Simple (Basic Knowledge)
1. What is the first step in treating a minor burn?
(a) Apply ice immediately
(b) Apply a thick layer of butter
(c) Cool the burn under running water for 10-20 minutes ✅
(d) Rub the burn with a cloth
2. Which layer of skin is affected in a first-degree burn?
(a) Epidermis ✅
(b) Dermis
(c) Subcutaneous tissue
(d) Muscle layer
3. What is a common cause of burns in children?
(a) Electrical burns
(b) Scald burns (hot liquids) ✅
(c) Chemical burns
(d) Radiation burns
4. What is the primary treatment for hypovolemic shock?
(a) Antibiotics
(b) Fluid resuscitation ✅
(c) Vasopressors
(d) Oxygen therapy
5. What is the normal fasting blood glucose level?
(a) 50-70 mg/dL
(b) 70-100 mg/dL ✅
(c) 120-150 mg/dL
(d) 200 mg/dL or more
6. What is the most common bacterial cause of cellulitis?
(a) Staphylococcus aureus ✅
(b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(c) Escherichia coli
(d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
7. What is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock?
(a) IV fluids
(b) Epinephrine ✅
(c) Antibiotics
(d) Antihistamines
8. What is a common sign of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
(a) Bradycardia
(b) Sweet-smelling breath ✅
(c) Hypertension
(d) Increased weight gain
9. What is the hallmark symptom of a migraine?
(a) Dull, bilateral pain
(b) Unilateral, pulsating pain with nausea ✅
(c) Pressure-like pain around the forehead
(d) Stabbing pain behind the eyes
10. What is a key feature of a generalized tonic-clonic seizure?
(a) Sudden muscle weakness
(b) Brief staring episodes
(c) Loss of consciousness followed by jerking movements ✅
(d) Localized muscle twitching
Medium (Moderate Complexity)
11. What is the primary cause of Curling’s ulcer?
(a) Excessive fluid intake
(b) Reduced blood flow to gastric mucosa ✅
(c) Vitamin K deficiency
(d) Prolonged antibiotic use
12. What is the most effective way to prevent burns?
(a) Always wear long sleeves and pants
(b) Never use hot water
(c) Be aware of potential hazards, such as hot surfaces, open flames, and chemicals, and
take precautions to avoid contact
(d) Apply ointment to all skin areas
13. Which type of burn involves damage to the epidermis and part of the dermis, with blisters
and intense pain?
(a) First-degree burn
(b) Second-degree burn
(c) Third-degree burn
(d) Fourth-degree burn
14. What is a Curling's ulcer?
(a) A type of skin infection common in burn patients
(b) A stress ulcer that occurs in patients with central nervous system injuries
(c) A stress ulcer that develops as a complication of severe burns
(d) A type of heart condition that can be exacerbated by burns
15. Which type of shock is caused by myocardial infarction?
(a) Hypovolemic shock
(b) Cardiogenic shock ✅
(c) Septic shock
(d) Neurogenic shock
16. What is the first-line treatment for compartment syndrome?
(a) Elevation of the limb
(b) Ice pack application
(c) Fasciotomy ✅
(d) Administering diuretics
17. What is the normal range for HbA1c in diabetes management?
(a) Below 5%
(b) Below 6.5% ✅
(c) Below 8%
(d) Below 10%
18. What is the recommended immediate action for an electrical burn?
(a) Apply cold compress
(b) Remove the person from electricity source safely ✅
(c) Rub the burned area with ice
(d) Apply antibiotic ointment
19. Which of the following is a sign of irreversible shock?
(a) Tachycardia
(b) Organ failure ✅
(c) Hypertension
(d) Increased urine output
20. What is the best way to prevent diabetic foot ulcers?
(a) Soaking feet in hot water daily
(b) Regular foot inspections and proper hygiene ✅
(c) Wearing tight shoes for support
(d) Avoiding movement to reduce pressure
21. What type of fracture is most common in osteoporosis?
(a) Greenstick fracture
(b) Pathological fracture ✅
(c) Spiral fracture
(d) Avulsion fracture
22. Which medication is commonly used to treat acute gout attacks?
(a) NSAIDs
(b) Colchicine ✅
(c) Methotrexate
(d) Allopurinol
23. What is the primary nursing intervention for a burn patient with respiratory distress?
(a) Apply cool compresses
(b) Maintain airway patency ✅
(c) Start oral pain management
(d) Encourage coughing
Difficult (Advanced Clinical Application)
21. What is the Parkland formula for fluid resuscitation in burn patients?
(a) 2 mL/kg/%TBSA
(b) 3 mL/kg/%TBSA
(c) 4 mL/kg/%TBSA ✅
(d) 6 mL/kg/%TBSA
22. What is a key diagnostic feature of septic shock?
(a) Elevated lactate levels ✅
(b) Bradycardia
(c) Increased urine output
(d) Hypertension
23. What is the primary physiological response in neurogenic shock?
(a) Hypertension due to sympathetic overactivity
(b) Bradycardia and vasodilation due to sympathetic loss ✅
(c) Tachycardia with increased vascular resistance
(d) Increased blood volume and cardiac output
24. What is the most important sign of decompensated shock?
(a) Mild hypotension
(b) Bradycardia
(c) Confusion and altered mental state ✅
(d) Fever
25. What is the immediate intervention for a patient with a suspected fat embolism syndrome
after a fracture?
(a) Administer high-flow oxygen ✅
(b) Start IV antibiotics
(c) Perform fasciotomy
(d) Encourage early ambulation
26. What is the primary cause of mortality in severe burns?
(a) Fluid loss
(b) Infection (sepsis) ✅
(c) Pain shock
(d) Hyperkalemia
27. What is the role of norepinephrine in managing hypovolemic shock?
(a) Increases heart rate and vascular resistance ✅
(b) Decreases vascular resistance
(c) Directly increases blood volume
(d) Causes vasodilation
28. What is the most common early sign of multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)?
(a) Hypertension
(b) Altered mental status ✅
(c) Bradycardia
(d) Increased blood pressure
29. What is the most reliable sign of a wound infection in a burn patient?
(a) Fever
(b) Increased pain, redness, and swelling ✅
(c) Decreased wound drainage
(d) Formation of a dry scab
30. What is the best diagnostic tool for detecting osteomyelitis?
(a) MRI ✅
(b) X-ray
(c) CT scan
(d) Bone density test
