1. Who was the first to observe microorganisms like bacteria and protozoa?

A. Robert Koch

✔ B. Antony Van Leeuwenhoek

C. Louis Pasteur

D. Ernest Abbe

2. What did Ernest Abbe contribute to microbiology?

A. Invented Petri dish

B. Developed Gram staining

✔ C. Improved microscope lenses

D. Discovered penicillin

3. Who proposed the idea that life arises de novo without ancestors?

✔ A. Aristotle

B. Louis Pasteur

C. Francesco Redi

D. Spallanzani

4. What did John Needham do to support spontaneous generation?

A. Sealed broth container

B. Used microscope

✔ C. Boiled broth and left it exposed

D. Used phenol for disinfection

5. Who opposed spontaneous generation by sealing the broth container?

A. John Needham

✔ B. Lazzaro Spallanzani
 C. Joseph Lister

D. Hans Christian Gram

6. Francesco Redi showed that maggots don’t appear in meat when:

A. Meat is boiled

✔ B. Meat is protected from flies

C. Meat is stained

D. Meat is sealed with phenol

7. Who is known as the father of microbiology?

A. Robert Koch

B. Ernest Abbe

✔ C. Louis Pasteur

D. Paul Ehrlich

8. What is pasteurization?

A. Bacterial staining method

B. Disinfection of wounds

✔ C. Heating to prevent spoilage

D. Microscope lens adjustment

9. Louis Pasteur developed vaccines for:

A. TB and cholera

✔ B. Anthrax and rabies

C. Smallpox and measles

D. HIV and malaria

10. What did Robert Koch develop for culturing bacteria?

B. Oil immersion lens

✔ C. Solid artificial medium

D. Petri dish

11. Koch is associated with the discovery of which disease-causing agent?

✔ A. Tuberculosis bacillus

B. Rabies virus

C. Yeast

D. Penicillin mold

12. What are Koch’s postulates used for?

A. Treating infections

B. Disinfecting wounds

✔ C. Identifying disease-causing organisms

D. Preserving food

13. Who invented the Petri dish?

A. Robert Koch

✔ B. Petri

C. Lister

D. Fleming

14. Paul Ehrlich introduced staining with:

A. Gram’s iodine

✔ B. Methylene blue

C. Crystal violet
 D. Safranin

15. Hans Christian Gram is known for:

A. Creating postulates

B. Using phenol

✔ C. Differential staining method

D. Discovering antibiotics

16. The Gram stain differentiates bacteria based on:

A. Shape

B. Spore formation

✔ C. Cell wall structure

D. Nucleus presence

17. Who is called the father of antiseptic surgery?

✔ A. Joseph Lister

B. Robert Koch

C. Louis Pasteur

D. Paul Ehrlich

18. What did Joseph Lister use for wound disinfection?

A. Methylene blue

✔ B. Phenol (carbolic acid)

C. Vinegar

D. Alcohol

19. Who discovered penicillin?

A. Louis Pasteur
 B. Robert Koch

✔ C. Alexander Fleming

D. Hans Christian Gram

20. Why did penicillin become widely produced?

A. Discovered early

B. Cheap to make

✔ C. Due to WWII pressure

D. Easy to extract from meat

1. What is the correct way to write the scientific name of an organism?

A. Genus species (italicized or underlined)

B. genus Species

C. GENUS SPECIES

D. species Genus

Answer: A

2. In binomial nomenclature, the second name represents the:

A. Genus

B. Family

C. Species

D. Kingdom

Answer: C
3. Who introduced the three-kingdom classification system in 1866?

A. Louis Pasteur

B. Robert Koch

C. Ernst H. Haeckel

D. Carl Woese

Answer: C

4. In Haeckel’s classification, the Protista kingdom includes all the following EXCEPT:

A. Algae

B. Bacteria

C. Fungi

D. Animals

Answer: D

5. Prokaryotes differ from eukaryotes in that they:

A. Have a true nucleus

B. Lack membrane-bound organelles

C. Have mitochondria

D. Undergo mitosis

Answer: B

6. Which of the following is a characteristic of eukaryotic cells?

A. Circular DNA
B. No nucleus

C. 70S ribosomes

D. Membrane-bound organelles

Answer: D

7. Cell wall of fungi is made of:

A. Peptidoglycan

B. Cellulose

C. Chitin

D. Lipopolysaccharide

Answer: C

8. The domain Archaea is characterized by:

A. Presence of organelles

B. Living in extreme environments

C. Causing common infections

D. Being photosynthetic

Answer: B

9. Which of the following is NOT a difference between Archaea and Bacteria?

A. rRNA sequences

B. Presence of organelles

C. Cell wall composition

Answer: B

10. What initiates protein synthesis in Bacteria?

A. Methionine

B. Formyl-methionine

C. Glycine

D. Alanine

Answer: B

11. Which group includes both unicellular and multicellular organisms?

A. Viruses

B. Archaea

C. Fungi

D. Prions

Answer: C

12. Yeasts reproduce asexually by:

A. Binary fission only

B. Spore formation

C. Budding

D. Conjugation

Answer: C
13. Coenocytic hyphae are:

A. Septated with multiple nuclei

B. Non-septated with multiple nuclei

C. Septated with single nucleus

D. Found only in yeast

Answer: B

14. Aerial hyphae in fungi are responsible for:

A. Nutrition

B. Digestion

C. Reproduction

D. Movement

Answer: C

15. Which fungal spore type is enclosed in a sac?

A. Conidiospore

B. Arthrospore

C. Sporangiospore

D. Blastospore

Answer: C

16. Which spore is formed by fragmentation of hyphae?

B. Arthrospore

C. Conidiospore

D. Zygospore

Answer: B

17. Dimorphic fungi grow as mold at:

A. 37°C

B. 45°C

C. 25°C

D. Room temperature

Answer: C

18. Which is NOT a true fungal group based on reproduction?

A. Basidiomycetes

B. Ascomycetes

C. Phycomycetes

D. Fungi protista

Answer: D

19. The slime molds are unique because:

A. They are photosynthetic

B. They behave like fungi and amoebae

D. They form viruses

Answer: B

20. Protozoa are characterized by:

A. Cell wall made of cellulose

B. Photosynthesis

C. Motility using cilia or flagella

D. No sexual reproduction

Answer: C

21. Which of the following statements about algae is TRUE?

A. Algae have roots and stems

B. Algae are found in dry environments

C. Algae are photosynthetic

D. Algae are prokaryotic

Answer: C

22. Viroids cause diseases in:

A. Humans

B. Animals

C. Plants

D. Bacteria
Answer: C

23. Viroids consist of:

A. DNA and protein coat

B. RNA with protein coat

C. Naked RNA only

D. DNA with envelope

Answer: C

24. Prions are made of:

A. DNA

B. RNA

C. Protein

D. Lipids

Answer: C

25. A disease caused by prions in humans is:

A. AIDS

B. Malaria

C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

D. Influenza

Answer: C
26. Which is TRUE about viruses?

A. They are visible under a light microscope

B. They reproduce by binary fission

C. They can replicate outside host cells

D. They require a living cell for replication

Answer: D

27. What type of nucleic acid do viruses contain?

A. Both DNA and RNA

B. Only DNA

C. Either DNA or RNA

D. Only mRNA

Answer: C

28. The structure that injects viral DNA into bacteria is the:

A. Tail fiber

B. Envelope

C. Capsid

D. Tail sheath

Answer: D

29. The eclipse period during phage replication is when:

A. DNA enters host cell

C. Only components (DNA and protein) exist

D. Release occurs

Answer: C

30. Which enzyme helps release bacteriophage from the host cell?

A. RNA polymerase

B. DNA ligase

C. Lysozyme

D. Helicase

Answer: C

Structure and Function of Prokaryotic Cell - MCQs (1–50)

1. Which of the following structures is present in all prokaryotic cells?

a) Nucleus

b) Mitochondria

c) Cell wall

d) Cytoplasm

✅ Answer: d) Cytoplasm

2. The genetic material in prokaryotic cells is located in the:

a) Nucleus

b) Nucleolus
 c) Nucleoid

d) Nuclear membrane

✅ Answer: c) Nucleoid

3. Which structure provides motility to many prokaryotic cells?

a) Fimbriae

b) Pili

c) Flagella

d) Capsule

✅ Answer: c) Flagella

4. Peptidoglycan is a major component of the:

a) Plasma membrane

b) Cytoplasm

c) Ribosomes

d) Cell wall

✅ Answer: d) Cell wall

5. Which part of a bacterial cell is responsible for protein synthesis?

a) Ribosomes

b) Plasmids

c) Mesosomes

d) Capsule

✅ Answer: a) Ribosomes

6. Plasmids are:

a) Part of the bacterial chromosome

c) Found in eukaryotic cells only

d) Protein storage organelles

✅ Answer: b) Small circular DNA molecules

7. Gram-positive bacteria have:

a) Thin peptidoglycan layer

b) Outer membrane

c) Thick peptidoglycan layer

d) No cell wall

✅ Answer: c) Thick peptidoglycan layer

8. Gram-negative bacteria differ from gram-positive by having:

a) Capsule

b) Plasma membrane

c) Lipopolysaccharide layer

d) Peptidoglycan

✅ Answer: c) Lipopolysaccharide layer

9. The outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria contains:

a) Teichoic acids

b) Lipoteichoic acids

c) Lipopolysaccharides

d) Peptidoglycan

✅ Answer: c) Lipopolysaccharides

10. Which structure helps bacteria attach to surfaces?

b) Flagella

c) Fimbriae

d) Ribosomes

✅ Answer: c) Fimbriae

11. Bacterial capsules are composed mainly of:

a) Proteins

b) Lipids

c) Polysaccharides

d) DNA

✅ Answer: c) Polysaccharides

12. Which structure protects bacteria from phagocytosis?

a) Cell wall

b) Capsule

c) Pili

d) Plasma membrane

✅ Answer: b) Capsule

13. Bacterial endospores are:

a) Reproductive structures

b) Metabolically active

c) Resistant to heat and chemicals

d) Found in all bacteria

✅ Answer: c) Resistant to heat and chemicals

a) Germination

b) Sporulation

c) Fermentation

d) Binary fission

✅ Answer: b) Sporulation

15. The function of pili includes:

a) Nutrient uptake

b) Locomotion

c) DNA transfer during conjugation

d) Protein synthesis

✅ Answer: c) DNA transfer during conjugation

16. Which structure is involved in bacterial conjugation?

a) Fimbriae

b) Flagella

c) Pili

d) Ribosomes

✅ Answer: c) Pili

17. The fluid matrix of the cell where metabolic reactions occur is the:

a) Nucleoid

b) Cytoplasm

c) Periplasm

d) Capsule
 ✅ Answer: b) Cytoplasm

18. Teichoic acids are found in:

a) Gram-negative bacteria

b) Outer membrane

c) Gram-positive cell wall

d) Plasma membrane

✅ Answer: c) Gram-positive cell wall

19. Which of the following is not a function of the plasma membrane?

a) Selective permeability

b) Protein synthesis

c) Transport of molecules

d) Energy generation

✅ Answer: b) Protein synthesis

20. The space between the inner and outer membrane in gram-negative bacteria is the:

a) Cytoplasm

b) Periplasmic space

c) Capsule

d) Nucleoid

✅ Answer: b) Periplasmic space

21. Which bacterial structure is targeted by penicillin?

a) DNA

b) Plasma membrane

c) Cell wall
 d) Ribosome

✅ Answer: c) Cell wall

22. Which component gives rigidity to bacterial cell walls?

a) Teichoic acids

b) Peptidoglycan

c) Lipoproteins

d) Capsule

✅ Answer: b) Peptidoglycan

23. The 70S ribosome is a characteristic of:

a) Eukaryotic cells

b) Viruses

c) Prokaryotic cells

d) Archaea only

✅ Answer: c) Prokaryotic cells

24. Which of the following is not found in prokaryotic cells?

a) Nucleoid

b) Ribosomes

c) Endoplasmic reticulum

d) Plasma membrane

✅ Answer: c) Endoplasmic reticulum

25. The bacterial structure involved in environmental resistance (e.g., UV, desiccation) is the:

a) Capsule

b) Endospore
 c) Pili

d) Flagella

✅ Answer: b) Endospore

26. Which of the following is unique to gram-negative bacteria?

a) Thick peptidoglycan

b) Outer membrane

c) Teichoic acid

d) Endospore

✅ Answer: b) Outer membrane

27. Mesosomes are thought to be involved in:

a) Motility

b) Protein synthesis

c) Cell wall synthesis and DNA replication

d) Photosynthesis

✅ Answer: c) Cell wall synthesis and DNA replication

28. Which of the following is not a component of peptidoglycan?

a) N-acetylglucosamine

b) N-acetylmuramic acid

c) Lipid A

d) Peptide chains

✅ Answer: c) Lipid A

29. Which term best describes bacteria that can form endospores?

a) Non-motile
 b) Gram-negative

c) Spore-forming

d) Capsulated

✅ Answer: c) Spore-forming

30. Which structure acts as a selective barrier in bacterial cells?

a) Cell wall

b) Plasma membrane

c) Capsule

d) Nucleoid

✅ Answer: b) Plasma membrane

31. Which of the following structures is used by bacteria for locomotion?

a) Fimbriae

b) Flagella

c) Pili

d) Ribosomes

✅ Answer: b) Flagella

32. Which statement about prokaryotic DNA is true?

a) Enclosed in a nucleus

b) Linear and multiple

c) Circular and not enclosed in a membrane

d) Associated with histones

✅ Answer: c) Circular and not enclosed in a membrane

33. What is the role of the bacterial capsule in pathogenicity?

b) Genetic transfer

c) Resistance to phagocytosis

d) DNA replication

✅ Answer: c) Resistance to phagocytosis

34. The region between the plasma membrane and outer membrane in gram-negative bacteria
is called the:

a) Nucleoid

b) Periplasmic space

c) Cytoplasm

d) Capsule

✅ Answer: b) Periplasmic space

35. Which of the following is a function of bacterial cell wall?

a) DNA replication

b) Motility

c) Maintaining cell shape

d) Protein synthesis

✅ Answer: c) Maintaining cell shape

36. Which component is found only in the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria?

a) Teichoic acid

b) Lipoteichoic acid

c) Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

d) Peptidoglycan

✅ Answer: c) Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

a) DNA transfer

b) Motility

c) Attachment

d) Conjugation

✅ Answer: b) Motility

38. Which is true about endospore germination?

a) It occurs under nutrient-poor conditions

b) It forms a new endospore

c) It converts an endospore into a vegetative cell

d) It is irreversible

✅ Answer: c) It converts an endospore into a vegetative cell

39. In bacteria, ribosomes are responsible for:

a) DNA replication

b) Cell wall synthesis

c) Protein synthesis

d) Capsule formation

✅ Answer: c) Protein synthesis

40. The major function of the bacterial plasma membrane is:

a) Protection against phagocytosis

b) Selective permeability and metabolic functions

c) Protein synthesis

d) Cell division
 ✅ Answer: b) Selective permeability and metabolic functions

41. Bacterial inclusion bodies mainly serve as:

a) DNA storage

b) Energy storage or nutrient reserves

c) Motility structures

d) Sites of protein synthesis

✅ Answer: b) Energy storage or nutrient reserves

42. Which structure is not present in all prokaryotic cells?

a) Plasma membrane

b) Ribosomes

c) Capsule

d) Cytoplasm

✅ Answer: c) Capsule

43. The function of glycocalyx includes:

a) DNA synthesis

b) Energy production

c) Protection and adherence

d) Motility

✅ Answer: c) Protection and adherence

44. A monotrichous bacterium has:

a) No flagella

b) One flagellum at one end

c) Flagella all over the body

✅ Answer: b) One flagellum at one end

45. Which component anchors the outer membrane to the peptidoglycan in gram-negative
bacteria?

a) Teichoic acid

b) Lipoteichoic acid

c) Braun’s lipoprotein

d) Capsule

✅ Answer: c) Braun’s lipoprotein

46. The basal body of the flagellum is located in the:

a) Cell wall only

b) Plasma membrane only

c) Cell envelope (membrane + wall)

d) Capsule

✅ Answer: c) Cell envelope (membrane + wall)

47. Which of the following structures is used to store phosphate in bacteria?

a) Sulfur granules

b) Volutin granules (metachromatic granules)

c) Glycogen granules

d) Carboxysomes

✅ Answer: b) Volutin granules (metachromatic granules)

48. The sticky outer layer that helps bacteria form biofilms is called the:

a) Cytoplasm

b) Capsule
 c) Cell wall

d) Nucleoid

✅ Answer: b) Capsule

49. Which of the following is NOT true about prokaryotic cells?

a) They lack membrane-bound organelles

b) They reproduce by binary fission

c) They have a true nucleus

d) They have 70S ribosomes

✅ Answer: c) They have a true nucleus

50. The term “prokaryote” literally means:

a) Primitive organelle

b) Before nucleus

c) No cell wall

d) Before ribosomes

✅ Answer: b) Before nucleus

MCQs on Bacterial Nutritional & Environmental Requirements + Enzymes

1. Which of the following bacteria require CO₂ for capsule formation?

a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

b) Brucella abortus

c) Staphylococcus aureus

d) Bacillus anthracis ✔
2. Photoautotrophs use _____ as their carbon source.

a) Light

b) Organic compounds

c) Inorganic compounds

d) CO₂ ✔

3. Which of the following is photoheterotrophic?

a) Green sulfur bacteria

b) Cyanobacteria

c) Green non-sulfur bacteria ✔

d) Fungi

4. Chemoautotrophs get their energy from:

a) Light

b) Inorganic compounds ✔

c) Organic compounds

d) Sunlight

5. Which element is essential for cytochrome synthesis?

a) Phosphorus

b) Zinc

c) Iron ✔

d) Sulfur

6. Enzymes that remove hydrogen from substrates in aerobic respiration are:

a) Oxidases

b) Dehydrogenases ✔
 c) Reductases

d) Catalases

7. Which enzyme neutralizes hydrogen peroxide by producing oxygen?

a) Peroxidase

b) Catalase ✔

c) Superoxide dismutase

d) Dehydrogenase

8. Obligate anaerobes lack which of the following?

a) SOD only

b) Catalase only

c) Both SOD and catalase ✔

d) Only peroxidase

9. Organisms that can tolerate high salt concentrations are called:

a) Osmophilic

b) Osmotolerant

c) Halophilic ✔

d) Thermophilic

10. Which bacteria require hematin and coenzyme I?

a) Brucella abortus

b) Haemophilus influenzae ✔

c) Staphylococcus aureus

d) Bacillus anthracis

11. What is the preferred pH for most bacteria?

b) 4.5

c) 6.5 – 7.5 ✔

d) 9.0

12. Which class of bacteria grow best at 35–37°C?

a) Psychrophilic

b) Thermophilic

c) Mesophilic ✔

d) Eurythermal

13. What is the most reactive toxic oxygen form?

a) Singlet oxygen

b) Superoxide radical

c) Hydrogen peroxide

d) Hydroxyl radical ✔

14. Fungi typically grow best at:

a) 37°C

b) 25°C ✔

c) 10°C

d) 0°C

15. Which bacteria require CO₂ for growth?

a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae ✔

b) Haemophilus influenzae

c) Bacillus anthracis
 d) E. coli

16. What is the nitrogen source utilized by all bacteria?

a) Organic nitrogen

b) Nitrate

c) Ammonia ✔

d) Atmospheric nitrogen

17. Facultative anaerobes grow best in:

a) No oxygen

b) High oxygen ✔

c) Very low oxygen

d) CO₂-rich environments

18. Which of the following does not use oxygen as an electron acceptor?

a) Aerobic respiration

b) Anaerobic respiration ✔

c) Oxidases

d) Dehydrogenases

19. What is the role of coenzymes?

a) Structural proteins

b) Product of enzyme activity

c) Loosely attached non-protein parts ✔

d) Enzyme substrates

20. Which enzyme class is involved in anabolism?

a) Hydrolytic
 b) Respiratory

c) Synthetic ✔

d) Oxidative

21. Osmophilic organisms require:

a) High NaCl

b) High sugar concentrations ✔

c) Neutral pH

d) No water

22. Psychrophilic bacteria grow best at:

a) 10–42°C

b) 45°C

c) 18°C ✔

d) 25°C

23. Enzymes that catalyze biological reactions are primarily:

a) Nucleic acids

b) Proteins ✔

c) Sugars

d) Lipids

24. A prosthetic group is a:

a) Substrate

b) Loosely bound cofactor

c) Firmly bound cofactor ✔

d) Temporary enzyme modifier

a) Faster enzyme synthesis

b) Deactivation of enzyme

c) Inhibition of further synthesis ✔

d) Enzyme induction

26. Microaerophiles require:

a) No oxygen

b) Normal air

c) High oxygen

d) Low oxygen ✔

27. Constitutive enzymes are:

a) Formed when needed

b) Always formed ✔

c) Formed by repression

d) Made by vitamin precursors

28. The most common bacterial energy/carbon type is:

a) Photoautotroph

b) Chemoautotroph

c) Chemoheterotroph ✔

d) Photoheterotroph

29. What does superoxide dismutase do?

a) Destroys H₂O₂

b) Converts O₂ to radicals
 c) Converts O₂⁻ to H₂O₂ ✔

d) Fixes nitrogen

30. Enzymes responsible for breaking down proteins are:

a) Amylases

b) Lipases

c) Polypeptidases ✔

d) Cellulases

1. What is the main component of bacterial cells by weight?

A) Protein

✔ B) Water

C) Lipids

D) Nucleic acids

2. What percentage of bacterial dry weight consists of macromolecules?

A) 10%

B) 20%

✔ C) 80%

D) 100%

3. Which of the following is NOT a macromolecule?

✔ A) Vitamin
B) Protein

C) Polysaccharide

D) Nucleic acid

4. Which process involves the breakdown of macromolecules into micromolecules and energy?

✔ A) Catabolism

B) Anabolism

C) Photosynthesis

D) Fermentation

5. Anabolism is a process that requires:

A) Electron acceptors

✔ B) Energy

C) Exoenzymes

D) NADH

6. What is the main energy source for photosynthetic bacteria?

✔ A) Solar energy

B) Organic compounds

C) Inorganic compounds

D) ATP

7. Chemosynthetic bacteria obtain energy from:

✔ B) Oxidation of chemicals

C) Fermentation

D) Vitamins

8. Fermentation occurs in:

A) Presence of oxygen

✔ B) Absence of oxygen

C) Sunlight

D) High temperature only

9. The first step in metabolism of organic nutrients is usually:

✔ A) Hydrolysis by exoenzymes

B) ATP formation

C) Nucleic acid synthesis

D) Pyruvic acid formation

10. The universal metabolic intermediate is:

A) Acetyl-CoA

B) Glucose

✔ C) Pyruvic acid

D) NADH
11. The energy released during catabolism is stored as:

✔ A) Energy-rich compounds

B) DNA

C) Polysaccharides

D) Exoenzymes

12. Which reaction releases energy?

✔ A) Exerogenic

B) Endergenic

C) Hydrolytic

D) Fermentative

13. Endergenic reactions are associated with:

✔ A) Anabolism

B) Catabolism

C) Excretion

D) Respiration

14. In catabolism, the energy is released from:

A) ATP

✔ B) Oxidation of electron donor

C) Electron acceptor

D) Carbon dioxide
15. ATP is formed when:

✔ A) ADP gains a phosphate group

B) ATP loses energy

C) NADH breaks down

D) Water is hydrolyzed

16. Which compound is an electron carrier in cells?

✔ A) NAD

B) CO2

C) Pyruvate

D) Glucose

17. The electron transport chain results in:

A) NADH formation

✔ B) Proton gradient

C) Fermentation

D) Glycolysis

18. Which enzyme synthesizes ATP using the proton motive force?

✔ A) ATP synthetase

B) DNA polymerase

C) RNA polymerase
D) Catalase

19. Chemiosmosis hypothesis was proposed by:

✔ A) Dr. Mitchell

B) Louis Pasteur

C) Robert Koch

D) Paul Ehrlich

20. In fermentation, the final electron acceptor is:

✔ A) Organic compound

B) Oxygen

C) Nitrate

D) Sulfate

21. Which is more efficient in ATP production?

✔ A) Oxidative phosphorylation

B) Substrate phosphorylation

C) Fermentation

D) Hydrolysis

22. How many ATP molecules are generated per glucose in oxidative phosphorylation?

A) 2

✔ B) 38
C) 4

D) 10

23. Which is an example of substrate-level phosphorylation?

✔ A) Phosphoenolpyruvate + ADP → ATP + pyruvate

B) ADP + Pi → ATP by ATPase

C) Glucose → Glucose-6-phosphate

D) NADH → NAD⁺

24. In aerobic respiration, the terminal electron acceptor is:

✔ A) Oxygen

B) Nitrate

C) Sulfate

D) Water

25. In anaerobic respiration, which could be the terminal electron acceptor?

✔ A) Nitrate

B) Oxygen

C) Pyruvate

D) Carbon dioxide

26. Which is used in electron transport systems?

A) Glucose
✔ B) Cytochromes

C) Oxygen

D) ATP

27. The proton gradient across the membrane represents:

✔ A) Potential energy

B) Electrical charge loss

C) Passive transport

D) Waste energy

28. NADH is mainly involved in:

✔ A) Catabolic reactions

B) Anabolic reactions

C) Osmosis

D) Cell division

29. Which bacteria use light as energy and CO₂ as a carbon source?

✔ A) Photoautotrophs

B) Chemoheterotrophs

C) Lithoheterotrophs

D) Chemoautotrophs

30. Which of the following bacteria are chemoheterotrophs?

B) Green sulfur bacteria

✔ C) Most bacteria and fungi

D) Nitrifying bacteria

1. What is the function of a gene?

A) Produces energy

✔ B) Codes for a specific protein

C) Transports nutrients

D) Destroys pathogens

2. What is the sum of all genes in an organism called?

A) Genotype

B) Phenotype

✔ C) Genome

D) Chromosome

3. Where is the bacterial genetic material located?

✔ A) Nucleoid

B) Nucleus

C) Mitochondria

D) Ribosome
4. The observable characteristics of a cell are called:

A) Genome

B) Genotype

✔ C) Phenotype

D) Chromatid

5. DNA in bacteria is:

A) Linear and diploid

✔ B) Circular and haploid

C) Linear and haploid

D) Circular and diploid

6. Plasmids are:

✔ A) Extra-chromosomal DNA

B) Protein molecules

C) RNA strands

D) Mitochondrial remnants

7. DNA replication in bacteria starts from a point called:

A) Operator

✔ B) Replicator

C) Terminator

D) Repressor
8. The enzyme responsible for DNA uncoiling in bacteria is:

A) Ligase

✔ B) DNA gyrase

C) Polymerase

D) Helicase

9. The lagging strand is initiated by:

A) DNA fragments

✔ B) RNA primers

C) Ligase

D) tRNA

10. The enzyme that joins DNA fragments is called:

A) Helicase

✔ B) Ligase

C) Primase

D) Transferase

11. What begins the process of transcription?

✔ A) RNA polymerase binding to a promoter

B) Ligase joining DNA fragments

C) Ribosome binding to mRNA

12. The base unique to RNA is:

A) Thymine

B) Cytosine

✔ C) Uracil

D) Adenine

13. A codon consists of:

A) 2 bases

✔ B) 3 bases

C) 4 bases

D) 5 bases

14. The anticodon is found on:

A) mRNA

B) rRNA

✔ C) tRNA

D) DNA

15. Codons that stop protein synthesis are called:

A) Promoter codons

B) Anticodons
✔ C) Nonsense codons

D) Degenerate codons

16. The codon AUG codes for:

A) Glycine

✔ B) N-formyl methionine

C) Tryptophan

D) Stop codon

17. The enzyme responsible for forming peptide bonds is:

✔ A) Peptidyl transferase

B) DNA polymerase

C) Ligase

D) RNAase

18. Translocation in translation refers to:

A) DNA unwinding

✔ B) Ribosome movement on mRNA

C) Codon recognition

D) RNA splicing

19. Which sugar is found in RNA?

A) Deoxyribose
✔ B) Ribose

C) Glucose

D) Fructose

20. The number of types of RNA is:

A) One

✔ B) Three

C) Four

D) Five

21. Genes that encode regulatory proteins are called:

A) Structural genes

✔ B) Regulatory genes

C) Promoters

D) Operators

22. The lac operon is regulated positively by:

A) Lactose

✔ B) CAP-cAMP complex

C) tRNA

D) RNA polymerase

23. When glucose is high, cAMP levels are:

✔ B) Low

C) Unchanged

D) Inactive

24. What binds to the operator to block transcription in absence of lactose?

✔ A) Repressor protein

B) CAP protein

C) RNA polymerase

D) Lactose

25. The inducer in the lac operon is:

A) Glucose

✔ B) Allolactose

C) ATP

D) Pyruvate

26. The CAP-cAMP complex enhances transcription by:

✔ A) Stimulating RNA polymerase binding

B) Blocking the operator

C) Synthesizing DNA

D) Inhibiting tRNA
27. An operon includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Promoter

B) Operator

C) Structural genes

✔ D) Nucleosome

28. What does the trpR gene encode?

A) Lactose

B) mRNA

✔ C) Tryptophan repressor

D) DNA polymerase

29. Degeneracy of DNA refers to:

A) DNA damage

✔ B) More than one codon for the same amino acid

C) Mutation

D) Inversion

30. Which of the following is NOT a stop codon?

✔ A) AUG

B) UAA

C) UGA

D) UAG
1. What type of microbial variation is not hereditable and controlled by environmental
conditions?

A) Genotypic variation

✔ B) Phenotypic variation

C) Spontaneous mutation

D) Conjugation

2. Genotypic variation is:

A) Temporary and non-transmissible

B) Controlled by environmental factors

✔ C) Permanent and hereditable

D) Based on protein synthesis only

3. Which of the following is a method of genetic material transfer in bacteria?

A) Mutation only

B) Binary fission

✔ C) Conjugation

D) Spore formation

4. Which type of mutation involves substitution of one base for another?

✔ A) Point mutation

B) Frame shift mutation

C) Deletion mutation
D) Inversion

5. A mutation that changes a codon but does not alter the amino acid is called:

A) Missense mutation

✔ B) Silent mutation

C) Nonsense mutation

D) Polar mutation

6. Which type of mutation introduces a stop codon and results in truncated proteins?

A) Silent mutation

B) Missense mutation

✔ C) Nonsense mutation

D) Regulatory mutation

7. Which mutation causes a shift in the reading frame of the gene?

A) Point mutation

✔ B) Frame shift mutation

C) Transition mutation

D) Transversion mutation

8. What is the role of 3’–5’ exonuclease during DNA replication?

A) Initiates RNA primer

B) Ligates DNA strands

D) Synthesizes new strand

9. Which of the following is a physical mutagen?

A) Nitrous acid

✔ B) Ultraviolet light

C) Ethyl methane sulfonate

D) 5-bromouracil

10. Which chemical mutagen is a nucleotide analogue?

✔ A) 5-bromouracil

B) Ultraviolet

C) X-ray

D) Acridine orange

11. What is the function of restriction enzymes in bacteria?

✔ A) Degrade non-methylated foreign DNA

B) Activate transcription

C) Transfer plasmids

D) Perform recombination

12. What type of sequence do restriction enzymes recognize?

✔ A) Palindromic sequences
B) AT-rich sequences

C) GC-rich sequences

D) Telomeric repeats

13. Which term refers to the DNA segment transferred from donor to recipient?

A) Endogenote

✔ B) Exogenote

C) Genome

D) Allele

14. During bacterial transformation, which type of DNA strand is taken up?

A) Both strands

B) Double-stranded circular DNA

✔ C) Only one strand

D) RNA

15. In Gram-positive bacteria, transformation allows uptake of:

A) Only homologous DNA

✔ B) Homologous and heterologous DNA

C) RNA only

D) Plasmids only

16. Transduction involves transfer of genetic material via:

B) Naked DNA

✔ C) Bacteriophages

D) Plasmid

17. In generalized transduction, which genes can be transferred?

✔ A) Any gene

B) Only adjacent genes

C) Only operons

D) Only plasmid genes

18. Restricted transduction transfers genes that are:

A) Randomly selected

✔ B) Adjacent to prophage site

C) Located on plasmids

D) Inverted sequences

19. What type of genetic transfer uses a sex pilus?

A) Transformation

B) Transduction

✔ C) Conjugation

D) Transposition
20. The component responsible for continuous protein synthesis in operator gene mutation is:

✔ A) Repressor failure

B) cAMP

C) Inducer failure

D) DNA polymerase I

21. Which mutation results in all structural genes not being translated?

✔ A) Polar mutation

B) Silent mutation

C) Missense mutation

D) Transition mutation

22. Null mutation leads to:

A) Minor protein change

✔ B) Complete gene inactivation

C) Enhanced transcription

D) Silent phenotype

23. Mutator genes cause:

A) DNA repair

✔ B) Mutations in other genes

C) Gene silencing

D) Enzyme synthesis
24. What is the purpose of methylation in bacterial DNA defense?

✔ A) Marking self-DNA to prevent degradation

B) Enhancing mutation

C) Blocking transcription

D) Stimulating translation

25. In conjugation, which structure connects donor and recipient?

A) Flagella

B) Cilia

✔ C) Sex pilus

D) Ribosome

26. The frequency of spontaneous mutation per gene per replication is:

A) 10⁻⁴

✔ B) 10⁻⁸

C) 10⁻⁶

D) 10⁻²

27. Which of the following is not a feature of genotypic variation?

A) Permanent

B) Heritable

✔ C) Environmental-dependent
D) Affects offspring

28. Induced mutations caused by alkylating agents result in:

A) Protein degradation

✔ B) Methyl or ethyl group addition to DNA bases

C) Base excision

D) Frame shift only

29. During prokaryotic transformation, what is required for recombination?

A) Transduction enzymes

✔ B) Homology between donor and recipient DNA

C) Sex pilus

D) Double-stranded RNA

30. The recombination product of protoplast fusion is:

✔ A) Hybrid chromosome with genes from both parents

B) Circular plasmid

C) Only donor DNA

D) New operon only