Enhancement Program
B. Provision of Basic Needs
C. Livelihood Program
D. Modification Program

Section S: S.Y. 2024-2025/C.P.A

11. This rehabilitation program presents income-generating activities to PDL during their
confinement.
A. Livelihood Program
B. Modification Program
C. Skills Training/Enhancement Program
D. Livelihood Program

12. An alternative to the traditional face-to-face visitation between PDL and their families.
This service enables the PDL to connect with his/her family through a supervised video call
and chat.
A. Communication Program
B. Messenger
C. E-dalaw
D. Family Program

13. In this program, PDLs are assisted in availing the different early modes of release to
address the overcrowding jail facilities.
A. Paralegal Program
B. Counselling
C. Enhancement Program
D. PAO

14. A support service under the BJMP whose main function is to receive complaints
concerning human rights violations from PDL and visitors and to report the complaints thru
the appropriate reporting system to the concerned BJMP offices.
A. Help Desk
B. Human Rights Desk
C. Paralegal Desk
D. Referrals for Aftercare

15. These are addressed to the local government units, non-government organizations and
the business sector usually include but not limited to seeking immediate financial
assistance for PDL’s repatriation, employment assistance, etc.
A. Certificate of Good Moral Character
B. Certificate of Referral
C. Referral for Future Employment
D. Referrals for Aftercare

16. A professional relationship that empowers diverse individuals, families, and groups to
accomplish mental health, wellness, education, and career goals.
A. Restitution
B. Reparation
C. Rehabilitation
D. Counselling

17. Referrals for aftercare is not limited only while the PDL are in custody, they can avail in
anytime.
A. True
B. Partly true
C. False
D. Partly false

18. The following can receive special programs for vulnerable groups, except
A. Senior Citizen PDL
B. Pregnant PDL
C. Both A and C
D. None of the above

19. A special program of the BJMP for vulnerable groups of PDL to ensure compliance to
pre-natal and post-natal care.
A. Services for Child-birth
B. Services for Pregnant PDL
C. Services for Women PDL
D. Services for Mother PDL

Section S: S.Y. 2024-2025/C.P.A

20. This special service of the BJMP is aimed at reducing incidence of mental health
disorders and developing positive coping mechanisms.
A. Mental Health Services
B. Psychological Services
C. Psychiatric Services
D. Mental Hospital Services

21. Under the BJMP special programs, members of the LGBT community may be
segregated from the general population in terms of housing to prevent potential
mistreatments towards them.
A. Partly yes
B. Partly no
C. True
D. False

22. The following are special programs under the BJMP rehabilitation and reformation
program.
I. Drug Counseling for PDL w/ Substance Abuse
II. Services for Pregnant PDL
III. Services for PDL with Disabilities
IV. Mental Health Services
A. I, II, and III only
B. I and II only
C. II, III, and IV only
D. All of the above

23. Drug counseling for PDL with substance use disorder is the process of providing drug
counseling using what approach?
A. Katatagan Kontra Droga sa Komunidad
B. Katutubo Kontra Droga
C. Kabataan Kontra Droga at Terorismo
D. None of the above

24. It is a phase in the BJMP TCMP where a PDL undergoes series of examination to
determine their physical, social and psychological status, upon his commitment, is placed
on orientation at the RDC/orientation room.
A. Primary Orientation Phase
B. Orientation Phase
C. Primary Treatment Phase
D. Phase of Aftercare

25. In this BJMP TCMP phase, the PDL must be knowledgeable of the proper use of the
different tools to address personal issues and concerns and shape behavior and managing
own feelings and learning how to express self appropriately.
A. Orientation Phase
B. Secondary Treatment
C. Primary Treatment
D. Pre-entry
26. The following are the focus of the pre-re-entry phase in BJMP TCMP, except
A. Rebuilding of social and family lies
B. Mapping out of plans
C. Going up the ladder of hierarchy/leadership
D. None of these

27. A resident at this stage of TCMP is now ready to be released back to society as he has
demonstrated adequate self-control and discipline.
A. Re-entry
B. pre-re-entry
C. Aftercare
D. Primary Treatment

28. The last phase in BJMP TCMP which requires clients to report twice a week to an
outreach center and attend group sessions.
A. Aftercare

Section S: S.Y. 2024-2025/C.P.A

 B. Re-entry
C. pre-re-entry
D. Orientation Phase

29. It establishes linkages to ensure re-integration opportunities for released detainees.

A. Inmates Reintegration Referral System
B. Inmate Reintegration Program
C. Inmates Pre-reintegration Referral System
D. Inmate Pre-reintegration

30. Which among the following are programs under the reformation and rehabilitation
program of BuCor?
I. Moral and Spiritual Program
II. Work and Livelihood Program
III. Education and Training Program
IV. Enhancement Program
A. All except III
B. All except I
C. All except IV
D. All of the above

31. BuCor shall undertake reception of inmates through its Directorate for Reception and
Diagnostics (formerly RDC. provide their basic needs and security, administer their
reformation programs, and prepare inmates for reintegration to mainstream society.
A. Maybe true
B. True
C. Maybe false
D. False

32. It is a process and philosophy whereby the offender, victim, and community
collectively determine how to deal with the consequences of the crime of a specific
offense, thereby moving all stakeholders towards the healing of wounds created by the
commission of the said offense.
A. Therapeutic Community
B. Volunteerism
C. Restorative Justice
D. Treatment

33. Views crime primarily as acts that violate criminal laws established by governments.
A. Victim Advocacy Program
B. Rehabilitation Programs
C. Rehabilitative Justice
D. Restorative Justice

34. An environment that helps people get help while helping others. It is a treatment
environment: the interaction of its members is designed to be therapeutic within the
context of the norms that require each to play the dual role of client therapist.
A. Therapeutic Community
B. Community Modality
C. Therapeutic Modalities
D. Therapeutic Models

35. By the end of this decade, TC shall have become the corporate culture of the Parole
and Probation Administration permeating its plans, programs, and practices, and
confirming its status as a model component of the Philippine Correctional System.
A. Therapeutic Community Vision
B. Therapeutic Community Mission
C. Therapeutic 36. Community Function
D. Therapeutic Community Goal

36. What does not belong to the three pillars of restorative justice as listed by Howard
Zehr?
A. Harms and Needs
B. Obligations
C. Engagements

Section S: S.Y. 2024-2025/C.P.A

 D. Encounter

37. It is a program of the Parole and Probation Administration (PPA. aimed at generating
maximum, effective and efficient citizen participation and community involvement in the
process of client rehabilitation, prevention of crime and the overall administration of
criminal justice.
A. Volunteer
B. Volunteerism
C. Volunteers
D. Volunteering

38. The restoring to the rightful owner what has been lost or taken away. Payment for an
injury or loss.
A. Restitution
B. Reparation
C. Restoration
D. Rehabilitation

39. Compensation given for an abuse or injury in transitional justice.

A. Restoration
B. Reparation
C. Restitution
D. Rehabilitation

40. Recreates missing features, based upon physical or documentary evidence to return a
property to its appearance at a specific point in time.
A. Restitution
B. Reparation
C. Restoration
D. Rehabilitation

41. A program to assist victims of crime through the criminal justice system.
A. Victim Advocacy Program
B. Rehabilitation Programs
C. Rehabilitative Justice
D. None of these

42. Designed to reduce recidivism among adult offenders by improving their behaviors,
skills, mental health, social functioning and access to education and employment.
A. Victim Advocacy Program
B. Rehabilitation Programs
C. Rehabilitative Justice
D. None of these

43. Takes a therapeutic approach that addresses an offender's need for treatment. Victims
are central to the process of resolving a crime.
A. Rehabilitative Justice
B. Restorative Justice
C. Rehabilitation Program
D. Restorative Program
44. A component of the therapeutic community modality program that introduces the
concept and mechanics of the various shaping tools to include morning meeting in order
to facilitate the management of and shape the behavior of the residents.
A. Pre-morning Meeting
B. Behavior Management
C. Psychological and Emotional Aspect
D. General Meeting

45. A component of behavioral management where the senior residents and counselor will
discuss he activities to be engaged in the morning meeting.
A. Talk to
B. Pre-morning meeting
C. Morning meeting
D. Pull-up

Section S: S.Y. 2024-2025/C.P.A

46. Morning meeting is a daily ritual that starts the day in Therapeutic Community facility.
A. True
B. False
C. Maybe
D. None of the above

47. It is a form of behavioral shaping tool referred to as an outright correction done by any
member of the therapeutic community to another member who has done a minor
infraction but is not aware of it; a friendly reminder or advice about an unacceptable
behavior and must be done privately.
A. Pull-up
B. Morning meeting
C. Talk to
D. Learning experience

48. Talk to as a behavior shaping tool may be best done through ______.
A. Communal discussion
B. Friendly counseling
C. Disciplinary action
D. Private conversation

49. A behavior shaping tool applied in extreme cases when a resident is incorrigible and
becomes a threat to the community.
A. Dealt with
B. Haircut
C. Learning experience
D. Expulsion

50. It is done when a negative behavior/infraction to the House rules/norms are done for
the second time of the same offense by a resident.
A. Pull-up
B. Dealt with
C. Talk to
D. Haircut

51. It is an action or activity given to a resident who has subject to haircut or general
meeting who did an infraction to correct or modify a behavior.
A. Haircut
B. Talk to
C. Bans
D. Learning experience

52. This is applicable in extreme cases, when a resident is incorrigible and becomes a
threat to the community.
A. General Meeting
B. Haircut
C. Expulsion
D. Learning Experience

53. A component of therapeutic community modality program that focuses on processing

the members’ feelings which does not only lie on how freely the members express them,
but more so on their ability to identify, acknowledge, and express their thoughts, feelings,
and emotions properly.
A. Behavior Management
B. Psychological and Emotional Aspect
C. Intellectual and Spiritual Components
D. None of the above

54. The objective is to provide support to residents who fall behind and raise awareness
about problematic behaviors and help them develop their social and communication skills
while interacting with others.
A. Group Counseling
B. Individual Counseling
C. Static Groups
D. Initial Interview

Section S: S.Y. 2024-2025/C.P.A

55. A process which involves community of people most affected by the crime which
involves restorative discussion of issues and problems arising from an offense or
coincidence which affects community relationship and tranquility.
A. Peace talks
B. Conferencing
C. Community support restitution
D. Restitution

56. In therapeutic community, it is any action or activity that reflects or brings out the
goodness in a man; summarizes a man’s relationship with himself, others, and the
Supreme Being.
A. Spirit
B. Religion
C. Spirituality
D. Intellectual Component

57. This component responds to the natural human characteristics of yearning for
knowledge in order to attain a higher level of understanding and it helps the residents
restore their self-esteem as their minds become open to ideas.
A. Intelligence Component
B. Spirituality Component
C. Intellectual Component
D. Spiritual Component

58. A therapeutic community unwritten philosophy which points out the importance of
truth and its relevance to recovery.
A. “Responsible love and concern”
B. “Honesty”
C. “Act as if”
D. “Humility”

59. An unwritten philosophy in therapeutic community which states to accept what has
been done, move on and get over the hurt and anger as it will give us a feeling of inner
peace and happiness.
A. “Humility”
B. “Forgiveness”
C. “Personal growth before vested status”
D. “Honesty”

60. These are activities that provide intellectual stimulation and seek personal
involvement among the members of the therapeutic community as a way of providing
information and improving their listening ability to understand all the information being
presented.
A. Seminars
B. Debates
C. Data sessions
D. Educational activities

61. The following are indicators of livelihood and skills training program except:
A. Self-reliant individuals
B. Generate income
C. Resourceful and creative individuals
D. Mind games

62. Shall include the practice of issuing an “invitation” to a person who is investigated in
connection with the offense he is suspected to have committed.
A. Investigation
B. Custodial survey
C. Custodial investigation
D. All of the above

63. A program to assist victims of crime through the criminal justice system.
A. Victim advocacy program
B. Rehabilitation programs

Section S: S.Y. 2024-2025/C.P.A

 C. Rehabilitative justice
D. None of these

64. Is any counsel lawyer, except those directly affected by the case or those charged with
conducting preliminary investigation or those charged with the prosecution of crimes.
A. Court
B. Counsel
C. Court lawyer
D. Assisting counsel

65. _____ means that anything discussed during counselling sessions is held absolutely
private and not to be discussed anywhere.
A. Confidentiality
B. Congruence
C. Top secret
D. Secret files

66. Natural rights are coffered and protected by the constitution, and which cannot be
modified or taken away by the law-making body.
A. True
B. False
C. Maybe
D. Both A and B

67. These rights are violated through genocide torture and arbitrary arrest.
A. Civil and political
B. Natural and civil
C. God given rights and civil
D. None these

68. An act providing assistance and protection for rape victims establishing for the
purpose a rape crisis center in every province and city authorizing the appropriation of
funds therefor, and for other purposes.
A. R.A 8505
B. R.A 9090
C. R.A 1080
D. R.A 9870

69. The United Nations standard minimum rules for treatment prisoners is also known as
A. Beijing rules
B. Tokyo rules
C. Bangkok rules
D. Nelson Mandela Rules

70. The success of the therapeutic community modality program can be tested through
A. Acceptance of the community
B. Deduction of crime rate
C. Reduction of the crime rate
D. Decrease in crime rate

71. Who are the first recipients of therapeutic modality in the Philippine Correctional
System?
A. Probationers
B. Parolees
C. Drug offenders
D. Juvenile Delinquents

72. When a resident has proven his in corrigibility, non-cooperativeness, and arrogance
displayed by the frequent commission of serious offenses, expulsion may be a resort.
What expulsion here means?
A. Release of resident
B. Exoneration from the violation
B. Ostracization and transportation
D. Transfer of facility

Section S: S.Y. 2024-2025/C.P.A

73. Which among the following is the intended outcome of rehabilitation of PDL’s?
A. Restoration of right to liberty
B. Restoration of self-respect
C. Understanding accountability
D. Changing his behavior

74. According to Martinson, nothing works when it comes to rehabilitation due to _____.
A. Lack of community support
B. Lack of funds
C. Improper implementation
D. Unresponsive programs

75. After issues have been confronted, explored and resolved in the TC, what activity is
encouraged to achieve closure and reaffirm relationships?
A. Amicable settlement
B. Monitoring
C. Socialization
D. Acquaintance party

76. What is the significance of the payment of civil liability as one of the activities of TCMP
on the part of the PDL?
A. It lessens his guilt and calms his conscience
B. It restores his self-respect
C. It enhances his chances of reformation
D. It instils him a sense of accountability

77. Which among the following is not one of the objectives of behavior management?
A. Use of various shaping tools
B. Institutionalization of shaping tools
C. Reintegration of residents into the community
D. Understanding the essence of behavioral management

78. Which among the following is not one of the cardinal rules in BJMP TC?
A. No violence
B. No drugs
C. No procrastination
D. No stealing

79. What could be inferred from the introduction of the therapeutic community modality
program into the correctional systems in the Philippines?
A. Implementation of Mandela Rules
B. Commitment to democracy
C. Understanding the purpose of corrections
D. Compliance with United Nations

80. Which among the following is still a problem with regards to the rehabilitation of drug
offenders in the country that lessens voluntariness to such programs?
A. Stigmatization
B. Ignorance
C. Fear of imprisonment
D. Lack of facilities
81. Refers to the use of punishment for criminal activity intended to discourage a specific
individual from re-offending.
A. Deterrence
B. Specific deterrence
C. General deterrence
D. Any of the above

82. Under the victim compensation program, when the victim suffered damage or injury or
after the victim was released from imprisonment or detention, when was the filing period
to provide financial compensation for victims?
A. Within 3 months
B. Within 6 months
C. Within 9 months
D. Within 12 months

Section S: S.Y. 2024-2025/C.P.A

83. In reality, the majority of the people in the Philippines regard correctional institutions
as ______?
A. Place of suffering
B. Place of retribution
C. Place of reformation
D. Place for karma

84. Which among the following may best illustrate the concept of TC’s spirituality and
intellectual component?
A. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
B. Freudian psychoanalysis
C. Socrates’ concept of self
D. Aristotle’s principle of moderation

85. Which among the following is the number one problem and challenge for released
inmates upon their re-entry?
A. Lack of opportunities
B. Acceptance of the public
C. Financial incapacity
D. Culture shock

86. In TCMP, what does a person needs to live a fully functional healthy lifestyle?
A. Strong family support and healthy neighborhood
B. Strong sense of personal and social responsibility
C. A supportive community and functional government
D. Competent education and availability of opportunities

87. Under the DOJ-PPA Rehabilitation Program, these are the approaches to crime
prevention and treatment of offenders, EXCEPT
A. Restorative Justice
B. Therapeutic Community;
C. Volunteers
D. Punishment

88. Based on the concept that your thoughts, feelings, physical sensations and actions
are interconnected, and that negative thoughts and feelings can trap you in a vicious
cycle. This aims to help you deal with overwhelming problems in a more positive way by
breaking them down into smaller parts.
A. Behavior Therapy
B. Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
C. Humanistic Therapy
D. Integrative or holistic Therapy

89. A mental health approach that emphasizes the importance of being your true self in
order to lead the most fulfilling life. It's based on the principle that everyone has their own
unique way of looking at the world. This view can impact your choices and actions.
A. Behavior Therapy
B. Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
C. Humanistic Therapy
D. Integrative/Holistic Therapy
90. An integrative approach grounded in psychosynthesis, focuses on the relationship
between mind, body, and spirit, attempting to understand and address the ways issues in
one aspect of a person can lead to concerns in other areas.
A. Behavior Therapy
B. Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
C. Humanistic Therapy
D. Integrative/Holistic Therapy

91. Is a self-help social learning treatment model used for clients with problems of drug
abuse and other behavioral problems such as alcoholism, stealing, and other anti-social
tendencies.
A. Community Therapy
B. Therapeutic Community Modality
C. Treatment Modalities

Section S: S.Y. 2024-2025/C.P.A

 D. Therapeutic Models

92. Which of the following describes the goals and functions of therapeutic community
modality program?
a. The program helps participants live as a community of concerned people with
expectations and commitment that foster individual change and positive growth.
b. PDLs as participants of the program help each other discover and establish their
self-worth, inherent talents and potentials.
c. The goal of the program is to help inmates gain the ability to return to the
mainstream of society and live a productive life.
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

3. In the concept of therapeutic community, this term refers to the group of PDLs helping
each other facilitate reformation while serving sentence inside confinement area.
A. Brothers/Sisters
B. Family
C. Jail/Prison Staff
D. Community

94. It was introduced by Dr. Maxwell Jones to treat soldiers who had developed neurosis or
“shell-shock syndrome” during and after the World War II.
A. Hierarchical Therapeutic Community
B. Democratic Therapeutic
C. Therapeutic Community Modality
D. Therapeutic Community

95. It is a self-help community set up by Charles Dederich in San Francisco in 1959, which
uses the community of peers and role models as change agents rather than professional
clinicians and trained correctional officers. It is less democratic in operation and more
hierarchical in structure.
A. Democratic Therapeutic Community
B. Community Modality
C. American Therapeutic Community
D. Hierarchical Therapeutic Community

96. Rehabilitation and reformation program of the BJMP where all PDLs under custody are
provided with three meals, adequate supply of potable water, uniform, and hygiene kits.
A. Health Services
B. Enhancement Program
C. Provision of Basic Needs
D. Livelihood Program

97. Refers to instructional programs for courses that focus on the skills required for a
particular job function or trade.
A. Vocation
B. Vocational Skills
C. Vocational Training
D. Survival Skills
98. A rehabilitation program of the BJMP which aims to provide opportunities for PDLs to
achieve basic education.
A. Counselling
B. Educational Program
C. Skills Training
D. Enhancement Program

99. It includes a wide range of counselling techniques and therapy programs which
address the psychological problems of inmates, including suicidal thoughts and feelings of
rejection which may lead to disruption of peace and order within the prison compounds.
A. Work and Livelihood
B. Sports and Recreation
C. Healthcare Service
D. Medical Services

Section S: S.Y. 2024-2025/C.P.A

100. While serving their sentence in jail, the PDLs undergo skills training to prepare them
for employment or starting their own business after release.
A. Skills Training/Enhancement Program
B. Provision of Basic Needs
C. Livelihood Program
D. Modification Program

101. This rehabilitation program presents income-generating activities to PDL during their
confinement.
A. Livelihood Program
B. Modification Program
C. Skills Training/Enhancement Program
D. Livelihood Program

102. An alternative to the traditional face-to-face visitation between PDL and their
families. This service enables the PDL to connect with his/her family through a supervised
video call and chat.
A. Communication Program
B. Messenger
C. E-dalaw
D. Family Program

103. In this program, PDLs are assisted in availing the different early modes of release to
address the overcrowding jail facilities.
A. Paralegal Program
B. Counselling
C. Enhancement Program
D. PAO

104. A support service under the BJMP whose main function is to receive complaints
concerning human rights violations from PDL and visitors and to report the complaints thru
the appropriate reporting system to the concerned BJMP offices.
A. Help Desk
B. Human Rights Desk
C. Paralegal Desk
D. Referrals for Aftercare

105. These are addressed to the local government units, non-government organizations
and the business sector usually include but not limited to seeking immediate financial
assistance for PDL’s repatriation, employment assistance, etc.
A. Certificate of Good Moral Character
B. Certificate of Referral
C. Referral for Future Employment
D. Referrals for Aftercare

106. A professional relationship that empowers diverse individuals, families, and groups to
accomplish mental health, wellness, education, and career goals.
A. Restitution
B. Reparation
C. Rehabilitation
D. Counselling

107. Referrals for aftercare is not limited only while the PDL are in custody, they can avail
in anytime.
A. True
B. Partly true
C. False
D. Partly false

108. The following can receive special programs for vulnerable groups, except
A. Senior Citizen PDL
B. Pregnant PDL
C. Both A and C
D. None of the above

Section S: S.Y. 2024-2025/C.P.A

109. A special program of the BJMP for vulnerable groups of PDL to ensure compliance to
pre-natal and post-natal care.
A. Services for Child-birth
B. Services for Pregnant PDL
C. Services for Women PDL
D. Services for Mother PDL

110. This special service of the BJMP is aimed at reducing incidence of mental health
disorders and developing positive coping mechanisms.
A. Mental Health Services
B. Psychological Services
C. Psychiatric Services
D. Mental Hospital Services

111. Under the BJMP special programs, members of the LGBT community may be
segregated from the general population in terms of housing to prevent potential
mistreatments towards them.
A. Partly yes
B. Partly no
C. True
D. False

112. The following are special programs under the BJMP rehabilitation and reformation
program.
I. Drug Counseling for PDL w/ Substance Abuse
II. Services for Pregnant PDL
III. Services for PDL with Disabilities
IV. Mental Health Services
A. I, II, and III only
B. I and II only
C. II, III, and IV only
D. All of the above

113. Drug counseling for PDL with substance use disorder is the process of providing drug
counseling using what approach?
A. Katatagan Kontra Droga sa Komunidad
B. Katutubo Kontra Droga
C. Kabataan Kontra Droga at Terorismo
D. None of the above

114. It is a phase in the BJMP TCMP where a PDL undergoes series of examination to
determine their physical, social and psychological status, upon his commitment, is placed
on orientation at the RDC/orientation room.
A. Primary Orientation Phase
B. Orientation Phase
C. Primary Treatment Phase
D. Phase of Aftercare

115. In this BJMP TCMP phase, the PDL must be knowledgeable of the proper use of the
different tools to address personal issues and concerns and shape behavior and managing
own feelings and learning how to express self appropriately.
A. Orientation Phase
B. Secondary Treatment
C. Primary Treatment
D. Pre-entry

116. The following are the focus of the pre-re-entry phase in BJMP TCMP, except
A. Rebuilding of social and family lies
B. Mapping out of plans
C. Going up the ladder of hierarchy/leadership
D. None of these

117. A resident at this stage of TCMP is now ready to be released back to society as he has
demonstrated adequate self-control and discipline.

Section S: S.Y. 2024-2025/C.P.A

 A. Re-entry
B. pre-re-entry
C. Aftercare
D. Primary Treatment

118. The last phase in BJMP TCMP which requires clients to report twice a week to an
outreach center and attend group sessions.
A. Aftercare
B. Re-entry
C. Pre-re-entry
D. Orientation Phase

119. It establishes linkages to ensure re-integration opportunities for released detainees.

A. Inmates Reintegration Referral System
B. Inmate Reintegration Program
C. Inmates Pre-reintegration Referral System
D. Inmate Pre-reintegration

120. Which among the following are programs under the reformation and rehabilitation
program of BuCor?
I. Moral and Spiritual Program
II. Work and Livelihood Program
III. Education and Training Program
IV. Enhancement Program
A. All except III
B. All except I
C. All except IV
D. All of the above

121. BuCor shall undertake reception of inmates through its Directorate for Reception and
Diagnostics (formerly RDC. provide their basic needs and security, administer their
reformation programs, and prepare inmates for reintegration to mainstream society.
A. Maybe true
B. True
C. Maybe false
D. False

122. It is a process and philosophy whereby the offender, victim, and community
collectively determine how to deal with the consequences of the crime of a specific
offense, thereby moving all stakeholders towards the healing of wounds created by the
commission of the said offense.
A. Therapeutic Community
B. Volunteerism
C. Restorative Justice
D. Treatment

123. Views crime primarily as acts that violate criminal laws established by governments.
A. Victim Advocacy Program
B. Rehabilitation Programs
C. Rehabilitative Justice
D. Restorative Justice

24. An environment that helps people get help while helping others. It is a treatment
environment: the interaction of its members is designed to be therapeutic within the
context of the norms that require each to play the dual role of client therapist.
A. Therapeutic Community
B. Community Modality
C. Therapeutic Modalities
D. Therapeutic Models

125. By the end of this decade, TC shall have become the corporate culture of the Parole
and Probation Administration permeating its plans, programs, and practices, and
confirming its status as a model component of the Philippine Correctional System.
A. Therapeutic Community Vision
B. Therapeutic Community Mission

Section S: S.Y. 2024-2025/C.P.A

 C. Therapeutic Community Function
D. Therapeutic Community Goal

126. What does not belong to the three pillars of restorative justice as listed by Howard
Zehr?
A. Harms and Needs
B. Obligations
C. Engagements
D. Encounter

127. It is a program of the Parole and Probation Administration (PPA. aimed at generating
maximum, effective and efficient citizen participation and community involvement in the
process of client rehabilitation, prevention of crime and the overall administration of
criminal justice.
A. Volunteer
B. Volunteerism
C. Volunteers
D. Volunteering

128. The restoring to the rightful owner what has been lost or taken away. Payment for an
injury or loss.
A. Restitution
B. Reparation
C. Restoration
D. Rehabilitation

129. Compensation given for an abuse or injury in transitional justice.

A. Restoration
B. Reparation
C. Restitution
D. Rehabilitation

130. Recreates missing features, based upon physical or documentary evidence to return
a property to its appearance at a specific point in time.
A. Restitution
B. Reparation
C. Restoration
D. Rehabilitation

131. A program to assist victims of crime through the criminal justice system.
A. Victim Advocacy Program
B. Rehabilitation Programs
C. Rehabilitative Justice
D. None of these

132. Designed to reduce recidivism among adult offenders by improving their behaviors,
skills, mental health, social functioning and access to education and employment.
A. Victim Advocacy Program
B. Rehabilitation Programs
C. Rehabilitative Justice
D. None of these

133. Takes a therapeutic approach that addresses an offender's need for treatment.
Victims are central to the process of resolving a crime.
A. Rehabilitative Justice
B. Restorative Justice
C. Rehabilitation Program
D. Restorative Program

134. A component of the therapeutic community modality program that introduces the
concept and mechanics of the various shaping tools to include morning meeting in order
to facilitate the management of and shape the behavior of the residents.
A. Pre-morning Meeting
B. Behavior Management
C. Psychological and Emotional Aspect

Section S: S.Y. 2024-2025/C.P.A

 D. General Meeting

135. A component of behavioral management where the senior residents and counselor
will discuss he activities to be engaged in the morning meeting.
A. Talk to
B. Pre-morning meeting
C. Morning meeting
D. Pull-up

136. Morning meeting is a daily ritual that starts the day in Therapeutic Community
facility.
A. True
B. False
C. Maybe
D. None of the above

137. It is a form of behavioral shaping tool referred to as an outright correction done by

any member of the therapeutic community to another member who has done a minor
infraction but is not aware of it; a friendly reminder or advice about an unacceptable
behavior and must be done privately.
A. Pull-up
B. Morning meeting
C. Talk to
D. Learning experience

138. Talk to as a behavior shaping tool may be best done through ______.
A. Communal discussion
B. Friendly counseling
C. Disciplinary action
D. Private conversation

139. A behavior shaping tool applied in extreme cases when a resident is incorrigible and
becomes a threat to the community.
A. Dealt with
B. Haircut
C. Learning experience
D. Expulsion

140. It is done when a negative behavior/infraction to the House rules/norms are done for
the second time of the same offense by a resident.
A. Pull-up
B. Dealt with
C. Talk to
D. Haircut

141. It is an action or activity given to a resident who has subject to haircut or general
meeting who did an infraction to correct or modify a behavior.
A. Haircut
B. Talk to
C. Bans
D. Learning experience
142. This is applicable in extreme cases, when a resident is incorrigible and becomes a
threat to the community.
A. General Meeting
B. Haircut
C. Expulsion
D. Learning Experience

143. A component of therapeutic community modality program that focuses on processing

the members’ feelings which does not only lie on how freely the members express them,
but more so on their ability to identify, acknowledge, and express their thoughts, feelings,
and emotions properly.
A. Behavior Management
B. Psychological and Emotional Aspect
C. Intellectual and Spiritual Components

Section S: S.Y. 2024-2025/C.P.A

 D. None of the above

144. The objective is to provide support to residents who fall behind and raise awareness
about problematic behaviors and help them develop their social and communication skills
while interacting with others.
A. Group Counseling
B. Individual Counseling
C. Static Groups
D. Initial Interview

145. A process which involves community of people most affected by the crime which
involves restorative discussion of issues and problems arising from an offense or
coincidence which affects community relationship and tranquility.
A. Peace talks
B. Conferencing
C. Community support restitution
D. Restitution

146. In therapeutic community, it is any action or activity that reflects or brings out the
goodness in a man; summarizes a man’s relationship with himself, others, and the
Supreme Being.
A. Spirit
B. Religion
C. Spirituality
D. Intellectual Component

147. This component responds to the natural human characteristics of yearning for
knowledge in order to attain a higher level of understanding and it helps the residents
restore their self-esteem as their minds become open to ideas.
A. Intelligence Component
B. Spirituality Component
C. Intellectual Component
D. Spiritual Component

148. A therapeutic community unwritten philosophy which points out the importance of
truth and its relevance to recovery.
A. “Responsible love and concern”
B. “Honesty”
C. “Act as if”
D. “Humility”

149. An unwritten philosophy in therapeutic community which states to accept what has
been done, move on and get over the hurt and anger as it will give us a feeling of inner
peace and happiness.
A. “Humility”
B. “Forgiveness”
C. “Personal growth before vested status”
D. “Honesty”

150. These are activities that provide intellectual stimulation and seek personal
involvement among the members of the therapeutic community as a way of providing
information and improving their listening ability to understand all the information being
presented.
A. Seminars
B. Debates
C. Data sessions
D. Educational activities

Section S: S.Y. 2024-2025/C.P.A