TEST AND DISCUSSION

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GRAND TEST – 1, PART – A QUESTION & ANSWERS

1. A new born present with the congenital anomaly of cleft lip. Which is the embryological development defect?
A. Non fusion of palatine shelves
B. Non fusion of medial nasal process &maxillary process
C. Non fusion of lateral nasal process & maxillary process
D. Separation of nasal septum&vomer from palatine process

1. Ans. B
EXPLANATION:
Cleft lip is a birth defect in which a baby's upper lip doesn't form completely and has an opening in it. Cleft palate is a birth defect in
which a baby's palate (roof of the mouth) doesn't form completely and has an opening in it. These birth defects are called oral clefts or
orofacial clefts.

2. A patient came to the physician with complains of chest pain which is radiating to the left arm, which nerve will cause pain?
A. Musculocutaneous nerve
B. Intercostobrachial nerve
C. Medial cutaneous nerve of arm
D. Medial cutaneous nerve of forearm

2. ANS: B
EXPLANATION:
The intercostobrachial nerve (ICBN) is a cutaneous nerve that provides sensation to the lateral chest, medial aspect of the upper
arm, and the axilla. The ICBN is a cutaneous sensory nerve that supplies the medial aspect of the upper arm. Traditionally this nerve
is blocked to alleviate tourniquet pain. The etiology of tourniquet pain is complex and the study team hypothesize that blocking the
ICBN has no impact on tourniquet pain.

3. Which of the following is aberrant epiphysis -

A. Coracoid process B. Greater tubercle of humerus
C. Base of 1st metacarpal D. Base of 2nd metacarpal

3. ANS:- D. Base of 2nd metacarpal

Explanation: All Phalanx and First Metacarpal have Epiphysis at Base. 2nd to 5th Metacarpal have Epiphysis at Head i.e. Head of 1st
metacarpal &Base of 2nd metacarpal is aberrant epiphysis

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4. The type of joint between the sacrum and the coccyx is a:

(a) Symphysis (b) Syostosis
(c) Synchondrosis (d) Syndesmosis

4. ANS:- (a) Symphysis

Explanation: Symphysis
- Epiphyseo- diaphyseal growth plate, consto chondral, 1st chondro sternal and sterno ocipital joint are synchondrosis/ syncendrosis or
primary cartilaginous joints; whereas, symphysis pubis, symphysis menti, sacrococcygeal, intervertebral and manubriosternal joints are
symphyses or secondary cartilage joint

5. All are true regarding axillary lymph nodes. Except?

A. Posterior group lies along subscapular vessels
B. Lateral group lies along lateral thoracic vessels
C. Apical group lies along axillary vessels
D. Apical group is terminal lymph nodes

5. ANS:- B. Lateral group lies along lateral thoracic vessels

Explanation:
Lateral group lies along the upper part of the humerus in relation to the axillary vein.

6. Which of the following nerve is damaged due to lunate dislocation (in carpal tunnel)?
A. Median & ulnar B. Median
C. Ulnar D. Radial

6. ANS:- B. Median
Explanation:
Ant. dislocation of lunate leads to carpal tunnel syndrome compressing Median nerve

7. Which of the following muscle is a derivative of mandibular arch?

A. Stylopharyngeus B. Tensor tympani
C. Platysma D. Cricothyroid

7. Ans:- B. Tensor tympani

The tensor tympani muscle is derived from first pharyngeal arch (mandibular arch).

The muscles that are derived from the first pharyngeal arch include the following:
Muscles of mastication
Anterior Belly of digastric
Mylohyoid
Tensor tympani
Tensor veli palatini

8. Which passive movement causes pain in the deep posterior compartment syndrome?
A. Foot abduction B. Dorsiflexion of foot
C. Plantar flexion of foot D. Foot adduction

8. ANS:- B. Dorsiflexion of foot

Explanation:
Dorsiflexion of foot will cause passive extension of tendons of posterior compartment and such passive movement causes pain in
deep posterior compartment syndrome.

9. A 10-year-old boy taken for venesection of great saphenous vein developed sudden pain & parasthesia on the medial aspect of
great toe after giving incision over the vein & ligating it. Which of the following nerve is most likely involved?
A. Sural nerve
B. Deep peroneal nerve
C. Medial planter nerve
D. Saphenous nerve

9. ANS:- D. Saphenous nerve

Explanation:
Saphenous nerve will be injured which accompanies Great Saphenous vein.

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10. Structures passing through superior orbital fissure include All Except:
(a) Oculomotor (3rd), trochlear (4th) N & abducent (6th) N
(b) Nasociliary & lacrimal nerves
(c) Superior & inferior ophthalmic vein
(d) Trigeminal (5th) & optic (2th) nerve

10. ANS:- (d) Trigeminal (5th) & optic (2th) nerve

Explanation:
3rd (oculomotor), 4th (trochlear), 6 th (abducent) and lacrimal, frontal and naso- ciliary branches of ophthalmic division of trigeminal
nerve (not the trigeminal 5th nerve), superior & inferior ophthalmic vein pass through superior orbital fissure.

11. The fundus of the following organ marked as B is located at which vertebral level?

A. L1 B. L3
C. S1 D. S3

11. ANS:- A. L1
Explanation:
L1
Trans pyloric plane passes through  Pylorus of stomach, Fundus of gallbladder, Hila of both kidneys, Origin of superior mesenteric
artery & Terminal part of spinal cord.

12. At birth, an infant presented with a stomach that has herniated into the diaphragm. Where is the defect that resulted in the
herniation?
a. Esophageal hiatus b. Pleuroperitoneal membrane
c. Septum transversum d. Right crus

12. ANS:- b. Pleuroperitoneal membrane

Explanation:
This is a case of CDH (congenital diaphragmatic hemia) and most common CDH is Bochdalek’s hernia.
A defect in a pleuro – peritoneal membrane (usually left) is the typical site of congental diaphragmatic hernia (Bochdalek) where
the membrane fails to close one of the pericardio-peritoneal canals.
Septum transversum forms the central tendon

13. Identify the anatomical location where the thumb kept?

A. Thyroid cartilage B. Carina

C. Jugular notch D. Carotid artery

13. ANS:- C. Jugular notch

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14. Identify the structure which is marked As C ?

A. Putamen B. Caudate nucleus

C. Internal Capsule D. External Capsule

14. ANS:- A. Putamen

15. Chief artery of Superolateral surface of cerebral hemisphere is:

A. Anterior cerebral artery B. Middle cerebral artery
C. Both A and B D. Posterior cerebral artery

15. Ans:- B. Middle cerebral artery

The chief artery of Superolateral surface of the cerebral hemisphere is Middle cerebral artery.

Both anterior and middle cerebral artery supply the superolateral surface of brain but anterior cerebral artery supplies only a narrow strip
at the upper superolateral surface rest is supplied by middle cerebral artery. Therefore the chief artery is middle cerebral artery.

Chief artery of medial surface is anterior cerebral artery.

Chief artery of inferior surface of brain is posterior cerebral artery.

16. Identify the epithelium given in the image;

A. Simple columnar
B. Pseudostratified columnar
C. Ciliated columnar
D. Simple cuboidal

16. Ans:- C. Ciliated columnar

The fallopian tubes are lined by a single layer of ciliated columnar epithelium with interspaced secretory (peg) cells.

• Secretory cells are most active around the time of ovulation.

• Ciliated cells increase in height and develop more cilia in the oestrogenic first half of the menstrual cycle.

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17. The following form the boundaries of Koch's triangle except –

A. Tendon of Todaro B. Septal leaflet of tricuspid valve
C. Orifice of coronary Sinus D. Origin of Left Coronary artery

17. ANS:- D. Origin of Left Coronary artery

Explanation:
Origin of Left Coronary artery It does not form the boundary of Koch's triangle which is bounded by:
a. Tendon of Todaro
b. Septal leaflet of tricuspid valve
c. Orifice of coronary Sinus

18. The formation of the active endopeptidases from their inactive precursors occurs only when they have reached their site of
action, secondary to the action of the brush border hydrolase. enterokinase. The powerful protein-splitting enzymes of the
pancreatic juice are secreted as inactive proenzymes. Enterokinase is an activator of?
A. Trypsinogen B. Trypsin
C. Chymotrypsin D. Antitrypsin

18. ANS:- A. Trypsinogen

 When first synthesized in pancreatic cells, the proteolytic digestive enzymes like trypsinogen, chymotrypinogen & pro-
carboxypeptia are in inactive forms( to prevent auto proteolysis of pancreas)
 After secreted into intestine, they are activated:
 Trypsinogen is activated by enterokinase (secreted by intestinal mucosa)
 Trypsinogen → can also be autocatalytically activated by trypsin
 Chymotrypsinogen is activated by trypsin to form chymotrypsin.

19. Calcium binding proteins are proteins that participate in calcium cell signaling pathways by binding to Ca2+, which plays an
important role in many cellular processes. Calcium-binding proteins have specific domains that bind to Ca2+ and are known to
be heterogeneous. One of the functions of calcium-binding proteins is to regulate the amount of free (unbound) Ca2+ in the
cytosol of the cell. The cellular regulation of calcium is known as Calcium homeostasis. Which of the following is not a calcium-
binding protein?
A. Calbindin B. Calmodulin
C. Troponin D. Clathrin

19. ANS:- D. Clathrin

Clathrin (does not bind Ca2+)
 On inside of cell membrane beneath coated pits, latticework of fibrillar protein is present called clathrin
 Helps in pinocytosis

Calbindin
 Present in brush border of intestinal epithelial cells & transports Cat2into cell cytoplasm
 Amount of calcium absorption is directly proportional to quantity of calcium-binding proteins

Troponin
 Troponin C - binds to Ca+2 ions = Strong affinity of troponin to calcium initiate contraction process.

Calmodulin
 In place of troponin, smooth muscles have calmodulin
 Ca2+ inside the cell binds reversibly with calmodulin & activates myosin light chain kinase resulting in a chain of events that
cause muscle contraction

20. Identify the movement taking place in the Intestine?

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(a) Segmented movement (b) Peristaltic movement

(c) Passive diffusion (d) Intersegmental contraction

20. Ans. (b) Peristaltic movement

Peristalsis, involuntary movements of the longitudinal and circular muscles, primarily in the digestive tract but occasionally in
other hollow tubes of the body, that occur in progressive wavelike contractions. Peristaltic waves occur in the esophagus,
stomach, and intestines.

21. A patient after trauma came to the ER. On neurological examination, he was found to have normal handwriting skills but
could not speak. Where could be the lesion for his clinical condition?
(a) Wernicke’s area (b) Temporal area
(c) Broca’s speech area (d) Primary motor cortex

21. Ans. (c) Broca’s speech area

Symptoms of Broca’s aphasia include:
 poor or absent grammar
 difficulty forming complete sentences
 omitting certain words, such as ―the,‖ ―an,‖ ―and,‖ and ―is‖ (a person with Broca’s aphasia may say something like ―Cup, me‖
instead of ―I want the cup‖)
 more difficulty using verbs than nouns correctly
 difficulty articulating sounds and words
 difficulty repeating what has been said by others
 trouble with writing sentences
 difficulty reading
 problems with full comprehension
 difficulty following directions
 frustration

22. Pressure – volume graph given and asked to find out A accordingly:

(a) Aortic valve closing (b) Aortic valve opening

(c) Mitral valve opening (d) Mitral valve closing

22. Ans. (b) Aortic valve opening

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23. Adequate 02 oxygen delivery at cellular level occurs in which type of hypoxia?
a. Hypoxic b. Anaemic
c. Stagnant d. Histotoxic

23. Ans:- D. Histotoxic

Histotoxic hypoxia (also called histoxic hypoxia) is the inability of cells to take up or use oxygen from the bloodstream, despite
physiologically normal delivery of oxygen to such cells and tissues but the oxygen delivery to tissue is normal.

24. If radius of a vessel is doubled, then the blood flow is increased by?
a. 8 times b. 16 times
c. 32 times d. 256 times

24. Ans:- B. 16 times

Vessel resistance (R) is directly proportional to the length (L) of the vessel and the viscosity (n) of the blood, and inversely proportional
to the radius to the fourth power (r4)
So when radius is increased by 2 times blood flow decreases by 16 times.

25. All of the following are increased in Acute stress. Except?

A) Growth hormone B) Insulin
C) Epinephrine D) Glucagon

25. ANS:- B) Insulin

Explanation:
Cortisol increases 3-5 times during major stress in body.
Other hormones that increase during stress are CRF, ACTH, Catecholamine’s, Vasopressin(ADH), Glucagon, Prolactin (it may
decrease) and GH (2-10 times).

26. Glucose is co-transported with Na+ ions. This is a type of _________?

A. Secondary active transport B. Primary active transport
C. Facilitated diffusion D. Simple diffusion

26. ANS:- A. Secondary active transport

Explanation:
In many situations the active transport of Na+ is coupled to the transport of other substances (secondary active transport).

27. Which of the following pathway is involved in the ability to recognize an unseen familiar object placed in the hand
A. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract B. Anterior spinothalamic tract
C. Posterior spinothalamic tract D. Dorsal column

27. ANS:- D. Dorsal column

Explanation :
 Ability to recognize an unseen familiar object placed in the hand is stereognosis and it’s the function of dorsal column.
 Functions of dorsal column ( Fasciculus gracilis and Fasciculus cuneatus)
 Fine touch
 Vibration
 Stereognosis
 Proprioception (conscious)

28. Which of the following type of signalling is being done here

A. Autocrine B. Endocrine
C. Paracrine D. Merocrine

28. ANS:- C. Paracrine

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29. Integrin connects actin to which macromolecule in extracellular matrix?

a. Laminin b. Collagen
c. Fibronectin d. Vitronectin

29. Ans. C. Fibronectin

Integrin connects actin to fibronectin in extracellular matrix.

30. Efferent arteriolar constriction following except:

a. Decrease in GFR
b. Decreases renal blood flow
c. Decreases oncotic pressure in peritubular capillaries
d. Increases hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries

30. Ans. C. Decreases oncotic pressure in peritubular capillaries

Constriction of efferent arteriole leads to increase in proteins that escape filtration in glomerular capillaries leading to rise in oncotic
pressure (not the decrease in oncotic pressure) in the glomerular capillaries & peritubular capillaries.

31. Difference in trajectory between inspiratory loop and the expiratory loop in the curve is due to:

a. Difference in alveolar pressure during inspiration and expiration

b. Difference in concentration of surfactant during inspiration and expiration
c. Difference in airway resistance during
d. Inspiration and expiration

31. Ans. b. Difference in concentration of surfactant during inspiration and expiration

Difference in trajectory between inspiratory loop and the expiratory loop in the curve is due to difference in concentration of surfactant
during inspiration and expiration.

32. Which of the following nerve root is the control center for the stapedial reflex?
a. Superior olivary complex b. Lateral lemniscus
c. Inferior colliculus d. Medial geniculate body

32. Ans. A. Superior olivary complex

Superior olivary complex is the control center for the stapedial reflex.

33. Which of the following is rapid source of energy by resynthesizing ATP for exercising muscles is?
a. Glycolysis b. Glycogenolysis
c. TCA cycle d. Phosphocreatine

33. Ans. D. Phosphocreatine

During periods of high activity, cycling of phosphorylcreatine allows for quick release of ATP to sustain muscle activity.

34. Which of the following is a preganglionic sympathetic neurotransmitter:

a. Glycine b. Adrenaline
c. Norepinephrine d. Acetylcholine

34. Ans: D
Exp: Acetylcholine
ACETYLCHOLINE (ACh) is the preganglionic neurotransmitter for both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic
nervous system as well as the postganglionic neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic neurons. Norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter of
the post gurgulionis sympathetic neurons.

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35. Hemoglobin acts as a buffer in biological system. Which of the following amino acid protonate and deprotonate at neutral pH
and provides buffering action to hemoglobin in blood at pH of 7.4?
a. Histidine b. Arginine
c. Lysine d. Glycine

35. ANS:- A

36. Which of the following is incorrect of structural organization of proteins

a. Protein denaturation does not affect primary structure
b. Proline is rarely found in alpha helix
c. Replacement of glutamic acid by valine in HbS results in defective tertiary structure of
haemoglobin
d. Elastin has unique triple helix secondary structure due to desmosine cross links.

36. Solution. D: Triple helix is characteristic of collagen. Elastin is synthesised and secreted in the
form of a precursor, tropoelastin, which is cross-linked with desmosine to form stable elastin. The
formation of desmosine requires the enzyme lysyl oxidase; defects in this enzyme are seen in
Menkes’ [Link] is present in alveoli, arteries and skin.
Answer. D

37. Few days after birth,an infant becomes lethargic after having breastmilk, refuses breast feeding and vomits during forced
breast feeds, However is accepting Glucose and water. There is associated abdominal cramps along with excessive cry.
Probability in this baby can be
A. Lactose intolerance B. Galactosemia
C. Von Gierke’s disease D. Hereditary fructose intolerance

37. Correct answer: a (Lactose intolerance)

38. Sickle cell anemia is the clinical manifestation of homozygous genes for an abnormal hemoglobin molecule. The event
responsible for the mutation in the B chain is:
A. Insertion B. Deletion
C. Nondisjunction D. Point mutation

38. Ans. D. Point mutation

The mutation in HbS is an example of:
 Point mutation
 Partially acceptable missense mutation
 Transversion

39. A 15 year old boy awakens at 7:30 AM and he sits down at the breakfast table and exclaims that he is really starving though
he finished dinner at 7:15 PM the previous evening but forgot to snack before going to bed. If a biopsy is taken of this boy’s liver,
which of the following process would be ongoing at an elevated rate compared to fed state?
a. Gluconeogenesis b. Glycogenolysis
c. Ketone body synthesis d. Fatty acid breakdown

39. ANS:- A

40. Identify the disorder and mineral deficient.

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A. Acroderma enteropathica & Zinc

B. Acroderma enteropathica & Copper
C. Wilsons disease & Zinc
D. Wilsons disease & Copper

40. ANSWER: A. Acroderma enteropathica & Zinc

Acrodermatitis enteropathica is a rare genetic autosomal recessive disorder, characterized by periorificial dermatitis, alopecia, and
diarrhea.
It is caused by an autosomal recessive mutation of SLC39A4 gene on chromosome 8, which determines a congenital partial or total
deficiency of the zinc transporter protein zinc-ligand binding protein 4.
The deficiency of zinc is caused by a defect of dietary zinc absorption in the duodenum and jejunum.
The disease begins with symmetrical erythematous, squamous or eczematous lesions, sometimes vesiculobullous or pustular lesions,
located around perioral, anogenital, and sacral areas
The diagnosis is based on clinical symptoms and is confirmed by low plasma zinc levels and rapid clinical response to zinc
supplementation.

41. A 10-year-old boy present with increased serum bilirubin, increased bilirubin in urine and no urobilinogen. Diagnosis is:
A. Gilbert Syndrome B. Hemolytic jaundice
C. Viral hepatitis D. Obstructive jaundice

41. Ans. D. Obstructive Jaundice

Laboratory tests in three different types of Jaundice
Serum Urine
Condition Bilirubin Urobilinogen Urine Bilirubin
Normal Direct: 0.1–0.4 0–4 mg/24 h Absent
mg/dL
Indirect: 0.2–
0.7 mg/dL
Hemolyti- Indirect Increased Absent
canemia
Hepatitis Direct and in- Decreased if Present if micro-
direct micro-obstruc- obstruction
tion is present occurs
Obstructive Direct Absent Present
jaundice

42. Malonate act as competitive inhibitor of

a. Succinate dehydrogenase b. Succinate thiokinase
c. Cytochrome oxidase d. Cytochrome reductase

42. Solution. A: Malonate is a reversible inhibitor of succinate dehydrogenase. Succinate

dehydrogenase plays a central role in the tricarboxylic acid cycle and as part of complex II of the
electron transport chain.
Answer. A

43. Norepinephrine to epinephrine is converted by methylation. The amino acid which acts as methyl donor in the process is:
a. Alanine b. Arginine
c. Tryptophan d. Methionine

43. Ans. D. Methionine

Norepinephrine to epinephrine is converted by methylation. The amino acid, which acts as methyl donor in the process, is methionine.
The major non-protein fate of methionine is conversion to S-adenosyimethionine, the principal source of methyl groups in the body

44. True regarding mitochondrial DNA is:

a. Linear double-stranded b. Low mutation rate
c. Encodes all respiratory chain proteins d. Inherited from mother

44. ANS:- D. Inherited from mother

Mitochondrial DNA is more prone to mutations than nuclear DNA. It codes for about 20% of respiratory chain enzymes. Human
mitochondria contain two to ten copies of a small circular double-stranded DNA molecule

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45. Which of the following is not matched correctly

a. Klenow fragment: DNA polymerase which lack 5'→3' polymerase activity
b. eIF4E: identify the mRNA cap
c. Telomerase: reverse transcriptase
d. CRISPR-CAS9: genome editing tool

45. Solution. A : DNA Polymerase I, Large (Klenow fragment was originally derived as a proteolytic
product of [Link] DNA polymerase that retains polymerase and 3’ —> 5’ exonuclease activity, but
lacks 5’ —> 3’ exonuclease activity.
Answer. A

46. Which of the following sequences is most likely to be a restriction enzyme recognition site?
a. CGGCTT b. GTCGAC
c. GTAATG d. GAATTG

46. Solution. B : Most restriction enzymes recognize palindromic sequences, meaning that both
strands of DNA will have the same sequence when read 5′ to 3′. For example, the sequence
GTCGAC is palindromic. Some other sites are
ATTGCAAT, 5′ GGATCC 3′ etc.
Answer. B

47. A middle aged woman presents with fissures in mouth, tingling sensation and peripheral neuropathy. Investigations showed
reduced glutathione reductase activity. Which vitamin deficiency is the likely cause of this?
A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B6 D. Vitamin B 12

47. Ans. B. Vitamin B2

Riboflavin is centrally involved in lipid and carbohydrate metabolism.
Deficiency of riboflavin (vitamin B2) is characterized by cheilosis, desquamation and inflammation of the tongue, and a seborrheic
dermatitis.
Riboflavin nutritional status is assessed by measurement of the activation of erythrocyte glutathione reductase by FAD added in vitro.

48. Glycogen storage disease presenting with mild hypoglycaemia, hepatomegaly and accumulation of abnormally structured
glycogen with small branches ?
a. Andersen disease b. Cori disease
c. Pompe disease d. Her’s disease

48. Solution. B
GSDIII and IV present with abnormal glycogen structure
GSD type III is also known as Forbes-Cori disease or limit dextrinosis, due to deficient
debranching enzyme .accumulated glycogen has abnormal partially degraded short chains or
small branches.
GSD type IV, also known as amylopectinosis, Glycogen Branching enzyme deficiency (GBE or
Andersen disease, present with an abnormal less branched and insoluble glycogen, which
precipitate.
Answer. B

49. Collagen has unusual amino acid composition. The repeated tripeptide in collagen consists of “Gly-X-Y”, where the X and Y
represent
a. Lysine and proline respectively
b. Alanine and hydroxyproline respectively
c. Proline and hydroxyproline respectively
d. Lysine and hydroxylysine respectively

49. Solution. C: Collagen is composed of three individual left-handed helical polypeptides that are wound tightly around each other to
form a long, rope-like triple helix molecule called procollagen.
Each individual left-handed collagen peptidecontains roughly 33% glycine (G, 13% proline (P, and 9% hydroxyproline (Hyp. Glycine is
found in repeating sequences of Gly-X-Y, where the X position is occupied by proline, and the Y position is filled by either proline or
lysine.
Answer. c

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50. The process of reconversion of lactate formed in the muscles and RBCs back to glucose in liver cytosol is known as:
a. Cahill cycle b. Cori Cycle
c. Rapoport Leubering Shunt d. Dickens- Horecker cycle

50. ANS:- B

51. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) has revolutionized the molecular biology field. PCR allows for the amplification of a single
piece of genetic material to produce trillions of identical copies. Which of the following is not necessary for PCR?
A. Taq polymerase
B. Reverse transcriptase
C. Primers
D. Deoxynucleotide triphosphates

51. Answer: B. Reverse transcriptase

Explanation:
Reverse transcriptase is used to convert mRNA into complementary DNA (cDNA). If you already have DNA, there is no need for reverse
transcriptase to perform PCR.

52. A 20-year-old woman is having intussception . a mass was seen in her jujenum. She also had pigmentation in her lips.. Which
of the following is the possible diagnosis?
a. Peutz-Jehgers syndrome b. Post cricoid dysphagia
c. Achalasia cardia d. Scleroderma

52. Ans:- A. Peutz-Jehgers syndrome

pigmentation in lips with jujenal polyps causing intussception is PJS

53. Owl eye appearance of cells in urine examination of post kidney transplant patient is a feature of?
a. CMV b. EBV
c. HL d. NHL

53. Ans:- A. CMV

Owl eye appearance is seen in reed Sternberg cells and CMV virus
post transplant patients , have high chances of developing CMV infections and so should be the answer

54. A 25 year patient has been diagnosed with a HIV. He also experienced massive HEMATURIA after few months of initial
diagnosis of HIV . which of the following is a likely cause for the development of the urinary finding?
A. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
B. Minimal change disease
C. Membranous Glomerulopathy
D. MPGN

54. Ans:- A. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

FSGS is typically associated with heroin drug abuse , HIV , OBESITY , RENAL ABLATION
MPGN is associated with cancers.

55. Which of the following is used as a fungal stain on tissue biopsy sections?
a. PAS
b. Alizarin red
c. LPCB
d. Massons Trichrom

55. ANS:- A
Discussing the options one by one,
•• PAS & Methenamine silver are used as fungal stains
on tissue biopsy sections: True
•• Alizarin red: Used for staining Calcium
•• LPCB (Lacto Phenol Cotton Blue): used for staining
yeast & filamentous fungi on wet mount
•• MassonsTrichrome: used for staining collagen

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56. Identify the predominant abnormally shaped red cell type seen in the peripheral smear given below:

a. Macrocyte b. Acanthocyte
c. Dacrocyte d. Elliptocyte

56. Ans:- B
These are acanthocytes with irregular spikes

57. A 3-month-old male infant has recurrent infections and is found to have an impaired ability to kill microbes by the nitroblue
tetrazolium test (which evaluates effectiveness of degradative enzymes) . Which of the following conditions is most likely
responsible for the findings in this patient?
A. Chediak-Higashi syndrome B. Chronic granulomatous disease
C. Hereditary angioedema D. H I V/AIDS

57. Ans: B
Chronic granulomatous disease is caused by defects in various degradative enzymes or other molecules involved i n the oxidative burst.

58. A 55-year-old diabetic patient has chronic renal failure and is undergoing hemodialysis. What is the associated amyloidosis?
a. AL b. AA
c. Beta 2 microglobulin d. ATTR

58. Ans:- C Beta 2 micro globulin

Beta-2 microglobulin (beta-2m) amyloidosis is a disabling condition that affects patients undergoing long-term hemodialysis (HD) or
continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD).

59. A patient comes for organ transplantation. He has a twin brother who is a match donor for him. Which type of grafting it
would be considered as?
A. Isograft B. Allograft
C. Autograft D. Xenograft

59. Ans. (a) Isograft

An Isograft is a graft of tissue between two individuals who are genetically identical(i.e. monozygotic twins). ... Monozygotic twins have
the same major histocompatibility complex, leading to the low instances of tissue rejection by the adaptive immune system.

60. A 50-year-old man presented with gum bleeding. Peripheral smear shows marked leukocytosis with 70% cells showing MPO
positivity. What could be the diagnosis?
A. AML B. ALL
C. CML D. CLL

60. Ans. (a) AML

61. Which of the following pathological changes is most likely responsible for the splenic findings on autopsy?

A. Coagulative necrosis B. Nonenzymatic fat necrosis

C. Gangrenous necrosis D. Liquefactive necrosis

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61. Answer: A. Coagulative necrosis

Explanation:
The photograph shows several pale, wedge-shaped splenic infarcts, which can manifest with flank pain and nausea.

Coagulative necrosis occurs as a result of tissue ischemia in solid organs such as the heart, liver, spleen, and kidneys (e.g., splenic
infarction).

62. An investigator studying targeted therapy in patients with gastrointestinal stromal tumors requires a reliable test to
determine the spatial distribution of CD117-positive cells in biopsy specimens. Which of the following is the most appropriate
test?
A. Flow cytometry B. Immunohistochemistry
C. Western blot D. Fluorescence in-situ hybridization

62. Answer:- B. Immunohistochemistry

Explanation:
CD markers are proteins, which can act as antigens on the surface of cells.

Immunohistochemistry uses antigen-antibody interactions to identify a specific cell or tissue based on the presence or absence of a
certain antigen. In this study, the CD117 (c-KIT) serves as an antigen that characterizes GIST cells. An anti-CD117-antibody that is
coupled with a chromogenic substrate will bind on the cell surface and visualize the tumor cells using ordinary light microscopy. This
technique is best for studying special cell populations within biopsy samples due to the preservation of tissue architecture.

Other Options:
Option D: Fluorescence in-situ hybridization (FISH) allows for direct visualization/detection of DNA molecules by using a probe that
binds to specific genomic sequences. This investigator, however, is interested in studying the expression of CD117 marker in GIST
tumors, and so is examining a cell surface protein.
Option A: Flow cytometry is a technique that allows identification, quantification, and sorting of single cells via an antigen-antibody
mediated binding of a fluorescent tag. This technique requires suspension of cells within a liquid medium, so it is ideal for evaluation of
hematologic samples, rather than the solid tumors in this experiment. In solid tumors, disaggregation of tissue to allow single cell
suspension is very difficult and does not allow evaluation of tissue architecture.

Option C: Western blot is used to identify proteins.

63. A 41-year-old woman presents with a skin lesion on the back of her neck. An immunohistochemical analysis of this lesion
would most likely reveal elevated levels of which of the following?

A. Chromogranin B. Desmin
C. Pancytokeratin D. S-100

63. Answer:- D. S-100

Explanation:
The patient in this vignette presents with a new skin lesion with features characteristic of melanoma.
S-100 is a tumor marker that is elevated in cases of melanoma and other neural crest tumors.

64. A thorough hematologic analysis via flow cytometry reveals that a child's neutrophils lack Sialyl-Lewis X. Which of the
following processes is likely deficient in this patient?
A. Chemoattraction
B. Rolling
C. Tight adhesion
D. Diapedesis

65. Answer:- B. Rolling

Explanation:
Sialyl-Lewis X is a glycoprotein expressed on granulocytes and monocytes. It binds E-selectin and P-selectin on vascular endothelium to
mediate loose adhesion and rolling.

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65. A patient is diagnosed as having a trematode infection. Lacking a more specific identification of the causative organism,
which of the following drugs would most likely be effective?
A. Niclosamide B. Thiabendazole
C. Praziquantel D. Diethylcarbamazine

65. Ans- C
Praziquantel is the drug of
Choice for most trematode infections.

66. Which of the above drugs has got high efficacy?

a. Drug A b. Drug B
c. Drug C d. A,B and C are equi-efficacious

66. ANS: D. A,B and C are equi-efficacious

Explanation:

67. Which of the following receptors of autonomic nervous system is not a Gi coupled receptor?
a. M1 b. M4
c. α2 d. D2

67. ANS: A. M1
Explanation:
Gi coupled receptors for various neurotransmitters:
Cholinergic  M2, M4
Adrenergic  α2
Dopaminergic  D2
Histaminergic  H3/H4
Serotonergic  5-HT 1 / 5-HT 5

68. Anti-glaucoma drug that acts by increasing uveoscleral outflow.

a. Pilocarpine b. Dorzolamide
c. Timolol d. Latanoprost

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68. ANS: D. Latanoprost

Explanation:
Mechanism of action of drugs used in glaucoma:

69. Which of the following is a SERM?

(a) Ethyl estradiole (b) Tamoxifene
(c) Anastrozole (d) Mifepristone

69. Ans. (b) Tamoxifen

SERM -DRUGS
 Tamoxifen
 Tamoxifen analogs
 Toremifine, Droloxifene, Idoxifene
 Fixed ring compounds :
 Raloxifene, Lasofoxifene, Aroxif, Miproxifene, Levormeloxifene, EM652

70. A patient was taking Theophylline for Bronchial asthma. After starting another drug, symptoms of theophylline toxicity
started appearing. Which is the likely drug to cause theophylline toxicity?
(a) Rifampicin (b) Erythromycin
(c) Valproate (d) Phenobarbitone

70. Ans. (b) Erythromycin

Using erythromycin together with theophylline may increase the effects of theophylline

71. A 65-year-old patient presented with dribbling of urine with urgency. He was started on prazosin therapy, but started
developing postural hypotension. Which of the following is the better alternative drug for this patient?
(a) Tamsulosin (b) Phenoxybenzamine
(c) Terazosin (d) Timolol

71. Ans. (a) Tamsulosin

 With prazosin and other alpha1 (postsynaptic) adrenergic blockers, first dose hypotension due to arterial and venous dilatation is
well recognised and is minimised by using a low starting dose. With chronic use, postural hypotension may persist.
 Tamsulosin is well tolerated and has minimal effects on blood pressure; tamsulosin 0.4 mg has the lowest potential to reduce
blood pressure and causes less symptomatic orthostatic hypotension than terazosin.

72. A patient presented with hospital acquired pneumonia. On testing he was found to be allergic to Penicillin G. Which of the
following drug is likely to be safe in this patient?
(a) Methicillin (b) Cefotitan
(c) Imipenam (d) Aztreonam

72. Ans. (d) Aztreonam

Aztreonam can safely be used in all patients with a penicillin or cephalosporin allergy with the exception of ceftazidime as they share a
similar side chain.

73. A new drug is introduced in the market after which phase of clinical trial?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV

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73. Ans. (c) III

New Drug Application (NDA) is done following the Phase III Clinical Trials, the drug manufacturer analyzes all the data from the studies
and files an NDA with the FDA (provided the data appear to demonstrate the safety and effectiveness of the drug). The NDA contains all
of the data gathered to date about the drug.

74. A mother is suspected to have a premature delivery. Which of the following drug could be helpful to attain the lung maturity
before birth?
(a) Aspirin (b) Dexamethasone
(c) MgSO4 (d) NSAID

74. Ans. (b) Dexamethasone

Betamethasone and dexamethasone are the most widely studied corticosteroids, and they generally have been preferred for antenatal
treatment to accelerate fetal organ maturation.

75. Aerosol drug used for treatment of RSV infection in a child is?
A. Indinavir B. Amantadine
C. Ribavirin D. Tenofovir

75. ANS:- C. Ribavirin

DOC for treatment of RSV infection is ribavirin
Indinavir→ protease inhibitor used in HIV
Tenofovir →NRTI used in HIV
Amantadine → used for influenza virus

76. Drug of choice for treatment of Alzhiemer's disease is:

A. Donepezil B. Atropine
C. Physostigmine D. Fluoxetine

76. ANS:- A. Donepezil

 Drug of choice for treatment of Alzhiemer's disease is: Donepezil
 Atropine is DOC for organophosphate poisoning
 Physostigmine is DOC for atropine poisoning
 Fluoxetine is DOC for depression
 AcHE inhibiting drugs
 Donepezil
 Rivastigmine
 Galantamine

77. A 2-year old girl, Aarti, presented with diarrhea, vomiting, lethargy, seizures and weakness. She suffered from chickenpox
before 1 week, for which her mother gave her a tablet for her fever. Which drug is responsible for her condition?
A. Ibuprofen B. Lactulose
C. Aspirin D. Piroxicam

77. Answer: C) Aspirin

Explanation:
Reye’s syndrome commonly occurs in children undergoing recovery phase of viral infections
especially Chickenpox and Influenza, and are taking Aspirin.
Symptoms in Reye’s syndrome occurs typically due to fatty degeneration of liver. There is no
specific treatment, only supportive management is indicated.
Hence, Aspirin is avoided as much as possible in infants and children.

78. Recently, vasopeptidase inhibitors Omapatrilat and Sampatrilat have been approved for the treatment of Chronic CHF.
What is the dose limiting toxicity of these drugs?
A. Tachycardia B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Angioedema D. Ankle edema

78. Ans:- C. Angioedema

Explanation -
Vasopeptidase inhibitors are the drugs inhibiting two enzymes, angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) and neutral endopeptidase (NEP).
Omapatrilat and sampatrilat are the drugs that can be used orally for the treatment of chronic CHF. These drugs possess all the actions of
ACE inhibitors and also result in natriuresis due to increased BNP (decreased metabolism due to inhibition of NEP).
Major limiting factor of these drugs is angioedema due to increase in bradykinin and substance P, which are degraded by NEP.

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79. A patient complaint of frequent perianal pruritus. On microscopic examination, following Image was seen. Find out the most
probable causative organism?

(a) Ascaris lumbricoides (b) Enterobius vermicularis

(c) Trichuris Trichura (d) Ancylostoma duodenale

79. Ans. (b) Enterobius vermicularis

Explanation:
 Enterobius vermicularis, also called pinworm, is one of the most common nematode infections in the world. Humans are the
only natural host for this infection. Enterobius vermicularis is an organism that primarily lives in the ileum and cecum.
Once E. vermicularis eggs are ingested, they take about 1 to 2 months to develop into adult worms which happens in the small
intestine. These do not usually cause any symptoms when confined to the ileocecal area. The female adult worms and ova
migrate to the anal area mostly at night time and deposit thousands of eggs in the perianal area. This migration causes pruritus.
Eggs hatch near the anal area causing perianal pruritus.
 Trichuria has dumb-bell shaped eggs with mucous plugs on both the sides.
 Ankylostoma has typical bile-stained eggs which look like 4-5blastomeres.
 Ascaris also has bile-stained eggs.

80. A male patient presented with bloody diarrhea. On Investigation of stool sample, the organism was found to be non-motile
and oxidase negative with the following findings on gram staining . What could be the cause his clinical condition?

(a) Shigella (b) E. coli

(c) Salmonella (d) Yersinia pestis

80. Ans. (a) Shigella

Explanation:
Shigella:
 Non-motile, catalase +ve, gram negative bacteria
 Except shigella dysentriae type 1: catalase –ve
 Most common cause of bacillary dysentriae in India – S. Flexneri
 Most common cause of bacillary dysentriae in world – S. Sonnie
 Transport media same as – sach’s buffered glycerol saline
 Clinical manifestations
 Incubation period- 1-4days
Initial phase: watery diarrhea

81. Complement which lead to killing of an organism and protects us?

(a) C2345 (b) C56789
(c) C34567 (d) C3456

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81. ANS:- B. C56789

Exp:
C56789 is known as membrane attack complex, causes microbial lysis.

82. Type IV hypersensitivity includes all, except?

a. Paul Bunnell test b. Lepromin test
c. Tuberculin test d. Granulomatous reactions

82. ANS:- A. Paul Bunnell test

Explanation:
Paul bunnel test is a heterophile agglutination test for presumptive diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis.

83. A child presents with recurrent episodes of sino pulmonary infection by bacteria with polysaccharide-rich capsule. Deficiency
of which of the following immunoglobulin sub-classes should be investigated for?
(a) IGA (b) IgG1
(c) IgG2 (d) IgA+IgG2

83. ANS:- (d) IgA+IgG2

Explanation:
IgG2 deficiency is the most common sub-class disorder associated with recurrent infections by polysaccharide capsulated bacteria.
Such infections are more frequent in patients with associated IgA deficiency.

84. A female from Himachal Pradesh presented with history of thorn prick a year back, has verrucous lesions in the skin with
following microscopic findings. Identify the agent:

a. Blastomycosis b. Pheohyphomycosis
c. Sporotrichosis d. Chromoblastomycosis

84. Ans. D. Chromoblastomycosis

History of thorn prick and the image showing sclerotic bodies (medullary bodies or copper penny bodies) is highly suggestive of
Chromoblastomycosis.

85. A chronically ill young white male is unable to work due to his frequent illnesses. He spends most of his time raising and
training pigeons. He develops a mild pulmonary infection and eventually presents to his primary care physician with headache,
mental status changes and fever. A clinical diagnosis of meningitis is confirmed with LA test on CSF for capsular polysaccharide
Ag of the organism. Which would be the best screening media for this organism for isolation?
a. Niger seed agar b. Sabouraud’s Dextrose agar
c. Mannitol salt agar d. Sorbitol MacConkey agar

85. ANS:- A. Niger seed agar

Explanation:
This is case of Cryptococcal meningitis.
Niger seed agar and bird seed agar is used to demonstrate melanin production and it produces black or brown color colonies.

86. Which is true about arbovirus disease?

a. Yellow fever is endemic in India
b. Dengue viruses have only one serotype
c. KFD is transmitted by ticks
d. Japanese encephalitis is transmitted by Aedes

86. ANS:- C. KFD is transmitted by ticks

Explanation:
KFD is transmitted by ticks (hard tick - Haemophysalis spinifera)

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87. A 9 years old male presents with fever and nonspecific symptoms followed by distinctive rash on the cheeks . Which of the
following viruses is the most likely cause of this disease and has been associated with transient aplastic crisis in persons with
sickle cell disease?
a. Herpes simplex b. Parvovirus B19
c. Rubella d. Rubeola

87. ANS:- B. Parvovirus B19

Explanation:
Parvovirus B19 causes erythema infectiosum (slapped cheek syndrome, fifth disease), aplastic anemia (especially in patients with sickle
cell anemia), and fetal infections, including hydrops fetalis.

88. An immunocompromised person with a history of seizures had an MRI that revealed a temporal lobe lesion. Brain biopsy
results showed multinucleated giant cells with intra nuclear inclusions. The most probable cause of the lesion is which of the
following?
a. Coxsackie virus b. Hepatitis C virus
c. Herpes simplex virus 1 d. Herpes simplex virus 2

88. ANS:- C. Herpes simplex virus 1

Explanation:
Encephalitis caused by HSV-1 is characterized by a necrotic lesion in one temporal lobe.
The disease occurs as a result of either a primary infection or a recurrence.

89. Plasma sterilization accuracy is assessed by using?

(a) Bacillus subtilis (b) Bacillus stearothermophilus
(c) Staphylococcus aureus (d) Clostridium tetani

89. ANS:- (b) Bacillus stearothermophilus

Explanation:
For determining the efficacy, spores of Bacilius stearothermophilus are used as the test organism.

90. The following picture was seen in nasal biopsy from a patient with bruin abscess. Identify the organism seen and the stain
used?

a. Staphylococcus, Gram-slain b. Streptococcus, Gram-stain

c. Cryptococcus. India ink d. Nocardia, Gram-stain

90. Ans. D. Nocardia, Gram stain

The given picture shows branching pleomorphic rods of Nocardia species. They are also acid fast and can be stained by Modified Ziehl-
Neelsen technique.

91. A 24-year old man presented to the clinic with complains of fever,abdominal pain and diarrhea mixed with blood and mucus.
On taking history he informed that he went for trekking with friends and had consumed barbeque food. Stool microscopy
revealed gram -ve, oxidase +ve, curved rods. Which of the following is most likely agent responsible for the patient’s symptoms
A) Vibrio cholera B) Shigella flexneri
C) Campylobacter jejuni D) Escherichia coli

91. Ans. C. campylobacter jejuni

Explanation:
The signs and symptoms along with stool microscopy revealed gram -ve, oxidase +ve, curved rods and consumption of barbeque food is
suggestive of C. jejuni infection.

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92. The agent of the disease shown in the image is not found in which body fluid?

A) SALIVA B) URINE
C) FLUID FROM THE LEG D) ASCITIC FLUID

92. ANS: A
EXPLANATION:
Lymphatic filariasis, commonly known as elephantiasis, is a painful and profoundly disfiguring disease. It is caused by infection with
parasites classified as nematodes (roundworms) of the family Filariodidea that are transmitted through the bites of infected
[Link] larva cannot be found in saliva

93. A patient presents with abdominal colic and constipation. On examination, pallor and blue stippled lines on gums are
observed. What is the most common mode of exposure responsible for toxicity?

a. Ingestion of paint b. Inhalation of fumes

c. Absorption through skin d. Drinking contaminated water

93. ANS:- b. Inhalation of fumes

94. A 42 year old Electrician has taken two bottles of liquor from the local shop, and was about to cross the road to buy food in
the nearby Chinese fast food centre. While he was crossing he was hit by a moving car and fell down on the road. The Primary
impact injury in case of road traffic accident are seen commonly in?
A. Face B. Chest
C. Abdomen D. Legs

94. Correct Answer: D. Legs

Explanation:
Primary impact injuries are caused by the first impact of the vehicle with the pedestrian in an accident
The legs get hit most often (by the bumper in front of the vehicle)
The other injuries associated with a road traffic accident are the secondary impact injuries and secondary injuries
Secondary impact injury is caused by the second impact with the vehicle (e.g.: the body of thrown onto the vehicle / the vehicle runs over
the body)
Secondary injuries are caused when the body strikes the ground after the collision

95. All the following can be used as defense in a case of criminal negligence by a doctor EXCEPT:
(a) Therapeutic misadventure (b) Unforeseeable complication
(c) Error of judgement (d) Contributory negligence

95. Answer: D
Exp: Contributory negligence
a. Contributory negligence means negligence by the patient or a care-giver of the patient in addition to the doctor’s negligence. It is a
defense in only civil negligence and not in criminal negligence.

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b. Therapeutic misadventure (Medical maloccurance) is a mischance or an accident / mishap / disaster, as in the case of a penicillin
injection causing anaphylaxis in a patient, administered even after a negative test-dose of penicillin. Here no one is at fault, it is only a
mischance.

96. 11-year-old girl has been brought to casualty with history of accidental consumption of the below shown fruit seeds. She has
been admitted with intense convulsions. The following is true:

a. It is a cerebral poison
b. GABA is inhibited
c. Active principle is strychnine and brucine
d. Toxin acts at the posterior horn cell of spinal cord

96. Ans:- C. Active principle is strychnine and brucine

Explanation:
The active principle is strychnine brucine
 The picture shows nux vomica seeds.
 Nux vomica is spinal poison.
 The active principle is strychnine, brucine and loganin, which acts on the anterior horn cells in spinal cord.
 Glycine is inhibited.

97. A middle age male while he was going on the road when its raining he suddenly fall from the vehicle and he got dragged on
the road for 1meter he has a multiple rashes on the skin ,he now came to the hospital with the scab color of reddish brown ,
estimate the ageing of the injury?
a. 12 hrs. b. 1 day
c. 2-3 days d. 4-5 days

97. Ans:- C. 2-3 days

Explanation:
Aging of the wound: R3B3
R RAW < 12 Hrs
R Reddish Scab > 12 Hrs
RB Reddish Brown 2-3 days
B BROWN 4-5 days
B BLACK 6-7 days

98. A man throws sulfuric acid on the face of his wife after a fight following which she comes to the emergency for supportive
management. All of these statements are true about chemical burns except:
a) Blisters are present
b) Ulcerated patches are present
c) Absence of singeing of hairs
d) Coagulation necrosis occurs at the site of burn

98. Ans:- a) Blisters are present

Explanation:
Vesicles and blisters are absent in case of chemical burns by acids or alkali.

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99. Fetichism is sexual gratification by:

(a) Injury by the other partner (b) Wearing clothes of opposite sex
(c) Public exposure of genital organs (d) Seeing clothes or body parts of opposite sex

99. Answer: B
Exp: Wearing clothes of opposite sex
Fetichism- A fetish is an abnormal stimulus or object of sexual desire. Fetichism means the use of such objects for sexual gratification
leading to orgasm. e.g. Underclothing, brassiere, petticoat, stocking, shoes, etc.

100. At autopsy, a body is found to have copious fine leathery froth in mouth & nostrils which increased on pressure over chest.
Death was likely due to:
(a) Epilepsy (b) Hanging
(c) Drowning (d) Opium poisoning

100. Answer: C
Exp: Drowning
The reliable signs of drowning at autopsy are:-
[Link] white froth at the mouth and nose.
[Link] presence of weeds, stones, etc., firmly grasped in the hands.
[Link] presence of fine froth in the lungs and air-passages.
[Link] voluminous water-logged lungs.
[Link] presence of water in the stomach and intestines.
[Link] of diatoms in the tissues.

101. A 2-day-old newbom has watery discharge from one eye immediately after birth and no chemosis or eyelid swelling. The
diagnosis is
a. Gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum b. Chemical conjunctivitis
c. Sticky eye d. Chlamydial conjunctivitis

101. Ans: B
Exp: Chemical conjunctivitis
Chlamydial and gonococcal conjunctivitis presents with edema and chemosis Caused due to AgNO3

102. A patient using contact lens develops corneal infection and is presented with the, laboratory diagnosis of acanthamoeba
keratitis was established, The following is the best drug for treatment

a. Propamidine b. Neosporin
c. Ketoconazole d. Polyhexamethylene biguanide (PHMB)

102. Ans: A
Exp: Propamidine
Acanthamoeba - free living protozoan. It exists in trophozoite and encysted form. Propamidine is used for treatment.

PHMB is a solute added to the solution of contact lenses but is not used on the eye surface as it may cause severe toxicity.

Mode of infections
Contact lens cleaning using home made saline (from contaminated tap water and saline tablets)

Diagnosis
1. Potassium hydroxide mount
2. Calc of flour white stain stains the cyst - bright apple green
3. Lacto phenol cotton blue stained
4. Culture on non nutrient agar ([Link] enriched) may show trophozoites within 48 hours.

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Treatment
1. A combination of properidine is ethionate (0.1%) (Brolene) and polyhexa methylene biguanide 0.02% drops.

103. A two week old child presents with unilateral cataract. Which of the following statements is the best management advice?
a. The best age to operate to get the best visual results is four weeks
b. The best age to operate to get the best visual results is four months
c. The best age to operate to get the best visual results is four year
d. The eye already lost, only cosmetic correction is required

103. Ans: A
Exp: The best age to operate to get the best visual results in four weeks
Congenital cataract - two thirds of cases are bilateral
1. Autosomal dominant-Most Common
2. The critical period for developing the fixation reflex between 2 and 4 months of age Any cataract dense enough to impair vision must
be dealt with before this age and the earliest possīble time is preferred.
3. The results of surgery in unilateral cataract in children are universally poor, unless the operation is caried out as early as possible,
within the first 6 weeks of birth.
4. Dense cataract present at birth is an indication for urgent operative management to prevent amblyopia
5. Phacoemulsification or simple aspiration with centroposterior capsulotomy and limited anterior vitrectomy is recommended for
congenital cataract.
6. [Link]
a. <lyrs-80%ofthecalculatedpower
b. 2yrstosyrs-90%ofthecalculatedpower
c. >8 yrs - Caleulated IOL power

104. A patient on post operative day 5 after cataract surgery developed endophthalmitis. What is the treatment of choice?
a. Pars plana vitrectomy b. Topical antibiotics
c. Intravenous antibiotic d. Intraocular antībiotic

104. Ans: D
Exp: Intraocular antibiotic
Intravitreal antibiotics is the treatment of choice in post surgical endophthalmitis.

105. A lady wants LASIK surgery for her daughters refractive error, she asks for your opinion, All the following things are
suitable for performing LASIK-EXCEPT:
a. Myopia of -4 Diopters b. Age of 15 years
c. Stable refraction for 1 year d. Corneal thickness of 600 microns

105. Ans: B
Exp: Age of 15 years
LASIK [Laser assisted in situ keratomileusis] Indications
a. Age minimum is 21 years
b. Range of correction - 1 to 12 Diopter for Myopia.
c. Refraction should be stable for 12 months. Central corneal thickness > atleast 500 microns
Contraindication of LASIK
1. Monocular patients 6. Keratoconus
2. Infections eg conjunctivitis, 7. Poor endothelial cell count in cornea
3. Glaucoma 8. «1500 cells / mm2
4. Autoimmune disease 9. Dry eye
5. Thin cornea «450 micron) 10. Diabetic retinopathy

Currently LASIK procedure is being considered refractory surgery of choice for myopia upto 12 D
Advantage Disadvantage
1. Minimal or no post operative pain 1. More expensive
2. Recovery of vision is very early 2. Require greater surgical skill
3. No risk of perforation during surgery 3. There is potential risk of flap related complications include
4. No residual haze (I) Intra operative flap amputation
(II) Wrinkling of flap on repositioning
(III) Post operative flap dislocation!
(IV) Epithelization of flap bed interface
(V) Irregular astigmatism

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106. A patient on treatment for glaucoma develops blepharoconjunctivitis. The most likely drug to be implicated is:
a. Pilocarpine b. Timolol
c. Dipivefrin d. Steroids

106. Ans: B
Exp: Timolol
1. Local side effects of Dipivefrine - burning sensation reactive hyperaemia of conjunctiva, conjunctival pigmentation allergic blepharo
conjunctivitis, mydriasis, and cystoid macular oedema (in aphakia)
2. Ocular side effects (Generally mild and infrequent) of Timolol
a. Stinging and burning in eye, Dryness of eye, allergic blepharoconjunctivitis, corneal hypoesthesia, blurred superficial punctate keratitis
b. Timolol is the first line drug for medical therapy in POAG, so it is more commonly used in glaucoma patients then dipivefrine

107. A patient present with severe pain, photophobia and redness of the eye. On examination, vertically oval and mid-dilated
pupils are seen. The most likely diagnosis is
a. Acute retrobulbar neuritis b. Acute congestive glaucoma
c. Acute anterior uveitis d. Severe Keratoconjunctivitis

107. Ans: B
Exp: Acute angle closure glaucoma
The pupil in ACG is:
1. Mid-dilated
2. Vertically oval
3. Non-reactive to light

108. After enucleation in retinoblastoma, which of the following tissue is sectioned and subjected to microscopic examination to
find out systemic metastasis:
a. Vortex vein b. Optic nerve
c. Sclera and episclera d. Central retinal artery

108. Ans: B
Exp: Optic nerve
1. Retinoblastoma is the most common primary intraocular malignancy of childhood
2. Another frequent sign is strabismus secondary to impairment of vision.
3. Some children may also present with ocular inflammation, intraocular hemorhage, glaucoma or heterochromia iridis.
4. Treatment of large tumor is the excision of the eye (enucleation).
5. The optic nerve should be cut long and the cut end should be subjected to microscopic examination to exclude the extension of growth
along the nerve.

109. In a patient with AIDS chorioretinitis is typically caused by:

a. Cytomegalovirus b. Toxoplasma gondii
c. Cryptococcus neoformans d. Histoplasma capsulatum

109. Ans: A
Exp: Cytomegalovirus
1. CMV retinitis is the most common ocular infection in AIDS patients
2. CMV retinitis affects 30% of patients with AIDS at sometime during the course of their disease
3. Most commonly occurs when CD4 count is < 50 cell'mm cube
4. "Brush fire-like" extension along the retinal blood vessels and involvement of the optic nerve head.
5. Drug of choice is ganciclovir, other drug used are foscarnet, cidofovir
6. Fundus picture resembles pizza – pie appearance.

110. A 25year old male presents with painless sudden loss of vision, systemic examination is normal. What is probable diagnosis:
a. Retinal detachment b. Eale's disease
c. Glaucoma d. Cataract

110. Ans: B
Exp: Eales disease
1. As there is no positive finding in ocular examination, cataract is highly unlikely
2. In glaucoma there is sudden painful loss of vision
3. For retinal detachment there must be some systemic pathology e.g. diabetes, hypertension or ocular pathology must be present which is
not there

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4. Hence retinal detachment cannot be answer. So by exclusion answer is Eales Disease

5. It is also cailed periphlebitis retinae.
6. Commonest association of Eales disease in India IS T.B.
7. Eales disease is a idiopathic inflammation of peripheral retinal veins due to hypersensitivity to tubercular protein or septic foci

111. A young boy present with injury to his eye following hit with tennis ball. he presents with proptosis, chemosis. Most probable
diagnosis when ecchymosis present over the fore head:
a. Blow out fracture
b. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
c. Sphenoid fracture
d. Intra carotid fistula

111. Ans: C
Exp: Sphenoid Fracture
Ecchymosis over forehead suggest fracture of roof of orbit-sphenoid(lesser wing) involved also leads to Panda/Raccoon eyes.
Fracture of the floor of the orbit leads to Blow out fracture, which will present as enopthalmos, diplopia and infraorbital anesthesia.

112. The function of the superior rectus muscle include all except:
a. Elevation of the globe
b. Abduction of the globe
c. Intorsion of the globe
d. Retraction of the globe

112. Ans: B
Exp: Abduction of the globe
1. The superior rectus is involved in: elevation, adducts intort the globe. Contraction of the globe also helps to retract the globe.
2. It helps to elevate the eyelid as shown by the ptosis in superior rectus palsy.
3. This is because of the common embryological development of superior rectus and LPS muscles.

113. A patient with miosis, anhidrosis and mild drooping of eyelid is presented to the clinic. What is the suspected diagnosis?

A. III cranial nerve palsy B. Horner’s syndrome

C. VI cranial nerve palsy D. Orbital cellulitis

113. Ans. (b) Horner’s syndrome

Explanation: Horner syndrome is a combination of signs and symptoms caused by the disruption of a nerve pathway from the
brain to the face and eye on one side of the body. Typically, Horner syndrome results in a decreased pupil size, a drooping eyelid and
decreased sweating on the affected side of your face.
 Miosis, anhidrosis and slight drooping of upper eyelid
 Ocular sympathetic paralysis (Muller’s muscle is paralysed)
 Pupillary constriction
 3rd cranial nerve palsy  there is no miosis in 3rd CN palsy
 6th CN palsy  does not lead to drooping of eyelid or miosis
 Orbital cellulitis  there is orbital swelling but no miosis

114. A patient presented with anterior uveitis in OPD. Which of the following can be associated with his condition?
A. HLA B5 B. HLA B27
C. HLA B7 D. HLA DR4

114. Ans. (b) HLA B27

Explanation: Acute anterior uveitis (AAU) is the most common form of uveitis, accounting for approximately 90% of all cases. Half of
all cases of Acute anterior uveitis are HLA-B27 positive. The disease is typically acute in onset, unilateral, no granulomatous
inflammation involving the iris and ciliary body, with a tendency to recurrent attacks. Human leukocyte antigens (HLA) are located on
6th chromosome.

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115. A tumor in the anterior pituitary causing pressure over the following marked area B will present as?

A. Homonymous hemianopia
B. Bitemporal hemianopia
C. Heteronymous hemianopia with central sparing
D. Monocular vision loss

115. Ans. (b) Bi-temporal Hemianopia

Explanation:
Type of visual field defect:
1. Unilateral blindness: U/L optic nerve lesion
2. Bitemporal hemianopia: optic chiasmal lesion (eg: pituitary adenoma)
3. Binasal hemianopia: 2 separate lesion at chiasma laterally
4. Homonymous hemianopia: lesion at U/L optic tract.
5. Superior quadrantopia: temporal lobe lesion(pie on the sky)
6. Inferior quadrantopia: parietal lobe lesion(pie on the floor)
7. Homonymous hemoanopia with macular sparing: occipital lobe lesion

116. Best treatment for traumatic hematoma of the pinna is which of the following measures?
A. Ice packs and prophylactic antibiotics
B. Conservative management
C. Needle aspiration
D. Incision, drainage, and pressure bandage

116. ANS:- D. Incision, drainage, and pressure bandage

Explanation-
Hematoma of pinna –
 Collection of blood between the auricular cartilage and its perichondrium.
 Blunt trauma – most common cause – seen in boxers, wrestlers, rugby players.
Treatment –
 Aspiration or incision and drainage; followed by pressure dressing to prevent reaccumulation.
 All cases should receive prophylactic antibiotics to prevent perichondritis.

Only needle aspiration will lead to reaccumulation of blood.

117. All are true about serous otitis media except

A. 20-40dB hearing loss
B. Very painful condition
C. Grommet insertion is helpful in its management
D. In unilateral disease in adult, nasopharyngoscopy should be done

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117. ANS:- B. Very painful condition

OTITIS MEDIA WITH EFFUSION (O.M.E.) OTITIS MEDIA WITH EFFUSION (O.M.E.)
= glue ear, som (Secretory otitis media)
Definition:
OME :- Is accumulation of non purulent fluid in the middle ear.
• Incidence highest in School going children due to ET blockage due to adenoid hypertrophy

118. A 28 year old female patient presents with bilateral gradually progressive conductive hearing loss and ability to hear better
in noisy environment. She also has a history of Meniere’s disease. What is the treatment of choice in this patient?
a) Stapedectomy b) Fenestration
c) Stapedotomy d) Sodium Flouride

118. ANS:- d) Sodium Flouride

Explanation-
This is a case of otosclerosis. History of Meniere’s disease is a contraindication to stapes surgery.
 Those with positive Schwartz sign – Sodium fluoride is preferred.
 Otitis externa, tympanic membrane perforation and exostosis are relative contraindications. Stapedectomy can be done after they
have been treated.

119. False Negative fistula test is seen in:

a) Congenital Syphilis b) Dead labyrinth
c) Labyrinthine fistula d) All of above

119. ANS:- C) Labyrinthine fistula

Explanation-
A false negative fistula test is seen in –
Surgically confirmed cases of labyrinthine fistula
Cholesteatoma covers the fistula site
Wrong technique

120. Acoustic neuroma arises from

a) Superior vestibular nerve b) Inferior vestibular nerve
c) Facial d) Cochlear division of 8th nerve

120. ANS:- b) Inferior vestibular nerve

Acoustic neuromas account for 80% of tumors found within the cerebellopontine angle. The remaining 20% are mainly meningiomas.
More than 90% of acoustic neuromas (eighth nerve schwannomas) arise from the vestibular division of the nerve. The superior and
inferior vestibular nerves appear to be the nerves of origin with about equal frequency. Recently, a higher predominance has been
attributed to inferior vestibular nerve.

121. The sensory nerve supply of middle ear comes from:

a) Facial nerve b) Glossopharyngeal nerve
c) Vestibulocochlear nerve d) Auriculotemporal nerve

121. ANS:- b) Glossopharyngeal nerve

Explanation –
Tympanic plexus -
 Lies on the promontory
 Formed by (i) Tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve called Jacobson’s Nerve
(ii) Sympathetic fibres from the plexus round the internal carotid artery.
 Supplies innervation to the middle ear.
 Also carries secretomotor fibres for the parotid gland. Section of Jacobson’s Nerve can be carried out in the middle ear in cases
of Frey’s syndrome.

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122. Chevallet’s fracture is:

A. Horizontal # of nasal septum B. Vertical # of nasal septum
C. Horizontal # of nasal Bone D. Vertical # of nasal bone

122. ANS:- B. Vertical # of nasal septum

EXPLANATION
FRACTURES OF NASAL SEPTUM
JARJAWAY FRACTURE CHEVALLET FRACTURE
Fracture line runs horizontal Fracture line runs vertical
Results from blows from the front Results from blows from below

123. A 27-year-old man presents with complaints of chronic nasal congestion. About 2 months earlier, he had an upper
respiratory tract infection with rhinorrhea and nasal congestion. Since then he continues to have severe nasal congestion for
which he uses oxymetazoline nasal twice daily. Physical examination swollen turbinates and no purulent discharge. What is the
most appropriate treatment?
A. Discontinue oxymetazoline
B. Antibiotics
C. Oral antihistamine
D. Discontinue oxymetazoline and start steroid nasal spray

123. ANS:- D. Discontinue oxymetazoline and start steroid nasal spray

EXPLANATION
This is a case of Rhinitis medicamentosa.
Caused due to prolonged use of topical nasal decongestants (α2-adrenergic agonists- xylometazoline, oxymetazoline).
These drugs typically cause vasoconstriction. But in case of prolonged usage, they cause rebound congestion and rhinitis due to reflex
vasodilation.
Edema and redness of mucosa along with hypertrophy of turbinate may occur.
Treatment—
Stop using these nasal decongestant drops

124. In a patient of resistant epistaxis from left nasal cavity, the bleeding could not be controlled even after the ligation of
external carotid artery. What is the possible source of bleeding in this patient?
A. Maxillary artery B. Sphenopalatine artery
C. Ethmoidal artery D. Facial artery

124. ANS:- C. Ethmoidal artery

EXPLANATION

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125. 52 year old smoker presents to ENT OPD with hoarseness of voice. Study the given image of laryngeal endoscopy and
comment on the diagnosis:

A. Normal vocal cords B. Vocal polyp

C. Reinke’s oedema D. Intubation granuloma

125. ANS:- C. Reinke’s oedema

Explanation
Reinke’s edema

 Patient uses false cords for voice production and this gives him a low pitched and rough voice.
 On indirect laryngoscopy, vocal cords appear as fusiform swellings with pale translucent look.

126. Mid tracheostomy is done over?

a. 1st& 2nd tracheal rings b. 3rd& 4th tracheal rings
c. 5th& 6th tracheal rings d. 7th& 8th tracheal rings

126. ANS:- B. 3rd& 4th tracheal rings

Explanation
MID TRACHEOSTOMY
 The preferred method
 Done through the II or III tracheal ring and would entail division of the thyroid isthmus (lies against II, III and IV tracheal rings)
or its retraction upwards or downwards to expose this part of trachea

127. Vocal cords drain into which lymph nodes?

a) Pre-tracheal b) Upper deep cervical
c) None d) Posterior triangle

127. ANS:- c) None

Explanation
There are practically no lymphatics in vocal cords.
Hence glottic carcinoma rarely shows lymphatic metastases.

128. A 6 year old child with the history of mouth breathing, mal-occlusion of teeth and conductive hearing loss due to glue ear.
Which of the following will be best management plan for this patient?
A. Adenoidectomy
B. Myringotomy
C. Adenoidectomy with Myringotomy
D. Adenoidectomy with Myringotomy with grommet insertion

128. ANS:- D. Adenoidectomy with Myringotomy with grommet insertion

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Explanation
History of mouth breathing, mal-occlusion of teeth in a 6-year-old child are features of adenoid facies arising from adenoid hypertrophy.
Adenoid hypertrophy causes bilateral eustachian tube blockage leading to formation of glue ear (serous otitis media). This causes
conductive hearing loss.
This child would need adenoidectomy (for adenoid hypertrophy) along with Myringotomy with Grommet insertion (to treat glue ear).

129. In a patient of Quinsy, Trismus develops due to spasm of which muscle

A. Medial pterygoid
B. Lateral pterygoid
C. Masseter
D. Temporalis

129. ANS:- A. Medial Pterygoid

 Trismus or lockjaw, refers to reduced opening of the jaws caused by spasm of the muscles of mastication, or may generally
refer to all causes of limited mouth opening.
 Quinsy because of its proximity to the parapharyngeal musculature, is associated with spasm of the medial pterygoid muscle
causing trismus.

130. A 42 year old Woman with vitamin B12 deficiency presents with dysphagia and anemia. What is syndrome mentioned in the
presentation?
a. Plummer vinson syndrome
b. Eagle syndrome
c. Treacher Collin's syndrome
d. Treacher collin syndrome

130. ANS:- A. Plummer vinson syndrome

Plummer vinson syndrome also called as Paterson- Brown- Kelly syndrome is seen in middle aged females. The features are Dysphagia
with hypochromic Microcytic anemia. The typical findings on barium swallow or endoscopy is web in post ccricoid area. This is a
premalignant condition for post cricoid carcinoma,

Classical features of Plummer Vinson syndrome include dysphagia, iron-deficiency anaemia and esophageal web.

131. Biomedical waste to be discarded in yellow bag are all. Except?

a. Human anatomical waste
b. Animal waste
c. Microbiological waste
d. Wasted sharps

131. ANS:- D. Wasted sharps

Explanation:
All dressings, bandages and cotton swabs with body fluids, blood bags, animal waste, microbiological waste, human
anatomical waste & body parts are to be discarded in yellow bag.
Wasted sharps are discarded in white bag.

132. Blood groups will be an example for?

a. Interval scale data
b. Ordinal scale data
c. Categorical data
d. Nominal data

132. ANS:- D. Nominal data

Explanation:
Blood groups are just names so it is nominal data.

133. All are true for point source epidemic. Except?

A. Epidemic curve rises and falls sharply
B. Clustering of cases within a short period of time
C. Person -to-Person transmission
D. All cases usually develop within one incubation period

133. ANS:- C. Person -to-Person transmission

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Explanation:
Common exposure point source Propagated

Rapid rise and rapid fall (explosive) Slow rise and slow fall (only when no. of
No secondary wave susceptible is depleted / there is no more
All cases in one IP as there is brief exposure)
exposure Secondary wave present
Clustering of cases More than one IP
Eg. Bhopal gas tragedy Herd immunity plays an important role in such
Minamata disease type of epidemic
Chernobyl gas disaster Eg. Hepatitis A, polio
Food poisoning

134. Time interval between disease initiation and disease detection in a non-infectious disease is known as?
(a) Serial interval (b) Latent period
(c) Lag time (d) Incubation period

134. ANS:- (b) Latent period

Explanation:
LATENT PERIOD is defined as the period from disease initiation to disease detection. Latent period is used in non-infectious
diseases (cancer, heart disease, mental illness) as the equivalent of incubation period in infectious diseases.

135. Yellow fever vaccination starts protection after how many days of infection:
A. 5 days B. 10 days
C. 15 days D. 20 days

135. ANS:- B. 10 days

Explanation:
Protection starts after 10 days but lasts for life lon

136. ministry for Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS)?

A. Ministry for Human Resource Development
B. Ministry for Rural Development
C. Ministry for Health and Family Welfare
D. Ministry of Women and Child

136. ANS:- D. Ministry of Women and Child

Explanation:

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137. Which of the following state or Union territory in India is Rabies free:
A. Sikkim B. Kerala
C. Jammu & Kashmir D. Andaman & Nicobar

137. Answer: D
Explanation: Andaman & Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep Island from our country are currently Rabies-free. As import of animals
from these are avoided and hence it was easy to eradicate rabies in these states. Remember water is an effective barrier.

138. Dr Munna Bhai consumes alcohol and operates. The procedure goes well and pt is shifted to postoperative care. One OT
staff reports the incident to the police. What is the legality?
a. Doctor can not be arrested as pt is fine
b. Doctor can be arrested under sec 336 IPC
c. Doctor can be arrested under sec 304 IPC
d. Doctor will be arrested under sec 323 IPC

138. Solution. B
Sec 336 IPC- punishment for endangering someone’s life because of negligent Action.
Punishment- 3months of imprisonment or Rs 250 fine or both.
Answer. b

139. NITI Aayog has replaced which of the following:

A. National Board of Examinations (NBE)
B. National Institute of Health & Family Welfare (NIHFW)
C. Medical Council of India (MCI)
D. National Planning Commission (NPC)

139. Answer: D
Explanation: NITI (National Institute Transforming India). It is actually new name of pre-existing NPC (National Planning
Commission). It was established in 1950 but in 1 st January 2015 NITI Aayog was formed. Comprising of Prime Minister as the Chair
Person and along with him the chief ministers of all the states, Lieutenant Governor of Union territories.

140. In a population, a screening test was used for a disease, from the image below what does B-C represent:

A. Lead time
B. Screening time
C. Incubation time
D. Latent period

140. Answer: B
Explanation: Screening time
B-D = lead time also known as advantage gained by a screening test.

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141. A woman brought her child with congenital anomalies of heart and cataract. She gave history of mild fever and rash in the
first trimester of pregnancy, which settled with mild antipyretics. The strain of vaccine used for prevention of such anomalies:
a. SA 14-14-2 b. RA 27/3
c. 17D d. Danish 1331 strain

141. Solution. B
RA 27/3 : Live vaccine is used for preventing congenital rubella syndrome
Answer. b

142. Sample Registration system includes which of the following

A. Maternal Mortality rate B. Infant Mortality rate
C. Birth rate D. All of the above

142. ANS:- D. All of the above

Explanation:
sample registration system:
SRS most accurate as it is the only dual record data collecting system.
Here we measure IMR, MMR, U-5MR, NMR, growth rate
It is conducted once every 6months.

143. A community medicine student was asked to explain about natural sources of Vit.A. Which of the following has the
maximum natural source of vitamin A?
A. Carrot B. Halibut liver oil
C. Cod fish oil D. Cow milk

143. ANS:- B. Halibut liver oil

 Halibut Liver Oil has the maximum natural content of Vitamin A & also it has the richest source of the Vitamin D.
 Among fruits Ripe Mango & among vegetables carrot have high content of Vitamin A.
 Vitamin A deficiency causes Xerophthalmia.

144. Gujarat recently reported an massive earthquake disaster causing loss of life and leading to sufferings. Which of the
following is the most common reported disease in post disaster period?
A. Acute gastroenteritis B. Pneumonia
C. Leptospirosis D. Malnutrition

144. ANS:- A. Acute gastroenteritis

 Most Common reported disease in post disaster phase is Acute Gastroenteritis, Typhoid & Cholera.
 Most important step during Post-disaster phase is, Chlorination of water > Vaccination
 All vaccines are CI in post-disaster phase; except Measles

Extra edge:
Chairman of National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) of India is Prime Minister of India

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145. Amount of sodium in ORS as per WHO:

A. 65 mmol/L B. 75 mmol/L
C. 20 mmol/L D. 100 mmol/L

145. ANS:- B. 75 mmol/L

146. BCG is diluted with:

A. Normal saline B. Distilled water
C. Ringer lactate D. Distilled water

146. ANS:- A. Normal saline

BCG is available in Powder form, which is diluted with Normal saline and it should be used within 4 hours,
Otherwise Toxic shock syndrome can occur.
 Strain →Danish - 1331 •
 Dose → 0.1 ml intradermally in left deltoid in newborns within 28 days. -
 Efficacy of dose →0 to 80%
 Protective duration → 20 years

147. Nowadays which is the most common pasteurization method?

A. Holder (VAT) method
B. Ultra-high temperature method
C. High temperature and short time method
D. Low temperature and longtime method

147. ANS:- C. High temperature and short time method

 High temperature and short time is known as Flesh Method 72 °C X 15 seconds.
 In rural areas Holder VAT method is most popular 63-66 •C for 30 mins.
 Phosphatase test- used to test the sufficiency of pressurized milk.

148. Population covered by one PHC in plains is

A. 3000 B. 5000
C. 20000 D. 30000

148. ANS:- D. 30000

Population covered by PLAINS HILLY / TRIBAL
Subcenter 1/5000 1/3000 (MPW)
PHC 1/30000 1/20000 (Health Assistant)
CHC 1/12000 1/80000
AWC 1/400 - 800 1/300 - 800

149. Most common cause of LBW in India

A. Smoking during pregnancy B. Maternal tetanus
C. Intra-uterine growth retardation D. Premature birth

149. ANS:- D. Premature birth

The primary cause is premature birth, being born before 37 weeks gestation; a baby born early has less time in the mother's uterus to
grow and gain weight, and much of a fetus's weight is gained during the latter part of the mother's pregnancy. Another cause of low
birthweight is intrauterine growth restriction

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150. The proposal to control malaria in towns named as Urban Malaria Scheme. According to Urban Malaria Scheme, Which of
the following is not true?
A. Utilization of anti-larva measures
B. Slide positivity rate more than 10%
C. It is done in town/city with minimum 50,000 population
D. Introduction of active surveillance

150. ANS:- B. Slide positivity rate more than 10%

Urban malaria has three specific criteria-
 Utilization of Anti-Larval measures.
 It is done in town/city with minimum 50,000 population.
 Slide positivity rate more than 5% [active surveillance].

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