EXIT EXAM

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Contents
300+ Top Refrigeration & Air Conditioning MCQs & Answers...................................................................... 3
Refrigeration and Air Conditioning Multiple Choice Questions ................................................................... 3
300+ TOP Heat Transfer MCQ Questions and Answers .............................................................................. 69
Heat Transfer Multiple Choice Questions ................................................................................................... 69
300+ TOP Hydraulic Machines MCQ Questions and Answers .................................................................... 93
Hydraulic Machines Questions with Answers :- ......................................................................................... 93
300+ TOP I.C. Engines MCQ Questions and Answers Quiz ....................................................................... 108
I.C. Engines Multiple Choice Questions with Answers :- .......................................................................... 108
MACHINE ELEMENT .................................................................................................................................. 164
300+ TOP Strength of Materials MCQ Questions and Answers................................................................ 170
Strength of Materials Multiple choice Questions ..................................................................................... 170
Objective question of Diesel trade theory MDT-03 .................................................................................. 267
1000+ TOP Thermodynamics MCQs and Answers Quiz Exam .................................................................. 282
Thermodynamics Multiple Choice Questions ........................................................................................... 282
300+ TOP Engineering Materials MCQs and Answers Quiz ...................................................................... 386
Engineering Materials Multiple choice Questions .................................................................................... 386
300+ TOP Material Handling MCQs and Answers Quiz Test ..................................................................... 463
Material Handling Multiple Choice Questions .......................................................................................... 463
300+ TOP Theory of Machines MCQs and Answers Quiz ......................................................................... 506
Theory of Machines Multiple Choice Questions ....................................................................................... 506
300+ TOP Control Systems Objective Questions and Answers MCQs ...................................................... 543
CONTROL SYSTEMS Multiple Choice Questions :- .................................................................................... 543
Maintenance Management MCQ Multiple Choice Questions with Answers ........................................... 567
22643 Mechatronics MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions) .......................................................................... 577
22643 Mechatronics MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions) .......................................................................... 577

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300+ Top Refrigeration & Air Conditioning MCQs & Answers

Refrigeration and Air Conditioning Multiple Choice Questions

1. In vapour compression cycle using NH₃ as refrigerant, initial charge is filled at

A. Suction of compressor

B. Delivery of compressor

C. High pressure side close to receiver

D. Low pressure side near receiver

Answer: C

2. The temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when it is not affected by the moisture present in the air, is
called

A. Wet bulb temperature

B. Dry bulb temperature

C. Dew point temperature

D. None of these

Answer: B

3. Absorption system normally uses the following refrigerant

A. Freon-11

B. Freon-22

C. CO2

D. Ammonia

Answer: D

4. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. In vapour absorption refrigerator, the compression of refrigerant is avoided.

B. Sub-cooling can be achieved by circulating more quantity of cooling water through the condenser.

C. In vapour compression refrigeration, the vapour is drawn in the compressor cylinder during its suction stroke and
is compressed adiabatically during the compression stroke.

D. All of the above

Answer: D

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5. In a refrigeration cycle, the flow of refrigerant is controlled by

A. Compressor

B. Condenser

C. Evaporator

D. Expansion valve

Answer: D

6. The colour of the flame of halide torch, in case of leakage of Freon refrigerant, will change to

A. Bright green

B. Yellow

C. Red

D. Orange

Answer: A

7. For air conditioning the operation theater in a hospital, the percentage of outside air in the air supplied is

A. Zero

B. 20

C. 50

D. 100

Answer: D

8. Allowable pressure on high pressure side or ammonia absorption system is of the order of

A. Atmospheric pressure

B. Slightly above atmospheric pressure

C. 24 bars

D. 56 bars

Answer: D

9. The C.O.P. of a Carnot refrigerator in winter will be _________ as compared to C.O.P. in summer.

A. Same

B. Lower

C. Higher

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D. None of these

Answer: C

10. Chaperon equation is a relation between

A. Temperature, pressure and enthalpy

B. Specific volume and enthalpy

C. Temperature and enthalpy

D. Temperature, pressure, specific volume and enthalpy

Answer: D

11. During humidification process, __________ increases.

A. Wet bulb temperature

B. Relative humidity

C. Dry bulb temperature

D. Specific humidity

Answer: B

12. Where does the lowest temperature occur in a vapour compression cycle?

A. Condenser

B. Evaporator

C. Compressor

D. Expansion valve

Answer: B

13. The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to the mass of water vapour in the same
volume of saturated air at the same temperature and pressure, is called

A. Humidity ratio

B. Relative humidity

C. Absolute humidity

D. Degree of saturation

Answer: B

14. Under cooling in a refrigeration cycle

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A. Increases C.O.P

B. Decreases C.O.P

C. C.O.P remains unaltered

D. Other factors decide C.O.P

Answer: A

15. In a domestic vapour compression refrigerator, the refrigerant commonly used is

A. CO₂

B. Ammonia

C. R-12

D. All of these

Answer: C

16. The COP of a vapour compression plant in comparison to vapour absorption plant is

A. More

B. Less

C. Same

D. More/less depending on size of plant

Answer: A

17. The fluids used in Electrolux refrigerator are

A. Water and hydrogen

B. Ammonia and hydrogen

C. Ammonia, water and hydrogen

D. None of these

Answer: C

18. Domestic refrigerator working on vapour compression cycle uses the following type of expansion device

A. Electrically operated throttling valve

B. Manually operated valve

C. Thermostatic valve

D. Capillary tube

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Answer: D

19. The condition of refrigerant after passing through the expansion or throttle valve, in a vapour compression
system is

A. High pressure saturated liquid

B. Wet vapour

C. Very wet vapour

D. Dry vapour

Answer: C

20. An important characteristic of absorption system of refrigeration is

A. Noisy operation

B. Quiet operation

C. Cooling below 0°C

D. Very little power consumption

Answer: B

21. The centrifugal compressors are generally used for refrigerants that require

A. Small displacements and low condensing pressures

B. Large displacements and high condensing pressures

C. Small displacements and high condensing pressures

D. Large displacements and low condensing pressures

Answer: D

22. Rick up the incorrect statement

A. Lithium bromide used in vapour absorption cycle is non volatile

B. Lithium bromide plant can‘t operate below 0°C

C. A separator is used in lithium bromide plant to remove the unwanted water vapour by condensing

D. Concentration of solution coming out of lithium bromide generator is more in comparison to that entering the
generator

Answer: C

23. During dehumidification process, the relative humidity

A. Remains constant

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B. Increases

C. Decreases

D. None of these

Answer: C

24. The refrigerant widely used in domestic refrigerators is

A. Ammonia

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Sulphur dioxide

D. R-12

Answer: D

25. The moisture in a refrigerant is removed by

A. Evaporator

B. Safety relief valve

C. Dehumidifier

D. Driers

Answer: D

26. During sensible cooling of air ________ decreases.

A. Wet bulb temperature

B. Relative humidity

C. Dry bulb temperature

D. Specific humidity

Answer: C

27. At lower temperatures and pressures, the latent heat of vaporisation of a refrigerant

A. Decreases

B. Increases

C. Remain same

D. Depends on other factors

Answer: B

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28. The wet bulb depression is zero when relative humidity is

A. Zero

B. 0.5

C. 0.75

D. 1.0

Answer: D

29. The C.O.P of a refrigeration cycle with increase in evaporator temperature, keeping condenser temperature
constant, will

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain unaffected

D. May increase or decrease depending on the type of refrigerant used

Answer: A

30. During humidification process, dry bulb temperature

A. Remains constant

B. Increases

C. Decreases

D. None of these

Answer: A

31. The vapour pressure of refrigerant should be

A. Lower than atmospheric pressure

B. Higher than atmospheric pressure

C. Equal to atmospheric pressure

D. Could be anything

Answer: B

32. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A. The performance of the vapour compression refrigerator varies considerably with both vaporising and condensing
temperatures.

B. In vapour compression cycle, the useful part of the heat transfer is at the condenser.

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C. In ammonia-hydrogen (Electrolux) refrigerator, no compressor, pump or fan is required.

D. The effect of under-cooling the liquid refrigerant is to decrease the coefficient of performance.

Answer: D

33. In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant before passing through the condenser is

A. Saturated liquid

B. Wet vapour

C. Dry saturated vapour

D. Superheated vapour

Answer: D

34. For proper refrigeration in a cabinet, if the temperature and vapour pressure difference between cabinet and
atmosphere is high, then

A. Bigger cabinet should be used

B. Smaller cabinet should be used

C. Perfectly tight vapour seal should be used

D. Refrigerant with lower evaporation temperature should be used

Answer: C

35. During sensible heating of air _________ decreases.

A. Wet bulb temperature

B. Relative humidity

C. Dry bulb temperature

D. Specific humidity

Answer: B

36. One ton refrigeration corresponds to

A. 50 kcal/ min

B. 50 kcal/ hr

C. 80 kcal/ min

D. 80 kcal/ hr

Answer: A

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37. The process, generally used in winter air-conditioning to warm and humidity the air, is called

A. Humidification

B. Dehumidification

C. Heating and humidification

D. Cooling and dehumidification

Answer: C

38. The leaks in a refrigeration system using Freon are detected by

A. Halide torch which on detection produces greenish flame lighting

B. Sulphur sticks which on detection gives white smoke

C. Using reagents

D. Smelling

Answer: A

39. The reduced ambient air cooling system has

A. One cooling turbine and one heat exchanger

B. One cooling turbine and two heat exchangers

C. Two cooling turbines and one heat exchanger

D. Two cooling turbines and two heat exchangers

Answer: C

40. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is saturated liquid

A. After passing through the condenser

B. Before passing through the condenser

C. After passing through the expansion throttle valve

D. Before entering the expansion valve

Answer: A

41. Which of the following refrigerant has the maximum ozone depletion potential in the stratosphere?

A. Ammonia

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Sulphur dioxide

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D. Fluorine

Answer: D

42. If the evaporator temperature of a plant is lowered, keeping the condenser temperature constant, the h.p. of
compressor required will be

A. Same

B. More

C. Less

D. More/less depending on rating

Answer: B

43. Hydrogen is used in Electrolux refrigeration system so as to _________ the rate of evaporation of the liquid
ammonia passing through the evaporator.

A. Equalize

B. Reduce

C. Increase

D. None of these

Answer: C

44. Pick up the wrong statement. A refrigerant should have

A. Tow specific heat of liquid

B. High boiling point

C. High latent heat of vaporisation

D. Higher critical temperature

Answer: B

45. The pressure at the inlet of a refrigerant compressor is called

A. Suction pressure

B. Discharge pressure

C. Critical pressure

D. Back pressure

Answer: A

46. Condensing temperature in a refrigerator is the temperature

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A. Of cooling medium

B. Of freezing zone

C. Of evaporator

D. At which refrigerant gas becomes liquid

Answer: D

47. In aircraft, air refrigeration Cycle is used because of

A. Low weight per tonne of refrigeration

B. High heat transfer rate

C. Low temperature at high altitudes

D. Higher coefficient of performance

Answer: A

48. Highest pressure encountered in a refrigeration system should be

A. Critical pressure of refrigerant

B. Much below critical pressure

C. Much above critical pressure

D. Near critical pressure

Answer: B

49. The refrigerant used for absorption refrigerators working on heat from solar collectors is a mixture of water and

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Sulphur dioxide

C. Lithium bromide

D. R-12

Answer: C

50. One ton of the refrigeration is

A. The standard unit used in refrigeration problems

B. The cooling effect produced by melting 1 ton of ice

C. The refrigeration effect to freeze 1 ton of water at 0°C into ice at 0°C in 24 hours

D. The refrigeration effect to produce 1 ton of ice at NTP conditions

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Answer: C

51. The dry bulb temperature during sensible heating of air

A. Remains constant

B. Increases

C. Decreases

D. None of these

Answer: B

52. Vertical lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show constant

A. Pressure lines

B. Temperature lines

C. Total heat lines

D. Entropy lines

Answer: C

53. During heating and dehumidification process, dry bulb temperature

A. Remains constant

B. Increases

C. Decreases

D. None of these

Answer: B

54. The evolution of heat of solution takes place in ammonia absorption plant when

A. Ammonia vapour goes into solution

B. Ammonia vapour is driven out of solution

C. Lithium bromide mixes with ammonia

D. Weak solution mixes with strong solution

Answer: A

55. In a pressure enthalpy chart, the space to the left of the saturated liquid line represents

A. Wet vapour region

B. Superheated vapour region

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C. Sub-cooled liquid region

D. None of these

Answer: C

56. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is high pressure saturated liquid

A. After passing through the condenser

B. Before passing through the condenser

C. After passing through the expansion or throttle valve

D. Before entering the expansion valve

Answer: D

57. In a bootstrap air evaporative cooling system, the evaporator is provided

A. Between the combustion chamber and the first heat exchanger

B. Between the first heat exchanger and the secondary compressor

C. Between the secondary compressor and the second heat exchanger

D. Between the second heat exchanger and the cooling turbine

Answer: D

58. The COP of a domestic refrigerator

A. Is less than 1

B. Is more than 1

C. Is equal to 1

D. Depends upon the make

Answer: B

59. The air cooling system mostly used in transport type aircrafts is

A. Simple air cooling system

B. Simple evaporative air cooling system

C. Bootstrap air cooling system

D. All of these

Answer: C

60. The higher temperature in vapour compression cycle occurs at

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A. Receiver

B. Expansion valve

C. Evaporator

D. Compressor discharge

Answer: D

61. Dry bulb temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when

A. It is not affected by the moisture present in the air

B. Its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the air

C. The moisture present in it begins to condense

D. None of the above

62. In refrigerators, the temperature difference between the evaporating refrigerant and the medium being cooled
should be

A. High, of the order of 25°

B. As low as possible (3 to 11°C)

C. Zero

D. Any value

Answer: B

63. The evaporator changes the low pressure liquid refrigerant from the expansion valve into

A. High pressure liquid refrigerant

B. Low pressure liquid and vapour refrigerant

C. Low pressure vapour refrigerant

D. None of these

Answer: C

64. Choose the correct statement

A. A refrigerant should have low latent heat

B. If operating temperature of system is low, then refrigerant with low boiling point should be used

C. Pre-cooling and sub-cooling bf refrigerant are same

D. Superheat and sensible heat of a refrigerant are same

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Answer: B

65. Carbon dioxide is

A. Colourless

B. Odourless

C. Non-flammable

D. All of these

Answer: D

66. Reducing suction pressure in refrigeration cycle

A. Lowers evaporation temperature

B. Increases power required per ton of refrigeration

C. Lowers compressor capacity because vapour is lighter

D. All of the above

Answer: D

67. The coefficient of performance of a domestic refrigerator is ________ as compared to a domestic air-
conditioner.

A. Same

B. Less

C. More

D. None of these

Answer: B

68. If a gas is to be liquefied, its temperature must be

A. Increased to a value above its critical temperature

B. Reduced to a value below its critical temperature

C. Equal to critical temperature

D. None of the above

Answer: C

69. The capacity of a domestic refrigerator is in the range of

A. 0.1 to 0.3 TR

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B. 1 to 3 TR

C. 3 to 5 TR

D. 5 to 7 TR

Answer: A

70. The lowest thermal diffusivity is of

A. Iron

B. Lead

C. Aluminium

D. Rubber

Answer: D

71. In a vapour compression cycle, the refrigerant immediately after expansion valve is

A. Liquid

B. Sub-cooled liquid

C. Saturated liquid

D. Wet vapour

Answer: D

72. Which of the following statement is correct for ammonia as a refrigerant?

A. It is toxic to mucous membranes.

B. It requires large displacement per TR compared to fluoro carbons.

C. It reacts with copper and its alloys.

D. All of these

Answer: D

73. Critical pressure of a liquid is the pressure

A. Above which liquid will remain liquid

B. Above which liquid becomes gas

C. Above which liquid becomes vapour

D. Above which liquid becomes solid

Answer: A

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74. The optimum effective temperature for human comfort is

A. Higher in winter than in summer

B. Lower in winter than in summer

C. Same in winter and summer

D. Not dependent on season

Answer: B

75. Formation of frost on evaporator in refrigerator

A. Results in loss of heat due to poor heat transfer

B. Increases heat transfer rate

C. Is immaterial

D. Can be avoided by proper design

Answer: A

76. A one tonne refrigerating machine means that

A. One tonne is the total mass of machine

B. One tonne refrigerant is used

C. One tonne of water can be converted into ice

D. One tonne of ice when melts from and at 0° C in 24 hours, the refrigeration effect is equivalent to 210 kJ/min

Answer: D

77. The suction pipe diameter of refrigerating unit compressor in comparison to delivery side is

A. Bigger

B. Smaller

C. Equal

D. Smaller/bigger depending on capacity

Answer: A

78. The coefficient of performance (C.O.P.) of a refrigerator working as a heat pump is given by

A. (C.O.P.)P = (C.O.P.)R + 2

B. (C.O.P.)P = (C.O.P.)R + 1

C. (C.O.P)P = (C.O.P)R – 1

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D. (C.O.P)P = (C.O.P)R

Answer: B

79. Presence of moisture in a refrigerant affects the working of

A. Compressor

B. Condenser

C. Evaporator

D. Expansion valve

Answer: D

80. During heating and humidification, the final relative humidity of air

A. Can be lower or higher than that of the entering air

B. Is lower than that of the entering air

C. Is higher than that of the entering air

D. None of the above

Answer: A

81. Which of the following cycles uses air as the refrigerant?

A. Ericson

B. Stirling

C. Carnot

D. Bell Coleman

Answer: D

82. The curved lines on a psychrometric chart indicates

A. Dry bulb temperature

B. Wet bulb temperature

C. Dew point temperature

D. Relative humidity

Answer: D

83. On the pressure-enthalpy diagram, condensation and desuperheating is represented by a horizontal line because
the process

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A. Involves no change in volume

B. Takes place at constant temperature

C. Takes place at constant entropy

D. Takes place at constant pressure

Answer: D

84. When the temperature of the surrounding is higher than the temperature of the body, then the heat loss by
convection from the body to the surrounding will be

A. Positive

B. Negative

C. Zero

D. None of these

Answer: B

85. The general rule for rating refrigeration systems (excepting for CO₂ system) is to approximate following h.p. per
ton of refrigeration

A. 0.1 to 0.5 h.p. per ton of refrigeration

B. 0.5 to 0.8 h.p. per ton of refrigeration

C. 1 to 2 h.p. per ton of refrigeration

D. 2 to 5 h.p. per ton of refrigeration

Answer: C

86. The atmospheric air at dry bulb temperature of 15°C enters a heating coil maintained at 40°C. The air leaves the
heating coil at 25°C. The bypass factor of the heating coil is

A. 0.376

B. 0.4

C. 0.6

D. 0.67

Answer: C

87. The change in evaporator temperature in a refrigeration cycle, as compared to change in condenser temperature,
influences the value of C.O.P.

A. More

B. Less

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C. Equally

D. Unpredictable

Answer: A

88. Most thermostatic expansion valves are set for a superheat of

A. 5°C

B. 10°C

C. 15°C

D. 20°C

Answer: A

89. In a refrigeration system, heat absorbed in comparison to heat rejected is

A. More

B. Less

C. Same

D. More for small capacity and less for high capacity

Answer: B

90. A thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system

A. Ensures the evaporator completely filled with refrigerant of the load

B. Is suitable only for constant load systems

C. Maintains different temperatures in evaporator in proportion to load

D. None of the above

Answer: A

91. Freon group of refrigerants are

A. Inflammable

B. Toxic

C. Non-inflammable and toxic

D. Nontoxic and non-inflammable

Answer: D

92. The boiling point of ammonia is

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A. -10.5°C

B. -30°C

C. -33.3°C

D. -77.7°C

Answer: C

93. For obtaining high COP, the pressure range of compressor should be

A. High

B. Low

C. Optimum

D. Any value

Answer: B

94. A reversible engine has ideal thermal efficiency of 30%. When it is used as a refrigerating machine with all other
conditions unchanged, the coefficient of performance will be

A. 1.33

B. 2.33

C. 3.33

D. 4.33

Answer: B

95. Cooling water is required for following equipment in ammonia absorption plant

A. Condenser

B. Evaporator

C. Absorber

D. Condenser, absorber and separator (rectifier)

Answer: D

96. The freezing point of sulphur dioxide is

A. -56.6°C

B. -75.2°C

C. -77.7°C

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D. -135.8°C

Answer: B

97. Mass flow ratio of NH₃ in comparison to Freon-12 for same refrigeration load and same temperature limits is of
the order of

A. 1: 1

B. 1: 9

C. 9: 1

D. 1: 3

Answer: B

98. In a refrigeration system, the expansion device is connected between the

A. Compressor and condenser

B. Condenser and receiver

C. Receiver and evaporator

D. Evaporator and compressor

Answer: C

99. The vapour compression refrigerator employs the following cycle

A. Rankine

B. Carnot

C. Reversed Rankine

D. Reversed Carnot

Answer: D

100. In actual air-conditioning applications for R-12 and R-22, and operating at a condenser temperature of 40° C
and an evaporator temperature of 5° C, the heat rejection factor is about

A. 1

B. 1.25

C. 2.15

D. 5.12

Answer: B

101. Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the order of

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A. 0.1 ton

B. 5 tons

C. 10 tons

D. 40 tons

Answer: A

102. A human body feels comfortable when the heat produced by the metabolism of human body is equal to the

A. Heat dissipated to the surroundings

B. Heat stored in the human body

C. Sum ofA. andB.

D. Difference ofA. andB.

Answer: C

103. The bank of tubes at the back of domestic refrigerator is

A. Condenser tubes

B. Evaporator tubes

C. Refrigerant cooling tubes

D. Capillary tubes

Answer: A

104. In a lithium bromide absorption refrigeration system

A. Lithium bromide is used as a refrigerant and water as an absorbent

B. Water is used as a refrigerant and lithium bromide as an absorbent

C. Ammonia is used as a refrigerant and lithium bromide as an absorbent

D. None of the above

Answer: B

105. The condition of refrigerant after passing through the condenser in a vapour compression system is

A. Saturated liquid

B. Wet vapour

C. Dry saturated vapour

D. Superheated vapour

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Answer: A

106. The value of C.O.P in vapour compression cycle is usually

A. Always less than unity

B. Always more than unity

C. Equal to unity

D. Any one of the above

Answer: B

107. The C.O.P. of a refrigerator working on a reversed Carnot cycle is (where T₁ = Lowest absolute temperature,
and T₂ = Highest absolute temperature)

A. T₁ / (T₂ – T₁)

B. (T₂ – T₁)/T₁

C. (T₁ – T₂)/T₁

D. T₂/ (T₂ – T₁)

Answer: A

108. Which of the following is not a desirable property of a refrigerant?

A. High risibility with oil

B. Low boiling point

C. Good electrical conductor

D. Large latent heat

Answer: C

109. The refrigerant after condensation process is cooled below the saturation temperature before throttling. Such a
process is called

A. Sub-cooling or under-cooling

B. Super-cooling

C. Normal cooling

D. None of these

Answer: A

110. A certain refrigerating system has a normal operating suction pressure of 10 kg/cm gauge and condensing
pressure of about 67 kg/cm. The refrigerant used is

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A. Ammonia

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Freon

D. Brine

Answer: B

111. The capillary tube, as an expansion device, is used in

A. Domestic refrigerators

B. Water coolers

C. Room air conditioners

D. All of these

Answer: D

112. If a heat pump cycle operates between the condenser temperature of +27°C and evaporator temperature of -
23°C, then the Carnot COP will be

A. 0.2

B. 1.2

C. 5

D. 6

Answer: D

113. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. The human body can lose heat even if its temperature is less than the atmospheric temperature.

B. The increase in air movement increases the evaporation from the human body.

C. The warm air increases the rate of radiation of heat from the human body.

D. BothA. andB.

Answer: D

114. In a flooded evaporator refrigerator, an accumulator at suction of compressor is used to

A. Collect liquid refrigerant and prevent it from going to compressor

B. Detect liquid in vapour

C. Superheat the vapour

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D. Collect vapours

Answer: A

115. The minimum temperature to which water can be cooled in a cooling tower is

A. Dew point temperature of air

B. Wet bulb temperature of air

C. Dry bulb temperature of air

D. Ambient air temperature

Answer: B

116. Highest temperature encountered in refrigeration cycle should be

A. Near critical temperature of refrigerant

B. Above critical temperature

C. At critical Temperature

D. Much below critical temperature

Answer: D

117. The operating pressure for refrigerating units using R-12 as a refrigerant is

A. 2 bar

B. 8 bar

C. 15 bar

D. 30 bar

Answer: B

118. The domestic refrigerator uses following type of compressor

A. Centrifugal

B. Axial

C. Miniature sealed unit

D. Piston type reciprocating

Answer: D

119. A bootstrap air cooling system has

A. One heat exchanger

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B. Two heat exchangers

C. Three heat exchangers

D. Four heat exchangers

Answer: B

120. Critical temperature is the temperature above which

A. A gas will never liquefy

B. A gas will immediately liquefy

C. Water will evaporate

D. Water will never evaporate

Answer: A

121. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. The constant enthalpy lines are also constant wet bulb temperature lines

B. The wet bulb and dry bulb temperature are equal at saturation condition

C. The wet bulb temperature is a measure of enthalpy of moist air

D. All of the above

Answer: D

122. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is very wet vapour

A. After passing through the condenser

B. Before passing through the condenser

C. After passing through the expansion or throttle valve

D. Before entering the compressor

Answer: D

123. During cooling and dehumidification, dry bulb temperature

A. Remains constant

B. Increases

C. Decreases

D. None of these

Answer: C

Page 29 of 592
124. Ammonia absorption refrigeration cycle requires

A. Very little work input

B. Maximum work input

C. Nearly same work input as for vapour compression cycle

D. Zero work input

Answer: A

125. Which of the following refrigerant has the highest freezing point.

A. Ammonia

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Sulphur dioxide

D. R-12

Answer: B

126. A standard ice point temperature corresponds to the temperature of

A. Water at 0°C

B. Ice at 4°C

C. Solid and dry ice

D. Mixture of ice and water under equilibrium conditions

Answer: D

127. The sub-cooling in a refrigeration cycle

A. Does not alter C.O.P.

B. Increases C.O.P.

C. Decreases C.O.P.

D. None of these

Answer: B

128. The condensing pressure due to the presence of non-condensable gases, as compared to that actually required
for condensing temperatures without non-condensable gases,

A. Will be higher

B. Will be lower

Page 30 of 592
C. Will remain unaffected

D. May be higher or lower depending upon the nature of non-condensable gases

Answer: A

129. The Freon group of refrigerants are

A. Halocarbon refrigerants

B. Zoetrope refrigerants

C. Inorganic refrigerants

D. Hydrocarbon refrigerants

Answer: A

130. For better C.O.P of refrigerator, the pressure range corresponding to temperature in evaporator and condenser
must be

A. Small

B. High

C. Equal

D. Anything

Answer: A

131. In vapour compression refrigeration system, refrigerant occurs as liquid between

A. Condenser and expansion valve

B. Compressor and evaporator

C. Expansion valve and evaporator

D. Compressor and condenser

Answer: C

132. The wet bulb depression indicates _________ humidity of the air.

A. Absolute

B. Relative

C. Specific

D. None of these

Answer: B

Page 31 of 592
133. The sensible heat factor during the heating and humidification process is given by (where h₁ = Enthalpy of air
entering the heating coil, h₂ = Enthalpy of air leaving the heating coil, and hA = Enthalpy of air at the end of
humidification process)

A. (hA – h2)/ (h1 – h2)

B. (h2 – hA)/ (h1 – h2)

C. (h1 – h2)/ (hA – h2)

D. (hA – h1)/ (h2 – h1)

Answer: D

134. The lower horizontal line of the refrigeration cycle plotted on pressure-enthalpy diagram represents

A. Condensation of the refrigerant vapour

B. Evaporation of the refrigerant liquid

C. Compression of the refrigerant vapour

D. Metering of the refrigerant liquid

Answer: B

135. The leakage in a refrigeration system using Freon is detected by

A. Halide torch

B. Sulphur sticks

C. Soap and water

D. All of these

Answer: A

136. The conditioned air supplied to the room must have the capacity to take up

A. Room sensible heat load only

B. Room latent heat load only

C. Both room sensible heat and latent heat loads

D. None of the above

Answer: C

137. Moisture in Freon refrigeration system causes

A. Ineffective refrigeration

B. High power consumption

Page 32 of 592
C. Freezing automatic regulating valve

D. Corrosion of whole system

Answer: C

138. The boiling point of ________ is 10.5°C.

A. Ammonia

B. R-12

C. Sulphur dioxide

D. Carbon dioxide

Answer: C

139. The refrigeration effect in a dry evaporator compared to flooded evaporator in a similar plant is

A. Same

B. More

C. Less

D. More or less depending on ambient conditions

Answer: C

140. The index which correlates the combined effects of air temperature, relative humidity and air velocity on the
human body, is known as

A. Mean radiant temperature

B. Effective temperature

C. Dew point temperature

D. None of these

Answer: B

141. Which of the following refrigerants has lowest freezing point?

A. Freon-12

B. NH3

C. CO2

D. Freon-22

Answer: D

Page 33 of 592
142. The thermostatic expansion valve is used in ________ type of evaporators.

A. Flooded

B. DX coil

C. Dry

D. None of these

Answer: C

143. The boiling point of ammonia is

A. 100°C

B. 50°C

C. 33.3°C

D. 0°C

Answer: C

144. The specific humidity during heating and humidification process.

A. Remains constant

B. Increases

C. Decreases

D. None of these

Answer: B

145. The relative coefficient of performance is

A. Actual COP/theoretical COP

B. Theoretical COP/actual COP

C. Actual COP × theoretical COP

D. None of these

Answer: A

146. The wet bulb temperature at 100% relative humidity is ________ dew point temperature.

A. Same as

B. Lower than

C. Higher than

Page 34 of 592
D. None of these

Answer: A

147. Vapour compression refrigeration is somewhat like

A. Carnot cycle

B. Rankine‘s cycle

C. Reversed Carnot cycle

D. None of the above

Answer: D

148. A heat pump working on a reversed Carnot cycle has a C.O.P. of 5. It works as a refrigerator taking 1 kW of
work input. The refrigerating effect will be

A. 1 kW

B. 2 kW

C. 3 kW

D. 4 kW

Answer: D

149. Aqua ammonia is used as refrigerant in the following type of refrigeration system

A. Compression

B. Direct

C. Indirect

D. Absorption

Answer: D

150. Air conditioning means

A. Cooling

B. Heating

C. Dehumidifying

D. All of these

Answer: D

151. The advantage of dry compression is that

Page 35 of 592
A. It permits higher speeds to be used

B. It permits complete evaporation in the evaporator

C. It results in high volumetric and mechanical efficiency

D. All of the above

Answer: D

152. The specific humidity during dehumidification process

A. Remains constant

B. Increases

C. Decreases

D. None of these

Answer: C

153. The C.O.P. of a refrigeration cycle with lowering of condenser temperature, keeping the evaporator
temperature constant, will

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. May increase or decrease depending on the type of refrigerant used

D. Remain unaffected

Answer: A

154. The alignment circle is marked on the psychrometric chart at

A. 20°C DBT and 50% RH

B. 26°C DBT and 50% RH

C. 20°C DBT and 60% RH

D. 26°C DBT and 60% RH

Answer: B

155. A refrigeration cycle operates between condenser temperature of + 27°C and evaporator temperature of -23°C.
The Carnot coefficient of performance of cycle will be

A. 0.2

B. 1.2

C. 5

Page 36 of 592
D. 6

Answer: C

156. Relative humidity is given by (where pv = Partial pressure of water vapour, pb = Barometric pressure, ps =
Pressure of saturated air, pd = Pressure at dry bulb temperature, pw = Saturation pressure corresponding to wet bulb
temperature, and μ = Degree of saturation)

A. 0.622 Pv / (Pb – Pv)

B. μ/[1 – (1 – μ) (Ps/Pb)]

C. [Pv (Pb – Pd)]/ [Pd (Pb – Pv)]

D. None of these

Answer: B

157. In refrigerator, liquid receiver is required between condenser and flow controlling device, if quantity of
refrigerant for system is

A. Less than 2 kg

B. More than or equal to 3.65 kg

C. More than 10 kg

D. There is no such consideration

Answer: B

158. During sensible cooling,

A. Relative humidity remains constant

B. Wet bulb temperature increases

C. Specific humidity increases

D. Partial pressure of vapour remains constant

Answer: D

159. Choose the wrong statement

A. Temperature of medium being cooled must be below that of the evaporator

B. Refrigerant leaves the condenser as liquid

C. All solar thermally operated absorption systems are capable only of intermittent operation

D. Frost on evaporator reduces heat transfer

Answer: A

Page 37 of 592
160. The superheating in a refrigeration cycle

A. Does not alter C.O.P.

B. Increases C.O.P.

C. Decreases C.O.P.

D. None of these

Answer: C

161. Refrigeration in aeroplanes usually employs the following refrigerant

A. CO2

B. Freon-11

C. Freon-22

D. Air

Answer: D

162. The condition of refrigerant as it leaves the compressor in a vapour compression system is

A. Saturated liquid

B. Wet vapour

C. Dry saturated vapour

D. Superheated vapour

Answer: D

163. The coefficient of performance is the ratio of the refrigerant effect to the

A. Heat of compression

B. Work done by compressor

C. Enthalpy increase in compressor

D. All of the above

Answer: D

164. The bypass factor (B. P. F.) in case of sensible heating of air is (Where td₁ = Dry bulb temperature of air
entering the heating coil, td₂ = Dry bulb temperature of air leaving the heating coil, and td₃ = Dry bulb temperature
of heating coil)

A. (td₂ – td₃)/(td₃ – td₁)

B. (td₃ – td₂)/(td₃ – td₁)

Page 38 of 592
C. (td₃ – td₁)/(td₂ – td₃)

D. (td₃ – td₁)/(td₃ – td₂)

Answer: B

165. Air refrigeration operates on

A. Carnot cycle

B. Reversed Carnot cycle

C. Rankine‘s cycle

D. Brayton cycle

Answer: D

166. In order to cool and dehumidify a stream of moist air, it must be passed over the coil at a temperature

A. Which lies between the dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures of the incoming stream

B. Which lies between the wet bulb and dew point temperatures of the incoming stream

C. Which is lower than the dew point temperature of the incoming stream

D. Of adiabatic saturation of incoming stream

Answer: C

167. Superheating in a refrigeration cycle

A. Increases C.O.P

B. Decreases C.O.P

C. C.O.P remains unaltered

D. Other factors decide C.O.P

Answer: B

168. The specific humidity during cooling and dehumidification

A. Remains constant

B. Increases

C. Decreases

D. None of these

Answer: C

169. Chaperon equation is applicable for registration at

Page 39 of 592
A. Saturation point of vapour

B. Saturation point of liquid

C. Sublimation temperature

D. Triple point

Answer: A

170. For ammonia refrigerating systems, the tubes of a shell and tube condenser are made of

A. Copper

B. Aluminium

C. Steel

D. Brass

Answer: C

171. The refrigerant for a refrigerator should have

A. High sensible heat

B. High total heat

C. High latent heat

D. Low latent heat

Answer: C

172. The bypass factor for a cooling coil

A. Increases with increase in velocity of air passing through it

B. Decreases with increase in velocity of air passing through it

C. Remains unchanged with increase in velocity of air passing through it

D. May increase or decrease with increase in velocity of air passing through it depending upon the condition of air
entering

Answer: A

173. Accumulators should have adequate volume to store refrigerant charge at least

A. 10%

B. 25%

C. 50%

Page 40 of 592
D. 75%

Answer: C

174. The dry bulb temperature lines, on the psychrometric chart are

A. Vertical and uniformly spaced

B. Horizontal and uniformly spaced

C. Horizontal and non-uniformly spaced

D. Curved lines

Answer: A

175. In S.J. unit, one ton of refrigeration is equal to

A. 210 kJ/ min

B. 21 kJ/ min

C. 420 kJ/ min

D. 840 kJ/ min

Answer: A

176. The cooling system used for supersonic aircrafts and rockets is

A. Simple air cooling system

B. Bootstrap air cooling system

C. Reduced ambient air cooling system

D. Regenerative air cooling system

Answer: D

177. Short horizontal lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show

A. Constant pressure lines

B. Constant temperature lines

C. Constant total heat lines

D. Constant entropy lines

Answer: A

178. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A. The value of C.O.P. is always greater than one

Page 41 of 592
B. In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant before entering the compressor is dry saturated
vapour

C. The space between the saturated liquid line and saturated vapour line, in a pressure enthalpy chart, is wet vapour
region

D. None of the above

Answer: D

179. One ton of refrigeration is equal to the refrigeration effect corresponding to melting of 1000 kg of ice

A. In 1 hour

B. In 1 minute

C. In 24 hours

D. In 12 hours

Answer: C

180. In a vapour absorption refrigeration system, the compressor of the vapour compression system is replaced by

A. Liquid pump

B. Generator

C. Absorber and generator

D. Absorber, generator and liquid pump

Answer: D

181. Efficiency of a Carnot engine is given as 80%. If the cycle direction be reversed, what will be the value of
C.O.P. of reversed Carnot Cycle?

A. 1.25

B. 0.8

C. 0.5

D. 0.25

Answer: D

182. The refrigerant supplied to a compressor must be

A. Superheated vapour refrigerant

B. Dry saturated liquid refrigerant

C. A mixture of liquid and vapour refrigerant

Page 42 of 592
D. None of these

Answer: A

183. One of the purposes of sub cooling the liquid refrigerant is to

A. Reduce compressor overheating

B. Reduce compressor discharge temperature

C. Increase cooling effect

D. Ensure that only liquid and not the vapour enters the expansion (throttling) valve

Answer: D

184. The ratio of heat extracted in the refrigerator to the work-done on the refrigerant is called

A. Coefficient of performance of refrigeration

B. Coefficient of performance of heat pump

C. Relative coefficient of performance

D. Refrigerating efficiency

Answer: A

185. In vapour compression cycle the condition off refrigerant is dry saturated vapour

A. After passing through the condenser

B. Before passing through the condenser

C. After passing through the expansion or throttle valve

D. Before entering the compressor

Answer: D

186. In larger industrial and commercial reciprocating compression systems, refrigerant widely used is

A. Ammonia

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Sulphur dioxide

D. R-12

Answer: A

187. In vapour compression cycle the condition of refrigerant is superheated vapour

A. After passing through the condenser

Page 43 of 592
B. Before passing through the condenser

C. After passing through the expansion or throttle valve

D. Before entering the expansion valve

Answer: B

188. In which of the following refrigeration system, waste heat can be effectively used?

A. Vapour compression cycle

B. Vapour absorption cycle

C. Air refrigeration cycle

D. None of these

Answer: B

189. Pick up the correct statement about giving up of heat from one medium to other in ammonia absorption system

A. Strong solution to weak solution

B. Weak solution to strong solution

C. Strong solution to ammonia vapour

D. Ammonia vapours to weak solution

Answer: B

190. The material of pipe lines for a system using Freon as a refrigerant should be

A. Brass

B. Copper

C. Steel

D. Aluminium

Answer: B

191. Ammonia is

A. Non-toxic

B. Non-inflammable

C. Toxic and non-inflammable

D. Highly toxic and inflammable

Answer: D

Page 44 of 592
192. The sensible heat factor during cooling and dehumidification process is given by (where h₁ = Enthalpy of air
entering the cooling coil, h₂ = Enthalpy of air leaving the cooling coil, and hA = Enthalpy of air at the end of
dehumidification process)

A. (hA – h2)/ (h1 – h2)

B. (h2 – hA)/ (h1 – h2)

C. (h1 – h2)/ (hA – h2)

D. (hA – h1)/ (h2 – h1)

Answer: A

193. Most of the domestic refrigerators work on the following refrigeration system

A. Vapour compression

B. Vapour absorption

C. Carnot cycle

D. Electrolux refrigerator

Answer: A

194. For unsaturated air, the dew point temperature is __________ wet bulb temperature.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. More than

D. None of these

Answer: B

195. Air refrigeration cycle is used in

A. Domestic refrigerators

B. Commercial refrigerators

C. Air conditioning

D. Gas liquefaction

Answer: D

196. The temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the
air, is called

A. Wet bulb temperature

Page 45 of 592
B. Dry bulb temperature

C. Dew point temperature

D. None of these

Answer: A

197. The C.O.P. of an absorption type refrigerator is given by (where T₁ = Temperature at which the working
substance receives heat, T₂ = Temperature of cooling water, and T₃ = Evaporator temperature)

A. [T₁ (T₂ – T₃)] / [T₃ (T₁ – T₂)]

B. [T₃ (T₁ – T₂)]/ [T₁ (T₂ – T₃)]

C. [T₁ (T₁ – T₂)] / [T₃ (T₂ – T₃)]

D. [T₃ (T₂ – T₃)] / [T₁ (T₁ – T₂)]

Answer: B

198. The humidity ratio or specific humidity is the mass of water vapour present in

A. 1 m3 of wet air

B. 1 m3 of dry air

C. 1 kg of wet air

D. 1 kg of dry air

Answer: D

199. During adiabatic saturation process on unsaturated air __________ remains constant.

A. Relative humidity

B. Dew point temperature

C. Dry bulb temperature

D. Wet bulb temperature

Answer: D

200. Degree of saturation or percentage humidity is

A. The mass of water vapour present in 1 m³ of dry air

B. The mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry air

C. The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to the mass of water vapour in the same
mass of dry air when it is saturated at the same temperature and pressure

Page 46 of 592
D. The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to the mass of water vapour in the same
volume of saturated air at the same temperature and pressure

Answer: C

201. The reciprocating refrigerant compressors are very suitable for

A. Small displacements and low condensing pressures

B. Large displacements and high condensing pressures

C. Small displacements and high condensing pressures

D. Large displacements and low condensing pressures

Answer: C

202. The desirable property of a refrigerant is

A. Low boiling point

B. High critical temperature

C. High latent heat of vaporisation

D. All of these

Answer: D

203. The humidification process, on the psychrometric chart is shown by

A. Horizontal line

B. Vertical line

C. Inclined line

D. Curved line

Answer: B

204. The evaporator used in household refrigerators is

A. Frosting evaporator

B. Non-frosting evaporator

C. Defrosting evaporator

D. None of these

Answer: A

205. In case of sensible heating of air, the coil efficiency is given by (where B.P.F. = Bypass factor)

Page 47 of 592
A. B.P.F. – 1

B. 1 – B. P.F.

C. 1/ B.P.F.

D. 1 + B.P.F.

Answer: B

206. In a refrigerating machine, heat rejected is _________ heat absorbed.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. Greater than

D. None of these

Answer: C

207. In aqua ammonia and Lithium bromide water absorption refrigeration systems, the refrigerants are respectively

A. Water and water

B. Water and lithium bromide

C. Ammonia and lithium bromide

D. Ammonia and water

Answer: D

208. In air-conditioning of aeroplanes, using air as a refrigerant, the cycle used is

A. Reversed Carnot cycle

B. Reversed Joule cycle

C. Reversed Brayton cycle

D. Reversed Otto cycle

Answer: C

209. The mass of water vapour present in __________ is called absolute humidity.

A. 1 m3 of water

B. 1 m3 of dry air

C. 1 kg of wet air

D. 1 kg of dry air

Page 48 of 592
Answer: B

210. While designing the refrigeration system of an aircraft, the prime consideration is that the

A. System has high C.O.P.

B. Power per TR is low

C. Mass of refrigerant circulated in the system is low

D. Mass of the refrigeration equipment is low

Answer: D

211. The formation of frost on cooling coils in a refrigerator

A. Increases heat transfer

B. Improves C.O.P. of the system

C. Increases power consumption

D. Reduces power consumption

Answer: C

212. The power per tonne of refrigeration is

A. 3.5/C.O.P.

B. C.O.P/3.5

C. 3.5 × C.O.P.

D. None of these

Answer: A

213. The wet bulb temperature during sensible heating of air

A. Remains constant

B. Increases

C. Decreases

D. None of these

Answer: B

214. The relative humidity is defined as

A. The mass of water vapour present in 1 m3 of dry air

B. The mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry air

Page 49 of 592
C. The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to the mass of water vapour in the same
mass of dry air when it is saturated at the same temperature and pressure

D. The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to the mass of water vapour in the same
volume of saturated air at the same temperature and pressure

Answer: D

215. As relative humidity decreases, the dew point temperature will be ________ wet bulb temperature.

A. Same as

B. Lower than

C. Higher than

D. None of these

Answer: B

216. In a psychrometric process, the sensible heat added is 30 kJ/s and the latent heat added is 20 kJ/s. The sensible
heat factor for the process will be

A. 0.3

B. 0.6

C. 0.67

D. 1.5

Answer: B

217. An Electrolux refrigerator is called a _________ absorption system.

A. Single fluid

B. Two fluids

C. Three fluids

D. None of these

Answer: C

218. It is desired to condition the outside air from 70% relative humidity and 45° C dry bulb temperature to 50%
relative humidity and 25° C dry bulb temperature (room condition). The practical arrangement will be

A. Dehumidification

B. Cooling and humidification

C. Cooling and dehumidification

D. Dehumidification and pure sensible cooling

Page 50 of 592
Answer: C

219. The difference between dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature, is called

A. Dry bulb depression

B. Wet bulb depression

C. Dew point depression

D. Degree of saturation

Answer: B

220. The coefficient of performance of Heat Pump is always _________ one.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. Greater than

D. None of these

Answer: C

221. An evaporator is also known as

A. Freezing coil

B. Cooling coil

C. Chilling coil

D. All of these

Answer: D

222. A refrigeration system

A. Removes heat from a low temperature body and delivers it to a high temperature body

B. Removes heat from a high temperature body and delivers it to a low temperature body

C. Rejects energy to a low temperature body

D. None of the above

Answer: A

223. Nusselt number (NN) is given by

A. NN = hl/k

B. NN = μ cp/k

Page 51 of 592
C. NN = ρ V l /μ

D. NN = V²/t.cp

Answer: A

224. The temperature of ammonia after compression in a vapour compression system is

A. 20 to 50°C

B. 50 to 70°C

C. 70 to 110°C

D. None of these

Answer: C

225. A pressure gauge on the discharge side of a refrigerant compressor reads too high. The reasons will be

A. Lack of cooling water

B. Water temperature being high

C. Dirty condenser surface

D. All of these

Answer: D

226. For evaporators and condensers, for the given conditions, the logarithmic mean temperature difference ™ for
parallel flow is ________ that for counter flow.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. Greater than

D. None of these

Answer: A

227. A vapour absorption refrigerator uses _________ as a refrigerant.

A. Water

B. Ammonia

C. Freon

D. Aqua-ammonia

Answer: D

Page 52 of 592
228. Bell Coleman cycle is a

A. Reversed Carnot cycle

B. Reversed Otto cycle

C. Reversed Joule cycle

D. Reversed Rankine cycle

Answer: C

229. The coefficient of performance of Electrolux refrigerator is the ratio of

A. Heat supplied by the gas burner to the heat absorbed by the evaporator

B. Heat absorbed by the evaporator to the heat supplied by the gas burner

C. Heat supplied by the gas burner minus the heat absorbed by the evaporator to the heat supplied by the gas burner

D. Heat absorbed by the evaporator minus the heat supplied by the gas burner to the heat absorbed by the evaporator

Answer: B

230. Which of the following refrigerant has the lowest freezing point?

A. R-11

B. R-12

C. R-22

D. Ammonia

Answer: C

231. In Electrolux refrigerator

A. Ammonia is absorbed in hydrogen

B. Ammonia is absorbed in water

C. Ammonia evaporates in hydrogen

D. Hydrogen evaporates in ammonia

Answer: C

232. One tonne of refrigeration (1TR) means that the heat removing capacity is

A. 21 kJ/min

B. 210 kJ/min

C. 420 kJ/min

Page 53 of 592
D. 620 kJ/min

Answer: B

233. The superheated vapour region, in a pressure enthalpy chart, is represented by the space

A. To the left of saturated liquid line

B. To the right of saturated liquid line

C. Between the saturated liquid line and saturated vapour line

D. None of the above

Answer: C

234. A good refrigerant should have

A. High latent heat of vaporisation and low freezing point

B. High operating pressures and low freezing point

C. High specific volume and high latent heat of vaporisation

D. Low C.O.P. and low freezing point

Answer: A

235. Air refrigeration cycle is used in

A. Commercial refrigerators

B. Domestic refrigerators

C. Air-conditioning

D. Gas liquefaction

Answer: D

236. In a saturated air-water vapour mixture, the

A. Dry bulb temperature is higher than wet bulb temperature

B. Dew point temperature is lower than wet bulb temperature

C. Dry bulb, wet bulb and dew point temperature are same

D. Dry bulb temperature is higher than dew point temperature

Answer: C

237. The capillary tube is not used in large capacity refrigeration systems because

A. Cost is too high

Page 54 of 592
B. Capacity control is not possible

C. It is made of copper

D. Required pressure drop cannot be achieved

Answer: B

238. The thermostatic expansion valve operates on the changes in the

A. Degree of superheat at exit from the evaporator

B. Temperature of the evaporator

C. Pressure in the evaporator

D. None of the above

Answer: A

239. In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant before entering the expansion or throttle valve is

A. High pressure saturated liquid

B. Wet vapour

C. Very wet vapour

D. Dry vapour

Answer: A

240. The freezing point of R-12 is

A. -86.6°C

B. -95.2°C

C. -107.7°C

D. -135.8°C

Answer: D

241. The unit of thermal diffusivity is

A. m/hK

B. m/h

C. m²/h

D. m²/hK

Answer: C

Page 55 of 592
242. The comfort conditions in air conditioning are at (where DBT = Dry bulb temperature, and RH = Relative
humidity)

A. 25°C DBT and 100% RH

B. 20°C DBT and 80% RH

C. 22°C DBT and 60% RH

D. 25°C DBT and 40% RH

Answer: C

243. The pressure at the outlet of a refrigerant compressor is called

A. Suction pressure

B. Discharge pressure

C. Critical pressure

D. Back pressure

Answer: B

244. The bypass factor, in case of sensible cooling of air, is given by (where td₁ = Dry bulb temperature of air
entering the cooling coil, td₂ = Dry bulb temperature of air leaving the cooling coil, and td₃ = Dry bulb temperature
of the cooling coil)

A. (td₁ -td₃)/( td₂ -td₃)

B. (td₂ -td₃)/( td₁ -td₃)

C. (td₃ -td₁)/( td₂ -td₃)

D. (td₃ -td₂)/( td₁ -td₃)

Answer: B

245. The operating temperature of a cold storage is 2°C. The heat leakage from the surrounding is 30 kW for the
ambient temperature of 40°C. The actual C.O.P. of refrigeration plant used is one fourth that of ideal plant working
between the same temperatures. The power required to drive the plant is

A. 1.86 kW

B. 3.72 kW

C. 7.44 kW

D. 18.6 kW

Answer: D

246. In chemical dehumidification process,

Page 56 of 592
A. Dew point temperature decreases

B. Wet bulb temperature decreases

C. Dry bulb temperature increases

D. All of these

Answer: D

247. Environmental protection agencies advice against the use of chlorofluorocarbon refrigerants since

A. These react with water vapour and cause acid rain

B. These react with plants and cause greenhouse effect

C. These react with oxygen and cause its depletion

D. These react with ozone layer

Answer: D

248. When the lower temperature of a refrigerating machine is fixed, then the coefficient of performance can be
improved by

A. Operating the machine at higher speeds

B. Operating the machine at lower speeds

C. Raising the higher temperature

D. Lowering the higher temperature

Answer: D

249. The bypass factor of a cooling coil decreases with

A. Decrease in fin spacing and increase in number of rows

B. Increase in fin spacing and increase in number of rows

C. Increase in fin spacing and decrease in number of rows

D. Decrease in fin spacing and decrease in number of rows

Answer: A

250. A mixture of dry air and water vapour, when the air has diffused the maximum amount of water vapour into it,
is called

A. Dry air

B. Moist air

C. Saturated air

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D. Specific humidity

Answer: C

251. The total pressure exerted by the mixture of air and water vapour is equal to the sum of pressures which each
constituent would exert, if it occupied the same space by itself. This statement is called

A. Kinetic theory of gases

B. Newton‘s law of gases

C. Dalton‘s law of partial pressures

D. Avogadro‘s hypothesis

Answer: C

252. The relative humidity lines on a psychrometric chart are

A. Vertical and uniformly spaced

B. Horizontal and uniformly spaced

C. Horizontal and non-uniformly spaced

D. Curved lines

Answer: D

253. The C.O.P. of a heat pump working on a reversed Carnot cycle is

A. T₁/(T₂ – T₁)

B. (T₂ – T₁)/T₁

C. (T₁ – T₂)/T₁

D. T₂/(T₂ – T₁)

Answer: D

254. A vapour absorption refrigeration system

A. Gives noisy operation

B. Gives quiet operation

C. Requires little power consumption

D. Cools below 0°C

Answer: B

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255. A refrigerating system operating on reversed Brayton refrigeration cycle is used for maintaining 250 K. If the
temperature at the end of constant pressure cooling is 300 K and rise in the temperature of air in the refrigerator is
50 K, then the net work of compression will be (assume air as working substance with Cp = 1 kJ/kg)

A. 25 kJ/kg

B. 50 kJ/kg

C. 100 kJ/kg

D. 125 kJ/kg

Answer: B

256. The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to the mass of water vapour in the same
mass of dry air when it is saturated at the same temperature and pressure, is called

A. Humidity ratio

B. Relative humidity

C. Absolute humidity

D. Degree of saturation

Answer: D

257. During dehumidification process, _________ remains constant.

A. Wet bulb temperature

B. Relative humidity

C. Dry bulb temperature

D. Specific humidity

Answer: C

258. Pressure of water vapour is given by

A. 0.622 Pv/ (Pb – Pv)

B. μ/[1 – (1 – μ) (Ps/Pb)]

C. [Pv (Pb – Pd)]/ [Pd (Pb – Pv)]

D. None of these

Answer: D

259. R-12 is generally preferred over R-22 in deep freezers since

A. It has low operating pressures

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B. It gives higher coefficient of performance

C. It is miscible with oil over large range of temperatures

D. All of the above

Answer: C

260. In a spray washing system, if the temperature of water is higher than the dry bulb temperature of entering air,
then the air is

A. Heated and dehumidified

B. Heated and humidified

C. Cooled and humidified

D. Cooled and dehumidified

Answer: B

261. A valve which maintains a constant degree of superheat at the end of the evaporator coil, is called

A. Automatic expansion valve

B. High side float valve

C. Thermostatic expansion valve

D. Low side float valve

Answer: D

262. An infinite parallel planes with emissivities e₁ and e₂, the interchange factor for radiation from surface 1 to
surface 2 is given by

A. (e₁ + e₂)/ e₁ + e₂ – e₁e₂

B. 1/e₁ + 1/e₂

C. e₁ + e₂

D. e₁e₂

Answer: A

263. The emissivity of a polished silver body is _________ as compared to black body.

A. Same

B. Low

C. Very low

D. High

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Answer: C

264. Air refrigerator works on

A. Reversed Carnot cycle

B. Bell Coleman cycle

C. BothA. andB.

D. None of these

Answer: C

265. The relative coefficient of performance is equal to

A. (Theoretical C.O.P.)/ (Actual C.O.P.)

B. (Actual C.O.P.) /(Theoretical C.O.P.)

C. (Actual C.O.P.) × (Theoretical C.O.P.)

D. None of these

Answer: B

266. In case of sensible cooling of air, the coil efficiency is given by

A. B.P.F. – 1

B. 1 – B.P.F.

C. 1/ B.P.F.

D. 1 + B.P.F.

Answer: B

267. For large tonnage (more than 200 TR) air-conditioning applications, the compressor recommended is

A. Reciprocating

B. Rotating

C. Centrifugal

D. Screw

Answer: C

268. The wet bulb temperature during sensible cooling of air

A. Remains constant

B. Increases

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C. Decreases

D. None of these

Answer: C

269. A condenser of refrigeration system rejects heat at the rate of 120 kW, while its compressor consumes a power
of 30 kW. The coefficient of performance of the system will be

A. 1/4

B. 1/3

C. 3

D. 4

Answer: D

270. A refrigerant with the highest critical pressure is

A. R-11

B. R-12

C. R-22

D. Ammonia

Answer: D

271. In aqua ammonia absorption refrigeration system, incomplete rectification leads to accumulation of water in

A. Condenser

B. Evaporator

C. Absorber

D. None of these

Answer: A

272. Most air cooled condensers are designed to operate with a temperature difference of

A. 5°C

B. 8°C

C. 14°C

D. 22°C

Answer: C

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273. In a reversed Brayton cycle, the heat is absorbed by the air during

A. Isentropic compression process

B. Constant pressure cooling process

C. Isentropic expansion process

D. Constant pressure expansion process

Answer: D

274. Wet bulb temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when

A. It is not affected by the moisture present in the air

B. Its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the air

C. The moisture present in it begins to condense

D. None of the above

Answer: B

275. The difference between dry bulb temperature and dew point temperature, is called

A. Dry bulb depression

B. Wet bulb depression

C. Dew point depression

D. Degree of saturation

Answer: C

276. In mechanical refrigeration system, the refrigerant has the maximum temperature

A. In evaporator

B. Before expansion valve

C. Between compressor and condenser

D. Between condenser and evaporator

Answer: C

277. The central air conditioning system has ___________ overall efficiency as compared to individual systems.

A. Same

B. Lower

C. Higher

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D. None of these

Answer: C

278. Moisture should be removed from refrigerants to avoid

A. Freezing at the expansion valve

B. Restriction to refrigerant flow

C. Corrosion of steel plates

D. All of these

Answer: D

279. The specific humidity during humidification process

A. Remains constant

B. Increases

C. Decreases

D. None of these

Answer: B

280. During a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a

A. Compressor

B. Condenser

C. Evaporator

D. Expansion valve

Answer: B

281. In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant is dry saturated vapour

A. Before entering the compressor

B. After leaving the compressor

C. Before entering the condenser

D. After leaving the condenser

Answer: A

282. During sensible cooling of air, specific humidity

A. Remains constant

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B. Increases

C. Decreases

D. None of these

Answer: A

283. In a psychrometric chart, specific humidity (moisture content) lines are

A. Vertical and uniformly spaced

B. Horizontal and uniformly spaced

C. Horizontal and non-uniformly spaced

D. Curved lines

Answer: B

284. The horizontal and non-uniformly spaced lines on a psychrometric chart indicates

A. Dry bulb temperature

B. Wet bulb temperature

C. Dew point temperature

D. Specific humidity

Answer: C

285. In a vapour compression refrigeration system, a throttle valve is used in place of an expander because

A. It considerably reduces mass of the system

B. It improves the C.O.P., as the condenser is small

C. The positive work in isentropic expansion of liquid is very small

D. It leads to significant cost reduction

Answer: C

286. Which of the following refrigerant is highly toxic and flammable?

A. Ammonia

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Sulphur dioxide

D. R-12

Answer: A

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287. The dehumidification process, on the psychrometric chart, is shown by

A. Horizontal line

B. Vertical line

C. Inclined line

D. Curved line

Answer: B

288. The wet bulb temperature at 100% relative humidity is ________ dry bulb temperature.

A. Same as

B. Lower than

C. Higher than

D. None of these

Answer: A

289. The human body feels comfortable when the heat stored in the body is

A. Positive

B. Negative

C. Zero

D. None of these

Answer: C

290. The heat rejection factor (HRF) is given by

A. 1 + C.O.P

B. 1 – C.O.P.

C. 1 + (1/C.O.P)

D. 1 – (1/C.O.P)

Answer: C

291. In order to collect liquid refrigerant and to prevent it from going to a ________, a device known as accumulator
is used at the suction of compressor.

A. Compressor

B. Condenser

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C. Expansion valve

D. Evaporator

Answer: A

292. The vertical and uniformly spaced lines on a psychrometric chart indicates

A. Dry bulb temperature

B. Wet bulb temperature

C. Dew point temperature

D. Specific humidity

Answer: A

293. The undesirable property of a refrigerant is

A. Non-toxic

B. Non-flammable

C. Non-explosive

D. High boiling point

Answer: D

294. The process, generally used in summer air conditioning to cool and dehumidify the air, is called

A. Humidification

B. Dehumidification

C. Heating and humidification

D. Cooling and dehumidification

Answer: D

295. The leakage in a refrigeration system using ammonia is detected by

A. Halide torch

B. Sulphur sticks

C. Soap and water

D. All of these

Answer: B

296. The lowest temperature during the cycle in a vapour compression system occurs after

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A. Compression

B. Expansion

C. Condensation

D. Evaporation

Answer: D

297. In a domestic refrigerator, a capillary tube controls the flow of refrigerant from the

A. Expansion valve to the evaporator

B. Evaporator to the thermostat

C. Condenser to the expansion valve

D. Condenser to the evaporator

Answer: A

298. The refrigerant used in small tonnage commercial machines (hermetically sealed units) is

A. Ammonia

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Sulphur dioxide

D. R-12

Answer: C

299. When the air is passed through an insulated chamber having sprays of water maintained at a temperature higher
than the dew point temperature of entering air but lower than its dry bulb temperature, then the air is said to be

A. Cooled and humidified

B. Cooled and dehumidified

C. Heated and humidified

D. Heated and dehumidified

Answer: A

300. A refrigerant compressor is used to

A. Raise the pressure of the refrigerant

B. Raise the temperature of the refrigerant

C. Circulate the refrigerant through the refrigerating system

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D. All of the above

Answer: D

300+ TOP Heat Transfer MCQ Questions and Answers

Heat Transfer Multiple Choice Questions

1. Unit of thermal conductivity in M.K.S. units is

A. kcal/kg m2 °C

B. kcal-m/hr m2 °C

C. kcal/hr m2 °C

D. kcal-m/hr °C

E. kcal-m/m2 °C.

Answer: B

2. Unit of thermal conductivity in S.I. units is

A. J/m2 sec

B. J/m °K sec

C. W/m °K

D. A. and C. above

E. B. and C. above.

Answer: E

3. Thermal conductivity of solid metals with rise in temperature normally

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains constant

D. may increase or decrease depending on temperature

E. unpredictable.

Answer: B

4. Thermal conductivity of non-metallic amorphous solids with decrease in temperature

A. increases

Page 69 of 592
B. decreases

C. remains constant

D. may increase or decrease depending on temperature

E. unpredictable.

Answer: B

5. Heat transfer takes place as per –

A. zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. first law of thermodynamic

C. second law of the thermodynamics

D. Kirchoff‘s law E. Stefan‘s law.

Answer: C

6. When heat is transferred from one particle of hot body to another by actual motion of the heated particles, it is
referred to as heat transfer by

A. conduction

B. convection

C. radiation

D. conduction and convection

E. convection and radiation.

Answer: A

7. When heat is transferred form hot body to cold body, in a straight line, without affecting the intervening medium,
it is referred as heat transfer by

A. conduction

B. convection

C. radiation

D. conduction and convection

E. convection and radiation.

Answer: C

8. Sensible heat is the heat required to

A. change vapour into liquid

Page 70 of 592
B. change liquid into vapour

C. increase the temperature of a liquid of vapour

D. convert water into steam and superheat it

E. convert saturated steam into dry steam.

Answer: C

9. The insulation ability of an insulator with the presence of moisture would

A. increase

B. decrease

C. remain unaffected

D. may increase/decrease depending on temperature and thickness of insulation

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

10. When heat is Transferred by molecular collision, it is referred to as heat transfer by

A. conduction

B. convection

C. radiation

D. scattering

E. convection and radiation.

Answer: B

11. Heat transfer in liquid and gases takes place by

A. conduction

B. convection

C. radiation

D. conduction and convection

E. convection and radiation.

Answer: B

12. Which of the following is the case of heat transfer by radiation

A. blast furnace

Page 71 of 592
B. heating of building

C. cooling of parts in furnace

D. heat received by a person from fireplace

E. all of the above.

Answer: D

13. Heat is closely related with

A. liquids

B. energy

C. temperature

D. entropy

E. enthalpy.

Answer: C

14. Pick up the wrong case. Heat flowing from one side to other depends directly on

A. face area

B. time

C. thickness

D. temperature difference

E. thermal conductivity.

Answer: C

15. Metals are good conductors of heat because

A. their atoms collide frequently

B. their atoms-are relatively far apart

C. they contain free electrons

D. they have high density

E. all of the above.

Answer: A

16. Which of the following is a case of steady state heat transfer

A. I.C. engine

Page 72 of 592
B. air preheaters

C. heating of building in winter

D. all of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: E

17. Total heat is the heat required to

A. change vapour into liquid

B. change liquid into vapour

C. increase the temperature of a liquid or vapour

D. convert water into steam and superheat it

E. convert saturated steam into dry steam.

Answer: D

18. Cork is a good insulator because it has

A. free electrons

B. atoms colliding frequency

C. low density

D. porous body

E. all of the above.

Answer: D

19. Thermal conductivity of water in general with rise in temperature

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains constant

D. may increase or decrease depending on temperature

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

20. Thermal conductivity of water at 20°C is of the order of

A. 0.1

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B. 0.23

C. 0.42

D. 0.51

E. 0.64.

Answer: D

21. Temperature of steam at around 540°C can be measured by

A. thermometer

B. radiatiouv pyrometer

C. thermistor

D. thermocouple

E. thermopile.

Answer: D

22. Thermal conductivity of air at room temperature in kcal/m hr °C is of the order of

A. 0.002

B. 0.02

C. 0.01

D. 0.1

E. 0.5.

Answer: B

23. The time constant of a thermocouple is

A. the time taken to attain the final temperature to be measured

B. the time taken to attain 50% of the value of initial temperature difference

C. the time taken to attain 63.2% of the value of initial temperature difference

D. determined by the time taken to reach 100°C from 0°C

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

24. Thermal conductivity of air with rise in temperature

A. increases

Page 74 of 592
B. decreases

C. remains constant

D. may increase or decrease depending on temperature

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

25. Heat flows from one body to other when they have

A. different heat contents

B. different specific heat

C. different atomic structure

D. different temperatures

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

26. The concept of overall coefficient of heat transfer is used in heat transfer problems of

A. conduction

B. convection

C. radiation

D. all the three combined

E. conduction and comte_ction.

Answer: E

27. In heat transfer, conductance equals conductivity (kcal/hr/sqm/°C/cm) divided by

A. hr (time)

B. sqm (area)

C. °C (temperature)

D. cm (thickness)

E. kcal (heat).

Answer: D

28. The amount of heat flow through a body by conduction is

A. directly proportional to the surface area of the body

Page 75 of 592
B. directly proportional to the temperature difference on the two faces of the body

C. dependent upon the material of the body

D. inversely proportional to the thickness of the body

E. all of the above.

Answer: E

29. Which of the following has least value of conductivity

A. glass

B. water

C. plastic

D. rubber

E. air.

Answer: E

30. Which of the following is expected to have highest thermal conductivity

A. steam

B. solid ice

C. melting ice

D. water

E. boiling water.

Answer: B

31. Thermal conductivity of glass-wool varies from sample to sample because of variation in

A. composition

B. density

C. porosity

D. structure

E. all of the above.

Answer: E

32. Thermal conductivity of a material may be defined as the

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A. quantity of heat flowing in one second through one cm cube of material when opposite faces ^re maintained at a
temperature difference of 1°C

B. quantity of heat flowing in one second through a slab of the material of area one cm square, thickness 1 cm when
its faces differ in temperature by 1°C

C. heat conducted in unit time across unit area through unit thickness when a temperature difference of unity is
maintained between opposite faces

D. all of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

33. Which of the following has maximum value of thermal conductivity

A. aluminium

B. steel

C. brass

D. copper

E. lead.

Answer: A

34. Moisture would find its way into insulation by vapour pressure unless it is prevented by

A. high thickness of insulation

B. high vapour pressure

C. less thermal conductivity insulator

D. a vapour seal

E. all of the above.

Answer: D

35. Heat is transferred by all three modes of transfer, viz, conduction, convection and radiation in

A. electric heater

B. steam condenser

C. melting of ice

D. refrigerator condenser coils

E. boiler.

Page 77 of 592
Answer: E

36. According to Prevost theory of heat exchange

A. it is impossible to transfer heat from low temperature source to t high temperature source

B. heat transfer by radiation requires no medium

C. all bodies above absolute zero emit radiation

D. heat transfer in most of the cases takes place by combination of conduction, convection and radiation

E. rate of heat transfer depends on thermal conductivity and temperature difference.

Answer: C

37. The ratio of heat flow Q1/Q2 from two walls of same thickness having their thermal conductivities as ATj – 2K2
will be

A. I

B. 0.5

C. 2

D. 0.25

E. 4.0

Answer: C

38. Heat transfer by radiation mainly depends upon

A. its temperature

B. nature of the body

C. kind and extent of its surface

D. all of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

39. Thermal diffusivity is

A. a dimensionless parameter

B. function of temperature

C. used as mathematical model

D. a physical property of the material

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E. useful in case of heat transfer by radiation.

Answer: D

40. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is .

A. proportional of thermal conductivity

B. inversely proportional to k

C. proportional to (k)

D. inversely proportional to k2

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

41. Unit of thermal diffusivity is

A. m2/hr

B. m2/hr°C

C. kcal/m2 hr

D. kcal/m.hr°C

E. kcal/m2 hr°C.

Answer: A

43. Thermal conductivity of wood depends on

A. moisture

B. density

C. temperature

D. all of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

44. In convection heat transfer from hot flue gases to water tube, even though flow may be turbulent, a laminar flow
region (boundary layer of film) exists close to the tube. The heat transfer through this film takes place by

A. convection

B. radiation

C. conduction

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D. both convection and conduction

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

45. Film coefficient is defined as Inside diameter of tube

A. Equivalent thickness of film

B. Thermal conductivity Equivalent thickness of film Specific heat x Viscocity

C. Thermal conductivity Molecular diffusivity of momentum Thermal diffusivity

D. Film coefficient x Inside diameter Thermalconductivity

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

46. Heat conducted througfi unit area and unit thick face per unit time when temperature difference between
opposite faces is unity,is called

A. thermal resistance

B. thermal coefficient

C. temperature gradient

D. thermal conductivity

E. heat-transfer.

Answer: D

49. The rate of energy emission from unit surface area through unit solid angle, along a normal to the surface, is
known as

A. emissivity

B. transmissivity

C. reflectivity

D. intensity of radiation

E. absorptivity.

Answer: D

50. Emissivity of a white polished body in comparison to a black body is

A. higher

B. lower

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C. same

D. depends upon the shape of body

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

51. A grey body is one whose absorptivity

A. varies with temperature

B. varies with wavelength of the incident ray

C. is equal to its emissivity

D. does not vary with temperature and. wavelength of the incident ray

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

53. Two balls of same material and finish have their diameters in the ratio of 2 : 1 and both are heated to same
temperature and allowed to cool by radiation. Rate of cooling by big ball as compared to smaller one will be in the
ratio of

A. 1 :1

B. 2: 1

C. 1 : 2

D. 4 : 1

E. 1 : 4.

Answer: C

55. A non-dimensional number generally associated with natural convection heat transfer is

A. Grashoff number

B. Nusselt number

C. Weber number

D. Prandtl number

E. Reynold number.

Answer: A

56. LMTD in case of counter flow heat exchanger as compared-to parallel flow heat exchanger is

A. higher

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B. lower

C. same

D. depends on the area of heat exchanger

E. depends on temperature conditions.

Answer: A

57. In heat exchangers, degree of approach is defined as the difference between temperatures of

A. cold water inlet and outlet

B. hot medium inlet and outlet

C. hot medium outlet and cold water inlet

D. hot medium outlet and cold water outlet

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

58. In counter flow heat exchangers

A. both the fluids at inlet (of heat ex¬changer where hot fluid enters) are in their coldest state

B. both the fluids at inlet are in their hot¬test state

C. both the fluids .at exit are in their hottest state

D. one fluid is in hottest state and other in coldest state at inlet

E. any combination is possible depending on design of heat exchanger.

Answer: B

59. A steam pipe is to be insulated by two insulating materials put over each other. For best results

A. better insulation should be put over pipe and better one over it

B. inferior insulation should be put over pipe and better one over it

C. both may be put in any order

D. whether to put inferior OIL over pipe or the better one would depend on steam temperature

E. unpredictable.

Answer: A

61. Fourier‘s law of heat conduction is valid for

A. one dimensional cases only

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B. two dimensional cases only

C. three dimensional cases only

D. regular surfaces having non-uniform temperature gradients

E. irregular surfaces.

Answer: A

62. According of Kirchhoff‘s law,

A. radiant heat is proportional to fourth power of absolute temperature

B. emissive power depends on temperature

C. emissive power and absorptivity are constant for all bodies

D. ratio of emissive power to absorptive power is maximum for perfectly black body

E. ratio of emissive power to absorptive power for all bodies is same and is equal to the emissive power of a
perfectly black body.

Answer: E

63. All radiations in a black body are

A. reflected

B. refracted

C. transmitted

D. absorbed

E. partly reflected and partly absorbed.

Answer: D

64. According to Kirchoff‘s law, the ratio of emissive power to absorptivity for all bodies is equal to the emissive
power of a

A. grey body

B. brilliant white polished body

C. red hot body

D. black body

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

65. The concept of overall coefficient of heat transfer is used in case of heat transfer by

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A. conduction

B. convection

C. radiation

D. conduction and convection

E. convection and radiation.

Answer: D

66. The unit of overall coefficient of heat transfer is

A. kcal/m2

B. kcal/hr °C

C. kcal/m2 hr °C

(4) kacl/m hr °C

E. kcal/m3 hr °C.

Answer: C

68. Joule sec is the unit of

A. universal gas constant

B. kinematic viscosity

C. thermal conductivity

D. Planck‘s constant

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

69. The value of Prandtl number for air is about

A. 0.1

B. 0.3

C. 0.7

D. 1.7

E. 10.5.

Answer: C

70. The value of the wavelength for maximum emissive power is given by —

Page 84 of 592
A. Wien‘s law

B. Planck‘s law

C. Stefan‘s law

D. Fourier‘s law

E. Kirchhoff‘s law.

Answer: A

72. Log mean temperature difference in case of counter flow compared to parallel flow will be

A. same

B. more

C. less

D. depends on other factors

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

73. The energy distribution of an ideal reflector at higher temperatures is largely in the range of

A. shorter wavelength

B. longer wavelength

C. remains same at all wavelengths

D. wavelength has nothing to do with it

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

74. Total emissivity of polished silver compared to black body is

A. same

B. higher

C. more or less same

D. very much lower

E. very much higher.

Answer: D

75. According to Stefan-Boltzmann law, ideal radiators emit radiant energy at a rate proportional to

Page 85 of 592
A. absolute temperature

B. square of temperature

C. fourth power of absolute temperature

D. fourth power of temperature

E. cube of absolute temperature.

Answer: C

76. Which of the following property of air does not increase with rise in temperature

A. thermal conductivity

B. thermal diffusivity

C. density

D. dynamic viscosity

E. kuiematic viscosity.

Answer: C

77. The unit of Stefan Boltzmann constant is

A. watt/cm2 °K

B. watt/cm4 °K

C. watt2/cm °K4

D. watt/cm2 °K4

E. watt/cm2 °K2.

Answer: D

78. In free con-vection heat transfer, Nusselt number is function of

A. Grashoff no. and Reynold no.

B. Grashoff no. and Prandtl no.

C. Prandtl no. and Reynold no.

D. Grashoff no., Prandtl no. and Reynold no.

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

79. Stefan Boltzmann law is applicable for heat transfer by

Page 86 of 592
A. conduction

B. convection

C. radiation

D. conduction and radiation combined

E. convection and radiation combined.

Answer: C

80. The thermal diffusivities for gases are generally

A. more than those for liquids

B. less than those for liquids

C. more than those for solids

D. dependent on the viscosity

E. same as for the liquids.

Answer: A

81. The thermal diffusivities for solids are generally

A. less than those for gases

B. jess than those for liquids

C. more than those for liquids and gases

D. more or less same as for liquids and gases

E. zerci.

Answer: C

83. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is

A. directly proportional to thermal con¬ductivity

B. inversely proportional to density of substance

C. inversely proportional to specific heat

D. all of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

Page 87 of 592
85. The ratio of the emissive power and absorptive power of all bodies is the same and is equal to the emissive
power of a perfectly black body. This statement is known as

A. Krichoff‘s law

B. Stefan‘s law

C. Wien‘ law

D. Planck‘s law

E. Black body law.

Answer: A

86. According to Stefan‘s law, the total radiation from a black body per second per unit area is proportional to

A. absolute temperature

B. T2

C. T5

D. t

E. l/T.

Answer: D

87. According to Wien‘s law, the wavelength corresponding to maximum energy is proportion to

A. absolute temperature (T)

B. I2

C. f

D. t

E. 1/r.

Answer: A

88. Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be white when

A. p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1

B. p=l,T = 0anda = 0

C. p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0

D. x = 0, a + p = 1

E. a = 0, x + p = 1.

Page 88 of 592
where a = absorptivity, p = reflectivity, x = transmissivity

Answer: B

89. Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be black when

A. p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1

B. p= l,T = 0anda = 0

C. p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0

D. x = 0, a + p = 0

E. a = 0,x + p= 1.

where a = absorptivity, p == reflectivity, X = transmissivity.

Answer: A

90. Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be opaque when

A. p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1

B. p=l,x = 0anda = 0

C. p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0

D. x – 0, a + p = 1

E. a=0,x + p= 1.

where a = absorptivity, p = reflectivity, X = transmissivity.

Answer: D

91. The total emissivity power is .defined as the total amount of radiation emitted by a black body per unit

A. temperature

B. thickness

C. area

D. time

E. area and time.

Answer: D

92. The ratio of the energy absorbed by the body to total energy falling on it is called

A. absorptive power

B. emissive power

Page 89 of 592
C. absorptivity

D. emissivity

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

93. 40% of incident radiant energy on the surface of a thermally transparent body is reflected back. If the
transmissivity of the body be 0.15, then the emissivity of surface is

A. 0.45

B. 0.55

C. 0.40

D. 0.75

E. 0.60.

Answer: A

94. The amount of radiation mainly depends on

A. nature of body

B. temperature of body

C. type of surface of body

D. all of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

95. The emissive power of a body depends upon its

A. temperature

B. wave length

C. physical nature

D. all of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

96. Two plates spaced 150 mm apart are maintained at 1000°C and 70°C. The heat transfer will take place mainly by

A. convection

Page 90 of 592
B. free convection

C. forced convection

D. radiation

E. radiation and convection.

Answer: D

97. Absorptivity of a body will be equal to its emissivity

A. at all temperatures

B. at one particular temperature

C. when system is under thermal equi-librium

D. at critical temperature

E. for a polished body.

Answer: C

98. In regenerator type heat exchanger, heat transfer takes place by

A. direct mixing of hot and cold fluids

B. a complete separation between hot and cold fluids

C. flow of hot and cold fluids alternately over a surface

D. generation of heat again and again

E. indirect transfer.

Answer: C

99. A perfect black body is one which

A. is black in colour

B. reflects all heat

C. transmits all heat radiations

D. abslprbs heat radiations of all wave lengths falling on it

E. fully opaque.

Answer: D

100. Planck‘s law holds good for

A. black bodies

Page 91 of 592
B. polished bodies

C. all coloured bodies

D. all of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

101. If the temperature of a solid surface changes form 27°C to 627°C, then its emissive power changes in the ratio
of

A. 3

B. 6

C. 9

D. 27

E. 81.

Answer: E

102. Depending on the radiating properties, body will be transparent when

A. p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1

B. p=l,x = 0,anda = 0

C. p = 0, T= l,anda = 0

D. X = 0, a + p = 1

E. a = 0,x + p= 1.

Answer: C

103. A grey body is one whose absorptivity

A. varies with temperature

B. varies with the wave length of incident ray

C. varies with both

D. does not vary with temperature and wave length of the incident ray

E. there is no such criterion.

Answer: D

Page 92 of 592
 300+ TOP Hydraulic Machines MCQ Questions and Answers

Hydraulic Machines Questions with Answers :-

1. Reciprocating pumps are no more to be seen in industrial applications (in comparison to centrifugal pumps)
because of

A. high initial and maintenance cost

B. lower discharge

C. lower speed of operation

D. necessity of air vessel

E. all of the above.

Answer: A

2. In a centrifugal pump casing, the flow of water leaving the impeller, is

A. rectilinear flow

B. radial flow

C. free vortex motion

D. forced vortex

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

3. Head developed by a centrifugal pump depends on

A. impeller diameter

B. speed

C. fluid density

D. type of casing

E. A. and B. above.

Answer: E

4. For starting an axial flow pump, its delivery valve should be

A. closed

B. open

C. depends on starting condition and flow desired

Page 93 of 592
D. could be either open or closed

E. partly open and partly closed.

Answer: B

5. The efficiency of a centrifugal pump is maximum when its blades are

A. straight

B. bent forward

C. bent backward

D. bent forward first and then backward

E. bent backward first and then forward.

Answer: C

6. In a centrifugal pump casing, the flow of water leaving the

A. radial

B. radial

C. centrifugal

D. rectilinear

E. vortex.

Answer: E

7. Centrifugal pump is started with its delivery valve

A. kept fully closed

B. kept fully open

C. irrespective of any position

D. kept 50% open

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

8. Axial flow pump is started with its delivery valve

A. kept fully closed

B. kept fully open

C. irrespective of any position

Page 94 of 592
D. kept 50% open

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

9. When a piping system is made up primarily of vertical lift and very little pipe friction, the pump characteristics
should be

A. horizontal

B. nearly horizontal

C. steep

D. first rise and then fall

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

10. One horsepower is equal to

A. 102 watts

B. 75 watts

C. 550 watts

D. 735 watts

E. 33000 watts.

Answer: D

11. Multistage centrifugal pumps are used to obtain

A. high discharge

B. high head

C. pumping of viscous fluids

D. high head and high discharge

E. high efficiency.

Answer: B

12. When a piping system is made up primarily of friction head and very little of vertical lift, then pump
characteristics should be

A. horizontal

B. nearly horizontal

Page 95 of 592
C. steep

D. first rise and then fall

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

13. In a single casing, multistage pump running at constant speed, the capacity rating is to be slightly lowered. It can
be done by

A. designing new impeller

B. trimming the impeller size to the required size by machining

C. not possible

D. some other alterations in the impeller

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

14. If a pump is handling water and is discharging a certain flow Q at a constant total dynamic head requiring a
definite B.H.P., the same pump when handling a liquid of specific gravity 0.75 and viscosity nearly same as of water
would discharge

A. same quantity of liquid

B. 0.75 Q

C. Q/0.75

D. 1.5 Q

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

15. The horse power required in above case will be

A. same

B. 0.75 B.H.P.

C. B.H.P./0.75

D. 1.5 B.H.P.

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

16. Low specific speed of a pump implies it is

Page 96 of 592
A. centrifugal pump

B. mixed flow pump

C. axial flow pump

D. any one of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

17. The optimum value of vane exit angle for a centrifugal pump impeller is

A. 10-15°

B. 20-25°

C. 30-40°

D. 50-60°

E. 80-90°.

Answer: B

18. In a centrifugal pump, the liquid enters the pump

A. at the top

B. at the bottom

C. at the center

D. from sides

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

19. For small discharge at high pressure, following pump is preferred

A. centrifugal

B. axial flow

C. mixed flow

D. propeller

E. reciprocating.

Answer: E

20. In centrifugal pumps, maximum efficiency is obtained when the blades are

Page 97 of 592
A. straight

B. bent forward

C. bent backward

D. radial

E. given aerofoil section.

Answer: C

21. Motion of a liquid in a volute casing of a centrifugal pump is an example of

A. rotational flow

B. radial

C. forced spiral vortex flow

D. forced cylindrical vortex flow

E. spiral vortex flow.

Answer: E

22. For very high discharge at low pressure such as for flood control and irrigation applications, following type of
pump is preferred

A. centrifugal

B. axial flow

C. reciprocating

D. mixed flow

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

23. Medium specific speed of a pump implies it is

A. centrifugal pump

B. mixed flow pump

C. axial flow pump

D. any one of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

Page 98 of 592
24. High specific speed of a pump implies it is

A. centrifugal pump

B. mixed flow pump

C. axial flow pump

D. any one of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

25. Indicator diagram of a reciprocating pump is a graph between

A. flow vs swept volume

B. pressure in cylinder vs swept volume

C. flow vs speed

D. pressure vs speed

E. swept volume vs speed.

Answer: B

26. Low specific speed of turbine implies it is

A. propeller turbine

B. Francis turbine

C. impulse turbine

D. any one of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

27. Any change in load is adjusted by adjusting following parameter on turbine

A. net head

B. absolute velocity

C. blade velocity

D. flow

E. relative velocity of flow at inlet.

Answer: D

Page 99 of 592
28. Runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is

A. full load speed

B. the speed at which turbine runner will be damaged

C. the speed if the turbine runner is allowed to revolve freely without load and with the wicket gates wide open

D. the speed corresponding to maximum overload permissible

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

29. The maximum number of jets generally employed in impulse turbine without jet interference is

A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 12

E. 16.

Answer: B

30. Medium specific speea of turbine implies it is

A. propeller turbine

B. Francis turbine

C. impulse turbine

D. any one of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

31. High specific speed of turbine implies it is

A. propeller turbine

B. Francis turbine

C. impulse turbine

D. any one of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

Page 100 of 592

32. The specific speed of turbine is defined as the speed of a unit

A. of such a size that it delivers unit dis-charge at unit head

B. of such a size that it delivers unit dis-charge at unit power

C. of such a size that it requires unit power per unit head

D. of such a size that it produces unit horse power with unit head

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

33. Puck up the wrong statement about centrifugal pump

A. discharge a diameter

B. head a speed2

C. head a diameter

D. Power a speed3

E. none of the above is wrong.

Answer: A

34. A turbine pump is basically a centrifugal pump equipped additionally with

A. adjustable blades

B. backward curved blades

C. vaned diffusion casing

D. inlet guide blades

E. totally submerged operation facility.

Answer: C

35. Casting of a centrifugal pump is designed so as to minimize

A. friction loss

B. cavitation

C. static head

D. loss of kinetic energy

E. starting time.

Answer: D

Page 101 of 592

36. In reaction turbine, draft tube is used

A. to transport water downstream without eddies

B. to convert the kinetic energy to flow energy by a gradual expansion of the flow cross-section

C. for safety of turbine

D. to increase flow rate

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

37. Guide angle as per the aerofoil theory of Kaplan turbine blade design is defined as the angle between

A. lift and resultant force

B. drag and resultant force

C. lift and tangential force

D. lift and drag

E. resultant force and tangential force.

Answer: A

38. Francis turbine is best suited for

A. medium head application from 24 to 180 m

B. low head installation up to 30 m

C. high head installation above 180 m

D. all types of heads

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

39. The flow rate in gear pump

A. increases with increase in pressure

B. decreases with increase in pressure

C. more or less remains constant with in-crease in pressure

D. unpredictable

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

Page 102 of 592

40. Impulse turbine is generally fitted

A. at the level of tail race

B. little above the tail race

C. slightly below the tail race

D. about 2.5 m above the tail race to avoid cavitation

E. about 2.5 m below the tail race to avoid cavitation.

Answer: B

41. Francis, Kaplan and propeller turbines fall under the category of

A. Impulse turbines

B. Reaction turbines

C. Axial flow turbines

D. Mixed flow turbines

E. Reaction-cum-impulse turbines.

Answer: B

42. Reaction turbines are used for

A. low head

B. high head

C. high head and low discharge

D. high head and high discharge

E. low head and high discharge.

Answer: E

43. The discharge through a reaction turbine with increase in unit speed

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains unaffected

D. first increases and then decreases

E. first decreases and then increases.

Answer: B

Page 103 of 592

44. The angle of taper on draft tube is

A. greater than 15°

B. greater than 8°

C. greater than 5°

D. less than 8°

E. less than 3°.

Answer: D

45. Specific speed for reaction turbines ranges from

A. 0 to 4.5

B. 10 to 100

C. 80 to 200

D. 250 to 300

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

46. In axial flow fans and turbines, fluid enters and leaves as follows

A. radially, axially

B. axially, radially

C. axially, axially

D. radially, radially

E. combination of axial and radial.

Answer: C

47. Which place in hydraulic turbine is most susceptible for cavitation

A. inlet of draft rube

B. blade inlet

C. guide blade

D. penstock

E. draft tube exit.

Answer: A

Page 104 of 592

48. Air vessels in reciprocating pump are used to

A. smoothen flow

B. reduce acceleration to minimum

C. increase pump efficiency

D. save pump from cavitation

E. increase pump head.

Answer: B

49. Saving of work done and power by fitting an air vessel to single acting reciprocating pump is of the order of

A. 39.2%

B. 49.2%

C. 68.8%

D. 84.8%

E. 91.6%.

Answer: D

50. Saving of work done and power by fitting an air vessel to double acting reciprocating pump is of the order of

A. 39.2%

B. 49.2%

C. 68.8%

D. 84.8%

E. 91.6%.

Answer: A

51. According to fan laws, for fans having constant wheel diameter, the air or gas capacity varies

A. directly as fan speed

B. square of fan speed

C. cube of fan speed

D. square root of fan speed

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

Page 105 of 592

52. According to fan laws, for fans having constant wheel diameter, the pressure varies

A. directly as fan speed

B. square of fan speed

C. cube of fan speed

D. square root of fan speed

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

53. According to fan laws, for the fans having constant wheel diameters, the power demand varies

A. directly as fan speed

B. square of fan speed

C. cube of fan speed

D. square root of fan speed

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

54. According to fan laws, at constant speed and capacity, the pressure and power vary

A. directly as the air or gas density

B. inversely as square root of density

C. inversely as density

D. as square of density

E. as square root of density.

Answer: A

55. According to fan laws, at constant pressure, the speed capacity and power vary

A. directly as the air or gas density

B. inversely as square root of density

C. inversely as density

D. as square of density

E. as square root of density.

Answer: B

Page 106 of 592

56. According to fan laws, at constant weight of air or gas, the speed, capacity and pressure vary

A. directly as the air or gas density

B. inversely as square root of density

C. inversely as density

D. as square of density

E. as square root of density.

Answer: C

57. Pressure intensifier increases the pressure in proportion to

A. ratio of diameters

B. square of ratio of diameters

C. inverse ratio of diameters

D. square of inverse ratio of diameters

E. fourth power of ratio of diameters.

Answer: B

58. A hydraulic accumulator normally consists of

A. two cylinders, two rams and a storage device

B. a cylinder and a ram

C. two co-axial rams and two cylinders

D. a cylinder, a piston, storage tank and control valve

E. special type of pump with storage device and a pressure regulator.

Answer: B

59. A hydraulic intensifier normally consists of

A. two cylinders, two rams and a storage device

B. a cylinder and a ram

C. two co-axial rams and two cylinders

D. a cylinder, a piston, storage tank and control valve

E. special type of pump with storage device and a pressure regulator.

Answer: C

Page 107 of 592

60. Hydraulic accumulator is used for

A. accumulating oil

B. supplying large quantities of oil for very short duration

C. generally high pressures to operate hydraulic machines

D. supplying energy when main supply fails

E. accumulating hydraulic energy.

Answer: D

61. Maximum impulse will be developed in hydraulic ram when

A. waste valve closes suddenly

B. supply pipe is long

C. supply pipe is short

D. ram chamber is large

E. supply pipe has critical diameter,

Answer: A

300+ TOP I.C. Engines MCQ Questions and Answers Quiz

I.C. Engines Multiple Choice Questions with Answers :-

1. In an internal combustion engine, the process of removing the burnt gases from the combustion chamber of the
engine cylinder is known as

A. Scavenging

B. Detonation

C. Supercharging

D. Polymerisation

Answer: A

2. Pick up the wrong statement about supercharging

A. Supercharging reduces knocking in diesel engines

B. There can be limited supercharging in petrol engines because of detonation

C. Supercharging at high altitudes is essential

Page 108 of 592

D. Supercharging results in fuel economy

Answer: D

3. Number of working strokes per min. for a four stroke cycle engine are _________ the speed of the engine in
r.p.m.

A. Equal to

B. One-half

C. Twice

D. Four-times

Answer: B

4. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine the inlet valve

A. Opens at 20° before top dead center and closes at 35° after the bottom dead center

B. Opens at top dead center and closes at bottom dead center

C. Opens at 10° after top dead center and closes 20° before the bottom dead center

D. May open or close anywhere

Answer: A

5. The voltage required to produce a spark across the gap, between the sparking points is

A. 2000 to 4000 volts

B. 4000 to 6000 volts

C. 6000 to 10,000 volts

D. 10,000 to 12,000 volts

Answer: C

6. Compression ratio of I.C. Engines is

A. The ratio of volumes of air in cylinder before compression stroke and after compression stroke

B. Volume displaced by piston per stroke and clearance volume in cylinder

C. Ratio of pressure after compression and before compression

D. Swept volume/cylinder volume

Answer: A

7. The theoretically correct air fuel ratio for petrol engine is of the order of

Page 109 of 592

A. 6: 1

B. 9: 1

C. 12: 1

D. 15: 1

Answer: D

8. The air standard efficiency of an I.C. engine is given by (where r = Compression ratio, and γ = Ratio of specific
heats)

A. 1 – rγ – 1

B. 1 + rγ – 1

C. 1 – (1/rγ – 1)

D. None of these

Answer: C

9. In the opposed piston diesel engine, the combustion chamber is located

A. Above the piston

B. Below the piston

C. Between the pistons

D. There is no such criterion

Answer: C

10. The ignition of the charge by some hot surface within the engine before the passage of spark is called

A. Pre-ignition

B. Detonation

C. Ignition delay

D. Auto-ignition

Answer: A

11. In a typical medium speed, 4-stroke cycle diesel engine

A. Fuel injection starts at 10° before top dead center and ends at 20° after top dead center

B. Fuel injection starts at top dead center and ends at 20° after top dead center

C. Fuel injection starts at just before top dead center and ends just after top dead center

Page 110 of 592

D. May start and end anywhere

Answer: A

12. Which one of the following engines will have heavier flywheel than the remaining ones?

A. 30 kW four-stroke petrol engine running at 1500 r.p.m.

B. 30 kW two-stroke petrol engine running at 1500 r.p.m.

C. 30 kW two-stroke diesel engine running at 750 r.p.m.

D. 30 kW four-stroke diesel engine running at 750 r.p.m.

Answer: A

13. Which of the following is the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel?

A. Diesel

B. Kerosene

C. Fuel oil

D. Gasoline

Answer: D

14. The working pressure and temperature inside the cylinder of an internal combustion engine is _________ as
compared to a steam engine.

A. Low

B. Very low

C. High

D. Very high

Answer: D

15. The rating of a diesel engine, with increase in air inlet temperature, will

A. Increase linearly

B. Decrease linearly

C. Increase parabolically

D. Decrease parabolically

Answer: B

16. If the temperature of intake air in internal combustion engine increases, then its efficiency will

Page 111 of 592

A. Remain same

B. Decrease

C. Increase

D. None of these

Answer: B

17. The operation of forcing additional air under pressure in the engine cylinder is known as

A. Scavenging

B. Turbulence

C. Supercharging

D. Pre-ignition

Answer: C

18. The ignition quality of petrol is expressed by

A. Cetane number

B. Octane number

C. Calorific value

D. All of these

Answer: B

19. The mean effective pressure obtained from engine indicator indicates the

A. Maximum pressure developed

B. Minimum pressure

C. Instantaneous pressure at any instant

D. Average pressure

Answer: D

20. The probability of knocking in diesel engines is increased by

A. High self ignition temperature

B. Low volatility

C. Higher viscosity

D. All of these

Page 112 of 592

Answer: D

21. Pour point of fuel oil is the

A. Minimum temperature to which oil is heated in order to give off inflammable vapours in sufficient quantity to
ignite momentarily when brought in contact with a flame

B. Temperature at which it solidifies or congeals

C. It catches fire without external aid

D. Indicated by 90% distillation temperature i.e., when 90% of sample oil has distilled off

Answer: B

22. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the compression

A. Starts at 40° after bottom dead centre and ends at 30° before top dead centre

B. Starts at 40° before bottom dead centre and ends at 30° after bottom dead centre

C. Starts at bottom dead centre and ends at top dead centre

D. May start and end anywhere

Answer: A

23. The maximum temperature in the I.C. engine cylinder is of the order of

A. 500-1000°C

B. 1000-1500°C

C. 1500-2000°C

D. 2000-2500°C

Answer: D

24. In compression ignition engines, swirl denotes a

A. Haphazard motion of the gases in the chamber

B. Rotary motion of the gases in the chamber

C. Radial motion of the gases in the chamber

D. None of the above

Answer: B

25. Supercharging is the process of

A. Supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the surrounding atmosphere

Page 113 of 592

B. Providing forced cooling air

C. Injecting excess fuel for raising more loads

D. Supplying compressed air to remove combustion products fully

Answer: A

26. The knocking in spark ignition engines can be reduced by

A. Retarding the spark

B. Increasing the engine speed

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of these

Answer: C

27. An engine indicator is used to determine the following

A. Speed

B. Temperature

C. Volume of cylinder

D. m.e.p. and I.H.P.

Answer: D

28. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the exhaust valve

A. Opens at 30° before bottom dead centre and closes at 10° after top dead centre

B. Opens at 30° after bottom dead centre and closes at 10° before top dead centre

C. Opens at bottom dead centre and closes at top dead centre

D. May open and close anywhere

Answer: A

29. The pressure at the end of compression in the case of diesel engine is of the order of

A. 6 kg/cm

B. 12 kg/cm

C. 20 kg/cm

D. 35 kg/cm

Answer: D

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30. The fuels in order of decreasing knock tendency for spark ignition engines are

A. Paraffin, aromatic, napthene

B. Paraffin, napthene, aromatic

C. Napthene, aromatics, paraffin

D. Napthene, paraffin, aromatic

Answer: B

31. Crankcase explosion in I.C. engines usually occurs as

A. First a mild explosion followed by a bi explosion

B. First a big explosion followed by a mil explosion

C. Both mild and big explosions occurs simultaneously

D. Never occurs

Answer: A

32. The air requirement of a petrol engine during starting compared to theoretical air required for complete
combustion is

A. More

B. Less

C. Same

D. May be more or less depending on engine capacity

Answer: B

33. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the compression

A. Starts at 40° after bottom dead center and ends at 10° before top dead center

B. Starts at 40° before top dead center and ends at 40° after top dead center

C. Starts at top dead center and ends at 40° before bottom dead center

D. May start and end anywhere

Answer: A

34. It the temperature of intake air in IC engines is lowered, then its efficiency will

A. Increase

B. Decrease

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C. Remain same

D. Increase up to certain limit and then decrease

Answer: A

35. The loud pulsating noise heard within the cylinder of an internal combustion engine is known as

A. Detonation

B. Turbulence

C. Pre-ignition

D. Supercharging

Answer: A

36. Which of the following medium is compressed in a Diesel engine cylinder?

A. Air alone

B. Air and fuel

C. Air and lub oil

D. Fuel alone

Answer: A

37. Detonation is harmful due to

A. Increase in the rate of heat transfer, there is a reduction in the power output and efficiency of the engine

B. Excessive turbulence which removes most of the insulating gas boundary layer from the cylinder walls

C. High intensity of knock causes crankshaft vibration and the engine runs rough

D. None of the above

Answer: D

38. A stoichiometric air-fuel ratio is

A. Chemically correct mixture

B. Lean mixture

C. Rich mixture for idling

D. Rich mixture for over loads

Answer: A

39. The firing order in an I.C. engine depends upon

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A. Arrangement of the cylinders

B. Design of crankshaft

C. Number of cylinders

D. All of these

Answer: D

40. Pick up the false statement

A. Thermal efficiency of diesel engine is about 34%

B. Theoretically correct mixture of air and petrol is approximately 15:1

C. High speed compression engines operate on dual combustion cycle

D. S.I. engines are quality governed engines

Answer: D

41. The maximum propulsive efficiency of a turbojet engine is at a speed of

A. 1000 km/h

B. 2000 km/h

C. 2400 km/h

D. 3000 km/h

Answer: C

42. The ratio of indicated thermal efficiency to the corresponding air standard cycle efficiency is called

A. Net efficiency

B. Efficiency ratio

C. Relative efficiency

D. Overall efficiency

Answer: C

43. The inlet valve of a four stroke cycle internal combustion engine remains open for

A. 130°

B. 180°

C. 230°

D. 270°

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Answer: C

44. The minimum cranking speed in case of petrol engine is about

A. Half the operating speed

B. One fourth of operating speed

C. 250 – 300 rpm

D. 60 – 80 rpm

Answer: D

45. Number of working strokes per min. for a two stroke cycle engine is _________ the speed of the engine in r.p.m.

A. Equal to

B. One-half

C. Twice

D. Four-times

Answer: A

46. Flash point of fuel oil is

A. Minimum temperature to which oil is heated in order to give off inflammable vapours in sufficient quantity to
ignite momentarily when brought in contact with a flame

B. Temperature at which it solidifies or congeals

C. Temperature at which it catches fire without external aid

D. Indicated by 90% distillation temperature, i.e. when 90% of sample oil has distilled off

Answer: A

47. In petrol engines, advancing of the spark timing will _________ the knocking tendency.

A. Not effect

B. Decrease

C. Increase

D. None of these

Answer: C

48. In a naturally aspirated diesel engine, the air is supplied by

A. A supercharger

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B. A centrifugal blower

C. A vacuum chamber

D. An injection tube

Answer: C

49. A supercharged engine as compared to an ordinary engine

A. Requires smaller foundation

B. Is lighter

C. Consumes less lubricating oil

D. All of these

Answer: D

50. Which of the following is not an intern‘s combustion engine?

A. 2-stroke petrol engine

B. 4-stroke petrol engine

C. Diesel engine

D. Steam turbine

Answer: D

51. The spark ignition engines are governed by

A. Hit and miss governing

B. Qualitative governing

C. Quantitative governing

D. Combination of (B) and (C)

Answer: C

52. Diesel engine can work on very lean air fuel ratio of the order of 30: 1. A petrol engine can also work on such a
lean ratio provided

A. It is properly designed

B. Best quality fuel is used

C. Cannot work as it is impossible

D. Flywheel size is proper

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Answer: C

53. The object of providing masked inlet valve in the air passage of compression ignition engines is to

A. Enhance flow rate

B. Control air flow

C. Induce primary swirl

D. Induce secondary turbulence

Answer: C

54. In the crankcase method of scavenging, the air pressure is produced by

A. Supercharger

B. Centrifugal pump

C. Natural aspirator

D. Movement of engine piston

Answer: D

55. The brake power (B.P.) of the engine is given by (where W = Brake load or dead load in newtons, l = Length of
arm in meters, N = Speed of engine in r.p.m., S = Spring balance reading in newtons, D = Dia. of brake drum in
meters, and d = Dia. of rope in meters)

A. B.P = (Wl × 2πN)/60 watts

B. B.P = [(W – S) πDN]/60 watts

C. B.P = [(W – S) π (D + d) N]/60 watts

D. All of these

Answer: D

57. The temperature of interior surface of cylinder wall in normal operation is not allowed to exceed

A. 80°C

B. 120°C

C. 180°C

D. 240°C

Answer: C

58. Thermal efficiency of a two stroke cycle engine is _________ a four stroke cycle engine.

A. Equal to

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B. Less than

C. Greater than

D. None of these

Answer: B

59. Scavenging is usually done to increase

A. Thermal efficiency

B. Speed

C. Power output

D. Fuel consumption

Answer: C

60. If V₁ is the jet velocity and V₀ is the vehicle velocity, then the propulsive efficiency of a rocket is given by

A. [2(V₀/V₁)]/ [1 + (V₀/V₁)²]

B. (V₀/V₁)/ [1 + (V₀/V₁)²]

C. V₀/(V₀ + V₁)

D. V₁/(V₀ + V₁)

Answer: A

61. The pressure and temperature at the end of compression stroke in a petrol engine are of the order of

A. 4-6 kg/cm² and 200-250°C

B. 6-12 kg/cm² and 250-350°C

C. 12-20 kg/cm² and 350-450°C

D. 20-30 kg/cm² and 450-500°C

Answer: B

62. The compression ignition engines are governed by

A. Hit and miss governing

B. Qualitative governing

C. Quantitative governing

D. Combination of (B) and (C)

Answer: B

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63. The reason for supercharging in any engine is to

A. Increase efficiency

B. Increase power

C. Reduce weight and bulk for a given output

D. Effect fuel economy

Answer: C

64. Stoichiometric ratio is

A. Chemically correct air-fuel ratio by weight

B. Chemically correct air-fuel ratio by volume

C. Actual air-fuel ratio for maximum efficiency

D. None of the above

Answer: B

65. Volatility of diesel fuel oil is

A. Minimum temperature to which oil is heated in order to give off inflammable vapours in sufficient quantity to
ignite momentarily when brought in contact with a flame

B. Temperature at which it solidifies or congeals

C. It catches fire without external aid

D. Indicated by 90% distillation temperature, i.e., when 90% of sample oil has distilled off

Answer: D

66. The purpose of testing an internal combustion engine is

A. To determine the information, which cannot be obtained by calculations

B. To conform the data used in design, the validity of which may be doubtful

C. To satisfy the customer regarding the performance of the engine

D. All of the above

Answer: D

67. The process of breaking up or a liquid into fine droplets by spraying is called

A. Vaporisation

B. Carburetion

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C. Ionization

D. Atomization

Answer: D

68. The ratio of the volume of charge admitted at N.T.P. to the swept volume of the piston is called

A. Mechanical efficiency

B. Overall efficiency

C. Volumetric efficiency

D. Relative efficiency

Answer: C

69. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle compared to diesel cycle for the given compression ratio is

A. Same

B. Less

C. More

D. More or less depending on power rating

Answer: C

70. In order to prevent knocking in spark ignition engines, the charge away from the spark plug should have

A. Low density

B. Low temperature

C. Long ignition delay

D. All of these

Answer: D

71. The actual volume of fresh charge admitted in 4-stroke petrol engine is

A. Equal to stroke volume

B. Equal to stroke volume and clearance volume

C. Less than stroke volume

D. More than stroke volume

Answer: C

72. The power actually developed by the engine cylinder of an I.C. engine is known as

Page 123 of 592

A. Theoretical power

B. Actual power

C. Indicated power

D. None of these

Answer: C

73. In loop scavenging, the top of the piston is

A. Flat

B. Contoured

C. Slanted

D. Depressed

Answer: B

74. The correct sequence of the decreasing order of brake thermal efficiency of the three given basic types of
engines is

A. Four stroke C.I. engine, four stroke S.I. engine, two stroke S.I. engine

B. Four stroke S.I. engine, four stroke C.I. engine, two stroke S.I. engine

C. Four stroke C.I. engine, two stroke S.I. engine, four stroke S.I. engine

D. Two stroke S.I. engine, four stroke S.I. engine, four stroke C.I. engine

Answer: A

75. If the compression ratio of an engine working on Otto cycle is increased from 5 to 7, the percentage increase in
efficiency will be

A. 2%

B. 4%

C. 8%

D. 14%

Answer: D

76. The knocking tendency in compression ignition engines for a given fuel will be

A. Enhanced by decreasing compression ratio

B. Enhanced by increasing compression ratio

C. Dependent on other factors

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D. None of the above

Answer: A

77. When crude oil is heated, then which of the following hydrocarbon is given off first?

A. Kerosene

B. Gasoline

C. Paraffin

D. Natural gas

Answer: D

78. Supercharging is the process of supplying the intake air to the engine cylinder at a density _________ the
density of the surrounding atmosphere.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. Greater than

D. None of these

Answer: C

79. Polymerization is a chemical process in which molecules of a compound become

A. Larger

B. Slowed down

C. Smaller

D. Liquid

Answer: A

80. In a petrol engine, the fuel supplied to the engine cylinder is mixed with required quantity of air and the mixture
is ignited with a

A. Fuel pump

B. Fuel injector

C. Spark plug

D. None of these

Answer: C

81. For maximum power generation, the air fuel ratio for a petrol engine for vehicles, is of the order of

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A. 9 : 1

B. 12 : 1

C. 15 : 1

D. 18 : 1

Answer: B

82. The ratio of the indicated thermal efficiency to the air standard efficiency is known as

A. Mechanical efficiency

B. Overall efficiency

C. Volumetric efficiency

D. Relative efficiency

Answer: D

83. The knock in diesel engine occurs due to

A. Instantaneous and rapid burning of the first part of the charge

B. Instantaneous auto ignition of last part of charge

C. Delayed burning of the first part of the charge

D. Reduction of delay period

Answer: A

84. Which of the following statement is correct regarding petrol engines?

A. A fine fuel spray mixed with air is ignited by the heat of compression which is at a high pressure

B. The fuel supplied to the engine cylinder is mixed with necessary amount of air and the mixture in ignited with the
help of a spark plug

C. The fuel is first evaporated after passing through a carburettor and is mixed with air before ignition

D. All of the above

Answer: B

85. If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, then for that cylinder the

A. Exhaust will be smoky

B. Piston rings would stick into piston grooves

C. Engine starts overheating

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D. Scavenging occurs

Answer: D

86. Pre-ignition is caused by the spontaneous combustion of the mixture before the end of the compression stroke,
and is due to

A. Cylinder walls being too hot

B. Overheated spark plug points

C. Red hot carbon deposits on cylinder walls

D. Any one of these

Answer: D

87. Scavenging air in diesel engine means

A. Air used for combustion sent under pressure

B. Forced air for cooling cylinder

C. Burnt air containing products of combustion

D. Air used for forcing burnt gases out of engine‘s cylinder during the exhaust period

Answer: D

88. The reference fuels for knock rating of spark ignition engines would include

A. Iso-octane and alpha-methyl naphthalene

B. Normal octane and aniline

C. Iso-octane and normal hexane

D. Normal heptane and iso-octane

Answer: D

89. The working cycle in case of four stroke engine is completed in following number of revolutions of crankshaft

A. 1/2

B. 1

C. 2

D. 4

Answer: C

90. The brake power of a diesel engine, keeping other parameters constant, can be increased by

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A. Decreasing the density of intake air

B. Increasing the temperature of intake air

C. Increasing the pressure of intake air

D. Decreasing the pressure of intake air

Answer: C

91. Engine pistons are usually made of aluminium alloy because it

A. Is lighter

B. Wear is less

C. Absorbs shocks

D. Is stronger

Answer: A

92. Which of the following fuel detonates readily?

A. Benzene

B. Iso-octane

C. Normal heptane

D. Alcohol

Answer: C

93. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engines

A. Exhaust valve opens at 35° before bottom dead center and closes at 20° after top dead center

B. Exhaust valve opens at bottom dead center and closes at top dead center

C. Exhaust valve opens just after bottom dead center and closes just before top dead center

D. May open and close anywhere

Answer: A

94. During idling, a petrol engine requires _________ mixture.

A. Lean

B. Rich

C. Chemically correct

D. None of these

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Answer: B

95. The air-fuel ratio in petrol engines is controlled by

A. Controlling valve opening/closing

B. Governing

C. Injection

D. Carburetion

Answer: D

96. The function of a distributor in a coil ignition system of I.C. engines is

A. To distribute spark

B. To distribute power

C. To distribute current

D. To time the spark

Answer: D

97. The specific fuel consumption per BH hour for a petrol engine is approximately

A. 0.15 kg

B. 0.2 kg

C. 0.25 kg

D. 0.3 kg

Answer: C

98. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the expansion

A. Starts at top dead center and ends at bottom dead center

B. Starts at 30° before top dead center and ends at 50° before bottom dead center

C. Starts at 30° after top dead center and ends at 50° after bottom dead center

D. May start and end anywhere

Answer: B

99. Which of the following is false statement?

Excess quantities of sulphur in diesel fuel are Objectionable because it may cause the following

A. Piston ring and cylinder wear

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B. Formation of hard coating on piston skirts

C. Oil sludge in the engine crank case

D. Detonation

Answer: D

100. As compared to air standard cycle, in actual working, the effect of variation in specific heats is to

A. Increase maximum pressure and maximum temperature

B. Reduce maximum pressure and maximum temperature

C. Increase maximum pressure and decrease maximum temperature

D. Decrease maximum pressure and increase maximum temperature

Answer: B

101. Fuel consumption of diesel engines is not guaranteed at one quarter load because at such low loads

A. The friction is high

B. The friction is unpredictable

C. The small difference in cooling water temperature or in internal friction has a disproportionate effect

D. The engine is rarely operated

Answer: C

102. By higher octane number of spark ignition fuel, it is meant that the fuel has

A. Higher heating value

B. Higher flash point

C. Lower volatility

D. Longer ignition delay

Answer: D

103. In diesel engine the diesel fuel injected into cylinder would burn instantly at about compressed air temperature
of

A. 250°C

B. 500°C

C. 1000°C

D. 2000°C

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Answer: C

104. A gas engine has a swept volume of 300 cm3 and clearance volume of 25 cm3. Its volumetric efficiency is 0.88
and mechanical efficiency is 0.90. The volume of the mixture taken in per stroke is

A. 248 cm3

B. 252 cm3

C. 264 cm3

D. 286 cm3

Answer: C

105. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine

A. Compression starts at 35° after bottom dead center and ends at top dead center

B. Compression starts at bottom dead center and ends at top dead center

C. Compression starts at 10° before bottom dead center and, ends just before top dead center

D. May start and end anywhere

Answer: A

106. In a petrol engine, the mixture has the lowest pressure at the

A. Beginning of suction stroke

B. End of suction stroke

C. End of compression stroke

D. None of these

Answer: B

107. The specific fuel consumption per BHP hour for diesel engine is approximately

A. 0.15 kg

B. 0.2 kg

C. 0.25 kg

D. 0.3 kg

Answer: B

108. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. Compression ratio for petrol engines varies from 6 to 10

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B. Higher compression ratio in diesel engines results in higher pressures

C. Petrol engines work on Otto cycle

D. All of the above

Answer: D

109. All heat engines utilize

A. Low heat value of oil

B. High heat value of oil

C. Net calorific value of oil

D. Calorific value of fuel

Answer: A

110. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A. A four stroke cycle engine develops twice the power as that of a two stroke cycle engine

B. For the same power developed, a four stroke cycle engine is lighter, less bulky and occupies less floor area

C. The petrol engines are costly than diesel engines

D. All of the above

Answer: D

111. Does the supply of scavenging air at a density greater than that of atmosphere mean engine is supercharged?

A. Yes

B. No

C. To some extent

D. Unpredictable

Answer: B

112. Which one of the following event would reduce volumetric efficiency of a vertical compression ignition
engine?

A. Inlet valve closing after bottom dead center

B. Inlet valve closing before bottom dead center

C. Inlet valve opening before top dead center

D. Exhaust valve closing after top dead center

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Answer: B

113. In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by

A. Spark

B. Injected fuel

C. Heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion

D. Ignition

Answer: C

114. Which of the following does not relate to a spark ignition engine?

A. Ignition coil

B. Spark plug

C. Carburettor

D. Fuel injector

Answer: D

115. Compression loss in I.C engines occurs due to

A. Leaking piston rings

B. Use of thick head gasket

C. Clogged air inlet slots

D. All of the above

Answer: D

116. Iso-octane (C₈H₁₈) has octane number of

A. 0

B. 50

C. 100

D. 120

Answer: C

117. As a result of detonation in an I.C. engine, following parameter attains very high value

A. Peak pressure

B. Rate of rise of pressure

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C. Rate of rise of temperature

D. Peak temperature

Answer: B

118. A two stroke cycle engine gives ________ the number of power strokes as compared to the four stroke cycle
engine, at the same engine speed.

A. Half

B. Same

C. Double

D. Four times

Answer: C

119. The accumulation of carbon in a cylinder results in increase of

A. Clearance volume

B. Volumetric efficiency

C. Ignition time

D. Effective compression ratio

Answer: D

120. In a four stroke cycle engine, the sequence of operations is

A. Suction, compression, expansion and exhaust

B. Suction, expansion, compression and exhaust

C. Expansion, compression, suction and exhaust

D. Compression, expansion, suction and exhaust

Answer: A

121. Gaseous fuel guarantees are based on

A. Calorific value of oil

B. Low heat value of oil

C. High heat value of oil

D. Mean heat value of oil

Answer: B

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122. The ratio of the work obtained at the crankshaft in a given time to the energy supplied during the same time is
called

A. Mechanical efficiency

B. Overall efficiency

C. Indicated thermal efficiency

D. Volumetric efficiency

Answer: B

123. The size of inlet valve of an engine in comparison to exhaust valve is

A. More

B. Less

C. Same

D. More/less depending on capacity of engine

Answer: B

124. The volumetric efficiency of a well designed engine may be

A. 30 to 40%

B. 40 to 60%

C. 60 to 70%

D. 75 to 90%

Answer: D

125. A 5 BHP engine running at full load would consume diesel of the order of

A. 0.3 kg/hr

B. 1 kg/hr

C. 3 kg/hr

D. 5 kg/hr

Answer: B

126. A petrol engine, during suction stroke draws

A. Air only

B. Petrol only

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C. A mixture of petrol and air

D. None of these

Answer: C

127. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. All the irreversible engines have same efficiency

B. All the reversible engines have same efficiency

C. Both Rankine and Carnot cycles have same efficiency between same temperature limits

D. All reversible engines working between same temperature limits have same efficiency

Answer :Option D

128. The fuel valve in a four stroke cycle diesel engine

A. Opens at 15° after top dead center and closes at 20° before bottom dead center

B. Opens at 15° before top dead center and closes at 20° after top dead center

C. Opens at top dead center and closes at bottom dead center

D. May open and close anywhere

Answer: B

129. For the same power developed in I.C. engines, the cheaper system is

A. Naturally aspirated

B. Supercharged

C. Centrifugal pump

D. Turbo charger

Answer: B

130. The thermal efficiency of petrol and gas engines is about

A. 15%

B. 30%

C. 50%

D. 70%

Answer: B

131. Which is more viscous lube oil?

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A. SEA 30

B. SAE 50

C. SAE 70

D. SAE 80

Answer: D

132. In petrol engine, using a fixed octane rating fuel and fixed compression ratio, supercharging will _________
the knocking tendency.

A. Not effected

B. Decrease

C. Increase

D. None of these

Answer: C

133. Fuel oil consumption guarantees for I .C. engine are usually based on

A. Low heat value of oil

B. High heat value of oil

C. Net calorific value of oil

D. Calorific value of fuel

Answer: B

134. The compensating jet in a carburettor supplies almost constant amount of petrol at all speeds because the

A. Jet area is automatically varied depending on the suction

B. The flow from the main jet is diverted to the compensating jet with increase in speed

C. The diameter of the jet is constant and the discharge coefficient is invariant

D. Flow is produced due to the static head in the float chamber

Answer: D

135. The magneto in an automobile is basically

A. Transformer

B. D.C. generator

C. Capacitor

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D. Magnetic circuit

Answer: B

136. In order to eliminate knocking in compression ignition engines, there should be

A. Short delay period

B. Late auto-ignition

C. Low compression ratio

D. High self ignition temperature of fuel

Answer: A

137. Air fuel ratio at which a petrol engine cannot work is

A. 8 : 1

B. 10 : 1

C. 15 : 1

D. 20 : 1 and less

Answer: D

138. A fuel of an octane number rating of 75 matches in knocking intensity as a mixture of

A. 75% iso-octane and 25% normal heptane

B. 75% normal heptane and 25% iso-octane

C. 75% petrol and 25% diesel

D. 75% diesel and 25% petrol

Answer: A

139. An hmh flame speed is obtained in diesel engine when air fuel ratio is

A. Uniform throughout the mixture

B. Chemically correct mixture

C. About 35% of rich mixture

D. About 10% of rich mixture

Answer: D

140. A supercharged engine as compared to an ordinary engine

A. Is lighter

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B. Requires smaller foundations

C. Consumes less lubricating oil

D. All of these

Answer: D

141. The inlet value of a four stroke cycle I.C engine remains open for nearly

A. 180°

B. 125°

C. 235°

D. 200°

Answer: C

142. The basic requirement of a good combustion chamber is

A. Minimum turbulence

B. Low compression ratio

C. High thermal efficiency and power output

D. Low volumetric efficiency

Answer: C

143. The cam shaft of a four stroke I.C. engine running at 1500 rpm will run at

A. 1500 rpm

B. 750 rpm

C. 3000 rpm

D. Any value independent of engine speed

Answer: B

144. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the inlet valve

A. Opens at top dead center and closes at bottom dead center

B. Opens at 20° before top dead center and closes at 40° after bottom dead center

C. Opens at 20° after top dead center and closes at 20° before bottom dead center

D. May open or close anywhere

Answer: B

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145. Which of the following is false statement? Some of the methods used to reduce diesel smoke are as follows

A. Using additives in the fuel

B. Increasing the compression ratio

C. Adherence to proper fuel specification

D. Avoidance of overloading

Answer: B

146. The frictional power (F.P.) is given by

A. F.P. = B.P. – I.P.

B. F.P. = I.P. – B.P.

C. F.P. = B.P./I.P.

D. F.P. = I.P./B.P.

Answer: B

147. The following volume of air is required for consuming 1 liter of fuel by a four stroke engine

A. 1 m3

B. 5 m3

C. 56 m3

D. 910 m3

Answer: D

148. The delay period in compression ignition engines depends upon

A. Temperature and pressure in the cylinder at the time of injection

B. Nature of the fuel mixture strength

C. Relative velocity between the fuel injection and air turbulence pressure of residual gases

D. All of the above

Answer: D

149. A diesel engine has

A. 1 valve

B. 2 valves

C. 3 valves

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D. 4 valves

Answer: C

150. The mechanical efficiency (ηm) of the engine is given by

A. ηm = B.P/I.P

B. ηm = I.P/B.P

C. ηm = (B.P × I.P)/100

D. None of these

Answer: A

151. The output of a diesel engine can be increased without increasing the engine revolution or size in following
way

A. Feeding more fuel

B. Heating incoming air

C. Scavenging

D. Supercharging

Answer: D

152. The reflectivity depends upon

A. Geometry of the reflector

B. Energy of neutrons

C. Properties of the reflector

D. All of these

Answer: D

153. The fuel air ratio in a petrol engine fitted with suction carburettor, operating with dirty air filter as compared to
clean filter will be

A. Higher

B. Lower

C. Remain unaffected

D. None of the above

Answer: A

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154. The sensing element in the control system of nuclear reactors measures the _________ of the neutron flux in
the reactor.

A. Temperature

B. Volume

C. Density

D. None of these

Answer: C

155. Pick up the wrong statement

A. 2-stroke engine can run in any direction

B. In 4-stroke engine, a power stroke is obtained in 4-strokes

C. Thermal efficiency of 4-stroke engine is more due to positive scavenging

D. Petrol engines occupy more space than diesel engines for same power output

Answer: D

156. If V₁ is the jet velocity and V₀ is the vehicle velocity, then propulsive efficiency of a turbojet engine is

A. V₁ / (V₀ + V₁)

B. V₀ / (V₀ + V₁)

C. 2V₀ / (V₀ + V₁)

D. 2V₁ / (V₀ + V₁)

Answer: C

157. In a cycle, the spark lasts roughly for

A. 1 sec

B. 0.1 sec

C. 0.01 sec

D. 0.001 sec

Answer: D

158. Which of the following does not relate to a compression ignition engine?

A. Fuel pump

B. Fuel injector

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C. Governor

D. Carburettor

Answer: D

159. Air fuel ratio for idling speed of a petrol engine is approximately

A. 1 : 1

B. 5 : 1

C. 10 : 1

D. 15 : 1

Answer: C

160. The advancing of spark timing in spark ignition engines will _________ knocking tendency.

A. Increase

B. Reduce

C. Not effect

D. None of these

Answer: A

161. The fuel in diesel engine is normally injected at pressure of

A. 5-10 kg/cm²

B. 20-25 kg/cm²

C. 60-80 kg/cm²

D. 90-130 kg/cm²

Answer: D

162. A mixture containing 65% of iso-octane and 35% of normal heptane will have

A. Cetane number 65

B. Octane number 65

C. Cetane number 35

D. Octane number 35

Answer: B

163. The thermal efficiency of a diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio, with increase in cut-off ratio will

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A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Be independent

D. May increase or decrease depending on other factors

Answer: B

164. Theoretically, a four stroke cycle engine should develop _________ power as that of a two stroke cycle engine.

A. Half

B. Same

C. Double

D. Four times

Answer: A

165. The calorific value of gaseous fuels is expressed in terms of

A. kcal

B. kcal/kg

C. kcal/m²

D. kcal/m3

Answer: D

166. The pressure at the end of compression, in diesel engines, is approximately

A. 10 bar

B. 20 bar

C. 25 bar

D. 35 bar

Answer: D

167. A 75 cc engine has following parameter as 75 cc

A. Fuel tank capacity

B. Lube oil capacity

C. Swept volume

D. Cylinder volume

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Answer: C

168. The combustion in compression ignition engines is

A. Homogeneous

B. Heterogeneous

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of these

Answer: B

169. Supercharging is essential in

A. Diesel engines

B. Gas turbines

C. Petrol engines

D. Aircraft engines

Answer: D

170. Which of the following fuel has little tendency towards detonation?

A. Benzene

B. Iso-octane

C. Normal heptane

D. Alcohol

Answer: B

171. Most high speed compression engines operate on

A. Diesel cycle

B. Otto cycle

C. Dual combustion cycle

D. Special type of air cycle

Answer: C

172. The higher combustion chamber wall temperature in compression ignition engines will _________ knocking
tendency.

A. Increase

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B. Reduce

C. Not effect

D. None of these

Answer: B

173. If the intake air temperature of I.C. engine increases, its efficiency will

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain same

D. None of these

Answer: B

174. Solid fuel fabricated into various small shapes, which are assembled to form fuel elements, is in the form of

A. Plates

B. Pallets

C. Pins

D. All of these

Answer: D

175. A heat engine utilizes the

A. Calorific value of oil

B. Low heat value of

C. High heat value of oil

D. Mean heat value of oil

Answer: C

176. Diesel as compared to petrol is

A. Highly ignitable

B. More difficult to ignite

C. Less difficult to ignite

D. None of these

Answer: B

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177. The specific fuel consumption of a petrol engine compared to diesel engine of same H.P. is

A. Same

B. More

C. Less

D. Less or more depending on operating conditions

Answer: B

178. The increase of efficiency of a compression ignition engine, as the load decreases, is due to

A. Higher maximum temperature

B. Qualitative governing

C. Quantitative governing

D. Hit and miss governing

Answer: B

179. For the same compression ratio

A. Otto cycle is more efficient than the Diesel

B. Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto

C. Both Otto and Diesel cycles are, equally efficient

D. Compression ratio has nothing to do with efficiency

Answer: A

180. The self ignition temperature of petrol is _________ as compared to diesel oil.

A. Same

B. Lower

C. Higher

D. None of these

Answer: C

181. In diesel engine, the compression ratio in comparison to expansion ratio is

A. Same

B. Less

C. More

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D. Variable

Answer: C

182. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the pressure inside the engine cylinder during the suction stroke is
__________ the atmospheric pressure.

A. Equal to

B. Below

C. Above

D. None of these

Answer: B

183. Diesel fuel, compared to petrol is

A. Less difficult to ignite

B. Just about the same difficult to ignite

C. More difficult to ignite

D. Highly ignitable

Answer: C

184. In a petrol engine, if diesel is used, then the engine will

A. Not run

B. Run more efficiently

C. Run at high speed

D. Explode

Answer: A

185. Installation of supercharger on a four cycle diesel engine can result in the following percentage increase in
power

A. Up to 35%

B. Up to 50%

C. Up to 75%

D. Up to 100%

Answer: D

186. The thermal efficiency of diesel engines on weak mixtures is

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A. Unaffected

B. Lower

C. Higher

D. Dependent on other factors

Answer: C

187. Combustion in compression ignition engines is

A. Homogeneous

B. Heterogeneous

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. Laminar

Answer: B

188. The colour of exhaust from diesel engine is generally

A. White

B. Bluish

C. Black

D. Violet

Answer: C

189. A diesel engine as compared to petrol engine (both running and rated load) is

A. More efficient

B. Less efficient

C. Equally efficient

D. Other factors will decide it

Answer: A

190. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the charge is ignited at

A. 30° before top dead center

B. 30° after top dead center

C. 30° before bottom dead center

D. 30° after bottom dead center

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Answer: A

191. In case of gas turbines, the gaseous fuel consumption guarantees are based on

A. High heat value

B. Low heat value

C. Net calorific value

D. Calorific value

Answer: B

192. The knocking tendency in spark ignition engines may be decreased by

A. Controlling the air-fuel mixture

B. Controlling the ignition timing

C. Controlling the exhaust temperature

D. Reducing the compression ratio

Answer: D

193. The term scavenging is generally associated with

A. 2-stroke cycle engines

B. 4-stroke cycle engines

C. Aeroplane engines

D. High efficiency engines

Answer: D

194. Which of the following statement is correct regarding normal cetane?

A. It is a standard fuel used for knock rating of diesel engines

B. Its chemical name is normal hexadecane

C. It has long carbon chain structure

D. All of the above

Answer: D

195. Most high speed compression engines operate on

A. Otto cycle

B. Diesel cycle

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C. Dual cycle

D. Carnot cycle

Answer: C

196. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the inlet valve

A. Opens at 20° before top dead center and closes at 40° after bottom dead center

B. Opens at 20° after top dead center and closes at 20° before bottom dead center

C. Opens at top dead center and closes at bottom dead center

D. May open and close anywhere

Answer: A

197. The air-fuel ratio of the petrol engine is controlled by

A. Fuel pump

B. Governor

C. Injector

D. Carburettor

Answer: D

198. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A. In compression ignition engines, detonation occurs near the beginning of combustion.

B. Since the fuel, in compression ignition engines, is injected at the end of compression stroke, therefore, there will
be no pre-ignition.

C. To eliminate knock in compression ignition engines, we want to achieve auto-ignition not early and desire a long
delay period.

D. In compression ignition engines, because of heterogeneous mixture, the rate of pressure rise is comparatively
lower.

Answer: C

199. In a four stroke cycle, the minimum temperature inside the engine cylinder occurs at the

A. Beginning of suction stroke

B. End of suction stroke

C. Beginning of exhaust stroke

D. End of exhaust stroke

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Answer: A

200. The exhaust valve in a four stroke cycle petrol engine

A. Opens at 50° before bottom dead center and closes at 15° after top dead center

B. Opens at bottom dead center and closes at top dead center

C. Opens at 50° after bottom dead center and closes at 15° before top dead center

D. May open and close anywhere

Answer: A

201. The expansion of fuel in a four stroke cycle diesel engine

A. Starts at 15° before top dead center and ends at 30° after top dead center

B. Starts at top dead center and ends at 30° after top dead center

C. Starts at 15° after top dead center and ends at 30° before bottom dead center

D. May start and end anywhere

Answer: C

202. In a diesel engine, the duration between the time of injection and ignition, is known as

A. Pre-ignition period

B. Delay period

C. Period of ignition

D. Burning period

Answer: B

203. The effective inhibitor of pre-ignition is

A. Alcohol

B. Water

C. Lead

D. None of these

Answer: B

204. A diesel engine has

A. One valve

B. Two valves

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C. Three valves

D. Four valves

Answer: C

205. The pressure inside the cylinder is _________ the atmospheric pressure during the exhaust stroke.

A. Equal to

B. Below

C. Above

D. None of these

Answer: C

206. A carburettor is used to supply

A. Petrol, air and lubricating oil

B. Air and diesel

C. Petrol and lubricating oil

D. Petrol and air

Answer: D

207. Morse test can be conducted for

A. Petrol engines

B. Diesel engines

C. Multi cylinder engines

D. All of these

Answer: C

208. High speed compression engines operate on

A. Otto cycle

B. Diesel cycle

C. Dual combustion cycle

D. All of these

Answer: C

209. The theoretically correct mixture of air and petrol is

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A. 10 : 1

B. 15 : 1

C. 20 : 1

D. 25 : 1

Answer: B

210. A diesel engine has compression ratio from

A. 6 to 10

B. 10 to 15

C. 15 to 25

D. 25 to 40

Answer: C

211. In order to mix air and petrol in the required proportion and to supply it to the engine during suction stroke,
then _________ is employed.

A. Fuel pump

B. Injector

C. Carburettor

D. None of these

Answer: C

212. The ratio of the brake power to the indicated power is called

A. Mechanical efficiency

B. Overall efficiency

C. Indicated thermal efficiency

D. Volumetric efficiency

213. The cetane (C₁₆H₃₄) which is a straight chain paraffin, is assigned a cetane number of

A. 0

B. 50

C. 100

D. 120

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214. The thermodynamic cycle on which the petrol engine works, is

A. Otto cycle

B. Joule cycle

C. Rankine cycle

D. Stirling cycle

215. The correct mixture strength (by weight) for petrol is about

A. 14.6 : 1

B. 18.5 : 1

C. 20.4 : 1

D. 22.6 : 1

216. The scavenging efficiency of a four stroke cycle diesel engine is

A. Below 50%

B. Between 50 and 85%

C. Between 85 and 95%

D. Between 95 and 100%

217. If the speed of the engine is increased, the indicated power will

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain same

D. None of these

218. The specific fuel consumption per B.P. hour for a petrol engine is about

A. 0.2 kg

B. 0.25 kg

C. 0.3 kg

D. 0.35 kg

219. The injector nozzle of a compression ignition engine is required to inject fuel at a sufficiently high pressure in
order to

A. Inject fuel in a chamber of high pressure at the end of compression stroke

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B. Inject fuel at a high velocity to facilitate atomization

C. Ensure that penetration is not high

D. All of the above

220. A fuel of cetane number 40 has the same ignition quality as a mixture of

A. 40% cetane and 60% alpha methyl naphthalene

B. 40% alpha methyl naphthalene and 60% cetane

C. 40% petrol and 60% diesel

D. 40% diesel and 60% petrol

221. The two reference fuels used for cetane rating are

A. Cetane and iso-octane

B. Cetane and alpha-methyl naphthalene

C. Cetane and normal heptane

D. Cetane and tetra ethyl lead

222. In petrol engines, the delay period is of the order of

A. 0.001 second

B. 0.002 second

C. 0.003 second

D. 0.004 second

223. A diesel engine is _________ as compared to petrol engine, both running at rated load.

A. Equally efficient

B. Less efficient

C. More efficient

D. None of these

224. The pressure at the end of compression, in petrol engines, is approximately

A. 10 bar

B. 20 bar

C. 25 bar

D. 35 bar

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225. The turbine of the turboprop engine is __________ that of the turbojet engine.

A. Same as

B. Smaller than

C. Bigger than

D. None of these

Answer: C(15)

226. A higher compression ratio causes

A. Pre-ignition

B. Increase in detonation

C. Acceleration in the rate of combustion

D. Any one of these

Answer: D

228. A spark plug gap is kept from

A. 0.3 to 0.7 mm

B. 0.2 to 0.8 mm

C. 0.4 to 0.9 mm

D. 0.6 to 1.0 mm

Answer: A

229. The air standard efficiency of an I.C. engine depends on

A. Fuel used

B. Speed of engine

C. Compression ratio

D. None of these

Answer: C

230. Alpha-methyl-naphthalene (C₁₁ H₁₀) has a cetane number of

A. 0

B. 50

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C. 100

D. 120

Answer: A

231. The increase in intake temperature of internal combustion engines will _________ efficiency.

A. Have no effect on

B. Increase

C. Decrease

D. None of these

Answer: C

232. The thermal efficiency of a petrol engine is _________ as compared to diesel engine.

A. Same

B. Less

C. More

D. None of these

Answer: B

233. The thermal efficiency of diesel engines is about

A. 15%

B. 30%

C. 50%

D. 70%

Answer: D

234. The ignition quality of diesel oil is expressed by

A. Cetane number

B. Octane number

C. Calorific value

D. None of these

Answer: A

235. If petrol is used in a diesel engine, then

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A. Low power will be produced

B. Efficiency will be low

C. Higher knocking will occur

D. Black smoke will be produced

Answer: C

236. In a coil ignition system of petrol engines, a condenser is connected across the contact breaker in order to

A. Prevent sparking across the gap between the points

B. Cause more rapid break of the primary current, giving a higher voltage in the secondary circuit

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of the above

Answer: C

237. The _________ engines can work on very lean mixture of fuel.

A. Spark ignition

B. Compression ignition

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of these

Answer: B

238. A diesel engine, during suction stroke, draws

A. Air only

B. Diesel only

C. A mixture of diesel and air

D. None of these

Answer: A

239. Antiknock for compression ignition engines is

A. Napthene

B. Tetra ethyl lead

C. Amyl nitrate

D. Hexadecane

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Answer: C

240. The method of determination of indicated power of a multi cylinder spark ignition engine is by the use of

A. Morse test

B. Prony brake test

C. Motoring test

D. Heat balance test

Answer: A

241. The cetane number of diesel oil, generally available, is

A. 20 to 25

B. 25 to 30

C. 30 to 40

D. 40 to 55

Answer: D

242. A petrol engine has compression ratio from

A. 6 to 10

B. 10 to 15

C. 15 to 25

D. 25 to 40

Answer: A

243. The brake power is the power available

A. In the engine cylinder

B. At the crank shaft

C. At the crank pin

D. None of these

Answer: B

244. The normal heptane (C₇H₁₆) is given a rating of ________ octane number.

A. 0

B. 50

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C. 100

D. 120

Answer: A

245. The knocking in diesel engines may be prevented by

A. Reducing the delay period

B. Raising the compression ratio

C. Increasing the inlet pressure of air

D. All of these

Answer: D

246. The air-fuel ratio of the petrol engine is controlled by

A. Carburettor

B. Injector

C. Governor

D. None of these

Answer: A

247. If the compression ratio in I.C. engine increases, then its thermal efficiency will

A. Decrease

B. Increase

C. Remain same

D. None of these

Answer: B

248. The thermal efficiency of a standard Otto cycle for a compression ratio of 5.5 will be

A. 25%

B. 50%

C. 70%

D. 100%

Answer: B

249. The octane number of petrol, generally available, is

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A. 20 to 40

B. 40 to 60

C. 60 to 80

D. 80 to 100

Answer: D

250. The object of supercharging the engine is

A. To reduce mass of the engine per brake power

B. To reduce space occupied by the engine

C. To increase the power output of an engine when greater power is required

D. All of the above

Answer: D

251. The increase of cooling water temperature in petrol engine will _________ the knocking tendency.

A. Not effect

B. Decrease

C. Increase

D. None of these

Answer: C

252. The specific fuel consumption per B.P. hour for a diesel engine is about

A. 0.2 kg

B. 0.25 kg

C. 0.3 kg

D. 0.35 kg

Answer: A

253. The injection pressure in a diesel engine is about

A. 10 bar

B. 100 bar

C. 150 bar

D. 500 bar

Page 162 of 592

Answer: B

254. Morse test is used to determine the I.P. of a

A. Single cylinder petrol engine

B. Four stroke engine

C. Single cylinder diesel engine

D. Multi cylinder engine

Answer: D

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MACHINE ELEMENT

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Page 169 of 592
 300+ TOP Strength of Materials MCQ Questions and Answers

Strength of Materials Multiple choice Questions

1. A material obeys hook‘s law up to

(A) Plastic limit

(B) Elastic limit

(C) Yield point

(D) Limit of proportionality

Answer: B

2. The torque transmitted by a solid shaft of diameter (D) is (where η = Maximum allowable shear stress)

(A) π /4 × η × D³

(B) π /16 × η × D³

(C) π /32 × η × D³

(D) π /64 × η × D³

Answer: B

3. The torque transmitted by a hollow shaft of outer diameter (d₁) and inner diameter (d2) is (where, η = Maximum
allowable shear stress)

(A) π /4 × η × (d₁⁴ – d⁴₂)/ d₁

(B) π /16 × η × (d₁⁴ – d⁴₂)/ d₁

(C) π /32 × η × (d₁⁴ – d⁴₂)/ d₁

(D) π /64 × η × (d₁⁴ – d⁴₂)/ d₁

Answer: B

4. If Th is the torque resisting capacity of a hollow shaft and Ts is that of a solid shaft, of the same material, length
and weight. Then,

(A) Th > Ts

(B) Th < Ts

(C) Th = Ts

(D) None of these

Answer: A

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5. A cube subjected to three mutually perpendicular stress of equal intensity p expenses a volumetric strain

(A) 3p/ E × (2/m – 1)

(B) 3p/ E × (2 – m)

(C) 3p/ E × (1 – 2/m)

(D) E/ 3p × (2/m – 1)

Answer: C

6. The strain energy stored in a solid circular shaft subjected to shear stress (η), is:

(Where, G = Modulus of rigidity for the shaft material)

(A) η²/ 2G × Volume of shaft

(B) η/ 2G × Volume of shaft

(C) η²/ 4G × Volume of shaft

(D) η/ 4G × Volume of shaft

Answer: A

7. The strain energy stored in a solid circular shaft in torsion, subjected to shear stress (η), is:

(Where, G = Modulus of rigidity for the shaft material)

(A) η²/ 2G × Volume of shaft

(B) η/ 2G × Volume of shaft

(C) η²/ 4G × Volume of shaft

(D) η/ 4G × Volume of shaft

Answer: C

8. The stress induced in a body, when suddenly loaded, is _________ the stress induced when the same load is
applied gradually.

(A) Equal to

(B) One-half

(C) Twice

(D) Four times

Answer: C

9. If Kh is the torque resisting capacity of a hollow shaft and Ks is that of a solid shaft, of the same material, length
and weight. Then,

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(A) Kh > Ks

(B) Kh < Ks

(C) Kh = Ks

(D) None of these

Answer: A

10. After reaching the yielding stage while testing a mild steel specimen, strain

(A) Becomes constant

(B) Starts decreasing

(C) Increases without any increase in load

(D) None of the above

Answer: C

11. Principal planes are planes having

(A) Maximum shear stress

(B) No shear stress

(C) Minimum shear stress

(D) None of the above

Answer: B

12. If the slenderness ratio for a column is 100, then it is said to be a _________ column.

(A) Long

(B) Medium

(C) Short

(D) None of these

Answer: A

13. A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of 600 MPa on a
plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of 400 MPa on the same planes. The
maximum normal stress will be

(A) 400 MPa

(B) 500 MPa

(C) 900 MPa

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(D) 1400 MPa

Answer: D

14. Young‘s modulus of a wire is defined as the stress which will increase the length of wire compared to its original
length by

(A) Half

(B) Same amount

(C) Double

(D) One-fourth

Answer: B

15. True stress strain-curve for materials is plotted between

(A) Load/original cross-sectional area and change in length/original length

(B) Load/ instantaneous cross-sectional area and loge (original area/ instantaneous area)

(C) Load/ instantaneous cross-sectional area and change in length/ original length

(D) Load/ instantaneous area and instantaneous area/original area

Answer: B

16. A hollow shaft of same cross-section area as compared to a solid shaft transmit

(A) Same torque

(B) Less torque

(C) More torque

(D) Unpredictable

Answer: C

17. A steel bar of 5 mm is heated from 25°C to 45°C and it is free to expand. The bar will induce

(A) No stress

(B) Shear stress

(C) Tensile stress

(D) Compressive stress

Answer: A

18. Two shafts ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ transmit the same power. The speed of shaft ‗A‘ is 250 r.p.m. and that of shaft ‗B‘ is 300
r.p.m.

Page 173 of 592

(A) The shaft ‗B‘ has the greater diameter

(B) The shaft ‗A‘ has the greater diameter

(C) Both are of same diameter

(D) None of these

Answer: B

19. The intensity of stress which causes unit strain is called

(A) Unit mass

(B) Modulus of rigidity

(C) Bulk modulus

(D) Modulus of Elasticity

Answer: D

20. A thick cylindrical shell having ro and ri as outer and inner radii, is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The
maximum tangential stress at the inner surface of the shell is

(A) (ro² – ri²)/ 2p ri²

(B) 2p ri²/ (ro² – ri²)

(C) p (ro² + ri²)/ (ro² – ri²)

(D) p (ro² – ri²)/ (ro² + ri²)

Answer: C

21. A vertical column has two moments of inertia (i.e. Ixx and Iyy ). The column will tend to buckle in the direction
of the

(A) Axis of load

(B) Perpendicular to the axis of load

(C) Maximum moment of inertia

(D) Minimum moment of inertia

Answer: D

22. Strain energy is the

(A) Energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits

(B) Energy stored in a body when strained up to the breaking of a specimen

(C) Maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body

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(D) Proof resilience per unit volume of a material

Answer: A

23. The neutral axis of the cross-section a beam is that axis at which the bending stress is

(A) Zero

(B) Minimum

(C) Maximum

(D) Infinity

Answer: A

24. A composite bar made up of steel and copper bars of equal lengths are heated through 100°C. The stresses
developed shall be

(A) Tensile in both the material

(B) Tensile in steel and compressive in copper

(C) Compressive in steel and tensile in copper

(D) Compressive in both the materials

Answer: D

25. Euler‘s formula holds good only for

(A) Short columns

(B) Long columns

(C) Both short and long columns

(D) Weak columns

Answer: B

26. The bending moment at a point on a beam is the algebraic ________ of all the moments on either side of the
point.

(A) Sum

(B) Difference

(C) Multiplication

(D) None of the above

Answer: A

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27. The maximum diameter of the hole that can be punched from a plate of maximum shear stress 1/4th of its
maximum crushing stress of punch, is equal to (where t = Thickness of the plate)

(A) t

(B) 2t

(C) 4t

(D) 8t

Answer: C

28. Within elastic limit, stress is

(A) Inversely proportional to strain

(B) Directly proportional to strain

(C) Square root of strain

(D) Equal to strain

Answer: B

29. Two closely coiled helical springs ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ are equal in all respects but the number of turns of spring ‗A‘ is
half that of spring ‗B‘ The ratio of deflections in spring ‗A‘ to spring ‗B‘ is

(A) 1/8

(B) 1/4

(C) 1/2

(D) 2

Answer: C

30. The deformation per unit length is called

(A) Tensile stress

(B) Compressive stress

(C) Shear stress

(D) Strain

Answer: D

31. The shape of cantilever for uniformly distributed load will be

(A) Straight line

(B) Parabolic

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(C) Elliptical

(D) Cubic

Answer: B

32. For a simply supported beam of length ‗l‘, when a concentrated load W is applied in the center of the beam, the
maximum deflection is

(A) 5WL³/ 384EI

(B) WL³/384EI

(C) WL³/ 348EI

(D) WL³/ 48EI

Answer: D

33. The point of contra flexure is a point where

(A) Shear force changes sign

(B) Shear force is maximum

(C) Bending moment changes sign

(D) Bending moment is maximum

Answer: C

34. The maximum stress produced in a bar of tapering section is at

(A) Smaller end

(B) Larger end

(C) Middle

(D) Anywhere

Answer: A

35. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel compared to ultimate compressive stress is

(A) Same

(B) More

(C) Less

(D) Unpredictable

Answer: B

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36. The energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limit is known as

(A) Resilience

(B) Proof resilience

(C) Strain energy

(D) Impact energy

Answer: C

37. Modular ratio of two materials is the ratio of

(A) Strains

(B) Stress and strain

(C) Shear stress and shear strain

(D) Moduli and elasticity

Answer: D

38. In compression test, the fracture in cast iron specimen would occur along

(A) The axis of load

(B) An oblique plane

(C) At right angles to the axis of specimen

(D) Would not occur

Answer: B

39. A coil is cut into two halves, the stiffness of cut coil will be

(A) Double

(B) Half

(C) Same

(D) None of these

Answer: A

40. The bending stress in a beam is _________ section modulus.

(A) Inversely proportional to two times

(B) Directly proportional to

(C) Inversely proportional to

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(D) None of these

Answer: C

41. When shear force at a point is zero, then bending moment is _________ at that point.

(A) Zero

(B) Minimum

(C) Maximum

(D) Infinity

Answer: C

42. Elasticity of Mild Steel specimen is defined by

(A) Hooke‘s law

(B) Yield point

(C) Plastic flow

(D) Proof stress

Answer: C

43. When a bar is cooled to -5°C, it will develop

(A) No stress

(B) Shear stress

(C) Tensile stress

(D) Compressive stress

Answer: C

44. If the radius of wire stretched by a load is doubled, then its Young‘s modulus will be

(A) Doubled

(B) Halved

(C) Becomes four times

(D) None of the above

Answer: D

45. In order to know whether a column is long or short, we must know its

(A) Ultimate shear stress of the column

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(B) Factor of safety

(C) Torque resisting capacity

(D) Slenderness ratio

Answer: D

46. A masonry dam may fail due to

(A) Tension in the masonry of the dam and its base

(B) Overturning of the dam

(C) Crushing of masonry at the base of the dam

(D) Any one of the above

Answer: D

47. Impact strength of a material is an index of its

(A) Toughness

(B) Tensile strength

(C) Capability of being cold worked

(D) Hardness

Answer: A

48. In order to prevent crushing of masonry at the base of the dam, the maximum stress should be __________ the
permissible stress of the soil.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(C) More than

(D) None of these

Answer: B

49. Volumetric strain for a rectangular specimen of length ‗l‘, breadth ‗b‘ and thickness ‗t‘ subjected to a pull of ‗P‘
is given by

(A) e (1 – 2m)

(B) e (1 – 2/m)

(C) e (m – 2)

(D) e (2/m – 1)

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Answer: B

50. When a body is subjected to two equal and opposite pushes, as a result of which the body tends to reduce its
length, then

(A) The stress and strain induced is compressive

(B) The stress and strain induced is tensile

(C) Both A and B is correct

(D) None of these

Answer: A

51. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The ratio of
longitudinal strain to volumetric strain is

(A) (m – 1)/ (2m – 1)

(B) (2m – 1)/ (m – 1)

(C) (m – 2)/ (3m – 4)

(D) (m – 2)/ (5m – 4)

Answer: D

52. Modulus of rigidity is defined as the ratio of

(A) Longitudinal stress to longitudinal strain

(B) Volumetric stress to volumetric strain

(C) Lateral stress to Lateral strain

(D) Shear stress to shear strain

Answer: D

53. In the torsion equation T/J = η/r = Gθ/ L, the term J/R is called

(A) Shear modulus

(B) Section modulus

(C) Polar modulus

(D) None of these

Answer: C

54. Strain re-setters are used to

(A) Measure shear strain

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(B) Measure linear strain

(C) Measure volumetric strain

(D) Relieve strain

Answer: B

55. When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum compressive stress is developed on the

(A) Top layer

(B) Bottom layer

(C) Neutral axis

(D) Every cross-section

Answer: B

56. In a uniform bar, supported at one end in position, the maximum stress under self weight of bar shall occur at the

(A) Middle of bar

(B) Supported end

(C) Bottom end

(D) None of these

Answer: B

57. When both ends of a column are fixed, the effective length is

(A) Its own length

(B) Twice its length

(C) Half its length

(D) 1/√2 × its length

Answer: C

58. A composite shaft consisting of two stepped portions having spring constants K₁ and K₂ is held between two
rigid supports at the ends. Its equivalent spring constant is

(A) K₁ K₂

(B) (K₁ + K₂)/ 2

(C) (K₁ + K₂)/ K₁ K₂

(D) K₁ K₂/ (K₁ + K₂)

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Answer: A

59. Slenderness of a column is zero when

(A) Ends are firmly fixed

(B) Column is supported on all sides throughout the length

(C) Length is equal to radius of gyration

(D) Length is twice the radius of gyration

Answer: D

60. Resilience is the

(A) Energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits

(B) Energy stored in a body when strained up to the breaking of the specimen maximum strain

(C) Energy which can be stored in a body

(D) None of the above

Answer: D

61. When a closely-coiled helical spring of mean diameter (D) is subjected to an axial load (W), the deflection of the
spring (δ) is given by (where d = Diameter of spring wire, n = No. of turns of the spring, and C = Modulus of
rigidity for the spring material)

(A) WD3n/Cd⁴

(B) 2WD3n/Cd⁴

(C) 4WD3n/Cd⁴

(D) 8WD3n/Cd⁴

Answer: D

62. Percentage reduction of area in performing tensile test on cast iron may be of the order of

(A) 50%

(B) 25%

(C) 0%

(D) 15%

Answer: C

63. For the beam shown in the below figure, the shear force diagram between A and B is

(A) A horizontal line

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(B) A vertical line

(C) An inclined line

(D) A parabolic curve

Answer: D

64. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (ζx) in one plane accompanied by a simple shear stress (ηxy),
the maximum normal stress is

(A) (ζx/2) + (1/2) × √(ζx² + 4 η²xy)

(B) (ζx/2) – (1/2) × √(ζx² + 4 η²xy)

(C) (ζx/2) + (1/2) × √(ζx² – 4 η²xy)

(D) (1/2) × √(ζx² + 4 η²xy)

Answer: A

65. The materials which exhibit the same elastic properties in all directions are called

(A) Homogeneous

(B) Inelastic

(C) Isotropic

(D) Isentropic

Answer: C

66. Modulus of rigidity may be defined as the ratio of

(A) Linear stress to lateral strain

(B) Lateral strain to linear strain

(C) Linear stress to linear strain

(D) Shear stress to shear strain

Answer: D

67. The ratio of lateral strain to the linear strain within elastic limit is known as

(A) Young‘s modulus

(B) Bulk modulus

(C) Modulus of rigidity

(D) Poisson‘s ratio

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Answer: D

68. In the below figure, the plastic range occurs

(A) Before point A

(B) Beyond point A

(C) Between points A and D

(D) Between points D and E

Answer: B

69. Shear modulus is the ratio of

(A) Linear stress to linear strain

(B) Linear stress to lateral strain

(C) Volumetric strain to linear strain

(D) Shear stress to shear strain

Answer: D

70. The ratio of elongation in a prismatic bar due to its own weight (W) as compared to another similar bar carrying
an additional weight (W) will be

(A) 1 : 2

(B) 1 : 3

(C) 1 : 4

(D) 1 : 2.5

Answer: B

71. The weakest section of a diamond riveting is the section which passes through

(A) The first row

(B) The second row

(C) The central row

(D) One rivet hole of the end row

Answer: D

72. The shear force diagram for a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per unit length,
consists of

(A) One right angled triangle

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(B) Two right angled triangles

(C) One equilateral triangle

(D) Two equilateral triangles

Answer: B

73. Hooke‘s law holds good up to

(A) Yield point

(B) Limit of proportionality

(C) Breaking point

(D) Elastic limit

Answer: B

74. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) The stress is the pressure per unit area

(B) The strain is expressed in mm

(C) Hook‘s law holds good up to the breaking point

(D) Stress is directly proportional to strain within elastic limit

Answer: D

75. The property of a material which allows it to be drawn into a smaller section is called

(A) Plasticity

(B) Ductility

(C) Elasticity

(D) Malleability

Answer: B

76. The percentage reduction in area of a cast iron specimen during tensile test would be of the order of

(A) More than 50%

(B) 25-50%

(C) 10-25%

(D) Negligible

Answer: D

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77. The deformation of a bar under its own weight is _________ the deformation, if the same body is subjected to a
direct load equal to weight of the body.

(A) Equal to

(B) Half

(C) Double

(D) Quadruple

Answer: B

78. The ratio of maximum shear stress developed in a rectangular beam and a circular beam of the same cross-
sectional area is

(A) 2/3

(B) 3/4

(C) 1

(D) 9/8

Answer: D

79. Formula based on IS codes is based on

(A) Straight line formula

(B) Euler‘s formula

(C) Rankine‘s formula

(D) Secant formula

Answer: D

80. Resilience of a material is considered when it is subjected to

(A) Frequent heat treatment

(B) Fatigue

(C) Creep

(D) Shock loading

Answer: D

81. The buckling load for a given column depends upon

(A) Area of cross-section of the column

(B) Length and least radius of gyration of the column

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(C) Modulus of elasticity for the material of the column

(D) All of the above

Answer: D

82. The shear force at the center of a simply supported beam with a gradually varying load from zero at both ends to
w per meter at the center, is

(A) Zero

(B) wl/4

(C) wl/2

(D) wl²/2

Answer: A

83. A riveted joint in which the number otrivets decrease from innermost to outer most rows is called

(A) Chain riveted joint

(B) Diamond riveted joint

(C) Crisscross riveted joint

(D) Zigzag riveted joint

Answer: B

84. A closely-coiled helical spring is cut into two halves. The stiffness of the resulting spring will be

(A) Same

(B) Double

(C) Half

(D) One-fourth

Answer: B

85. The torsional rigidity of a shaft is expressed by the

(A) Maximum torque it can transmit

(B) Number of cycles it undergoes before failure

(C) Elastic limit up to which it resists torsion, shear and bending stresses

(D) Torque required to produce a twist of one radian per unit length of shaft

Answer: D

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86. The limit of eccentricity for no tensile conditions for a column of circular section of diameter (d) is

(A) d/4

(B) d/8

(C) d/12

(D) d/16

Answer: B

87. The property of a material by virtue of which a body returns to its original, shape after removal of the load is
called

(A) Plasticity

(B) Elasticity

(C) Ductility

(D) Malleability

Answer: B

88. The state of stress at a point in a loaded member is shown in the below figure. The magnitude of maximum shear
stress is

(A) 10 MPa

(B) 30 MPa

(C) 50 MPa

(D) 100 MPa

Answer: C

89. For a beam, as shown in the below figure, the deflection at C is (where E = Young‘s modulus for the beam
material, and I = Moment of inertia of the beam section.)

(A) Wl3/48 EI

(B) Wa²b²/3EIl

(C) [Wa/(a√3) x EIl] x (l² – a²)3/2

(D) 5Wl3/384 EI

Answer: B

90. A concentrated load is one which

(A) Acts at a point on a beam

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(B) Spreads non-uniformly over the whole length of a beam

(C) Spreads uniformly over the whole length of a beam

(D) Varies uniformly over the whole length of a beam

Answer: A

91. The stress necessary to initiate yielding is

(A) Considerably greater than that necessary to continue it

(B) Considerably lesser than that necessary to continue it

(C) Greater than that necessary to stop it

(D) Lesser than that necessary to stop it

Answer: A

92. A lap joint is always in _________ shear.

(A) Single

(B) Double

(C) Both A and B

(D) None of these

Answer: A

93. When it is indicated that a member is elastic, it means that when force is applied, it will

(A) Not deform

(B) Be safest

(C) Stretch

(D) Not stretch

Answer: C

94. For a beam, as shown in the below figure, when the load W is applied in the center of the beam, the maximum
deflection is

(A) Wl3 / 48EI

(B) 5Wl3 / 384EI

(C) Wl3 / 392EI

(D) Wl3 / 384EI

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Answer: A

95. The relation between Young‘s modulus (E), shear modulus (C) and bulk modulus (K) is given by

(A) E = 3K.C/(3K + C)

(B) E = 6K.C/(3K + C)

(C) E = 9K.C/(3K + C)

(D) E = 12K.C/(3K + C)

Answer: C

96. The distance between the centers of the rivets in adjacent rows of zigzag riveted joint is known as

(A) Pitch

(B) Back pitch

(C) Diagonal pitch

(D) Diametric pitch

Answer: C

97. In the below figure, the stress corresponding to point ‗D‘ is

(A) Yield point stress

(B) Breaking stress

(C) Ultimate stress

(D) Elastic limit

Answer: C

98. A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress of 300 MPa in one plane accompanied by a simple shear stress of
200 MPa. The maximum shear stress will be

(A) -100 MPa

(B) 250 MPa

(C) 300 MPa

(D) 400 MPa

Answer: B

99. A cylindrical section having no joint is known as

(A) Joint less section

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(B) Homogeneous section

(C) Perfect section

(D) Seamless section

Answer: D

100. A beam which is fixed at one end and free at the other is called

(A) Simply supported beam

(B) Fixed beam

(C) Overhanging beam

(D) Cantilever beam

Answer: D

101. The neutral axis of a transverse section of a beam passes through the centre of gravity of the section and is

(A) In the vertical plane

(B) In the horizontal plane

(C) In the same plane in which the beam bends

(D) At right angle to the plane in which the beam bends

Answer: D

102. The value of Poisson‘s ratio for steel is between

(A) 0.01 to 0.1

(B) 0.23 to 0.27

(C) 0.25 to 0.33

(D) 0.4 to 0.6

Answer: C

103. The columns whose slenderness ratio is less than 80, are known as

(A) Short columns

(B) Long columns

(C) Weak columns

(D) Medium columns

Answer: A

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104. The stress developed in a material at breaking point in extension is called

(A) Breaking stress

(B) Fracture stress

(C) Yield point stress

(D) Ultimate tensile stress

Answer: A

105. For riveting, the size of hole drilled in plates is __________ shank diameter of rivet.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(C) Greater than

(D) None of these

Answer: C

106. Proof resilience per material is known as

(A) Resilience

(B) Proof resilience

(C) Modulus of resilience

(D) Toughness

Answer: C

107. The capacity of a strained body for doing work on the removal of the straining force, is called

(A) Strain energy

(B) Resilience

(C) Proof resilience

(D) Impact energy

Answer: B

108. In a tensile test on mild steel specimen, the breaking stress as compared to ultimate tensile stress is

(A) More

(B) Less

(C) Same

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(D) More/less depending on composition

Answer: B

109. A column of length (l) with both ends fixed may be considered as equivalent to a column of length __________
with both ends hinged.

(A) l/8

(B) l/4

(C) l/2

(D) l

Answer: C

110. If the depth is kept constant for a beam of uniform strength, then its width will vary in proportional to

(A) Bending moment (i.e. M)

(B) Bending moment² (i.e. M²)

(C) Bending moment³ (i.e. M³)

(D) Bending moment⁴ (i.e. M⁴)

Answer: A

111. In a tensile test, near the elastic limit zone, the

(A) Tensile strain increases more quickly

(B) Tensile strain decreases more quickly

(C) Tensile strain increases in proportion to the stress

(D) Tensile strain decreases in proportion to the stress

Answer: A

112. The pull required to crush the rivet per pitch length is

(A) p.t.ζt

(B) d.t.ζc

(C) π/4 × d² × ζt

(D) π/4 × d² × ζc

Answer: B

113. The total strain energy stored in a body is termed as

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(A) Resilience

(B) Proof resilience

(C) Modulus of resilience

(D) Toughness

Answer: A

114. The extension of a circular bar tapering uniformly from diameter d₁ at one end to diameter d₂ at the other end
and subjected to an axial pull of ‗P‘ is given by

(A) δl = 4PE/ πl²

(B) δl = 4πld²/PE

(C) δl = 4Pl/πEd₁d₂

(D) δl = 4PlE/ πd₁d₂

Answer: C

115. The maximum bending moment for the beam shown in the below figure, is

(A) wl²/3√3

(B) wl²/6√3

(C) wl²/9√3

(D) wl²/12√3

Answer: C

116. Efficiency of a riveted joint is the ratio of its strength (max. load it can resist without failure) to the strength of
the unpunched plate in

(A) Tension

(B) Compression

(C) Bearing

(D) Any one of the above

Answer: A

117. The pull required to tear off the plate per pitch length is (where p = Pitch of rivets, t = Thickness of plates, and
ζt, η and ζc = Permissible tensile, shearing and crushing stresses respectively)

(A) (p – 2d) t × ζc

(B) (p – d) t × η

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(C) (p – d) t × ζt

(D) (2p – d) t × ζt

Answer: C

118. In a belt drive, the pulley diameter is doubled, the belt tension and pulley width remaining same. The changes
required in key will be

(A) Increase key length

(B) Increase key depth

(C) Increase key width

(D) Double all the dimensions

Answer: C

119. In the below figure, curve D represents_________.

(A) Mild steel

(B) Cast iron

(C) Concrete

(D) Bone of these

Answer: A

120. The bending moment of a cantilever beam of length ‗l‘ and carrying a uniformly distributed load of ‗w‘ per unit
length is __________ at the fixed end.

(A) wl/4

(B) wl/2

(C) wl

(D) wl²/2

Answer: D

121. Young‘s modulus is defined as the ratio of

(A) Volumetric stress and volumetric strain

(B) Lateral stress and lateral strain

(C) Longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain

(D) Shear stress to shear strain

Answer: C

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122. The layer at the center of gravity of the beam as shown in the below figure, will be

(A) In tension

(B) In compression

(C) Neither in tension nor in compression

(D) None of these

Answer: C

123. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (ζx) in one plane accompanied by a simple shear stress (ηxy),
the minimum normal stress is

(A) (ζx/2) + (1/2) × √(ζx² + 4 η²xy)

(B) (ζx/2) – (1/2) × √(ζx² + 4 η²xy)

(C) (ζx/2) + (1/2) × √(ζx² – 4 η²xy)

(D) (1/2) × √(ζx² + 4 η²xy)

Answer: B

124. Tensile strength of a material is obtained by dividing the maximum load during the test by the

(A) Area at the time of fracture

(B) Original cross-sectional area

(C) Average of (A) and (B)

(D) Minimum area after fracture

Answer: B

125. The section modulus of a circular section about an axis through its C.G., is

(A) πd²/4

(B) πd²/16

(C) πd3/16

(D) πd3/32

Answer: D

126. If a part is constrained to move and heated, it will develop

(A) Principal stress

(B) Tensile stress

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(C) Compressive stress

(D) Shear stress

Answer: C

127. The moment of resistance of a balanced reinforced concrete beam is based on the stresses in

(A) Steel only

(B) Concrete only

(C) Steel and concrete both

(D) None of these

Answer: C

128. The property of a material by virtue of which it can be beaten or rolled into plates is called

(A) Malleability

(B) Ductility

(C) Plasticity

(D) Elasticity

Answer: A

129. In case of an under-reinforced beam, the depth of actual neutral axis is __________ that of the critical neutral
axis.

(A) Same as

(B) Less than

(C) Greater than

(D) None of these

Answer: B

130. The energy absorbed in a body, when it is strained within the elastic limits, is known as

(A) Strain energy

(B) Resilience

(C) Proof resilience

(D) Modulus of resilience

Answer: A

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131. A simply supported beam with a gradually varying load from zero at ‗B‘ and ‗w‘ per unit length at ‗A‘ is
shown in the below figure. The shear force at ‗B‘ is equal to

(A) wl/6

(B) wl/3

(C) wl

(D) 2wl/3

Answer: A 1

132. A fletched beam is used to

(A) Change the shape of the beam

(B) Effect the saving in material

(C) Equalize the strength in tension and compression

(D) Increase the cross-section of the beam

Answer: C

133. Percentage reduction in area performing tensile test on cast iron may be of the order of

(A) 50%

(B) 25%

(C) 20%

(D) 30%

Answer: C

134. A beam is loaded as cantilever. If the load at the end is increased, the failure will occur

(A) In the middle

(B) At the tip below the load

(C) At the support

(D) Anywhere

Answer: D

135. The assumption made in Euler‘s column theory is that

(A) The failure of column occurs due to buckling alone

(B) The length of column is very large as compared to its cross-sectional dimensions

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(C) The column material obeys Hooke‘s law

(D) All of the above

Answer: D

136. If the rivets in adjacent rows are staggered and the outermost row has only one rivets, the arrangement of the
rivets is called

(A) Chain riveting

(B) Zigzag riveting

(C) Diamond riveting

(D) Crisscross riveting

Answer: C

137. The point of contraflexure is a point where

(A) Shear force changes sign

(B) Bending moment changes sign

(C) Shear force is maximum

(D) Bending moment is maximum

Answer: B

138. The value of shear stress which is induced in the shaft due to the applied couple varies

(A) From maximum at the center to zero at the circumference

(B) From zero at the center to maximum at the circumference

(C) From maximum at the center to minimum at the circumference

(D) From minimum at the center to maximum at the circumference

Answer: B

139. The extremities of any diameter on Mohr‘s circle represent

(A) Principal stresses

(B) Normal stresses on planes at 45°

(C) Shear stresses on planes at 45°

(D) Normal and shear stresses on a plane

Answer: B

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140. The materials having same elastic properties in all directions are called

(A) Ideal materials

(B) Uniform materials

(C) Isotropic materials

(D) Piratical materials

Answer: C

141. The ratio of the largest load in a test to the original cross-sectional area of the test piece is called

(A) Elastic limit

(B) Yield stress

(C) Ultimate stress

(D) Breaking stress

Answer: C

142. A column is said to be a short column, when

(A) Its length is very small

(B) Its cross-sectional area is small

(C) The ratio of its length to the least radius of gyration is less than 80

(D) The ratio of its length to the least radius of gyration is more than 80

Answer: C

143. The total elongation produced in a bar of uniform section hanging vertically downwards due to its own weight
is equal to that produced by a weight

(A) Of same magnitude as that of bar and applied at the lower end

(B) Half the weight of bar applied at lower end

(C) Half of the square of weight of bar applied at lower end

(D) One fourth of weight of bar applied at lower end

Answer: B

144. The lower layer of the beam as shown in the below figure, will be

(A) In tension

(B) In compression

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(C) Neither in tension nor in compression

(D) None of these

Answer: A

145. The tensile strength of the welded joint for double fillet is (where s = Leg or size of the weld, l = Length of
weld, and ζt = Allowable tensile stress for weld metal)

(A) 0.5 s.l.ζt

(B) s.l.ζt

(C) √2 s.l.ζt

(D) 2.s.l.ζt

Answer: C

146. If a material expands freely due to heating it will develop

(A) Thermal stresses

(B) Tensile stress

(C) Bending

(D) No stress

Answer: D

147. When a body is subjected to biaxial stress i.e. direct stresses (ζx) and (ζy) in two mutually perpendicular planes
accompanied by a simple shear stress (ηxy), then maximum normal stress is

(A) (ζx + ζy)/2 + (1/2) × √[(ζx – ζy)² + 4 η²xy]

(B) (ζx + ζy)/2 – (1/2) × √[(ζx – ζy)² + 4 η²xy]

(C) (ζx – ζy)/2 + (1/2) × √[(ζx + ζy)² + 4 η²xy]

(D) (ζx – ζy)/2 – (1/2) × √[(ζx + ζy)² + 4 η²xy]

Answer: A

148. The stress at which extension of the material takes place more quickly as compared to the increase in load is
called

(A) Elastic point of the material

(B) Plastic point of the material

(C) Breaking point of the material

(D) Yielding point of the material

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Answer: D

149. A cantilever beam is one which is

(A) Fixed at both ends

(B) Fixed at one end and free at the other end

(C) Supported at its ends

(D) Supported on more than two supports

Answer: B

150. In a prismatic member made of two materials so joined that they deform equally under axial stress, the unit
stresses in two materials are

(A) Equal

(B) Proportional to their respective moduli of elasticity

(C) Inversely proportional to their moduli of elasticity

(D) Average of the sum of moduli of elasticity

Answer: B

151. A circular shaft fixed at, A has diameter D for half of its length and diameter D/2 over the other half, as shown
in the below figure. If the rotation of B relative to A is 0.1 radian, the rotation of C relative to B will be

(A) 0.4 radian

(B) 0.8 radian

(C) 1.6 radian

(D) 3.2 radian

Answer: C

152. The shear force diagram of a cantilever beam of length ‗l‘ and carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per
unit length will be

(A) A right angled triangle

(B) An isosceles triangle

(C) An equilateral triangle

(D) A rectangle

Answer: A

153. The safe twisting moment for a compound shaft is equal to the

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(A) Maximum calculated value

(B) Minimum calculated value

(C) Mean value

(D) Extreme value

Answer: B

154. When a bar is subjected to a change of temperature and its deformation is prevented, the stress induced in the
bar is

(A) Tensile stress

(B) Compressive stress

(C) Shear stress

(D) Thermal stress

Answer: D

155. A thin mild steel wire is loaded by adding loads in equal increments till it breaks. The extensions noted with
increasing loads will behave as under

(A) Uniform throughout

(B) Increase uniformly

(C) First increase and then decrease

(D) Increase uniformly first and then increase rapidly

Answer: D

156. Which of the following is a proper sequence?

(A) Proportional limit, elastic limit, yielding, failure

(B) Elastic limit, proportional limit, yielding, failure

(C) Yielding, proportional limit, elastic limit, failure

(D) None of the above

Answer: A

157. Which is the false statement about true stress strain method?

(A) It does not exist

(B) It is more sensitive to changes in both metallurgical and mechanical conditions

(C) It gives a more accurate picture of the ductility

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(D) It can be correlated with stress strain values in other tests like torsion, impact, combined stress tests etc.

Answer: A

158. The bending equation is

(A) M/I = ζ/y = E/R

(B) T/J = η/R = Cθ/l

(C) M/R = T/J = Cθ/l

(D) T/l= η/J = R/Cθ

Answer: A

159. For which material the Poisson‘s ratio is more than unity

(A) Steel

(B) Copper

(C) Aluminium

(D) None of the above

Answer: D

160. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (ζ) in one plane, then maximum normal stress occurs at a
section inclined at _________ to the normal of the section.

(A) 0°

(B) 30°

(C) 45°

(D) 90°

Answer: A

161. Flow stress corresponds to

(A) Fluids in motion

(B) Breaking point

(C) Plastic deformation of solids

(D) Rupture stress

Answer: C

162. The thickness of a thin cylindrical shell with hemispherical ends is _________ that of spherical ends.

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(A) Equal to

(B) More than

(C) Less than

(D) None of these

Answer: B

163. A riveted joint in which every rivet of a row is opposite to other rivet of the outer row, is known as

(A) Chain riveted joint

(B) Diamond riveted joint

(C) Crisscross riveted joint

(D) Zigzag riveted joint

Answer: A

164. The maximum tangential stress in a thick cylindrical shell is always _________ the internal pressure acting on
the shell.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(C) Greater than

(D) None of these

Answer: C

165. If percentage reduction in area of a certain specimen made of material ‗A‘ under tensile test is 60% and the
percentage reduction in area of a specimen with same dimensions made of material ‗B‘ is 40%, then

(A) The material A is more ductile than material B

(B) The material B is more ductile than material A

(C) The ductility of material A and B is equal

(D) The material A is brittle and material B is ductile

Answer: A

166. Which of the following materials is most elastic?

(A) Rubber

(B) Plastic

(C) Brass

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(D) Steel

Answer: D

167. Strain is equal to (where l = Original length, and δl = Change in length)

(A) l/δl

(B) δl/l

(C) l.δl

(D) l + δl

Answer: B

168. The ratio of direct stress to volumetric strain in case of a body subjected to three mutually perpendicular
stresses of equal intensity, is equal to

(A) Young‘s modulus

(B) Bulk modulus

(C) Modulus of rigidity

(D) Modulus of elasticity

Answer: B

169. Which of the following statement is wrong?

(A) The deformation of the bar per unit length in the direction of the force is called linear strain.

(B) The Poisson‘s ratio is the ratio of lateral strain to the linear strain.

(C) The ratio of change in volume to the original volume is called volumetric strain.

(D) The bulk modulus is the ratio of linear stress to the linear strain.

Answer: D

170. Diamond riveted joint can be adopted in the case of following type of joint

(A) Butt joint

(B) Lap joint

(C) Double riveted lap joints

(D) All types of joints

Answer: A

171. When a body is subjected to biaxial stress i.e. direct stresses (ζx) and (ζy) in two mutually perpendicular planes
accompanied by a simple shear stress (ηxy), then minimum normal stress is

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(A) (ζx + ζy)/2 + (1/2) × √[(ζx – ζy)² + 4 η²xy]

(B) (ζx + ζy)/2 – (1/2) × √[(ζx – ζy)² + 4 η²xy]

(C) (ζx – ζy)/2 + (1/2) × √[(ζx + ζy)² + 4 η²xy]

(D) (ζx – ζy)/2 – (1/2) × √[(ζx + ζy)² + 4 η²xy]

Answer: B

172. The unit of Young‘s modulus is

(A) mm/mm

(B) kg/cm

(C) Kg

(D) kg/cm²

Answer: D

173. When a body is subjected to three mutually perpendicular stresses, of equal intensity, the ratio of direct stress to
the corresponding volumetric strain is known as

(A) Young‘s modulus

(B) Modulus of rigidity

(C) Bulk modulus

(D) Poisson‘s ratio

Answer: C

174. The value of modulus of elasticity for mild steel is of the order of

(A) 2.1 × 10⁵ kg/cm²

(B) 2.1 × 10⁶ kg/cm²

(C) 2.1 × 10⁷ kg/cm²

(D) 0.1 × 10⁶ kg/cm²

Answer: B

175. A pressure vessel is said to be a thick shell, when

(A) It is made of thick sheets

(B) The internal pressure is very high

(C) The ratio of wall thickness of the vessel to its diameter is less than 1/10.

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(D) The ratio of wall thickness of the vessel to its diameter is greater than 1/10.

Answer: D

176. The strain energy stored in a body due to suddenly applied load compared to when it is applied gradually is

(A) Same

(B) Twice

(C) Four times

(D) Eight times

Answer: C

177. The deformation of a bar under its own weight compared to the deformation of same body subjected to a direct
load equal to weight of the body is

(A) Same

(B) Double

(C) Half

(D) Four times

Answer: C

178. A continuous beam is one which is

(A) Fixed at both ends

(B) Fixed at one end and free at the other end

(C) Supported on more than two supports

(D) Extending beyond the supports

Answer: C

179. The radius of the Mohr‘s circle in the given figure is equal to

Som Question No 14

(A) Sum of two principal stresses

(B) Difference of two principal stresses

(C) Half the sum of two principal stresses

(D) Half the difference of two principal stresses

Answer: D

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180. The maximum shear stress, in the given figure, is equal to __________ of the Mohr‘s circle.

(A) Radius

(B) Diameter

(C) Circumference

(D) Area

Answer: A

181. A key is subjected to side pressure as well at shearing forces. These pressures are called

(A) Bearing stresses

(B) Fatigue stresses

(C) Crushing stresses

(D) Resultant stresses

Answer: A

182. When a closely-coiled helical spring of mean diameter (D) is subjected to an axial load (W), the stiffness of the
spring is given by

(A) Cd⁴/D3n

(B) Cd⁴/2D3n

(C) Cd⁴/4D3n

(D) Cd⁴/8D3n

Answer: D

183. During a tensile test on a specimen of 1 cm cross-section, maximum load observed was 8 tonnes and area of
cross-section at neck was 0.5 cm². Ultimate tensile strength of specimen is

(A) 4 tonnes/ cm²

(B) 8 tonnes/ cm²

(C) 16 tonnes/ cm²

(D) 22 tonnes/ cm²

Answer: B

184. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (ζx) in one plane accompanied by a simple shear stress (ηxy),
the maximum shear stress is

(A) (ζx/2) + (1/2) × √(ζx² + 4 η²xy)

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(B) (ζx/2) – (1/2) × √(ζx² + 4 η²xy)

(C) (ζx/2) + (1/2) × √(ζx² – 4 η²xy)

(D) (1/2) × √(ζx² + 4 η²xy)

Answer: D

185. The change in the unit volume of a material under tension with increase in its Poisson‘s ratio will

(A) Increase

(B) Decrease

(C) Remain same

(D) Increase initially and then decrease

Answer: B

186. A material capable of absorbing large amount of energy before fracture is known as

(A) Ductility

(B) Toughness

(C) Resilience

(D) Shock proof

Answer: B

187. The shear force at the ends of a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per unit
length is

(A) Zero at its both ends

(B) wl at one end and -wl at the other end

(C) wl/2 at one end and -wl/ 2 at the other end

(D) wl²/2 at one end and -wl²/ 2 at the other end

Answer: C

188. Deformation per unit length in the direction of force is known as

(A) Strain

(B) Lateral strain

(C) Linear strain

(D) Linear stress

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Answer: C

189. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) The energy stored in a body, when strained within elastic limit is known as strain energy.

(B) The maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body is termed as proof resilience.

(C) The proof resilience per unit volume of a material is known as modulus of resilience.

(D) All of the above

Answer: D

190. Rupture stress is

(A) Breaking stress

(B) Maximum load/original cross-sectional area

(C) Load at breaking point/Area

(D) Load at breaking point/neck area

Answer: D

191. When two shafts of same length, one of which is hollow, transmit equal torques and have equal maximum
stress, then they should have equal

(A) Polar moment of inertia

(B) Polar modulus

(C) Diameter

(D) Angle of twist

Answer: B

192. Longitudinal stress in a thin cylinder is

(A) Equal to the hoop stress

(B) Twice the hoop stress

(C) Half of the hoop stress

(D) One fourth of hoop stress

Answer: C

193. A beam of uniform strength may be obtained by

(A) Keeping the width uniform and varying the depth

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(B) Keeping the depth uniform and varying the width

(C) Varying the width and depth both

(D) Any one of the above

Answer: D

194. Which of the following has no unit?

(A) Kinematic viscosity

(B) Surface tension

(C) Bulk modulus

(D) Strain

Answer: D

195. The deformation of the bar per unit length in the direction of the force is known as

(A) Linear strain

(B) Lateral strain

(C) Volumetric strain

(D) Shear strain

Answer: A

196. In the below figure, __________ represents glass.

(A) Curve A

(B) Curve B

(C) Curve C

(D) Curve D

Answer: C

197. Hook‘s law holds good up to

(A) Yield point

(B) Elastic limit

(C) Plastic limit

(D) Breaking point

Answer: B

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198. A thin spherical shell of diameter (d) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The stress in the
shell material is

(A) pd/t

(B) pd/2t

(C) pd/4t

(D) pd/8t

Answer: C

199. Poisson‘s ratio is defined as the ratio of

(A) Longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain

(B) Longitudinal stress and lateral stress

(C) Lateral stress and longitudinal stress

(D) Lateral stress and lateral strain

Answer: C

200. The rectangular beam ‗A‘ has length l, width b and depth d. Another beam ‗B‘ has the same length and width
but depth is double that of ‗A‘. The elastic strength of beam B will be __________ as compared to beam A.

(A) Same

(B) Double

(C) Four times

(D) Six times

Answer: C

201. The value of Poisson‘s ratio for cast iron is

(A) 0.1 to 0.2

(B) 0.23 to 0.27

(C) 0.25 to 0.33

(D) 0.4 to 0.6

Answer: B

202. According to Euler‘s column theory, the crippling load of a column is given by p = π²EI/Cl². In the Euler‘s
formula, the value of C for a column with one end fixed and the other end free, is

(A) 1/2

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(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 4

Answer: D

203. The elasticity of various materials is controlled by its

(A) Ultimate tensile stress

(B) Proof stress

(C) Stress at yield point

(D) Stress at elastic limit

Answer: D

204. A simply supported beam of length ‗l‘ carries a point load ‗W‘ at a point C as shown in the below figure. The
maximum deflection lies at

(A) Point A

(B) Point B

(C) Point C

(D) Between points B and C

Answer: D

205. The shear force diagram for a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a gradually varying load from zero at
free end and w per unit length at the fixed end is a

(A) Horizontal straight line

(B) Vertical straight line

(C) Inclined line

(D) Parabolic curve

Answer: D

206. The maximum shear stress in a thin cylindrical shell subjected to internal pressure ‗p‘ is

(A) pd/t

(B) pd/2t

(C) pd/4t

(D) pd/8t

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Answer: D

207. When a beam is subjected to bending moment, the stress at any point is __________ the distance of the point
from the neutral axis.

(A) Equal to

(B) Directly proportional to

(C) Inversely proportional to

(D) Independent of

Answer: B

208. In a tensile test, when the material is stressed beyond elastic limit, the tensile strain __________ as compared to
the stress.

(A) Decreases slowly

(B) Increases slowly

(C) Decreases more quickly

(D) Increases more quickly

Answer: D

209. A fixed beam is one which is fixed at _________.

(A) One of its ends

(B) Both of its ends

(C) The middle

(D) None of these

Answer: B

210. If the modulus of elasticity for a given material is twice its modulus of rigidity, then bulk modulus is equal to

(A) 2C

(B) 3C

(C) 2C/3

(D) 3C/2

Answer: C

211. When a load on the free end of a cantilever beam is increased, failure will occur

(A) At the free end

Page 216 of 592

(B) At the fixed end

(C) In the middle of the beam

(D) At a distance 2l/3 from free end

Answer: B

212. The rectangular beam ‗A ‗ has length l, width b and depth d. Another beam ‗B‘ has the same width and depth
but length is double that of ‗A‘. The elastic strength of beam ‗B‘ will be __________ as compared to beam A.

(A) Same

(B) One-half

(C) One-fourth

(D) One-eighth

Answer: B

213. In leaf springs, the maximum bending stress developed in the plates is (where W = Load acting on the spring, l
= Span of the spring, n = Number of plates, b = Width of plates, and t = Thickness of plates)

(A) Wl/nbt²

(B) 3Wl/2nbt²

(C) 2Wl/nbt²

(D) 3Wl/nbt²

Answer: B

214. The extension of a circular bar tapering uniformly from diameter d₁ at one end to diameter d₂ at the other end,
and subjected to an axial pull of P is _________ the extension of a circular bar of diameter d₁ d₂ subjected to the
same load P.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(C) Greater than

(D) None of these

Answer: A

215. In a thick cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure (p), the radial stress across the thickness of the
cylinder is

(A) Maximum at the outer surface and minimum at the inner surface

(B) Maximum at the inner surface and minimum at the outer surface

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(C) Maximum at the outer surface and zero at the inner surface

(D) Maximum at the inner surface arid zero at the outer surface

Answer: D

216. A column with maximum equivalent length has

(A) Both ends hinged

(B) Both ends fixed

(C) One end fixed and the other end hinged

(D) One end fixed and the other end free

Answer: D

217. The ratio of change in volume to the original volume is called

(A) Linear strain

(B) Lateral strain

(C) Volumetric strain

(D) Poisson‘s ratio

Answer: C

218. Which of the following statement is wrong?

(A) In the theory of simple bending, the assumption is that the plane sections before bending remains plane after
bending.

(B) In a beam subjected to bending moment, the strain is directly proportional to the distance from the neutral axis.

(C) At the neutral axis of a beam, the bending stress is maximum.

(D) The bending stress in a beam is inversely proportional to the section modulus.

Answer: C

219. The polar moment of inertia of a solid circular shaft of diameter (D) is

(A) πD³/16

(B) πD³/32

(C) πD⁴/32

(D) πD⁴/64

Answer: C

Page 218 of 592

220. In Mohr‘s circle, the center of circle from Y-axis is taken as

(A) (ζx – ζy¬)/2

(B) (ζx + ζy)/2

(C) [(ζx – ζy)/2] + η

(D) [(ζx + ζy)/2] + η

Answer: B

221. Shear strength of the welded joint for double parallel fillet is (where η = Allowable shear stress for weld metal)

(A) 0.5 s.l.η

(B) s.l.η

(C) √2 s.l.η

(D) 2.s.l.η

Answer: C

222. When a shaft, is subjected to torsion, the shear stress induced in the shaft varies from

(A) Minimum at the center to maximum at the circumference

(B) Maximum at the center to minimum at the circumference

(C) Zero at the center to maximum at the circumference

(D) Maximum at the center to zero at the circumference

Answer: C

223. The strain energy stored in a body, when the load is gradually applied, is (where ζ = Stress in the material of
the body, V = Volume of the body, and E = Modulus of elasticity of the material)

(A) ζE/V

(B) ζV/E

(C) ζ²E/2V

(D) ζ²V/2E

Answer: D

224. At the neutral axis of a beam, the shear stress is

(A) Zero

(B) Minimum

Page 219 of 592

(C) Maximum

(D) Infinity

Answer: C

225. In a stress-strain diagram for mild steel, as shown in the below figure, the point ‗A‘ represents

(A) Elastic limit

(B) Upper yield point

(C) Lower yield point

(D) Breaking point

Answer: A

226. When a body is subjected to two equal and opposite forces, acting tangentially across the resisting section, as a
result of which the body tends to shear off across the section, the stress and strain induced is

(A) Tensile stress, tensile strain

(B) Compressive stress, compressive strain

(C) Shear stress, tensile strain

(D) Shear stress, shear strain

Answer: D

227. The given figure shows the Mohr‘s circle of stress for two unequal and like principal stresses (ζx and ζy)
acting at a body across two mutually perpendicular planes. The tangential stress is given by

(A) OC

(B) OP

(C) OQ

(D) PQ

Answer: D

228. The strain energy stored in a hollow circular shaft of outer diameter (D) and inner diameter (d) subjected to
shear stress is

(A) (η²/2C) (D² – d²/D) × Volume of shaft

(B) (η²/2C) (D² + d²/D) × Volume of shaft

(C) (η²/4C) (D² – d²/D) × Volume of shaft

(D) (η²/4C) (D² + d²/D) × Volume of shaft

Page 220 of 592

Answer: D

229. The center to center distance, between two consecutive rivets in a row, is called

(A) Margin

(B) Pitch

(C) Back pitch

(D) Diagonal pitch

Answer: B

230. Two shafts ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ are made of same material. The shaft ‗A‘ is of diameter D and shaft ‗B‘ is of diameter
D/2. The strength of shaft ‗B‘ is _________ as that of shaft ‗A‘

(A) One-eighth

(B) One-fourth

(C) One-half

(D) Four times

Answer: A

231. According to Unwin‘s formula, the relation between diameter of rivet hole (d) and thickness of plate (t) is given
by (where d and t are in mm)

(A) d = t

(B) d = 1.6 t

(C) d = 2t

(D) d = 6t

Answer: D

232. A tensile test is performed on a round bar. After fracture, it has been found that the diameter remains
approximately same at fracture. The material under test was

(A) Mild steel

(B) Cast iron

(C) Glass

(D) Copper

Answer: B

233. A rectangular beam of length l supported at its two ends carries a central point load W. The maximum
deflection occurs

Page 221 of 592

(A) At the ends

(B) At l/3 from both ends

(C) At the center

(D) None of these

Answer: C

234. The ratio of the lateral strain to the linear strain is called

(A) Modulus of elasticity

(B) Modulus of rigidity

(C) Bulk modulus

(D) Poisson‘s ratio

Answer: D

235. The shear force of a cantilever beam of length l carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per unit length is
_________ at the free end.

(A) Zero

(B) wl/4

(C) wl/2

(D) wl

Answer: A

236. In a simple bending of beams, the stress in the beam varies

(A) Linearly

(B) Parabolically

(C) Hyperbolically

(D) Elliptically

Answer: A

237. The shear force at a point on a beam is the algebraic __________ of all the forces on either side of the point.

(A) Sum

(B) Difference

(C) Multiplication

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(D) Division

Answer: A

238. When a cantilever beam is loaded at its free end, the maximum compressive stress shall develop at

(A) Bottom fibre

(B) Top fibre

(C) Neutral axis

(D) Center of gravity

Answer: A

239. The total strain energy stored in a body is termed as

(A) Resilience

(B) Proof resilience

(C) Impact energy

(D) Modulus of resilience

Answer: A

240. When a body is subjected to biaxial stress i.e. direct stresses (ζx) and (ζy) in two mutually perpendicular planes
accompanied by a simple shear stress (ηxy), then maximum shear stress is

(A) (1/2) × √[(ζx – ζy)² + 4 η²xy]

(B) (1/2) × √[(ζx + ζy)² + 4 η²xy]

(C) √[(ζx – ζy)² + η²xy]

(D) √[(ζx + ζy)² + η²xy]

Answer: A

241. According to Euler‘s column theory, the crippling load for a column length (l) hinged at both ends, is

(A) π²EI/l²

(B) π²EI/4l²

(C) 4π²EI/l²

(D) 2π²EI/l²

Answer: A

242. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d), length (l) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The
ratio of longitudinal strain to hoop strain is

Page 223 of 592

(A) (m – 2)/(2m – 1)

(B) (2m – 1)/(m – 2)

(C) (m – 2)/(2m + 1)

(D) (2m + 1)/(m – 2)

Answer: A

243. Young‘s modulus may be defined as the ratio of

(A) Linear stress to lateral strain

(B) Lateral strain to linear strain

(C) Linear stress to linear strain

(D) Shear stress to shear strain

Answer: C

244. The maximum bending moment for the beam shown in the below figure, lies at a distance of ________ from
the end B.

(A) l/2

(B) l/3

(C) l/√2

(D) l/√3

Answer: D

245. Two closely-coiled helical springs ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ are equal in all respects but the number of turns of spring ‗A‘ is
double that of spring ‗B‘. The stiffness of spring ‗A‘ will be __________ that of spring ‗B‘.

(A) One-sixteenth

(B) One-eighth

(C) One-fourth

(D) One-half

Answer: D

246. The bending moment on a section is maximum where shear force is

(A) Minimum

(B) Maximum

(C) Changing sign

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(D) Zero

Answer: C

247. The stress developed in the material without any permanent set is called

(A) Elastic limit

(B) Yield stress

(C) Ultimate stress

(D) Breaking stress

Answer: A

248. Two closely coiled helical springs ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ are equal in all respects but the diameter of wire of spring ‗A‘ is
double that of spring ‗B‘ The stiffness of spring ‗B‘ will be __________ that of spring ‗A‘

(A) One-sixteenth

(B) One-eighth

(C) One-fourth

(D) One-half

Answer: A

249. In a riveted joint, when the number of rivets decreases from the inner most row to outer most row, the joint is
said to be

(A) Chain riveted

(B) Zig-zag riveted

(C) Diamond riveted

(D) None of these

Answer: C

250. The polar modulus for a hollow shaft of outer diameter (D) and inner diameter (d) is

(A) (π/4) × (D² – d²)/D

(B) (π/16) × (D3 – d3)/D

(C) (π/16) × (D⁴ – d⁴)/D

(D) (π/32) × (D⁴ – d⁴)/D

Answer: C

251. A leaf spring is supported at the

Page 225 of 592

(A) Ends and loaded at the center

(B) Center and loaded at the ends

(C) Ends and loaded anywhere

(D) Center and loaded anywhere

Answer: B

252. The assumption made in the theory of the reinforced cement concrete beam is that

(A) All the tensile stresses are taken up by the steel reinforcement only

(B) There is a sufficient bond between steel and concrete

(C) The steel and concrete are stressed within its elastic limit

(D) All of the above

Answer: D

253. The ultimate tensile stress for mild steel is __________ the ultimate compressive stress.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(C) More than

(D) None of these

Answer: C

254. The neutral axis of the cross-section of a beam is that axis at which the bending stress is

(A) Zero

(B) Minimum

(C) Maximum

(D) Infinity

Answer: A

255. When a thin cylindrical shell is subjected to an internal pressure, there will be

(A) A decrease in diameter and length of the shell

(B) An increase in diameter and decrease in length of the shell

(C) A decrease in diameter and increase in length of the shell

(D) An increase in diameter and length of the shell

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Answer: D

256. When the shear force diagram is a parabolic curve between two points, it indicates that there is a

(A) Point load at the two points

(B) No loading between the two points

(C) Uniformly distributed load between the two points

(D) Uniformly varying load between the two points

Answer: D

257. In order to avoid sliding of masonry dam, the force of friction between the dam and soil should be at least
__________ the total water pressure per meter length.

(A) Equal to

(B) 1.5 times

(C) Double

(D) 2.5 times

Answer: B

258. The design of thin cylindrical shells is based on

(A) Hoop stress

(B) Longitudinal stress

(C) Arithmetic mean of the hoop and the longitudinal stress

(D) Geometric mean of the hoop and longitudinal stress

Answer: A

259. A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of 600 MPa on a
plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of 400 MPa on the same planes. The
minimum normal stress will be

(A) 400 MPa

(B) 500 MPa

(C) 900 MPa

(D) 1400 MPa

Answer: A

260. In the below figure, the point C represents

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(A) Elastic limit

(B) Upper yield point

(C) Lower yield point

(D) Breaking point

Answer: C

261. If the section modulus of a beam is increased, the bending stress in the beam will

(A) Not change

(B) Increase

(C) Decrease

(D) None of these

Answer: C

262. In the below figure, the point E represents.

(A) The maximum stress

(B) The minimum stress

(C) No stress

(D) None of these

Answer: A

263. The maximum deflection of a cantilever beam of length ‗l‘ with a point load ‗W‘ at the free end is

(A) Wl3/3EI

(B) Wl3/8EI

(C) Wl3/16EI

(D) Wl3/48EI

Answer: A

264. The strength of a riveted joint is equal to the

(A) Pull required to tear off the plate per pitch length (Pt)

(B) Pull required to shear off the rivet per pitch length (Ps)

(C) Pull required to crush the rivet per pitch length (Pc)

(D) Minimum value of Pt, Ps or Pc

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Answer: D

265. The torsional rigidity of a shaft is given by

(A) T/J

(B) T/θ

(C) T/r

(D) T/G

Answer: B

266. A localized compressive stress at the area of contact between two members is known as

(A) Tensile stress

(B) Bending stress

(C) Crushing stress

(D) Shear stress

Answer: C

267. The product of Young‘s modulus (E) and moment of inertia (I) is known as

(A) Modulus of rigidity

(B) Bulk modulus

(C) Flexural rigidity

(D) Torsional rigidity

Answer: C

268. A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (ζ) in one plane. The shear stress is maximum at a section inclined
at __________ to the normal of the section.

(A) 45° and 90°

(B) 45° and 135°

(C) 60° and 150°

(D) 30° and 135°

Answer: B

269. Two solid shafts ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ are made of the same material. The shaft ‗A‘ is of 50 mm diameter and shaft ‗B‘
is of 100 mm diameter. The strength of shaft ‗B‘ is _________ as that of shaft A.

(A) One-half

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(B) Double

(C) Four times

(D) Eight times

Answer: D

270. For a given stress, the ratio of moment of resistance of a beam of square cross-section when placed with its two
sides horizontal to the moment of resistance with its diagonal horizontal, is

(A) 1/2

(B) 1

(C) 1/√2

(D) √2

Answer: D

271. The ductility of the material __________ with the decrease in percentage elongation of a specimen under
tensile test.

(A) Increases

(B) Decreases

(C) Remain same

(D) None of these

Answer: B

272. The length of a conical bar is l, diameter of base is d and weight per unit volume is w. It is fixes at its upper end
and hanging freely. The elongation of the bar under the action of its own weight will be

(A) wl²/2E

(B) wl²/4E

(C) wl²/6E

(D) wl²/8E

Answer: C

273. The ratio of linear stress to the linear strain is called

(A) Modulus of rigidity

(B) Modulus of elasticity

(C) Bulk modulus

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(D) Poisson‘s ratio

Answer: B

274. For no tension condition in the base of a short column of circular section, the line of action of the load should
be within a circle of diameter equal to __________ of the main circle.

(A) One-half

(B) One-third

(C) One-fourth

(D) One-eighth

Answer: C

275. The shear modulus of most materials with respect to the modulus of elasticity is

(A) Equal to half

(B) Less than half

(C) More than half

(D) None of these

Answer: B

276. Whenever a material is loaded within elastic limit, stress is __________ strain.

(A) Equal to

(B) Directly proportional to

(C) Inversely proportional to

(D) None of these

Answer: B

277. In the below figure, Hook‘s law holds good, for the portion from_________.

(A) O to A

(B) B to D

(C) D to E

(D) None of these

278. The point of contraflexure occurs in

(A) Cantilever beams

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(B) Simply supported beams

(C) Overhanging beams

(D) Fixed beams

Answer: C

279. The bending moment of a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a gradually varying load from zero at free
end and w per unit length at the fixed end is ________ at the fixed end.

(A) wl/2

(B) wl

(C) wl²/2

(D) wl²/6

Answer: D

280. The maximum deflection of a cantilever beam of length ‗l‘ with a uniformly distributed load of ‗w‘ per unit
length is (where W = wl)

(A) Wl³/3EI

(B) Wl³/8EI

(C) Wl³/16EI

(D) Wl³/48EI

Answer: B

281. When a bar of length l, width b and thickness t is subjected to a pull of P, its

(A) Length, width and thickness increases

(B) Length, width and thickness decreases

(C) Length increases, width and thickness decreases

(D) Length decreases, width and thickness increases

Answer: C

282. A beam of T-section is subjected to a shear force of F. The maximum shear force will occur at the

(A) Top of the section

(B) Bottom of the section

(C) Neutral axis of the section

(D) Junction of web and flange

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Answer: C

283. The maximum deflection of a fixed beam of length l carrying a central point load W is

(A) wl³/48 EI

(B) wl³/96 EI

(C) wl³/192 EI

(D) wl³/384 EI

Answer: C

284. The torque transmitted by a hollow shaft of outer diameter (D) and inner diameter (d) is

(A) (π/4) × η [(D² – d²)/d]

(B) (π/16) × η [(D³ – d³)/d]

(C) (π/16) × η [(D⁴ – d⁴)/d]

(D) (π/32) × η [(D⁴ – d⁴)/d]

Answer: C

285. At the neutral axis of a beam

(A) The layers are subjected to maximum bending stress

(B) The layers are subjected to minimum bending stress

(C) The layers are subjected to compression

(D) The layers do not undergo any strain

Answer: D

286. In a thick cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure (p), the tangential stress across the thickness of a
cylinder is

(A) Maximum at the outer surface and minimum at the inner surface

(B) Maximum at the inner surface and minimum at the outer surface

(C) Maximum at the outer surface and zero at the inner surface

(D) Maximum at the inner surface and zero at the outer surface

Answer: B

287. When a bar of length l, width b and thickness t is subjected to a push of P, its

(A) Length, width and thickness increases

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(B) Length, width and thickness decreases

(C) Length increases, width and thickness decreases

(D) Length decreases, width and thickness increases

Answer: D

288. In a simple bending theory, one of the assumptions is that the plane sections before bending remain plane after
bending. This assumption means that

(A) Stress is uniform throughout the beam

(B) Strain is uniform throughout the beam

(C) Stress is proportional to the distance from the neutral axis

(D) Strain is proportional to the distance from the neutral axis

Answer: D

289. For a beam, as shown in the below figure, the maximum deflection lies at

(A) l/3 from B

(B) l/3 from A

(C) √(l² – a²/3) from B

(D) √(l² – b²/3) from A

Answer: C

290. In the above question, the ratio of stiffness of spring ‗B‘ to spring ‗A‘ will be

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 6

(D) 8

Answer: D

291. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (ζ) in one plane, then normal stress on an oblique section of
the body inclined at an angle ‗θ‘ to the normal of the section is

(A) ζ cosθ

(B) ζ cos²θ

(C) ζ sinθ

(D) ζ sin²θ

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Answer: B

292. The longitudinal stress in a riveted cylindrical shell of diameter (d), thickness (t) and subjected to an internal
pressure (p) is

(A) pd/(η × t)

(B) pd/(η × 2t)

(C) pd/(η × 4t)

(D) pd/(η × 8t)

Answer: C

293. Lame‘s theory is associated with

(A) Thin cylindrical shells

(B) Thick cylindrical shells

(C) Direct and bending stresses

(D) None of these

Answer: B

294. According to Euler‘s column theory, the crippling load of a column is given by p = π² EI/Cl² In this equation,
the value of ‗C‘ for a column with both ends hinged, is

(A) ¼

(B) ½

(C) 1

(D) 2

Answer: C

295. A riveted joint may fail by

(A) Tearing of the plate at an edge

(B) Tearing of the plate across a row of rivets

(C) Shearing of rivets

(D) Any one of these

Answer: D

296. The tensile strength of ductile materials is _________ its compressive strength.

(A) Equal to

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(B) Less than

(C) Greater than

(D) None of these

Answer: C

297. The strain energy stored in a body due to shear stress, is (where η = Shear stress, C = Shear modulus, and V =
Volume of the body)

(A) (η/2C) × V

(B) 2C/ ηV

(C) (η²/2C) × V

(D) 2C/ η²V

Answer: C

298. The maximum shear stress is __________ the algebraic difference of maximum and minimum normal stresses.

(A) Equal to

(B) One-fourth

(C) One-half

(D) Twice

Answer: C

299. The object of caulking in a riveted joint is to make the joint

(A) Free from corrosion

(B) Stronger in tension

(C) Free from stresses

(D) Leak proof

Answer: D

300. The Poisson‘s ratio for steel varies from

(A) 0.23 to 0.27

(B) 0.27 to 0.30

(C) 0.31 to 0.34

(D) 0.32 to 0.42

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Answer: B

301. The shear force of a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a gradually varying load from zero at the free end
and w per unit length at the fixed end is _________ at the fixed end.

(A) Zero

(B) wl/4

(C) wl/2

(D) wl

Answer: C

302. The modulus of elasticity for mild steel is approximately equal to

(A) 10 kN/mm²

(B) 80 kN/mm²

(C) 100 kN/mm²

(D) 210 kN/mm²

Answer: D

303. The direct stress induced in a long column is __________ as compared to bending stress.

(A) Same

(B) More

(C) Less

(D) Negligible

Answer: D

304. For a 25 mm hole drilled in plates, the diameter of rivet shank should be

(A) 23 mm

(B) 24.5 mm

(C) 25 mm

(D) 26 mm

Answer: A

305. The elongation of a conical bar under its own weight is __________ that of prismatic bar of the same length.

(A) Equal to

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(B) Half

(C) One-third

(D) Two-third

Answer: C

306. A bolt is made to pass through a tube and both of them are tightly fitted with the help of washers and nuts. If
the nut is tightened, then

(A) Bolt and tube are under tension

(B) Bolt and tube are under compression

(C) Bolt is under compression and tube is under tension

(D) Bolt is under tension and tube is under compression

Answer: D

307. Two shafts ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ have the same material. The shaft ‗A‘ is solid of diameter 100 mm. The shaft ‗B‘ is
hollow with outer diameter 100 mm and inner diameter 50 mm. The torque transmitted by shaft ‗B‘ is __________
as that of shaft ‗A‘.

(A) 1/6

(B) 1/8

(C) 1/4

(D) 15/16

Answer: D

308. Mohr‘s circle is used to determine the stresses on an oblique section of a body subjected to

(A) Direct tensile stress in one plane accompanied by a shear stress

(B) Direct tensile stress in two mutually perpendicular directions

(C) Direct tensile stress in two mutually perpendicular directions accompanied by a simple shear stress

(D) All of the above

Answer: D

309. A steel bar 2 m long, 20 mm wide and 10 mm thick is subjected to a pull of 2 kN. If the same bar is subjected
to a push of 2 kN, the Poisson‘s ratio of the bar in tension will be __________ the Poisson‘s ratio for the bar in
compression.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

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(C) Greater than

(D) None of these

Answer: A

310. The assumption, generally, made in the theory of simple bending is that

(A) The beam material is perfectly homogeneous and isotropic

(B) The beam material is stressed within its elastic limit

(C) The plane sections before bending remain plane after bending

(D) All of the above

Answer: D

311. When a body is subjected to two equal and opposite pulls, as a result of which the body tends to extend its
length, the stress and strain induced is

(A) Compressive stress, tensile strain

(B) Tensile stress, compressive strain

(C) Tensile stress, tensile strain

(D) Compressive stress, compressive strain

Answer: C

312. The thermal stress in a bar is __________ proportional to the change in temperature.

(A) Directly

(B) Indirectly

(C) Both A and B

(D) None of these

Answer: A

313. A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress of 300 MPa in one plane accompanied by a simple shear stress of
200 MPa. The minimum normal stress will be

(A) -100 MPa

(B) 250 MPa

(C) 300 MPa

(D) 400 MPa

Answer: A

Page 239 of 592

314. For the beam shown in the below figure, the shear force at A is equal to

(A) wl/6

(B) wl/3

(C) wl

(D) 2wl/3

Answer: B

315. The maximum shear stress developed in a beam of circular section is __________ the average shear stress.

(A) Equal to

(B) 4/3 times

(C) 1.5 times

(D) Twice

Answer: B

316. The bending moment of a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per unit
length is __________ at the free end.

(A) Zero

(B) wl/4

(C) wl/2

(D) wl

Answer: A

317. For a shaft, the shear stress at a point is __________ the distance from the axis of the shaft.

(A) Equal to

(B) Directly proportional to

(C) Inversely proportional to

(D) None of these

Answer: B

318. The bending moment diagram for a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load of ‗w‘ per
unit length, will be

(A) A horizontal line

(B) A vertical line

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(C) An inclined line

(D) A parabolic curve

Answer: D

319. When one plate overlaps the other and the two plates are riveted together with two rows of rivets, the joint is
known as

(A) Single riveted lap joint

(B) Double riveted lap joint

(C) Double riveted single cover butt joint

(D) Double riveted double cover butt joint

Answer: B

320. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (ζ) in one plane, the maximum shear stress is __________
the maximum normal stress.

(A) Equal to

(B) One-half

(C) Two-third

(D) Twice

Answer: B

321. The ductility of a material __________ with the increase in percentage reduction in area of a specimen under
tensile test.

(A) Increases

(B) Decreases

(C) Remains same

(D) None of these

Answer: A

322. Rivets are generally specified by

(A) Thickness of plates to be joined

(B) Overall length

(C) Shank diameter

(D) Diameter of head

Page 241 of 592

Answer: C

323. The simply supported beam ‗A‘ of length ‗l‘ carries a central point load ‗W‘. Another beam ‗B‘ is loaded with
a uniformly distributed load such that the total load on the beam is ‗W‘. The ratio of maximum deflections between
beams ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ is

(A) 5/8

(B) 8/5

(C) 5/4

(D) 4/5

Answer: B

324. The rectangular beam ‗A‘ has length ‗l‘, width ‗b‘ and depth ‗d‘. Another beam ‗B‘ has the same length and
depth but width is double that of ‗A‘. The elastic strength of beam ‗B‘ will be _________ as compared to beam ‗A‘.

(A) Same

(B) Double

(C) Four times

(D) Six times

Answer: B

325. The bending moment in the center of a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per
unit length is

(A) Zero

(B) wl²/2

(C) wl²/4

(D) wl²/8

Answer: D

326. The polar modulus for a solid shaft of diameter (D) is

(A) πD²/4

(B) πD³/16

(C) πD³/32

(D) πD⁴/64

Answer: B

327. The slenderness ratio is the ratio of

Page 242 of 592

(A) Area of column to least radius of gyration

(B) Length of column to least radius of gyration

(C) Least radius of gyration to area of column

(D) Least radius of gyration to length of column

Answer: B

328. A simply supported beam ‗A‘ of length ‗l‘, breadth ‗b‘ and depth ‗d‘ carries a central load ‗W‘. Another beam
‗B‘ of the same dimensions carries a central load equal to 2W. The deflection of beam ‗B‘ will be __________ as
that of beam ‗A‘.

(A) One-fourth

(B) One-half

(C) Double

(D) Four times

Answer: C

329. When a bar of length ‗l‘ and diameter ‗d‘ is rigidly fixed at the upper end and hanging freely, then the total
elongation produced in the bar due to its own weight is (where w = Weight per unit volume of the bar)

(A) wl/2E

(B) wl²/2E

(C) wl³/2E

(D) wl⁴/2E

Answer: B

330. In a riveted joint, when the rivets in the various rows are opposite to each other, the joint is said to be

(A) Chain riveted

(B) Zig-zag riveted

(C) Diamond riveted

(D) None of these

Answer: A

331. When a rectangular bar of length l, breadth b and thickness t is subjected to an axial pull of P, then linear strain
(ε) is given by (where E = Modulus of elasticity)

(A) ε = P/b.t.E

(B) ε = b.t.E/P

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(C) ε = b.t/P.E

(D) ε = P.E/b.t

Answer: A

332. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) The size of hole drilled in riveting plates is less than the actual size of rivet.

(B) The center to center distance between two consecutive rivets in a row is called margin.

(C) Rivets are generally specified by its shank diameter.

(D) Tearing of plates can be avoided by taking the pitch of rivets equal to 1.5 times the diameter of rivet hole.

Answer: C

333. A beam of triangular section is placed with its base horizontal. The maximum shear stress occurs at

(A) Apex of the triangle

(B) Mid of the height

(C) Center of gravity of the triangle

(D) Base of the triangle

Answer: B

334. The Young‘s modulus of a material is 125 GPa and Poisson‘s ratio is 0.25. The modulus of rigidity of me
material is

(A) 30 GPa

(B) 50 GPa

(C) 80 GPa

(D) 100 GPa

Answer: B

335. In the above question, the normal stress on an oblique section will be maximum, when θ is equal to

(A) 0°

(B) 30°

(C) 45°

(D) 90°

Answer: A

Page 244 of 592

336. In a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load w per unit length, the point of contraflexure

(A) Lies in the center of the beam

(B) Lies at the ends of the beam

(C) Depends upon the length of beam

(D) Does not exist

Answer: D

337. In case of eccentrically loaded struts __________ is preferred.

(A) Solid section

(B) Hollow section

(C) Composite section

(D) Reinforced section

Answer: C

338. In a thin cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure p, the ratio of longitudinal stress to the hoop stress is

(A) 1/2

(B) 3/4

(C) 1

(D) 1.5

Answer: A

339. The unit of modulus of elasticity is same as those of

(A) Stress, strain and pressure

(B) Stress, force and modulus of rigidity

(C) Strain, force and pressure

(D) Stress, pressure and modulus of rigidity

Answer: D

340. The stress at which the extension of the material takes place more quickly as compared to the increase in load,
is called

(A) Elastic limit

(B) Yield point

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(C) Ultimate point

(D) Breaking point

Answer: B

341. Two bars of different materials and same size are subjected to the same tensile force. If the bars have unit
elongation in the ratio of 2:5, then the ratio of modulus of elasticity of the two materials will be

(A) 2 : 5

(B) 5 : 2

(C) 4 : 3

(D) 3 : 4

Answer: B

342. In a thick cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure (p), the maximum radial stress at the inner surface
of the shell is

(A) Zero

(B) p (tensile)

(C) -p (compressive)

(D) 2p (tensile)

343. When a body is subjected to direct tensile stresses (ζx and ζy) in two mutually perpendicular directions,
accompanied by a simple shear stress ηxy, then in Mohr‘s circle method, the circle radius is taken as

(A) [(ζx – ζy)/2] + η

(B) [(ζx + ζy)/2] + η

(C) (1/2) × √[(ζx – ζy)² + 4η²xy]

(D) (1/2) × √[(ζx + ζy)² + 4η²xy]

Answer: C

344. A section of beam is said to be in pure bending, if it is subjected to

(A) Constant bending moment and constant shear force

(B) Constant shear force and zero bending moment

(C) Constant bending moment and zero shear force

(D) None of the above

Answer: C

Page 246 of 592

345. Modular ratio of the two materials is the ratio of

(A) Linear stress to linear strain

(B) Shear stress to shear strain

(C) Their modulus of elasticities

(D) Their modulus of rigidities

Answer: C

346. The relation between modulus of elasticity (E) and modulus of rigidity (C) is given by

(A) C = m.E/2 (m + 1)

(B) C = 2(m + 1)/m.E

(C) C = 2m.E/(m + 1)

(D) C = (m + 1)/2m.E

Answer: A

347. The Rankine‘s constant for a mild steel column with both ends hinged is

(A) 1/750

(B) 1/1600

(C) 1/7500

(D) 1/9000

Answer: C

348. In a watch, the spring is used to store strain energy. This energy is released

(A) To stop the watch

(B) To run the watch

(C) To change the time

(D) All of these

Answer: B

349. When a column is subjected to an eccentric load, the stress induced in the column will be

(A) Direct stress only

(B) Bending stress only

(C) Shear stress only

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(D) Direct and bending stress both

Answer: D

350. Two shafts ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ are made of same material. The shaft ‗A‘ is solid and has diameter D. The shaft ‗B‘ is
hollow with outer diameter D and inner diameter D/2. The strength of hollow shaft in torsion is _________ as that of
solid shaft.

(A) 1/16

(B) 1/8

(C) 1/4

(D) 15/16

Answer: D

351. A thick cylindrical shell having r₀ and ri as outer and inner radii, is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The
maximum tangential stress at the inner surface of the shell is

(A) [p (r₀² + ri²)] / (r₀² – ri²)

(B) [p (r₀² – ri²)] / (r₀² + ri²)

(C) 2pri²/ (r₀² – ri²)

(D) (r₀² – ri²) / 2pri²

Answer: A

352. A beam of uniform strength has

(A) Same cross-section throughout the beam

(B) Same bending stress at every section

(C) Same bending moment at every section

(D) Same shear stress at every section

Answer: B

353. When a circular bar tapering uniformly from diameter d₁, at one end to diameter d₂ at the other end, is subjected
to an increase in temperature (t), then the thermal stress induced is (where α = Coefficient of linear expansion, and E
= Modulus of elasticity for the bar material)

(A) α.t.E.d₁/d₂

(B) α.t.d₁/E.d₂

(C) α.t.d₂/d₁.E

(D) d₁.t/ α.E.d₂

Page 248 of 592

Answer: A

354. A shaft of diameter D is subjected to a twisting moment (T) and a bending moment (M). If the maximum
bending stress is equal to maximum shear stress developed, then M is equal to

(A) T/2

(B) T

(C) 2T

(D) 4T

Answer: A

355. The maximum deflection of a fixed beam of length ‗l‘ carrying a total load ‗W‘ uniformly distributed over the
whole length is

(A) Wl3/48EI

(B) Wl3/96EI

(C) Wl3/192EI

(D) Wl3/384EI

Answer: D

356. Factor of safety is defined as the ratio of

(A) Ultimate stress to working stress

(B) Working stress to ultimate stress

(C) Breaking stress to ultimate stress

(D) Ultimate stress to breaking stress

Answer: A

357. A pressure vessel is said to be a thin shell when the ratio of wall thickness of the vessel to its diameter is
__________ 1/10.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(C) Greater than

(D) None of these

Answer: B

358. The unit of stress in S.I. units is

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(A) N/mm²

(B) kN/mm²

(C) N/m²

(D) Any one of these

Answer: D

359. . A rod is enclosed centrally in a tube and the assembly is tightened by rigid washers. If the assembly is
subjected to a compressive load, then

(A) Rod is under compression

(B) Tube is under compression

(C) Both rod and tube are under compression

(D) Tube is under tension and rod is under compression

Answer: C

360. The load required to produce a unit deflection in a spring is called

(A) Flexural rigidity

(B) Torsional rigidity

(C) Spring stiffness

(D) Young‘s modulus

Answer: C

361. The bending moment at a section tends to bend or deflect the beam and the internal stresses resist its bending.
The resistance offered by the internal stresses, to the bending, is called

(A) Compressive stress

(B) Shear stress

(C) Bending stress

(D) Elastic modulus

Answer: C

362. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d), length (l) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The
hoop stress in the shell is

(A) pd/t

(B) pd/2t

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(C) pd/4t

(D) pd/6t

Answer: B

363. Fatigue test is carried out for

(A) Stresses varying between two limits of equal value, but of opposite sign

(B) Stresses varying between two limits of unequal value, but of opposite sign

(C) Stresses varying between two limits of unequal value but of same sign

(D) All of the above

Answer: D

364. The neutral axis of a beam is subjected to __________ stress.

(A) Zero

(B) Maximum tensile

(C) Minimum tensile

(D) Maximum compressive

Answer: A

365. Two beams, one of circular cross-section and the other of square cross-section, have equal areas of cross-
sections. When these beams are subjected to bending,

(A) Both beams are equally economical

(B) Square beam is more economical

(C) Circular beam is more economical

(D) None of these

Answer: B

366. A body is subjected to two normal stresses 20 kN/m² (tensile) and 10 kN/m² (compressive) acting
perpendicular to each other. The maximum shear stress is

(A) 5 kN/m²

(B) 10 kN/m²

(C) 15 kN/m²

(D) 20 kN/m²

Answer: C

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367. The thermal or temperature stress is a function of

(A) Increase in temperature

(B) Modulus of elasticity

(C) Coefficient of linear expansion

(D) All of these

Answer: D

368. For long columns, the value of buckling load is __________ crushing load.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(C) More than

(D) None of these

Answer: B

369. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (ζ) in one plane, then tangential or shear stress on an oblique
section of the body inclined at an angle ‗θ‘ to the normal of the section is

(A) ζ sin 2θ

(B) ζ cos 2θ

(C) ζ/2 sin 2θ

(D) ζ/2 cos 2θ

Answer: C

370. Whenever some external system of forces acts on a body, it undergoes some deformation. As the body
undergoes some deformation, it sets up some resistance to the deformation. This resistance per unit area to
deformation, is called

(A) Strain

(B) Stress

(C) Pressure

(D) Modulus of elasticity

Answer: B

371. According to Euler‘s column theory, the crippling load for a column of length (l) with one end fixed and the
other end hinged, is

(A) π²EI/l²

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(B) π²EI/4l²

(C) 2π²EI/l²

(D) 4π²EI/l²

Answer: C

372. When there is a sudden increase or decrease in shear force diagram between any two points, it indicates that
there is a

(A) Point load at the two points

(B) No loading between the two points

(C) Uniformly distributed load between the two points

(D) Uniformly varying load between the two points

Answer: A

373. According to Euler‘s column theory, the crippling load for a column of length (l) fixed at both ends is
__________ the crippling load for a similar column hinged at both ends.

(A) Equal to

(B) Two times

(C) Four times

(D) Eight times

Answer: C

374. A load which is spread over a beam in such a manner that it varies uniformly over the whole length of abeam is
called uniformly ________ load.

(A) Distributed

(B) Varying

(C) Both A and B

(D) None of these

Answer: B

375. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) A continuous beam has only two supports at the ends.

(B) A uniformly distributed load spreads uniformly over the whole length of a beam.

(C) The bending moment is maximum where shear force is maximum.

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(D) The maximum bending moment of a simply supported beam of length l with a central point load W is Wl/8.

Answer: B

376. The shear force in the center of a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load of ‗w‘ per unit
length, is

(A) Zero

(B) wl²/2

(C) wl²/4

(D) wl²/8

Answer: A

377. Every direct stress is always accompanied by a strain in its own direction and an opposite kind of strain in
every direction, at right angles to it. Such a strain is known as

(A) Linear strain

(B) Lateral strain

(C) Volumetric strain

(D) Shear strain

Answer: B

378. A beam extending beyond the supports is called

(A) Simply supported beam

(B) Fixed beam

(C) Overhanging beam

(D) Cantilever beam

Answer: C

379. The shear force and bending moment are zero at the free end of a cantilever beam, if it carries a

(A) Point load at the free end

(B) Point load at the middle of its length

(C) Uniformly distributed load over the whole length

(D) None of the above

Answer: C

380. Compression members always tend to buckle in the direction of the

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(A) Axis of load

(B) Perpendicular to the axis of load

(C) Minimum cross section

(D) Least radius of gyration

Answer: D

381. In order to avoid tearing off the plate at an edge, the distance from the center of the rivet hole to the nearest
edge of the plate (i.e. margin) should be (where d = Diameter of rivet hole in mm)

(A) d

(B) 1.5 d

(C) 2 d

(D) 2.5 d

Answer: B

382. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d) length (l) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The
longitudinal stress in the shell is

(A) pd/t

(B) pd/2t

(C) pd/4t

(D) pd/6t

Answer: C

383. The maximum shear stress developed in a beam of rectangular section is __________ the average shear stress.

(A) Equal to

(B) 4/3 times

(C) 1.5 times

(D) Twice

Answer: C

384. The distance between the center of a rivet hole to the nearest edge of plate, is called

(A) Margin

(B) Pitch

(C) Back pitch

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(D) Diagonal pitch

Answer: A

385. When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum tensile stress is developed on the

(A) Top layer

(B) Bottom layer

(C) Neutral axis

(D) Every cross-section

Answer: A

386. The strain energy stored in a body, when suddenly loaded, is __________ the strain energy stored when same
load is applied gradually.

(A) Equal to

(B) One-half

(C) Twice

(D) Four times

Answer: D

387. The load at which the column just buckles, is known as

(A) Buckling load

(B) Critical load

(C) Crippling load

(D) Any one of these

Answer: D

388. The steel bars in a reinforced cement concrete beam are embedded __________ of the beam.

(A) In the center

(B) Near the bottom

(C) Near the top

(D) At any position

Answer: B

389. A reinforced cement concrete beam is considered to be made of

Page 256 of 592

(A) Homogeneous material

(B) Heterogeneous material

(C) Composite material

(D) Isotropic material

Answer: B

390. Principle plane is a plane on which the shear stress is

(A) Zero

(B) Minimum

(C) Maximum

(D) None of these

Answer: A

391. The polar moment of inertia of a hollow shaft of outer diameter (D) and inner diameter (d) is

(A) π/16 (D³ – d³)

(B) π/16 (D⁴ – d⁴)

(C) π/32 (D⁴ – d⁴)

(D) π/64 (D⁴ – d⁴)

Answer: C

392. The springs in brakes and clutches are used to

(A) To apply forces

(B) To measure forces

(C) To store strain energy

(D) To absorb shocks

Answer: A

393. A beam encastered at both the ends is called

(A) Simply supported beam

(B) Fixed beam

(C) Cantilever beam

(D) Continuous beam

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Answer: B

394. A spring used to absorb shocks and vibrations is

(A) Conical spring

(B) Torsion spring

(C) Leaf spring

(D) Disc spring

Answer: C

395. The bending moment at the free end of a cantilever beam is

(A) Zero

(B) Minimum

(C) Maximum

(D) None of these

Answer: A

396. The hoop stress in a thin cylindrical shell is

(A) Longitudinal stress

(B) Compressive stress

(C) Radial stress

(D) Circumferential tensile stress

Answer: D

397. In a stress-strain diagram as shown in the below figure, the curve ‗A‘ represents

(A) Mild steel

(B) Soft brass

(C) Low carbon steel

(D) Cold rolled steel

Answer: B

398. The ratio of bulk modulus to Young‘s modulus for a Poisson‘s ratio of 0.25 will be

(A) 1/3

(B) 2/3

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(C) 1

(D) 3/2

Answer: B

399. The ratio of shear modulus to the modulus of elasticity for a Poisson‘s ratio of 0.4 will be

(A) 5/7

(B) 7/5

(C) 5/14

(D) 14/5

Answer: C

400. A column of length (l) with both ends fixed may be considered as equivalent to a column of length __________
with one end fixed and the other end free.

(A) l/8

(B) l/4

(C) l/2

(D) l

Answer: B

401. The pull required to shear off a rivet, in double shear, per pitch length is

(A) π/4 × d² × ζt

(B) π/4 × d² × η

(C) π/2 × d² × ζt

(D) π/2 × d² × η

Answer: D

402. The bending stress in abeam is __________ bending moment.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(C) More than

(D) Directly proportional to

Answer: D

Page 259 of 592

403. When a change in length takes place, the strain is known as

(A) Linear strain

(B) Lateral strain

(C) Volumetric strain

(D) Shear strain

Answer: A

404. The volumetric strain is the ratio of the

(A) Original thickness to the change in thickness

(B) Change in thickness to the original thickness

(C) Original volume to the change in volume

(D) Change in volume to the original volume

Answer: D

405. A welded joint as compared to a riveted joint has __________ strength.

(A) Same

(B) Less

(C) More

(D) None of these

Answer: C

406. In a beam subjected to pure bending, the intensity of stress in any fibre is _________ the distance of the fibre
from the neutral axis.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(C) More than

(D) Directly proportional to

Answer: D

407. The relation between Young‘s modulus (E) and bulk modulus (K) is given by

(A) k = (3m – 2)/m.E

(B) k = m.E/(3m – 2)

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(C) k = 3(m – 2)/m.E

(D) k = m.E/3(m – 2)

Answer: D

408. The shear force of a cantilever beam of length l carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per unit length is
__________ at the fixed end.

(A) Zero

(B) wl/4

(C) wl/2

(D) wl

Answer: D

409. The strength of the shaft is judged by the_____________.

(A) Torque transmitted by the shaft

(B) Length of the shaft

(C) Dia. of the shaft

(D) None of these

Answer: A

410. A simply supported beam ‗A‘ of length l, breadth b, and depth d carries a central point load W. Another beam
‗B‘ has the same length and depth but its breadth is doubled. The deflection of beam ‗B‘ will be __________ as
compared to beam ‗A‘.

(A) One-fourth

(B) One-half

(C) Double

(D) Four times

Answer: B

411. In a simple bending theory, one of the assumptions is that the material of the beam is isotropic. This assumption
means that the

(A) Normal stress remains constant in all directions

(B) Normal stress varies linearly in the material

(C) Elastic constants are same in all the directions

(D) Elastic constants varies linearly in the material

Page 261 of 592

Answer: C

412. The maximum deflection of a fixed beam carrying a central point load lies at

(A) Fixed ends

(B) Center of beam

(C) l/3 from fixed ends

(D) None of these

Answer: B

413. The shear stress at the center of a circular shaft under torsion is

(A) Zero

(B) Minimum

(C) Maximum

(D) Infinity

Answer: A

414. A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress of 300 MPa in one plane accompanied by a simple shear stress of
200 MPa. The maximum normal stress will be

(A) -100 MPa

(B) 250 MPa

(C) 300 MPa

(D) 400 MPa

Answer: D

415. When a closely-coiled helical spring is subjected to an axial load, it is said to be under

(A) Bending

(B) Shear

(C) Torsion

(D) Crushing

Answer: C

416. In a beam where shear force changes sign, the bending moment will be

(A) Zero

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(B) Minimum

(C) Maximum

(D) Infinity

Answer: C

417. The strength of the unriveted or solid plate per pitch length is

(A) d.t.ζc

(B) p.t.ζt

(C) (p – d) t.ζt

(D) π/2 × d² × η

Answer: B

418. The tensile test is carried on __________ materials.

(A) Ductile

(B) Brittle

(C) Malleable

(D) Plastic

Answer: A

419. The bending moment diagram for a simply supported beam loaded in its center is

(A) A right angled triangle

(B) An isosceles triangle

(C) An equilateral triangle

(D) A rectangle

Answer: B

420. A bar of length ‗L‘ meters extends by ‗l‘ mm under a tensile force of ‗P‘. The strain produced in the bar is

(A) l/L

(B) 0.1 l/L

(C) 0.01 l/L

(D) 0.001 l/L

Answer: D

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421. A closely coiled helical spring is of mean diameter (D) and spring wire diameter (d). The spring index is the
ratio of

(A) 1/d

(B) 1/D

(C) D/d

(D) d/D

Answer: C

422. The compression test is carried on __________ materials.

(A) Ductile

(B) Brittle

(C) Malleable

(D) Plastic

Answer: B

423. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 50%, then ratio of rivet hole diameter to the pitch of rivets is

(A) 0.20

(B) 0.30

(C) 0.50

(D) 0.60

Answer: C

424. The breaking stress is __________ the ultimate stress.

(A) Equal to

(B) Less than

(C) Greater than

(D) None of these

Answer: B

425. The section modulus (Z) of a beam is given by

(A) I/y

(B) I.y

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(C) y/I

(D) M/I

Answer: A

426. The Rankine‘s formula holds good for

(A) Short columns

(B) Long columns

(C) Both short and long columns

(D) Weak columns

Answer: C

427. When two main plates are kept in alignment butting each other and riveted with cover plate on both sides of the
main plates with two rows of rivets in each main plate, the joint is known as ________ double cover butt joint.

(A) Single riveted

(B) Double riveted

(C) Multi riveted

(D) None of these

Answer: B

428. When a shaft is subjected to a twisting moment, every cross-section of the shaft will be under

(A) Tensile stress

(B) Compressive stress

(C) Shear stress

(D) Bending stress

Answer: C

429. The maximum bending moment of a simply supported beam of span l and carrying a point load W at the center
of beam, is

(A) Wl/4

(B) Wl/2

(C) Wl

(D) Wl²/4

Answer: A

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430. A tensile test is performed on a mild steel round bar. Its diameter after fracture will

(A) Remain same

(B) Increase

(C) Decrease

(D) Depend upon rate of loading

Answer: C

431. Transverse fillet welds are designed for

(A) Tensile strength

(B) Compressive strength

(C) Shear strength

(D) Bending strength

Answer: A

432. The product of the tangential force acting on the shaft and its distance from the axis of the shaft (i.e. radius of
shaft) is known as

(A) Bending moment

(B) Twisting moment

(C) Torsional rigidity

(D) Flexural rigidity

Answer: B

433. The unit of strain is

(A) N-mm

(B) N/mm

(C) mm

(D) No unit

Answer: D

434. In spring balances, the spring is used

(A) To apply forces

(B) To measure forces

Page 266 of 592

(C) To absorb shocks

(D) To store strain energy

Answer: B

435. A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of 600 MPa on a
plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of 400 MPa on the same planes. The
maximum shear stress will be

(A) 400 MPa

(B) 500 MPa

(C) 900 MPa

(D) 1400 MPa

Answer: B

Objective question of Diesel trade theory MDT-03

1. What is the full form of IC Engine?

a) Internal combustion b) inside combustion c) integrated combustion d) none

2. In a Diesel locomotive which type of engine is used

a) Compression ignition b) spark ignition c) forced ignition d) none

3. In how many revolution of crack shaft there is one power stroke in four stroke engine

a) Two b) three c) four d) none

4. In how many revolution of crack shaft there is one power stroke in Two stroke engine

a) Two b) one c) four d) none

5. In entry of fresh air inside the closed chamber of engine is called

a) Suction b) compression c) ignition d) exhaust

6. In travel of piston from BDC to TDC of engine is called

a) Suction b) compression c) ignition d) exhaust

7. In travel of piston from TDC to BDC of engine is called

a) Suction b) compression c) ignition d) exhaust

8. The diagram which shows the movement of valves relative to movement of crank shaft is called

a) Valve timing diagram b) power diagram c) diesel cycle d) none

Page 267 of 592

9. The diagram which shows the movement of valves relative to movement of crank shaft is called

a) Valve timing diagram b) power diagram c) diesel cycle d) none

10. The power assemblies used in Alco locomotives are working as

a) Two stroke b) four stroke c) external ignition d) none

11. The power assemblies used in EMD locomotives are working as

a) Two stroke b) four stroke c) external ignition d) none

12. The entry of fresh air inside the compression chamber for a slight duration when both the valves are open is
called

a) Scavenging action b) clean up c) cooling cycle d) thermal off load

13. What is the firing order of for engine on Alco locomotives

a) 1-4-7-6-8-5-2-3 b) 1-4-8-5-2-3-7-6 c) 1-4-2-3-7-6-8-5 d) 1-2-3-4-5-6-7-8

14. What is the value of bore in Alco locomotives

a) 9 inch b) 12 inch c) 9.5 inch d) 14 inch

15. What is the idle rpm of engine in Alco locomotives

a) 405 b)505 c)700 d)400

16. What is the app. Swept volume per cylinder in Alco locomotives

a) 12 liters b) 9 liters c) 10.5 liters d) none

17. The diesel engine used in Alco locomotives is having which shape

a) W shape b) ―I‖ shape c) ―V‖ shape d) none

18. The engine base of Alco locomotive don‘t serve which purpose

a) Support engine block b) serves as oil pump c) accommodate lube oil header

d) holds the generator

19. The engine block is made up of which metal

a) Cast iron b) Aluminium alloy c) Low carbon steel d) Mild steel

20. Which process comes first in manufacturing of engine block

a) Welding b) shot blasting c) milling of bores d) machining

21. The maximum possible misalignment permitted in main bearing housing bore between Two adjacent bores is

a) 0.002‖ b) 0.003‖ c) 0.004‖ d) none

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22. The maximum possible misalignment permitted in main bearing housing bore between any Two bores is

a) 0.002‖ b) 0.003‖ c) 0.004‖ d) none

23. During POH the hydraulic test of engine block is carried out at which pressure

a) 3.5 kg/cm2 b)2.5 kg/cm2 c)1.5 kg/cm2 d) none

24. The singular costliest part of the diesel engine is

a) base b) crank shaft c) Cylinder head d) cam shafts

25. The crank shaft of Alco locomotives are made up of which metal

a) chrome-molybdenum steel b) high carbon steel c) nickel steel d) none

26. What is the nominal diameter of the crank pin

a) 6 inch b) 9 inch c) 5 inch d) none

27. One of the process which is used for surface hardening of crankshaft is

a) nitriding b) dynamic balancing c)stress releving d) none

28. During POH inspection of crank shaft the eccentricity is checked between how many numbers of main journals

a) Three b) four c) Two d) none

29. During crank shaft web deflection check the maximum limit of total indicator reading is

a) 0.0016 inch b) 0.0008 inch c) 0.0010 inch d)0.0020 inch

30. In a diesel engine the vital role of cam shaft is

a) Opening and closing of valves b) rotate auxiliary assemblies

c) drive the OSTA d) none

31. The lubrication of the cam shaft is provided by means of

a) rifle hole in the centre b)external jumper pipe c) felt wick d) none

32. The value of tappet clearance for Alco locomotive is

a) 0.034 inch b) 0.044 inch c) 0.024 inch d) none

33. How many studs are provided for fitment of Cylinder heads in Alco locomotives

a) 7 b) 8 c)5 d) none

34. Which part is used as replaceable wearing part in Cylinder head assembly

a) valve seat insert b) valve stem c) valve spring d) none

35. The cylinder head casting are made up of

Page 269 of 592

a) alloy cast iron b) Aluminum alloy c) high speed steel d) none

36. During yearly inspection the hydraulic test of cylinder heads is carried out a pressure of

a) 70 psi b) 60 psi c) 90 psi d) none

37. The blow by test for cylinder head is carried out to test

a) Thermal stress b) sealing effect c) cooling effect d) none

38. During blow by test if leakage appears through TSC which assembly may be defective

a) cylinder head b) liner c) exhaust manifold d) none

39. During blow by test if leakage appears through sump which assembly may be defective

a) cylinder head b) liner c) exhaust manifold d) none

40. The liners in which liner does not come direct contact with the coolant are also known as

a) dry liner b) wet liner c) distant liner d) none

41. The liners in which liner remains in direct contact with the coolant are also known as

a) dry liner b) wet liner c) distant liner d) none

42. In Alco locomotives liners are made up of

a) alloy cast iron b) Stainless steel c) aluminum alloy d) none

43. Which one of these is not a major defect of liners during service

a) wear in bore b) loss of interference c) cavitations erosion d) stress

44. Which one is a reason for not using cast iron as piston material

a) better heat conductivity than aluminum

b) More compressive strength than aluminum

c) Heavier in weight

d) coefficient of expansion nearly equal to that of liner

45. The joint between ring carrier and piston is welded at the crown by which method

a) arc welding b) TIG welding c) Inert gas welding d) none

46. Which one of these is not a function of piston ring

a) sealing of combustion chamber

b) scraping down of excess lube oil

c) prevention of lube oil entry into combustion chamber

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d) polishing of liner inner surface

47. Which one of these is not a part of conventional piston rings set used in Alco locomotives

a) Barrel shaped b) taper ring c) square shaped d) oil scraper

48. Which one of these is not an advantage of fuel efficient rings set

a) reduction of piston ring wear

b) reduction of lube oil consumption

c) reduction of fuel oil consumption

d) reduction of flash point

49. In Alco locomotives piston and crankshaft are connected through means of

a) Connecting rod b) lash adjuster c) cross head d) none

50. The reciprocating motion of piston is converted into rotating motion of crank shaft by which part of the engine

a) connecting rod b) cam shaft c) lifter assembly d) none

51. Which one of the below is not a part of connecting rod assembly

a) connecting rod b)piston pin bushing c) bearing shell d) piston

52. Which one of above is not checked during assembly of piston ring

a) proper sequence b) ring gap c)side clearance d)twist

53. Which one of below is not a non destructive testing

a) magna flux test b) zyglo test c) nick break test d) ultra sonic testing

54. Which test is done for examination of segregation and oxidation of non ferrous materials

a) RDP test b) UTS test c) Nick break test d) izod charpy test

55. The portion of engine block which houses the crank shaft is called

a) saddle b) base c) sump d) none

56. What is a mandrel

a) straight iron bar

b) fixture for dial gauge

c) enlongation gauge

d) none

57. Which one is not an example of plain bearing

Page 271 of 592

a) main bearing

b) connecting rod bearing

c) TSC bearing

d) governor linkage bearing

58. Which one is the correct order of layers in trimetal bearing

a) steel back-intermediate-nickel dam-overlay

b) steel back-nickel dam -intermediate-overlay

c) steel back-overlay-intermediate-nickel dam

d) nickel dam-steel back-intermediate- overlay

59. Which one of the above is not correct for prevention of bearing failure

a) Maintain clean working environment

b) Not rubbing the polished surface

c) clean and free oil passage

d) annealing before fitment

60. Which one of above is not a type of bearing failure/defect

a) split line fretting

b) creep/back fretting

c) static fretting

d) electromagnetic fretting

61. Which one of above is not a purpose of providing fuel oil system in Alco locomotive

a) to ensure correct amount of fuel delivery

b) to ensure correct form of fuel delivery

c) to ensure correct time of fuel delivery

d) to maintain ratio of fuel to lube oil

62. What is purpose of providing a relief valve at outlet of fuel oil pump

a) to prevent fuel pump motor from overloading

b) to maintain fuel oil pressure in the system

c) to boost up the outlet fuel pressure

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d) none

63. What is the pressure setting of fuel oil relief valves in Alco locomotives

a) 5.2 Kg/cm2 b) 4 Kg/cm2 c) 6.5 Kg/cm2 d) none of above

64. What is the purpose of providing a regulating valve in fuel oil system

a) to maintain pressure in the system

b) to provide bypass passage to fuel

c) to remove dirt etc

d) none of the above

65. What is the pressure setting of fuel oil regulating valves in Alco locomotives

a) 3.5 Kg/cm2 b) 3 Kg/cm2 c) 4.0 Kg/cm2 d) none

66. What is the media used inside the filter assembly for filteration of fuel

a) cotton b) glass wool c) paper d) wire mesh

67. At which location copper washers are used in fuel oil system of Alco locomotives

a) between FIP and injector

b) between banjo pipe and FIP

c) between Injector and HP tube

d) none of above

68. A snubber valve is provided at outlet of fuel injection pump to prevent

a) back flow of fuel oil

b) reduce outlet oil pressure

c) to reduce vibrations

d) none of the above

69. The full form of HP tube is

a) High power tube

b) Hollow passage tube

c) High potential tube

d) high pressure tube

70. The orifice test is carried out for which purpose

Page 273 of 592

a) to ascertain the efficiency of fuel feed system

b) to check fuel oil consumption for a particular period

c) to check fuel pressure drop at load

d) none of the above

71. The features of a good injector nozzle don‘t contains

a) good atomization

b) correct spray pattern

c) no dribbling

d) no hunting

72. Which one is not a probable cause of nozzle dribbling

a) improper pressure setting

b) dirt stuck between valve and valve seat

c) valve sticking inside the body

d) excess fuel pressure

73. What is nozzle chattering

a) cracking sound due to free movement of valve inside body

b) abnormal sound due to improper sprat pattern

c) sound due to turbulent flow of fuel inside nozzle

d) none of the above

74. Which one of the above is not a part of fuel efficient kit for Alco locomotives

a) 17 mm FIP

b) modified cam shaft

c) large after cooler

d) e-beam power cables

75. The value of fuel oil pressure at full load will change as compared to at idle value

a) increase b) decrease c) remain same d) any of above

76. Which one in nor an advantage of supercharged engine

a) more power with same engine dimension

Page 274 of 592

b) carbon free components

c) better cooling of components

d) better adhesion ratio

77. Which is not a method of supercharging

a) by means of roots blower

b) by using reciprocating compressor

c) by blower driven by exhaust gases

d) by inertial filters

78. The inlet casing of turbo chargers which is made up of heat resistant material is called

a) gas inlet casing b) Suction strainer c) accumulator d) none

79. The middle portion which supports rotor assembly is called

a) gas inlet casing b) intermediate casing c) middle casing d) none

80. The portion which contains the blower assembly is known as

a) blower casing b) cool cage c) diamond box d) propeller

81. What is not a purpose of air cushioning

a) prevent mixing of hot air with lube oil

b) prevent leakage of lube oil through oil seals

c) cooling of hot turbine disc

d) to ensure free movement of rotor assembly

82. What is the purpose of after cooler in a locomotive

a) increase air density b) cooling of water c) cooling of lube oil d) none

83. Which test is carried out to ensure free running of rotor assembly of a TSC.

a) run down test b) soap test c) dynamic balancing d) back lash

84. Which one is not a purpose of providing a lube oil system in Alco locomotive

a) cooling of components

b) protection of metal surfaces

c) keep the components clean

d) proper burning of fuel oil

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85. What is the lube oil sump capacity in Alco locomotives

a)1000 ltrs b) 1270 ltrs c) 950 ltrs d) 1550 ltrs

86. How the compressor of locomotive gets drive power

a) through belt b) through shaft coupling c) through magnetic coupling

d) none of above

87. At what locations compressed air of compressor is not being used in locomotives

a) Horn blowing b) Movement of power contactors c) operation of brake system

d) booster air pressure for TSC

88. Air dryer is fitted at which location

a) between MR1 and MR2

b) between compressor and MR1

c) between HP and LP cylinder of compressors

d)none of the above

89. Air supply to horn is provided through which location

a) MR1 b) MR2 c) auxiliary reservoir d) none

90. What is an expressor

a) Combined unit of compressor and exhauster

b) Modified exhauster

b) New type of compressor

c) Device used to display parameter

91. Cylinder head‘s lower face is subjected to high shock stress and combustion temperature.

a) True b) False

92. Cylinder head‘s lower face forms a part of combustion chamber.

a) True b) False

93. Cylinder head is made by casting method.

a) True b) False

94. There are provisions for cooling passages in Cylinder head.

a) True b) False

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95. The Cylinder has passages for inlet air and exhaust gases.

a) True b) False

96. There is space provided for holding fuel injection nozzle in Cylinder head.

a) True b) False

97. Valve seat insert is fitted at lower face of cylinder head.

a) True b) False

98. The valve spring are fitted using spring lock at cylinder head.

a) True b) False

99. Valve seat insert with lock rings are replaceable wearing parts of a cylinder head.

a) True b) False

100. The valve seat insert are made up of satellite or welite.

a) True b) False

101. The valve seats are fitted using interference fit method.

a) True b) False

102. The inlet valves are ground at an angle of 300.

a) True b) False

103. After assembly cylinder head is hydraulically tested at 70 psi.

a) True b) False

104. The fitment of cylinder head is made a metal to metal joint with cylinder liner.

a) True b) False

105. The torque value of cylinder head stud is 550 foot pound.

a) True b) False

106. In 251 plus cylinder head the thickness of fire deck has been reduced for better heat transmission of heat.

a) True b) False

107. In 251 plus cylinder head the middle deck is modified by increasing number of ribs to increase mechanical
strength.

a) True b) False

108. In 251 plus cylinder head water holding paucity is increased by increasing number of cores.

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a) True b) False

109. In 251 plus cylinder head frost core plug is done instead of threaded plug, to arrest leakage.

a) True b) False

110. The 251 plus cylinder head is made lighter in weight.

a) True b) False

111. There is no provision of retaining rings for valve seat inserts in 251 plus cylinder head.

a) True b) False

112. During maintenance and inspection face seat thickness of cylinder head is checked.

a) True b) False

113. During maintenance and inspection straightness of valve stem is checked.

a) True b) False

114. During maintenance and inspection to ensure leak proof joint with liner lapping of face is done.

a) True b) False

115. Tell tale hole in cylinder head tells about the condition of cylinder head in running condition.

a) True b) False

116. Liners forms the wall of combustion chamber in engine of locomotive.

a) True b) False

117. Liners guides the movement of piston inside it.

a) True b) False

118. Liners are mainly of Two types dry liner and wet liner.

a) True b) False

119. Dry liner are those in which liner does not come in direct contact with coolant.

a) True b) False

120. Dry liners fits in as a sleeve inside an already complete cylinder.

a) True b) False

121. Dry liners are used only in very small engine.

a) True b) False

122. Wet liner are those which not only forms the cylinder wall, but also form a part of water jacket.

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a) True b) False

123. Liners are having slight interference fit on upper and lower decks of the engine.

a) True b) False

124. Lack of interference fit or defect in gasket of liner may result water contamination.

a) True b) False

125. The liner bores have chrome plated inner surface and it is honey combed by electrolytic process.

a) True b) False

126. In Alco loco liners are made of high strength close grained alloy cast iron.

a) True b) False

127. Connecting rod is a member connecting piston and crankshaft and is a medium for converting the reciprocating
motion to rotary motion.

a) True b) False

128. In four strokes engine during compression and power stroke the connecting rod is subjected to high
compressive load.

a) True b) False

129. In four stroke engine during Suction stroke the connecting rod is subjected to high tensile stress.

a) True b) False

130. Connecting rod are having fine drilled hole from big end to small end for transporting lubricating oil.

a) True b) False

131. The connecting rod assembly consists of connecting rod, connecting rod cap, piston pin bushing, bearing shells.

a) True b) False

132. During assembly the connecting rod bolts are enlongated to value of 0.015‖to 0.018‖.

a) True b) False

133. Connecting rods are mostly made up of carbon steel or alloy steel forging.

a) True b) False

134. During maintenance and inspection big end bore dia of connecting rod is checked for which max. allowed
ovality is 0.003‖.

a) True b) False

135. The max. allowed value of twist and bend for connecting rod of Alco locomotive is 0.002‖ & 0.001‖
respectively.

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a) True b) False

136. Supercharging is done is increase the power out put of engine.

a) True b) False

137. The engine which doesn‘t have provision of supercharging are called normally aspirated engine.

a) True b) False

138. The engines which have provision of supercharging are called super charged engine.

a) True b) False

139. The air pressure created by turbo supercharger is called booster air pressure.

a) True b) False

140. Cooling of turbo supercharger is done by flow of lube oil in Alco loco at present.

a) True b) False

141. The abnormal sound created by a turbo supercharger due to sudden turbulent flow of air is called surging.

a) True b) False

142. In Alco locomotive TSC is driven by exhaust gases.

a) True b) False

143. In GM locomotives TSC is driven by gear upto 6th notch and after that it is driven by exhaust gases.

a) True b) False

144. There is provision of pre priming of TSC in GM loco, which is controlled by micro processor.

a) True b) False

145. During the pre priming period of TSC in GM loco, cranking of engine is not possible.

a) True b) False

146. For pre priming a separate electrical pump is provided in GM locomotive.

a) True b) False

147. The pump provided for pre priming of TSC in GM loco is called soak back pump.

a) True b) False

148. There is a non return valve provided in the passage of soak pump to TSC of GM loco.

a) True b) False

149. Turbo run down test is carried out check efficiency of a TSC.

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a) True b) False

150. For conducting turbo run down test in Alco locomotive, engine rpm is maintained at 4th notch and then engine
is made shut down using any shut down safety device?

a) True b) False

151. For measurement of turbo run down time it considered duration at which crank shaft stopped to stopping
rotation of TSC rotor assembly.

a) True b) False

152. The combined unit of compressor and exhauster is called expressor.

a) True b) False

153. The compressed air of air compressor is used for operation of brake system in locomotives.

a) True b) False

154. There is air dryer fitted between main reservoir tank one and Two.

a) True b) False

155. The purpose of air dryer is make the compressed air moisture free.

a) True b) False

156. The compressor works in range of air pressure known as loading-unloading range.

a) True b) False

157. The loading unloading range of compressor for Alco locomotive is 8~10 Kg/cm2.

a) True b) False

158. There are provisions for Suction and discharge valves at cylinder heads of compressor.

a) True b) False

159. There function of intercooler is to cool down compressed air before entering to high pressure cylinder.

a) True b) False

160. The purpose of providing a fuel oil system in locomotive is to ensure delivery of fuel in correct form, correct
time and in correct amount.

a) True b) False

161. The full form of HSD is high speed diesel.

a) True b) False

162. The purpose of relief valve in fuel oil system is to protect fuel pump motor from overloading.

Page 281 of 592

a) True b) False

163. The purpose of regulating valve is to maintain pressure in fuel oil system.

a) True b) False

164. The pressure of fuel is raised considerably in fuel injection pump.

a) True b) False

165. The pressurized fuel from fuel injection pump goes to injector through high pressure tube.

a) True b) False

166. Fuel from fuel header is supplied to fuel injection pump through banjo pipe in Alco locomotive.

a) True b) False

167. Copper washers are used between Fuel banjo pipe and fuel injection pump for sealing purpose.

a) True b) False

168. Dribbling is defect related to fuel injector of Alco locomotives.

a) True b) False

1000+ TOP Thermodynamics MCQs and Answers Quiz Exam

Thermodynamics Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following variables controls the physical properties of a perfect gas

A. pressure

B. temperature

C. volume

D. all of the above

E. atomic mass.

Answer: D

2. Which of the following laws is applicable for the behavior of a perfect gas

A. Boyle‘s law

B. Charles‘law

C. Gay-Lussac law

D. all of the above

Page 282 of 592

E. Joule‘s law.

Answer: D

3. The unit of temperature in S.I. units is

A. Centigrade

B. Celsius

C. Fahrenheit

D. Kelvin

E. Rankine.

Answer: D

4. The unit of mass in S.I. units is

A. kilogram

B. gram

C. tonne

D. quintal

E. newton.

Answer: A

5. The unit of time in S.I. units is

A. second

B. minute

C. hour

D. day

E. year.

Answer: A

6. The unit of length in S.I. units is

A. meter

B. centimeter

C. kilometer

D. millimeter.

Page 283 of 592

Answer: A

7. The unit of energy in S.I. units is

A. watt

B. joule

C. joule/s

D. joule/m

E. joule m.

Answer: B

8. According to Gay-Lussac law for a perfect gas, the absolute pressure of given mass varies directly as

A. temperature

B. absolute

C. absolute temperature, if volume is kept constant

D. volume, if temperature is kept constant

E. remains constant,if volume and temperature are kept constant.

Answer: C

9. An ideal gas as compared to a real gas at very high pressure occupies

A. more volume

B. less volume

C. same volume

D. unpredictable behaviour

E. no such correlation.

Answer: A

10. General gas equation is

A. PV=nRT

B. PV=mRT

D. PV = C

C. PV=KiRT

E. Cp-Cv = Wj

Page 284 of 592

Answer: B

11. According to Dalton‘s law, the total pres sure of the mixture of gases is equal to

A. greater of the partial pressures of all

B. average of the partial pressures of all

C. sum of the partial pressures of all

D. sum of the partial pressures of all divided by average molecular weight

E. atmospheric pressure.

Answer: C

12. Which of the following can be regarded as gas so that gas laws could be applicable, within the commonly
encountered temperature limits.

A. 02, N2, steam, C02

B. Oz, N2, water vapour

C. S02, NH3, C02, moisture

D. 02, N2, H2, air

E. steam vapours, H2, C02.

Answer: D

13. The unit of pressure in S.I. units is

A. kg/cm2

B. mm of water column

C. pascal

D. dynes per square cm

E. bars

Answer: C

14. A closed system is one in which

A. mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so

B. mass crosses the boundary but not the energy

C. neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system

D. both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system

Page 285 of 592

E. thermodynamic reactions take place.

Answer: A

15. Temperature of a gas is produced due to

A. its heating value

B. kinetic energy of molecules

C. repulsion of molecules

D. attraction of molecules

E. surface tension of molecules.

Answer: B

16. According to kinetic theory of gases, the absolute zero temperature is attained when

A. volume of the gas is zero

B. pressure of the gas is zero

C. kinetic energy of the molecules is zero

D. specific heat of gas is zero

E. mass is zero.

Answer: C

17. Kinetic theory of gases assumes that the collisions between the molecules are

A. perfectly elastic

B. perfectly inelastic

C. partly elastic

D. partly inelastic

E. partly elastic and partly inelastic.

Answer: A

18. The pressure‘of a gas in terms of its mean kinetic energy per unit volume E is equal to

A. E/3

B. E/2

C. 3E/4

D.2E/3

Page 286 of 592

E. 5E/4.

Answer: D

19. Kinetic energy of the molecules in terms of absolute temperature (T) is proportional to

A. T

B. j

C. J2

D. Vr

E. 1/Vr.

Answer: A

20. Superheated vapour behaves

A. exactly as gas

B. as steam

C. as ordinary vapour

D. approximately as a gas

E. as average of gas and vapour.

Answer: D

21. Absolute zero pressure will occur

A. at sea level

B. at the center of the earth

C. when molecular momentum of the system becomes zero

D. under vacuum conditions

E. at a temperature of – 273 °K

Answer: C

22. No liquid can exist as liquid at

A. – 273 °K

B. vacuum

C. zero pressure

D. centre of earth

Page 287 of 592

E. in space.

Answer: C

23. The unit of power in S.I. units is

A. newton

B. pascal

C. erg

D. watt

E. joule.

Answer: D

24. The condition of perfect vacuum, i.e., absolute zero pressure can be attained at

A. a temperature of – 273.16°C

B. a temperature of 0°C

C. a temperature of 273 °K

D. a negative pressure and 0°C temperature

E. can‘t be attained.

Answer: A

25. Intensive property of a system is one whose value

A. depends on the mass of the system, like volume

B. does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature, pressure, etc.

C. is not dependent on the path followed but on the state

D. is dependent on the path followed and not on the state

E. remains constant.

Answer: B

26. Specific heat of air at constant pressure is equal to

A. 0.17

B. 0.21

C. 0.24

D. 1.0

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E. 1.41

Answer: C

27. Characteristic gas constant of a gas is equal to

A. C/Cv

B. Cv/Cp

C. Cp – Cv

D. Cp + Cv

E. Cp x Cv

Answer: C

28. The behaviour of gases can be fully determined by

A. 1 law

B. 2 laws

C. 3 laws

D. 4 laws

Answer: D

29. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to

A. 0.17

B. 0.24

C. 0.1

D. 1.41

E. 2.71.

Answer: D

30. Boyle‘s law i.e. pV = constant is applicable to gases under

A. all ranges of pressures

B. only small range of pressures

C. high range of pressures

D. steady change of pressures

E. atmospheric conditions.

Page 289 of 592

Answer: B

31. Which law states that the internal energy of a gas is a function of temperature

A. Charles‘ law

B. Joule‘s law

C. Regnault‘s law

D. Boyle‘s law

E. there is no such law.

Answer: B

32. The same volume of all gases would represent their

A. densities

B. specific weights

C. molecular weights

D. gas characteristic constants

E. specific gravities.

Answer: C

33. Which law states that the specific heat of a gas remains constant at all temperatures and pressures

A. Charles‘ Law

B. Joule‘s Law

C. Regnault‘s Law

D. Boyle‘s Law

E. there is no such law.

Answer: C

34. An open system is one in which

A. mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so

B. neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system

C. both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system

D. mass crosses the boundary but not the energy

E. thermodynamic reactions do not occur.

Page 290 of 592

Answer: C

35. According to which law, all perfect gases change in volume by l/273th of their original volume at 0°C for every
1°C change in temperature when pressure remains constant

A. Joule‘s law

B. Boyle‘s law

C. Regnault‘s law

D. Gay-Lussac law

E. Charles‘ law.

Answer: E

36. Gases have

A. only one value of specific heat

B. two values of specific heat

C. three values of specific heat

D. no value of specific heat

E. under some conditions one value and sometimes two values of specific heat.

Answer: B

37. According to Avogadro‘s Hypothesis

A. the molecular weights of all the perfect gases occupy the same volume under same conditions of pressure and
temperature

B. the sum of partial pressure of mixture of two gases is sum of the two

C. product of the gas constant and the molecular weight of an ideal gas is constant

D. gases have two values of specific heat

E. all systems can be regarded as closed systems.

Answer: A

38. Extensive property of a system is one whose value

A. depends on the mass of the system like volume

B. does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature, pressure, etc.

C. is not dependent on the path followed but on the state

D. is dependent on the path followed and not on the state

Page 291 of 592

E. is always constant.

Answer: A

39. Work done in a free expansion process is

A. + ve

B. -ve

C. zero

D. maximum

E. minimum.

Answer: C

40. The statement that molecular weights of all gases occupy the same volume is known as

A. Avogadro‘s hypothesis

B. Dalton‘s law

C. Gas law

D. Law of thermodynamics

E. Joule‘s law.

Answer: A

41. To convert volumetric analysis to gravimetric analysis, the relative volume of each constituent of the flue gases
is

A. divided by its molecular weight

B. multiplied by its molecular weight

C. multiplied by its density

D. multiplied by its specific weight

E. divided by its specific weight.

Answer: B

42. If a gas is heated against a pressure, keeping the volume constant, then work done will be equal to

A. + v

B. – ve

C. zero

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D. pressure x volume

E. any where between zero and infinity.

Answer: C

43. An isolated system is one in which

A. mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so

B. neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system

C. both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system

D. mass crosses the boundary but not the energy

E. thermodynamic reactions do not occur.

Answer: B

44. Properties of substances like pressure, temperature and density, in thermodynamic coordinates are

A. path functions

B. point functions

C. cyclic functions

D. real functions

E. thermodynamic functions.

Answer: B

45. Which of the following quantities is not the property of the system

A. pressure

B. temperature

C. specific volume

D. heat

E. density.

Answer: D

46. According to Avogadro‘s law, for a given pressure and temperature, each molecule of a gas

A. occupies volume proportional to its molecular weight

B. occupies volume proportional to its specific weight

C. occupies volume inversely proportional to its molecular weight

Page 293 of 592

D. occupies volume inversely proportional to its specific weight

E. occupies same volume.

Answer: E

47. Mixture of ice and water form a

A. closed system

B. open system

C. isolated system

D. heterogeneous system

E. thermodynamic system.

Answer: D

48. Which of the following is the property of a system

A. pressure and temperature

B. internal energy

C. volume and density

D. enthalpy and entropy

E. all of the above.

Answer: E

49. On weight basis, air contains following parts of oxygen

A. 21

B. 23

C. 25

D. 73

E. 79.

Answer: B

50. Which of the following is not the intensive property

A. pressure

B. temperature

C. density

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D. heat

E. specific volume.

Answer: D

51. Which of the following items is not a path function

A. heat

B. work

C. kinetic energy

D. vdp

E. thermal conductivity.

Answer: E

52. Work done in an adiabatic process between a given pair of end states depends on

A. the end states only

B. particular adiabatic process

C. the value of index n

D. the value of heattransferred

E. mass of the system.

Answer: A

53. Heat and work are

A. point functions

B. system properties

C. path functions

D. intensive properties

E. extensive properties.

Answer: C

54. Which of the following parameters is constant for a mole for most of the gases at a given temperature and
pressure

A. enthalpy

B. volume

Page 295 of 592

C. mass

D. entropy

E. specific volume.

Answer: B

55. The value of n = 1 in the polytropic process indicates it to be

A. reversible process

B. isothermal process

C. adiabatic process

D. irreversible process

E. free expansion process.

Answer: B

56. Solids and liquids have

A. one value of specific heat (ft) two values of specific heat

C. three values of specific heat

D. no value of specific heat

E. one value under some conditions and two values under other conditions.

Answer: A

57. A perfect gas at 27°C is heated at constant pressure till its volume is double. The final temperature is

A. 54°C

B. 327°C

C. 108°C

D. 654°C

E. 600°C

Answer: B

58. Curve A in Fig. 1.1 compared to curves B and C shows the following type of expansion

A. pV‖=C

B. isothermal

C. adiabatic

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D. free expansion

E. throttling.

Answer: B

59. If value of n is infinitely large in a polytropic process pV‖ = C, then the process is known as constant

A. volume

B. pressure

C. temperature

D. enthalpy

E. entropy.

Answer: A

60. The index of compression n tends to reach ratio of specific heats y when

A. flow is uniform and steady

B. process is isentropic

C. process is isothermal

D. process is isentropic and specific heat does not change with temperature

E. process is isentropic and specific heat changes with temperature.

Answer: D

61. Change in enthalpy of a system is the heat supplied at

A. constant pressure

B. constant temperature

C. constant volume

D. constant entropy

E. N.T.P. condition.

Answer: A

62. The term N.T.P. stands for

A. nominal temperature and pressure

B. natural temperature and pressure

C. normal temperature and pressure

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D. normal thermodynamic practice

E. normal thermodynamic pressure.

Answer: C

63. A heat exchange process in which the product of pressure and volume remains constant is known as

A. heat exchange process

B. throttling process

C. isentropic process

D. adiabatic process

E. hyperbolic process.

Answer: E

64. In an isothermal process, the internal energy of gas molecules

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains constant

D. may increase/decrease depending on the properties of gas

E. shows unpredictable behaviour.

Answer: C

65. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

A. deals with conversion of mass and energy

B. deals with reversibility and irreversibility of process

C. states that if two systems are both in equilibrium with a third system, they are in thermal equilibrium with each
other

D. deals with heat engines

E. does not exist.

Answer: C

66. If a certain amount of dry ice is mixed with same amount of water at 80°C, the final temperature of mixture will
be

A. 80°C

B. 0°C

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C. 40°C

D. 20°C

E. 60°C.

Answer: B

67. The basis for measuring thermodynamic property of temperature is given by

A. zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. first law of thermodynamics

C. second law of thermodynamics

D. third law of thermodynamics

E. Avogadro‘s hypothesis.

Answer: A

68. One watt is equal to

A. 1 Nm/s

B. 1 N/mt

C. 1 Nm/hr

D. 1 kNm/hr

E. 1 kNm/mt.

Answer: A

69. Work done is zero for the following process

A. constant volume

B. free expansion

C. throttling

D. all Of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

70. For which of the following substances, the gas laws can be used with minimum error

A. dry steam

B. wet steam

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C. saturated steam

D. superheated steam

E. steam at atmospheric pressure.

Answer: D

71. In a non-flow reversible process for which p = (- 3V+ 15) x 105N/m2,V changes from 1 m to 2 m3. The work
done will be about

A. 100 xlOO5 joules

B. lxlO5 joules

C. 10 xlO5 joules

D. 10 xlO5 kilo joules

E. 10xl04kiojoules.

Answer: C

72. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the gases in M.K.S. unit
is

A. 29.27 kgfm/mol°K

B. 8314kgfm/mol°K

C. 848kgfm/mol°K

D. 427kgfm/mol°K

E. 735 kgfm/mol°K.

Answer: C

73. On volume basis, air contains following parts of oxygen

A. 21

B. 23

C. 25

D. 77

E. 79.

Answer: A

74. Universal gas constant is defined as equal to product of the molecular weight of the gas and

A. specific heat at constant pressure

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B. specific heat at constant volume

C. ratio of two specific heats

D. gas constant

E. unity.

Answer: D

75. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the gases in S.I. units is

A. 29.27 J/kmol°K

B. 83.14J/kmol°K

C. 848J/kmol°K

D. All J/kmol °K

E. 735 J/kmol °K.

Answer: B

76. For which of the following substances, the internal energy and enthalpy are the functions of temperature only

A. any gas

B. saturated steam

C. water

D. perfect gas

E. superheated steam.

Answer: D

77. In a free expansion process

A. work done is zero

B. heat transfer is zero

C. both A. and B. above

D. work done is zero but heat increases

E. work done is zero but heat decreases.

Answer: C

78. If a gas vapour is allowed to expand through a very minute aperture, then such a process is known as

A. free expansion

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B. hyperbolic expansion

C. adiabatic expansion

D. parabolic expansion

E. throttling.

Answer: E

79. The specific heat of air increases with increase in

A. temperature

B. pressure

C. both pressure and temperature

D. variation of its constituents

E. air flow

Answer: A

80. If a fluid expands suddenly into vacuum through an orifice of large dimension, then such a process is called

A. free expansion

B. hyperbolic expansion

C. adiabatic expansion

D. parabolic expansion

E. throttling.

Answer: A

81. Which of the following processes are thermodynamically reversible

A. throttling

B. free expansion

C. constant volume and constant pressure

D. hyperbolic and pV = C

E. isothermal and adiabatic.

Answer: E

82. Which of the following processes is irreversible process

A. isothermal

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B. adiabatic

C. throttling

D. all of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

83. In order that a cycle be reversible, following must be satisfied

A. free expansion or friction resisted expansion/compression process should not be encountered

B. when heat is being absorbed, temperature of hot source and working sub¬stance should be same

C. when beat is being rejected, temperature of cold source and working sub-stance should be same

D. all of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

84. For a thermodynamic process to be reversible, the temperature difference between hot body and working
substance should be

A. zero

B. minimum

D. maximum

D. infinity

E. there is no such criterion.

Answer: A

85. Minimum work in compressor is possible when the value of adiabatic index n is equal to

A. 0.75

B. 1

C. 1.27

D. 1.35

E. 2.

Answer: B

86. Molecular volume of any perfect gas at 600 x 103 N/m2 and 27°C will be

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A. 4.17m3/kgmol

B. 400 m3/kg mol

C. 0.15 m3/kg mol

D. 41.7 m3/kg mol

E. 417m3/kgmol.

Answer: A

87. A gas is compressed in a cylinder by a movable piston to a volume one-half its original volume. During the
process 300 kJ heat left the gas and internal energy remained same. The work done on gas in Nm will be

A. 300 Nm

B. 300,000 Nm

C. 30 Nm

D. 3000 Nm

E. 30,000 Nm.

Answer: B

88. The more effective way of increasing efficiency of Carnot engine is to

A. increase higher temperature

B. decrease higher temperature

C. increase lower temperature

D. decrease lower temperature

E. keep lower temperature constant.

Answer: D

89. Entropy change depends on

A. heat transfer

B. mass transfer

C. change of temperature

D. thermodynamic state

E. change of pressure and volume.

Answer: A

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90. For reversible adiabatic process, change in entropy is

A. maximum

B. minimum

C. zero

D. unpredictable

E. negative.

Answer: C

91. Isochoric process is one in which

A. free expansion takes place

B. very little mechanical work is done by the system

C. no mechanical work is done by the system

D. all parameters remain constant

E. mass and energy transfer do not take place.

Answer: C

92. According to first law of thermodynamics

A. work done by a system is equal to heat transferred by the system

B. total internal energy of a system during a process remains constant

C. internal energy, enthalpy and entropy during a process remain constant

D. total energy of a system remains constant

E. entropy of a system remains constant.

Answer: D

93. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can be converted from one form to other is inferred from

A. zeroth low of thermodynamic

B. first law of thermodynamics

C. second law to thermodynamics

D. basic law of thermodynamics

E. claussius statement.

Answer: B

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94. First law of thermodynamics furnishes the relationship between

A. heat and work

B. heat, work and properties of the system

C. various properties of the system

D. various thermodynamic processes

E. heat and internal energy.

Answer: B

95. Change in enthalpy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if the reversible process takes place at constant

A. pressure

B. temperature

C. volume

D. internal energy

E. entropy.

Answer: A

96. In an isothermal process, the internal energy

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains constant

D. first increases and then decreases

E. first decreases and then increases.

Answer: C

97. Change in internal energy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if the reversible process takes place at
constant

A. pressure

B. temperature

C. volume

D. internal energy

E. entropy.

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Answer: C

98. According to first law of thermodynamics

A. mass and energy are mutually convertible

B. Carnot engine is most efficient

C. heat and work are mutually convertible

D. mass and light are mutually convertible

E. heat flows from hot substance to cold substance.

Answer: C

99. Total heat of a substance is also known as

A. internal energy

B. entropy

C. thermal capacity

D. enthalpy

E. thermal conductance.

Answer: D

100. First law of thermodynamics

A. enables to determine change in internal energy of the system

B. does not help to predict whether the system will or not undergo a change

C. does not enable to determine change in entropy

D. provides relationship between heat, work and internal energy

E. all of the above.

Answer: E

101. Addition of heat at constant pressure to a gas results in

A. raising its temperature

B. raising its pressure

C. raising its volume

D. raising its temperature and doing external work

E. doing external work.

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Answer: D

102. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for

A. reversible engine

B. irreversible engine

C. new engine

D. petrol engine

E. diesel engine.

Answer: A

103. Measurement of temperature is based on

A. thermodynamic properties

B. zeroth law of thermodynamics

C. first law of thermodynamics

D. second law of thermodynamics

E. joule‘s law.

Answer: B

104. Carnot cycle efficiency depends upon

A. properties of the medium/substance used

B. condition of engine

C. working condition

D. temperature range of operation

E. effectiveness of insulating material around the engine.

Answer: D

105. Carnot cycle efficiency is maximum when

A. initial temperature is 0°K

B. final temperature is 0°K

C. difference between initial and final temperature is 0°K

D. final temperature is 0°C

E. initial temperature is minimum possible.

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Answer: B

106. An engine operates between temperatures of 900°Kandr2 and another engine between T2 and 400°K For both
to do equal work, value of T2 will be

A. 650°K

B. 600°K

C. 625°K

D. 700°K

E. 750°K.

Answer: A

107. If heat be exchanged in a reversible manner, which of the following property of the working substance will
change accordingly

A. temperature

B. enthalpy

C. internal energy

D. entropy

E. all of the above.

Answer: D

108. If a system after undergoing a series of processes, returns to the initial state then

A. process is thermodynamically in equilibrium

B. process is executed in closed system cycle

C. its entropy will change due to irreversibility

D. sum of heat and work transfer will be zero

E. no work will be done by the system.

Answer: D

109. Which of the following represents the perpetual motion of the first kind

A. engine with 100% thermal efficiency

B. a fully reversible engine

C. transfer of heat energy from low temperature source to high temperature source

D. a machine that continuously creates its own energy

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E. production of energy by temperature differential in sea water at different levels.

Ans:

110. An actual engine is to be designed having same efficiency as the Carnot cycle. Such a proposition is

A. feasible

B. impossible

C. possible

D. possible, but with lot of sophistications

E. desirable.

Answer: D

112. A manufacturer claims to have a heat engine capable of developing 20 h.p. by receiving heat input of 400
kcal/mt and working between the temperature limits of 227° C and 27° C. His claim is

A. justified

B. not possible

C. may be possible with lot of sophistications

D. cost will be very high

E. theroretically possible.

Answer: B

113. In a Carnot cycle, heat is transferred at

A. constant pressure

B. constant volume

C. constant temperature

D. constant enthaply

E. any one of the above.

Answer: C

114. A diathermic wall is one which

A. prevents thermal interaction

B. permits thermal interaction

C. encourages thermal interaction

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D. discourages thermal interaction

E. does not exist.

Answer: B

115. An adiabatic wall is one which

A. prevents thermal interaction

B. permits thermal interaction

C. encourages thermal interaction

D. discourages thermal interaction

E. dos not exist.

Answer: A

116. The door of a running refrigerator inside a room was left open. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The room will be cooled to the temperature inside the refrigerator.

B. The room will be cooled very slightly.

C. The room will be gradually warmed up.

D. The temperature of the air in room will remain unaffected.

E. any one of above is possible depending on the capacity.

Answer: C

117. Compressed air coming out from a punctured football

A. becomes hotter

B. becomes cooler1

C. remains at the same temperature

D. may become hotter or cooler depend-ing upon the humidity of the surround¬ing air

E. attains atmospheric temperature.

Answer: B

118. Water contained in a beaker can be made to boil by passing steam through it

A. at atmospheric pressure

B. at a pressure below the firuosphejric pressure

C. at a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure

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D. any pressure

E. not possible.

Answer: C

119. During throttling process

A. heat exchange does not take place

B. no work is done by expanding steam

C. there is no change of internal energy of steam

D. all of the above

E. entropy decreases.

Answer: D

120. The energy of molecular motion appears as

A. heat

B. potential energy

C. surface tension

D. friction

E. increase in pressure.

Answer: A

121. A sudden fall in the barometer reading is a sign of approaching

A. fine weather

B. rains

C. storm

D. cold wave

E. hot wave.

Answer: C

122. The unit‘of universal gas constant is

A. watts/°K

B. dynes/°C

C. ergscm/°K

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D.erg/°K

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

123. Calorie is a measure of

A. specific heat

B. quantity of heat

C. thermal capacity

D.entropy

E. work.

Answer: B

124. I kgf/cm2 is equal to

A. 760 mm Hg

B. zero mm Hg

C. 735.6 mm Hg

D. 1 mm Hg

E. lOOmmHg.

Answer: C

125. Barometric pressure is equal to

A. 760 mm Hg

B. zero mm Hg

C. 735.6 mm Hg

D. 1 mm Hg

E. 100mm Hg.

Answer: A

126. One barometric pressure or 1 atmospheric pressure is equal to

A. 1 kgf/cnr2

B. 1.033 kgf/cm2

C. 0 kgf/cm2

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D. 1.0197 kgf/cm2

E. 100 kgf/cm2.

Answer: B

127. The first law of thermodynamics is the law of

A. conservation of mass

B. conservation of energy

C. conservation of momentum

D. conservation of heat

E. conservation of temperature.

Answer: B

128. A perpetual motion machine is

A. a thermodynamic machine

B. a non-thermodynamic machine

C. a hypothetical machine

D. a hypothetical machine whose opera-tion would violate the laws of thermodynamics

E. an inefficient machine.

Answer: D

129. Kelvin Planck‘s law deals with

A. conservation of heat

B. conservation of work

C. conversion of heat into work

D. conversion fo work into heat

E. conservation of mass.

Answer: C

130. According to Clausis statement of second law of thermodynamics

A. heat can‘t be transferred from low temperature source to high temperature source

B. heat can be transferred for low temperature to high temperature source by using refrigeration cycle.

C. heat can be transferred from low temperature to high temperature source if COP of process is more than unity

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D. heat can‘t be transferred from low temperature to high temperature source without the aid of external energy

E. all of the above.

Answer: D

131. Thermal power plant works on

A. Carnot cycle

B. Joule cycle

D. Rankine cycle

D. Otto cycle

E. Brayton cycle.

Answer: C

132. Which of the following is an irreversible cycle

A. carnot

B. Stirling

C. ericsson

D. all of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: E

133. Otto cycle consists of following four processes

A. two isothermals and two isentropics

B. two isentropics and two constant volumes

C. two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure

D. two isentropics and two constant pres-sures

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

134. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on

A. working substance

B. design of engine

C. size of engine

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D. type of fuel fired

E. temperatures of source and sink.

Answer: E

135. For same compression ratio and for same heat added

A. Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle

B. Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle

C. efficiency depends on other factors

D. both Otto and Diesel cycles are equally efficient

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

136. The efficiency of Carnot cycle is maximum for

A. gas engine

B. well lubricated engine

C. petrol engine

D. steam engine

E. reversible engine.

Answer: E

137. Carnot cycle is

A. a reversible cycle (ft) an irreversible cycle

C. a semi-reversible cycle

D. a quasi static cycle

E. an adiabatic irreversible cycle.

Answer: A

138. Diesel cycle consists of following four processes

A. two isothermals and two isentropics

B. two isentropics, and two constant volumes.

C. two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure

D. two isentropics and two constant pressures

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E. none of the above.

Answer: C

139. If both Stirling and Carnot cycles operate within the same temperature limits, then efficiency of Stirling cycle
as compared to Carnot cycle

A. more

B. less

C. equal

D. depends on other factors

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

140. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are

A. reversible cycles

B. irreversible cycles

C. quasi-static cycles

D. semi-reversible cycles

E. adiabatic irreversible cycles.

Answer: A

141. A cycle consisting of two adiabatics and two constant pressure processes is known as

A. Otto cycle

B. Ericsson cycle

C. Joule cycle

D. Stirling cycle

E. Atkinson cycle.

Answer: C

142. Reversed joule cycle is called

A. Carnot cycle

B. Rankine cycle

C. Brayton cycle

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D. Bell Coleman cycle

E. Dual cycle.

Answer: C

143. Brayton cycle consists‘ of following four processes

A. two isothermals and two isentropics

B. two isentropics and two constant volumes

C. two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure

D. two isentropics and two constant pres-sures

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

144. Which of the following cycles is not a reversible cycle

A. Carnot

B. Ericsson

C. Stirling

D. Joule

E. none of the above.

Answer: E

145. The cycle in which heat is supplied at constant volume and rejected at constant pressure is known as

A. Dual combustion cycle

B. Diesel cycle

C. Atkinson cycle

D. Rankine cycle

E. Stirling cycle.

Answer: C

146. The efficiency of Diesei cycle with decrease in cut off

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains unaffected

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D. first increases and then decreases

E. first decreases and then increases.

Answer: A

147. Which of the following cycles has maximum efficiency

A. Rankine

B. Stirling

C. Carnot

D. Brayton

E. Joule.

Answer: C

148. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle without regeneration with increase ni pressure ratio will

A. increase

B. decrease

C. remain unchanged

D. increase/decrease depending on application

E. unpredictable.

Answer: A

149. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle with regeneration, with increase in pressure ratio will

A. increase

B. decrease

C. remain unchanged

D. increase/decrease depending on ap-plication

E. unpredictable. ‖

Answer: B

150. The following cycle is used for air craft refrigeration

A. Brayton cycle

B. Joule cycle

C. Carnot cycle

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D. Bell-Coleman cycle

E. Reversed-Brayton cycle.

Answer: E

151. Gas turbine cycle consists of

A. two isothermals and two isentropics

B. two isentropics and two constant volumes

C. two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure

D. two isentropics and two constant pressures

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

152. The thermodynamic difference between a Rankine cycle working with saturated steam and the Carnot cycle is
that

A. carnot cycle can‘t work with saturated steam

B. heat is supplied to water at temperature below the maximum temperature of the cycle

C. a rankine cycle receives heat at two places

D. rankine cycle is hypothetical

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

153. An ideal gas as compared to a real gas at very high pressure occupies

A. More volume

B. Less volume

C. Same volume

D. Unpredictable behavior

Answer: A

154. In open cycle gas turbine plants

A. Direct combustion systems is used

B. A condenser is used

C. The indirect heat exchanger and cooler is avoided

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D. All of the above

Answer: D

155. One Joule (J) is equal to

A. 1 kN-m

B. 1 N-m

C. 10 kN-m/s

D. 10 N-m/s

Answer: B

156. General gas equation is

A. PV=nRT

B. PV=mRT

C. PV = C

D. PV=KiRT

Answer: B

157. Kinetic theory of gases assumes that the collisions between the molecules are

A. Perfectly elastic

B. Perfectly inelastic

C. Partly elastic

D. Partly inelastic

Answer: A

158. The pressure of a gas in terms of its mean kinetic energy per unit volume ‗E‘ is equal to

A. E/3

B. E/2

C. 3E/4

D. 2E/3

Answer: D

159. Kinetic energy of the molecules in terms of absolute temperature (T) is proportional to

A. T

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B. J

C. J²

D. Vr

Answer: A

160. The efficiency of Joule cycle is

A. Less than Carnot cycle

B. Equal to Carnot cycle

C. Greater than Carnot cycle

D. None of these

Answer: A

161. The state of a substance whose evaporation from its liquid state is complete, is known as

A. Perfect gas

B. Vapour

C. Steam

D. Air

Answer: A

162. Which law states that the internal energy of a gas is a function of temperature?

A. Charles‘ law

B. Joule‘s law

C. Boyle‘s law

D. There is no such law

Answer: B

163. The same volume of all gases would represent their

A. Densities

B. Specific weights

C. Molecular weights

D. Gas characteristic constants

Answer: C

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164. Which law states that the specific heat of a gas remains constant at all temperatures and pressures?

A. Charles‘ Law

B. Joule‘s Law

C. Regnault‘s Law

D. Boyle‘s Law

Answer: C

165. An open system is one in which

A. Mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so

B. Neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system

C. Both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system

D. Mass crosses the boundary but not the energy

Answer: C

166. The hyperbolic process is governed by

A. Avogadro‘s law

B. Boyle‘s law

C. Charles‘ law

D. Gay-Lussac law

Answer: B

167. Which of the following quantities is not the property of the system?

A. Pressure

B. Temperature

C. Specific volume

D. Heat

Answer: D

168. The sum of internal energy (U) and the product of pressure and volume (p.v) is known as

A. Work done

B. Entropy

C. Power

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D. Enthalpy

Answer: D

169. Which of the following gas has a minimum molecular mass?

A. Nitrogen

B. Hydrogen

C. Methane

D. Oxygen

Answer: B

170. According to Avogadro‘s law, for a given pressure and temperature, each molecule of a gas

A. Occupies same volume

B. Occupies volume proportional to its specific weight

C. Occupies volume inversely proportional to its molecular weight

D. Occupies volume inversely proportional to its specific weight

Answer: A

171. Mixture of ice and water form a

A. Closed system

B. Open system

C. Isolated system

D. Heterogeneous system

Answer: D

172. The entropy of water at 0°C is assumed to be

A. 0

B. -1

C. 1

D. 2

Answer: A

173. The index of compression ‗n‘ tends to reach ratio of specific heats ‗y‘ when

A. Flow is uniform and steady

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B. Process is isentropic

C. Process is isothermal

D. Process is isentropic and specific heat does not change with temperature

Answer: D

174. Change in enthalpy of a system is the heat supplied at

A. Constant pressure

B. Constant temperature

C. Constant volume

D. Constant entropy

Answer: A

175. The term N.T.P. stands for

A. Nominal temperature and pressure

B. Natural temperature and pressure

C. Normal temperature and pressure

D. Normal thermodynamic practice

Answer: C

176. A heat exchange process in which the product of pressure and volume remains constant is known as

A. Heat exchange process

B. Throttling process

C. Isentropic process

D. Hyperbolic process

Answer: D

177. Universal gas constant is defined as equal to product of the molecular weight of the gas and

A. Specific heat at constant pressure

B. Specific heat at constant volume

C. Ratio of two specific heats

D. Gas constant

Answer: D

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178. A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic processes is known as

A. Otto cycle

B. Stirling cycle

C. Carnot cycle

D. Diesel cycle

Answer: D

179. During which of the following process does heat rejection takes place in Carnot cycle?

A. Isothermal expansion

B. Isentropic expansion

C. Isothermal compression

D. Isentropic compression

Answer: C

180. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the gases in S.I. units is

A. 29.27 J/kmol °K

B. 83.14 J/kmol °K

C. 848 J/kmol °K

D. 735 J/kmol °K

Answer: B

181. For which of the following substances, the internal energy and enthalpy are the functions of temperature only

A. Any gas

B. Saturated steam

C. Water

D. Perfect gas

Answer: D

182. The more effective way of increasing efficiency of Carnot engine is to

A. Increase higher temperature

B. Decrease higher temperature

C. Increase lower temperature

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D. Decrease lower temperature

Answer: D

183. Which of the following has the minimum atomic mass?

A. Sulphur

B. Nitrogen

C. Oxygen

D. Carbon

Answer: D

184. The processes occurring in open system which permit the transfer of mass to and from the system, are known
as

A. Flow processes

B. Non-flow processes

C. Adiabatic processes

D. None of these

Answer: A

185. Entropy change depends on

A. Heat transfer

B. Mass transfer

C. Change of temperature

D. Thermodynamic state

Answer: A

186. For reversible adiabatic process, change in entropy is

A. Maximum

B. Minimum

C. Zero

D. Negative

Answer: C

187. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for

Page 327 of 592

A. Reversible engine

B. Irreversible engine

C. Petrol engine

D. Diesel engine

Answer: A

188. The efficiency of Diesel cycle increases with

A. Increase in cut-off

B. Constant cut-off

C. Decrease in cut-off

D. None of these

Answer: C

189. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the unit mass of gas through one degree at constant
volume, is called

A. Kilo Joule

B. Specific heat at constant volume

C. Specific heat at constant pressure

D. None of these

Answer: B

190. Measurement of temperature is based on

A. Thermodynamic properties

B. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

C. First law of thermodynamics

D. Second law of thermodynamics

Answer: B

191. Carnot cycle efficiency depends upon

A. Properties of the medium/substance used

B. Condition of engine

C. Working condition

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D. Temperature range of operation

Answer: D

192. Compressed air coming out from a punctured football

A. Becomes hotter

B. Becomes cooler

C. Remains at the same temperature

D. May become hotter or cooler depending upon the humidity of the surrounding air

Answer: B

193. Water contained in a beaker can be made to boil by passing steam through it

A. At atmospheric pressure

B. At a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure

C. Any pressure

D. Not possible

Answer: B

194. During throttling process

A. Heat exchange does not take place

B. No work is done by expanding steam

C. There is no change of internal energy of steam

D. All of the above

Answer: D

195. The energy of molecular motion appears as

A. Heat

B. Potential energy

C. Surface tension

D. Friction

Answer: A

196. The compression ratio for Diesel engines is

A. 15 to 20

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B. 5 to 8

C. 3 to 6

D. 20 to 30

Answer: A

197. The efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle efficiency when

A. Cut-off is decreased

B. Cut-off is constant

C. Cut-off is increased

D. Cut-off is zero

Answer: B

198. According to Clausius‘ statement of second law of thermodynamics

A. Heat can‘t be transferred from low temperature source to high temperature source

B. Heat can be transferred for low temperature to high temperature source by using refrigeration cycle

C. Heat can be transferred from low temperature to high temperature source if COP of process is more than unity

D. Heat can‘t be transferred from low temperature to high temperature source without the aid of external energy

Answer: D

199. Thermal power plant works on

A. Carnot cycle

B. Joule cycle

C. Rankine cycle

D. Otto cycle

Answer: C

200. The atomic mass of oxygen is

A. 14

B. 16

C. 18

D. 121

Answer: B

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201. An adiabatic process is one in which

A. The temperature of the gas changes

B. No heat enters or leaves the gas

C. The change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical work done

D. All of the above

Answer: D

202. Which of the following is an irreversible cycle?

A. Carnot

B. Stirling

C. Ericsson

D. None of the above

Answer: D

203. Otto cycle consists of following four processes

A. Two isothermal and two isentropic

B. Two isentropic and two constant volumes

C. Two isentropic, one constant volume and one constant pressure

D. Two isentropic and two constant pressures

Answer: B

204. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on

A. Working substance

B. Design of engine

C. Size of engine

D. Temperatures of source and sink

Answer: D

205. For same compression ratio and for same heat added

A. Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle

B. Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle

C. Efficiency depends on other factors

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D. Both Otto and Diesel cycles are equally efficient

Answer: A

206. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A. The liquid fuels have higher calorific value than solid fuels

B. The solid fuels have higher calorific value than liquid fuels

C. A good fuel should have low ignition point

D. The liquid fuels consist of hydrocarbons

Answer: C

207. The compression ratio for petrol engines is

A. 3 to 6

B. 5 to 8

C. 10 to 20

D. 15 to 30

Answer: B

208. The efficiency of Carnot cycle is maximum for

A. Gas engine

B. Petrol engine

C. Steam engine

D. Reversible engine

Answer: D

209. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the unit mass of gas through one degree at constant
volume, is called

A. Specific heat at constant volume

B. Specific heat at constant pressure

C. Kilo Joule

D. None of these

Answer: A

210. Diesel cycle consists of following four processes

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A. Two isothermal and two isentropic

B. Two isentropic and two constant volumes

C. Two isentropic, one constant volume and one constant pressure

D. Two isentropic and two constant pressures

Answer: C

211. If both Stirling and Carnot cycles operate within the same temperature limits, then efficiency of Stirling cycle
as compared to Carnot cycle

A. More

B. Less

C. Equal

D. Depends on other factors

Answer: C

212. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are

A. Reversible cycles

B. Irreversible cycles

C. Semi-reversible cycles

D. Adiabatic irreversible cycles

Answer: A

213. A cycle consisting of two adiabatic and two constant pressure processes is known as

A. Otto cycle

B. Ericsson cycle

C. Joule cycle

D. Stirling cycle

Answer: C

214. Reversed joule cycle is called

A. Carnot cycle

B. Rankine cycle

C. Brayton cycle

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D. Bell Coleman cycle

Answer: C

215. One kg of carbon monoxide requires _________kg of oxygen to produce 11/7 kg of carbon dioxide gas.

A. 11/7

B. 9/7

C. 4/7

D. All of the above

Answer: C

216. The absolute zero temperature is taken as

A. 237°C

B. -273°C

C. -237°C

D. 273°C

Answer: B

217. Brayton cycle consists‘ of following four processes

A. Two isothermal and two isentropic

B. Two isentropic and two constant volumes

C. Two isentropic, one constant volume and one constant pressure

D. Two isentropic and two constant pressures

Answer: D

218. Which of the following cycles is not a reversible cycle?

A. Carnot

B. Ericsson

C. Stirling

D. None of the above

Answer: D

219. The cycle in which heat is supplied at constant volume and rejected at constant pressure is known as

A. Dual combustion cycle

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B. Diesel cycle

C. Atkinson cycle

D. Rankine cycle

Answer: C

220. The efficiency of Diesel cycle with decrease in cut-off

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. First increases and then decreases

D. First decreases and then increases

Answer: A

221. Which of the following cycles has maximum efficiency?

A. Rankine

B. Stirling

C. Carnot

D. Brayton

Answer: C

222. Which of the following is correct?

A. Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure + Atmospheric pressure

B. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure

C. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure – Atmospheric pressure

D. Atmospheric pressure = Absolute pressure + Gauge pressure

Answer: B

223. The efficiency and work ratio of a simple gas turbine cycle are

A. Very low

B. Low

C. High

D. Very high

Answer: A

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224. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle without regeneration, with increase in pressure ratio will

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain unchanged

D. Increase/decrease depending on application

Answer: A

225. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle with regeneration, with increase in pressure ratio will

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain unchanged

D. Increase/decrease depending on application

Answer: B

226. The following cycle is used for air craft refrigeration

A. Brayton cycle

B. Joule cycle

C. Carnot cycle

D. Reversed Brayton cycle

Answer: D

227. A cycle consisting of __________ and two isothermal processes is known as Stirling cycle.

A. Two constant pressure

B. Two constant volume

C. Two isentropic

D. One constant pressure, one constant volume

Answer: B

228. The condition for the reversibility of a cycle is

A. The pressure and temperature of the working substance must not differ, appreciably, from those of the
surroundings at any stage in the process

B. All the processes, taking place in the cycle of operation, must be extremely slow

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C. The working parts of the engine must be friction free

D. All of the above

Answer: D

229. The change of entropy, when heat is absorbed by the gas, is

A. Positive

B. Negative

C. Positive or negative

D. None of these

Answer: A

230. The throttling process is __________ process.

A. Reversible

B. Irreversible

C. Reversible or irreversible

D. None of these

Answer: B

231. The isothermal and adiabatic processes are regarded as

A. Reversible process

B. Irreversible process

C. Reversible or irreversible process

D. None of these

Answer: A

232. For the constant pressure and heat input, the air standard efficiency of gas power cycle is in the order

A. Dual cycle, Diesel cycle, Otto cycle

B. Otto cycle, Diesel cycle, Dual cycle

C. Dual cycle, Otto cycle, Diesel cycle

D. Diesel cycle, Otto cycle, Dual cycle

Answer: A

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233. The general gas equation is (where p = Pressure, v = Volume, m = mass, T = Absolute temperature, and R =
Gas constant)

A. pv = mRT

B. pv = RTm

C. pvm = C

D. pv = (RT)m

Answer: A

234. For the same maximum pressure and temperature,

A. Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle

B. Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle

C. Dual cycle is more efficient than Otto and Diesel cycles

D. Dual cycle is less efficient than Otto and Diesel cycles

Answer: B

235. Charles‘ law states that all perfect gases change in volume by __________ of its original volume at 0°C for
every 1°C change in temperature, when pressure remains constant.

A. 1/27th

B. 1/93th

C. 1/173th

D. 1/273th

236. A mixture of gas expands from 0.03 m3 to 0.06 m3 at a constant pressure of 1 MPa and absorbs 84 kJ of heat
during the process. The change in internal energy of the mixture is

A. 30 kJ

B. 54 kJ

C. 84 kJ

D. 114 kJ

Answer: B

237. The total energy of a molecule is shared equally by the various degrees of freedom possessed by it. This law is
known as

A. Law of equipartition of energy

B. Law of conservation of energy

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C. Law of degradation of energy

D. None of these

Answer: A

238. An isothermal process is governed by

A. Boyle‘s law

B. Charles‘ law

C. Gay-Lussac law

D. Avogadro‘s law

Answer: A

239. A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic processes is known as

A. Carnot cycle

B. Stirling cycle

C. Otto cycle

D. Diesel cycle

Answer: D

240. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A. The liquid fuels consist of hydrocarbons

B. The liquid fuels have higher calorific value than solid fuels

C. The solid fuels have higher calorific value than liquid fuels

D. A good fuel should have low ignition point

Answer: C

241. The efficiency of Joule cycle is

A. Greater than Carnot cycle

B. Less than Carnot cycle

C. Equal to Carnot cycle

D. None of these

Answer: B

242. Otto cycle is also known as

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A. Constant pressure cycle

B. Constant volume cycle

C. Constant temperature cycle

D. Constant temperature and pressure cycle

Answer: B

243. The heat and mechanical energies are mutually convertible. This statement was established by

A. Boyle

B. Charles

C. Joule

D. None of these

Answer: C

244. The heat and work are mutually convertible. This statement is called __________ law of thermodynamics.

A. Zeroth

B. First

C. Second

D. Third

Answer: B

245. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water through one Kelvin is called

A. Specific heat at constant volume

B. Specific heat at constant pressure

C. kilo-Joule

D. None of these

Answer: C

246. A path 1-2-3 is given. A system absorbs 100 kJ as heat and does 60 kJ of work while along the path 1-4-3, it
does 20 kJ of work. The heat absorbed during the cycle 1-4-3 is

Question No. 05

A. -140 kJ

B. -80 kJ

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C. -40 kJ

D. +60 kJ

Answer: D

247. The fuel mostly used in blast furnace for extracting pig iron from iron ores is

A. Hard coke

B. Soft coke

C. Pulverized coal

D. Bituminous coal

Answer: A

248. Carnot cycle consists of

A. Two constant volume and two isentropic processes

B. Two isothermal and two isentropic processes

C. Two constant pressure and two isentropic processes

D. One constant volume, one constant pressure and two isentropic processes

Answer: B

249. Work-done during adiabatic expansion is given by (where p1 v1, T1 = Pressure, volume and temperature for
the initial condition of gas, p2, v2, T2 = Corresponding values for the final condition of gas, R = Gas constant, and γ
= Ratio of specific heats)

A. (p1 v1 – p2, v2)/(γ – 1)

B. [m R (T1 – T2)] /(γ – 1)

C. [m R T1/(γ – 1)][1 – (p2, v2 /p1 v1)]

D. All of these

Answer: D

250. In a free expansion process,

A. W1 – 2 = 0

B. Q1 – 2 = 0

C. dU = 0

D. All of these

Answer: D

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251. When the gas is heated at constant volume, the heat supplied

A. Increases the internal energy of the gas and increases the temperature of the gas

B. Does some external work during expansion

C. Both A. and B.

D. None of these

Answer: A

252. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for

A. Petrol engine

B. Diesel engine

C. Reversible engine

D. Irreversible engine

Answer: C

253. The heat supplied to the gas at constant volume is (where m = Mass of gas, cv = Specific heat at constant
volume, cp = Specific heat at constant pressure, T2 – T1 = Rise in temperature, and R = Gas constant)

A. mR (T2 – T1)

B. mcv (T2 – T1)

C. mcp (T2 – T1)

D. mcp (T2 + T1)

Answer: B

254. The processes occurring in open system which permit the transfer of mass to and from the system, are known
as

A. Flow processes

B. Non-flow processes

C. Adiabatic processes

D. None of these

Answer: A

255. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are

A. Reversible cycles

B. Irreversible cycles

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C. Semi-reversible cycles

D. Quasi-static cycles

Answer: A

256. In an isothermal process,

A. There is no change in temperature

B. There is no change in enthalpy

C. There is no change in internal energy

D. All of these

Answer: D

257. When the expansion or compression takes place according to the law pvn = C, the process is known as

A. Isothermal process

B. Adiabatic process

C. Hyperbolic process

D. Polytropic process

Answer: D

258. The general law of expansion or compression is pvn = C, The process is said to be hyperbolic, if n is equal to

A. 0

B. 1

C. γ

D. ∝

Answer: B

259. One kilowatt is equal to

A. 1 N-m/s

B. 100 N-m

C. 1000 N-m/s

D. 1 × 106 N-m/s

Answer: C

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260. The __________ states that change of internal energy of a perfect gas is directly proportional to the change of
temperature.

A. Boyle‘s law

B. Charle‘s law

C. Gay-Lussac law

D. Joule‘s law

Answer: D

261. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of __________ water through one degree is called
kilojoules.

A. 1 g

B. 10 g

C. 100 g

D. 1000 g

Answer: D

262. The work ratio of a gas turbine plant is given by

A. (Net work output)/(Work-done by the turbine)

B. (Net work output)/(Heat supplied)

C. (Actual temperature drop)/(Isentropic temperature drop)

D. (Isentropic increase in temperature)/(Actual increase in temperature)

Answer: A

263. The variables which control the physical properties of a perfect gas are

A. Pressure exerted by the gas

B. Volume occupied by the gas

C. Temperature of the gas

D. All of these

Answer: D

264. An open system is one in which

A. Heat and work crosses the boundary of the system, but the mass of the working substance does not crosses the
boundary of the system

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B. Mass of the working substance crosses the boundary of the system but the heat and work does not crosses the
boundary of the system

C. Both the heat and work as well as mass of the working substance crosses the boundary of the system

D. Neither the heat and work nor the mass of the working substance crosses the boundary of the system

Answer: C

265. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. The increase in entropy is obtained from a given quantity of heat at a low temperature.

B. The change in entropy may be regarded as a measure of the rate of the availability or unavailability of heat for
transformation into work.

C. The entropy represents the maximum amount of work obtainable per degree drop in temperature.

D. All of the above

Answer: D

266. The calorific value of gaseous fuel is expressed in

A. kJ

B. kJ/kg

C. kJ/m2

D. kJ/m3

Answer: D

267. Which of the following is the correct statement of the second law of thermodynamics?

A. It is impossible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose is to convert heat energy
into work.

B. It is impossible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a higher temperature, without the aid of an
external source.

C. There is a definite amount of mechanical energy, which can be obtained from a given quantity of heat energy.

D. All of the above

Answer: D

268. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure (cp) and specific heat at constant volume (cv) is

A. Equal to one

B. Less than one

C. Greater than one

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D. None of these

Answer: C

269. The expansion ratio (r) is the ratio of (where v1 = Volume at the beginning of expansion, and v2 = Volume at
the end of expansion)

A. v1/v2

B. v2/v1

C. (v1 + v2)/v1

D. (v1 + v2)/v2

Answer: B

270. Coke is produced

A. When coal is first dried and then crushed to a fine powder by pulverizing machine

B. From the finely ground coal by molding under pressure with or without a binding material

C. When coal is strongly heated continuously for 42 to 48 hours in the absence of air in a closed vessel

D. By heating wood with a limited supply of air to a temperature not less than 280°C

Answer: C

271. The hard coke is obtained when carbonization of coal is carried out at

A. 300° to 500°C

B. 500° to 700°C

C. 700° to 900°C

D. 900° to 1100°C

Answer: D

272. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed, but it can be transformed from one form to another. This
statement is known as

A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. First law of thermodynamics

C. Second law of thermodynamics

D. Kinetic theory of gases

Answer: B

273. When the gas is heated at constant pressure, the heat supplied

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A. Increases the internal energy of the gas

B. Increases the temperature of the gas

C. Does some external work during expansion

D. Both B. and C.

Answer: D

274. When a gas is heated at constant volume

A. Its temperature will increase

B. Its pressure will increase

C. Both temperature and pressure will increase

D. Neither temperature nor pressure will increase

Answer: C

275. Which of the following is the correct statement?

A. For a given compression ratio, both Otto and Diesel cycles have the same efficiency

B. For a given compression ratio, Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle

C. For a given compression ratio, Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle

D. The efficiency of Otto or Diesel cycle has nothing to do with compression ratio

Answer: B

276. One kg of hydrogen requires 8 kg of oxygen and produces

A. 1 kg of water

B. 7 kg of water

C. 8 kg of water

D. 9 kg of water

Answer: D

277. Which of the following statement is correct according to Clausis statement of second law of thermodynamics?

A. It is possible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher temperature.

B. It is impossible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher temperature, without the
aid of an external source.

C. It is possible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher temperature by using
refrigeration cycle.

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D. None of the above

Answer: B

278. One molecule of oxygen is __________ times heavier than the hydrogen atom.

A. 12

B. 14

C. 16

D. 32

Answer: D

279. The absolute zero temperature is taken as

A. -273°C

B. 73°C

C. 237°C

D. -237°C

Answer: A

280. The efficiency and work ratio of a simple gas turbine cycle are

A. Low

B. Very low

C. High

D. Very high

Answer: B

281. The specific heat of water is

A. 1.817

B. 2512

C. 4.187

D. None of these

Answer: C

282. The specific heat at constant volume is

A. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of unit mass of gas through one degree, at constant pressure

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B. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of unit mass of gas through one degree, at constant volume

C. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water through one degree

D. Any one of the above

Answer: B

283. For the same compression ratio, the efficiency of dual combustion cycle is

A. Greater than Diesel cycle and less than Otto cycle

B. Less than Diesel cycle and greater than Otto cycle

C. Greater than Diesel cycle

D. Less than Diesel cycle

Answer: A

284. The main cause for the irreversibility is

A. Mechanical and fluid friction

B. Unrestricted expansion

C. Heat transfer with a finite temperature difference

D. All of the above

Answer: D

285. The mass of flue gas per kg of fuel is the ratio of the

A. Mass of oxygen in 1 kg of flue gas to the mass of oxygen in 1 kg of fuel

B. Mass of oxygen in 1 kg of fuel to the mass of oxygen in 1 kg of flue gas

C. Mass of carbon in 1 kg of flue gas to the mass of carbon in 1 kg of fuel

D. Mass of carbon in 1 kg of fuel to the mass of carbon in 1 kg of flue gas

Answer: C

286. The heating of a gas at constant pressure is governed by

A. Boyle‘s law

B. Charles‘ law

C. Gay-Lussac law

D. Avogadro‘s law

Answer: B

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287. In a reversible adiabatic process, the ratio of T1/T2 is equal to

A. (p2/p1)γ – 1/ γ

B. (p1/p2)γ – 1/ γ

C. (v2/v1)γ – 1/ γ

D. (v1/v2)γ – 1/ γ

Answer: B

288. First law of thermodynamics deals with

A. Conservation of heat

B. Conservation of momentum

C. Conservation of mass

D. Conservation of energy

Answer: D

289. The value of cp/cv for air is

A. 1

B. 1.4

C. 1.45

D. 2.3

Answer: B

290. The fuel mostly used in cement industry and in metallurgical processes is

A. Wood charcoal

B. Bituminous coke

C. Pulverized coal

D. Coke

Answer: C

291. The absolute zero pressure can be attained at a temperature of

A. 0°C

B. 273°C

C. 273 K

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D. None of these

Answer: D

292. Which of the following is a reversible non-flow process?

A. Isochoric process

B. Isobaric process

C. Hyperbolic process

D. All of these

Answer: D

293. Which of the following is the correct statement?

A. All the reversible engines have the same efficiency.

B. All the reversible and irreversible engines have the same efficiency.

C. Irreversible engines have maximum efficiency.

D. All engines are designed as reversible in order to obtain maximum efficiency.

Answer: C

294. In S. I. units, the value of the universal gas constant is

A. 8.314 J/kg mole-K

B. 83.14 J/kgmole-K

C. 831.4 J/kgmole-K

D. 8314 J/kgmole-K

Answer: D

295. When gas is heated at constant pressure, the heat supplied is utilized in

A. Increasing the internal energy of gas

B. Doing some external work

C. Increasing the internal energy of gas and also for doing some external work

D. None of the above

Answer: C

296. Kerosene is distilled at

A. 65° to 220°C

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B. 220° to 345°C

C. 345° to 470°C

D. 470° to 550°C

Answer: B

297. In open cycle gas turbine plants

A. The indirect heat exchanger and cooler is avoided

B. Direct combustion system is used

C. A condenser is used

D. All of the above

Answer: D

298. The volumetric or molar specific heat at constant pressure is the product of

A. Molecular mass of the gas and the specific heat at constant volume

B. Atomic mass of the gas and the gas constant

C. Molecular mass of the gas and the gas constant

D. None of the above

Answer: D

299. The measurement of a thermodynamic property known as temperature is based on

A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. First law of thermodynamics

C. Second law of thermodynamics

D. None of these

Answer: A

300. Which is the incorrect statement about Carnot cycle?

A. It is used as the alternate standard of comparison of all heat engines.

B. All the heat engines are based on Carnot cycle.

C. It provides concept of maximizing work output between the two temperature limits.

D. All of the above

Answer: B

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301. According to Avogadro‘s law

A. The product of the gas constant and the molecular mass of an ideal gas is constant

B. The sum of partial pressure of the mixture of two gases is sum of the two

C. Equal volumes of all gases, at the same temperature and pressure, contain equal number of molecules

D. All of the above

Answer: C

302. The efficiency of Stirling cycle is __________ Carnot cycle.

A. Greater than

B. Less than

C. Equal to

D. None of these

Answer: C

303. The entropy of water at 0°C is assumed to be

A. 1

B. 0

C. -1

D. 10

Answer: B

304. Producer gas is obtained by

A. Partial combustion of coal, coke, anthracite coal or charcoal in a mixed air steam blast

B. Carbonization of bituminous coal

C. Passing steam over incandescent coke

D. Passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about 650°C

Answer: A

305. For the same compression ratio, the efficiency of Diesel cycle is __________ Otto cycle.

A. Greater than

B. Less than

C. Equal to

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D. None of these

Answer: B

306. The efficiency of the Carnot cycle may be increased by

A. Increasing the highest temperature

B. Decreasing the highest temperature

C. Increasing the lowest temperature

D. Keeping the lowest temperature constant

Answer: A

307. The atomic mass of nitrogen is __________ oxygen.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. More than

D. None of these

Answer: B

308. A definite area or a space where some thermodynamic process takes place is known as

A. Thermodynamic system

B. Thermodynamic cycle

C. Thermodynamic process

D. Thermodynamic law

Answer: A

309. The absolute zero pressure will be

A. When molecular momentum of the system becomes zero

B. At sea level

C. At the temperature of – 273 K

D. At the center of the earth

Answer: A

310. The work ratio of simple gas turbine cycle depends upon

A. Maximum cycle temperature

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B. Minimum cycle temperature

C. Pressure ratio

D. All of these

Answer: D

311. In closed cycle gas turbine, the air is compressed

A. Isothermally

B. Isentropically

C. Polytropically

D. None of these

Answer: B

312. The thermal efficiency of an ideal gas turbine plant is given by (where r = Pressure ratio)

A. rγ – 1

B. 1 – rγ – 1

C. 1 – (1/r) γ/γ – 1

D. 1 – (1/r) γ – 1/ γ

Answer: D

313. A process of heating crude oil to a high temperature under a very high pressure to increase the yield of lighter
distillates, is known as

A. Cracking

B. Carbonization

C. Fractional distillation

D. Full distillation

Answer: A

314. One kg of carbon monoxide requires 4/7 kg of oxygen and produces

A. 11/3 kg of carbon dioxide gas

B. 7/3 kg of carbon monoxide gas

C. 11/7 kg of carbon dioxide gas

D. 8/3 kg of carbon monoxide gas

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Answer: C

315. Petrol is distilled at

A. 65° to 220°C

B. 220° to 345°C

C. 345° to 470°C

D. 470° to 550°C

Answer: A

316. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle is given by (where r = Compression ratio, and γ = Ratio of specific
heats)

A. 1 – rγ – 1

B. 1 + rγ – 1

C. 1 – (1/ rγ – 1)

D. 1 + (1/ rγ – 1)

Answer: C

317. Mond gas is obtained by

A. Partial combustion of coal, coke, anthracite coal or charcoal in a mixed air steam blast

B. Carbonization of bituminous coal

C. Passing steam over incandescent coke

D. Passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about 650°C

Answer: D

318. Which of the following gas has a minimum molecular mass?

A. Oxygen

B. Nitrogen

C. Hydrogen

D. Methane

Answer: C

319. The efficiency of Diesel cycle increases with

A. Decrease in cut-off

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B. Increase in cut-off

C. Constant cut-off

D. None of these

Answer: A

320. An adiabatic process is one in which

A. No heat enters or leaves the gas

B. The temperature of the gas changes

C. The change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical work-done

D. All of the above

Answer: D

321. The distillation carried out in such a way that the liquid with the lowest boiling point is first evaporated and re-
condensed, then the liquid with the next higher boiling point is then evaporated and re-condensed, and so on until all
the available liquid fuels are separately recovered in the sequence of their boiling points. Such a process is called

A. Cracking

B. Carbonization

C. Fractional distillation

D. Full distillation

Answer: C

322. A process, in which the temperature of the working substance remains constant during its expansion or
compression, is called

A. Isothermal process

B. Hyperbolic process

C. Adiabatic process

D. Polytropic process

Answer: A

323.When two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body, they are also in thermal equilibrium with each
other. This statement is called

A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. First law of thermodynamics

C. Second law of thermodynamics

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D. Kelvin Planck‘s law

Answer: A

324. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?

A. Peat

B. Lignite

C. Bituminous coal

D. Anthracite coal

Answer: D

325. Stirling cycle consists of

A. Two constant volume and two isentropic processes

B. Two constant volume and two isothermal processes

C. Two constant pressure and two isothermal processes

D. One constant volume, one constant pressure and two isentropic processes

Answer: B

326. Reversed Joule cycle is known as

A. Carnot cycle

B. Bell-Coleman cycle

C. Rankine cycle

D. Stirling cycle

Answer: B

327. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. The heat and work are boundary phenomena

B. The heat and work represent the energy crossing the boundary of the system

C. The heat and work are path functions

D. All of the above

Answer: D

328. The oxygen atom is ________ times heavier than the hydrogen atom.

A. 2

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B. 8

C. 16

D. 32

Answer: C

329. The heat flows from a cold body to a hot body with the aid of an external source. This statement is given by

A. Kelvin

B. Joule

C. Clausis

D. Gay-Lussac

Answer: C

330. The smallest quantity of a substance, which can exist by itself in a chemically recognizable form is known as

A. Element

B. Compound

C. Atom

D. Molecule

Answer: D

331. The behavior of super-heated vapour is similar to that of

A. Perfect gas

B. Air

C. Steam

D. Ordinary gas

Answer: A

332. Relation between cp and cv is given by (where cp = Specific heat at constant pressure, cv = Specific heat at
constant volume, γ = cp/cv, known as adiabatic index, and R = Gas constant)

A. cv/ cp =R

B. cp – cv = R

C. cv = R/ γ-1

D. Both B. and C.

Page 359 of 592

Answer: D

333. A cycle consisting of two constant pressure and two isentropic processes is known as

A. Carnot cycle

B. Stirling cycle

C. Otto cycle

D. None of these

Answer: D

334. The atomic mass of sulphur is

A. 12

B. 14

C. 16

D. 32

Answer: D

335. The efficiency of Carnot cycle depends upon

A. Temperature limits

B. Pressure ratio

C. Volume compression ratio

D. Cut-off ratio and compression ratio

Answer: A

336. Otto cycle efficiency is higher than Diesel cycle efficiency for the same compression ratio and heat input
because in Otto cycle

A. Combustion is at constant volume

B. Expansion and compression are isentropic

C. Maximum temperature is higher

D. Heat rejection is lower

Answer: D

337. The value of 1 mm of Hg is equal to

A. 1.333 N/m2

Page 360 of 592

B. 13.33 N/m2

C. 133.3 N/m2

D. 1333 N/m2

Answer: C

338. Carbonization of coal consists of

A. Drying and crushing the coal to a fine powder

B. Moulding the finely ground coal under pressure with or without a binding material

C. Heating the wood with a limited supply of air to temperature not less than 280°C

D. None of the above

Answer: D

339. The area under the temperature-entropy curve (T – s curve) of any thermodynamic process represents

A. Heat absorbed

B. Heat rejected

C. Either A. or B.

D. None of these

Answer: C

340. One Joule (J) is equal to

A. 1 N-m

B. 1 kN-m

C. 10 N-m/s

D. 10 kN-m/s

Answer: A

341. According to First law of thermodynamics,

A. Total internal energy of a system during a process remains constant

B. Total energy of a system remains constant

C. Work-done by a system is equal to the heat transferred by the system

D. Internal energy, enthalpy and entropy during a process remain constant

Answer: B

Page 361 of 592

342. When wood is heated with a limited supply of air to a temperature not less than 280°C, the resulting fuel is

A. Coke

B. Wood charcoal

C. Bituminous coal

D. Briquetted coal

Answer: B

343. The heat energy stored in the gas and used for raising the temperature of the gas is known as

A. External energy

B. Internal energy

C. Kinetic energy

D. Molecular energy

Answer: B

344. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A. The closed cycle gas turbine plants are external combustion plants.

B. In the closed cycle gas turbine, the pressure range depends upon the atmospheric pressure.

C. The advantage of efficient internal combustion is eliminated as the closed cycle has an external surface.

D. In open cycle gas turbine, atmosphere acts as a sink and no coolant is required.

Answer: B

345. The temperature at which the volume of a gas becomes zero is called

A. Absolute scale of temperature

B. Absolute zero temperature

C. Absolute temperature

D. None of these

Answer: B

346. One kg of ethylene (C2H4) requires 2 kg of oxygen and produces 22/7 kg of carbon dioxide and __________
kg of water or steam.

A. 9/7

B. 11/7

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C. 7/4

D. 11/4

Answer: A

347. According to Regnault‘s law, the specific heat at constant pressure (cp) and specific heat at constant volume
(cv) _________ with the change in pressure and temperature of the gas.

A. Change

B. Do not change

C. Both A. and B.

D. None of these

Answer: B

348. Which of the following is correct?

A. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure

B. Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure + Atmospheric pressure

C. Atmospheric pressure = Absolute pressure + Gauge pressure

D. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure – Atmospheric pressure

Answer: A

349. The general gas energy equation is (where Q1 – 2 = Heat supplied, dU = Change in internal energy, and W1 – 2
= Work done in heat units)

A. Q1 – 2 = dU + W1 – 2

B. Q1 – 2 = dU – W1 – 2

C. Q1 – 2 = dU/W1 – 2

D. Q1 – 2 = dU × W1 – 2

Answer: A

350. The natural solid fuel is

A. Wood

B. Coke

C. Anthracite coal

D. Pulverized coal

Answer: A

Page 363 of 592

351. In an ideal gas turbine plant, it is assumed that the compression and expansion processes are

A. Isothermal

B. Isentropic

C. Polytropic

D. None of these

Answer: B

352. The natural petroleum may be separated into

A. Petrol

B. Kerosene

C. Fuel oil

D. Lubricating oil

Answer: D

353. According to Kelvin-Planck‘s statement of second law of thermodynamics,

A. It is impossible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose is to convert heat energy
into work

B. It is possible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose is to convert heat energy
into work

C. It is impossible to construct a device which operates in a cyclic process and produces no effect other than the
transfer of heat from a cold body to a hot body

D. None of the above

Answer: A

354. The pressure exerted by an ideal gas is ________ of the kinetic energy of all the molecules contained in a unit
volume of gas.

A. One-half

B. One-third

C. Two-third

D. Three-fourth

Answer: C

355. When a gas is heated, change takes place in

A. Pressure

Page 364 of 592

B. Volume

C. Temperature

D. All of these

Answer: D

356. The property of a working substance which increases or decreases as the heat is supplied or removed in a
reversible manner, is known as

A. Enthalpy

B. Internal energy

C. Entropy

D. External energy

Answer: C

357. The fuel mostly used in steam boilers is

A. Brown coal

B. Peat

C. Coking bituminous coal

D. Non-coking bituminous coal

Answer: D

358. The heat absorbed or rejected by the working substance is given by (where ds = Increase or decrease of
entropy, T = Absolute temperature, and dQ = Heat absorbed or rejected)

A. δQ = T.ds

B. δQ = T/ds

C. dQ = ds/T

D. None of these

Answer: A

359. The gas constant (R) is equal to the

A. Sum of two specific heats

B. Difference of two specific heats

C. Product of two specific heats

D. Ratio of two specific heats

Page 365 of 592

Answer: B

360. A process, in which the gas is heated or expanded in such a way that the product of its pressure and volume
remains constant, is called

A. Isothermal process

B. Hyperbolic process

C. Adiabatic process

D. Polytropic process

Answer: B

361. The efficiency of the dual combustion cycle for the same compression ratio is __________ Diesel cycle.

A. Greater than

B. Less than

C. Equal to

D. None of these

Answer: A

362. Those substances which have so far not been resolved by any means into other substances of simpler form are
called

A. Elements

B. Compounds

C. Atoms

D. Molecules

Answer: A

363. The most probable velocity of the gas molecules is given by

A. √(KT/m)

B. √(2KT/m)

C. √(3KT/m)

D. √(5KT/m)

Answer: B

364. The sum of internal energy (U) and the product of pressure and volume (p.v) is known as

A. Work-done

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B. Entropy

C. Enthalpy

D. None of these

Answer: C

365. The state of a substance whose evaporation from its liquid state is complete, is known as

A. Vapour

B. Perfect gas

C. Air

D. Steam

Answer: B

366. The root mean square velocity of the gas molecules is given by (where k = Boltzmann‘s constant, T = Absolute
temperature, and m = Mass of one molecule of a gas)

A. √(KT/m)

B. √(2KT/m)

C. √(3KT/m)

D. √(5KT/m)

Answer: C

367. When a perfect gas is expanded through an aperture of minute dimensions, the process is known as

A. Isothermal process

B. Adiabatic process

C. Free expansion process

D. Throttling process

Answer: D

368. A process, in which the working substance neither receives nor gives out heat to its surroundings during its
expansion or compression, is called

A. Isothermal process

B. Hyperbolic process

C. Adiabatic process

D. Polytropic process

Page 367 of 592

Answer: C

369. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure (cp) and specific heat at constant volume (cv) is always
__________ one.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. Greater than

D. None of these

Answer: C

370. Select the correct statement as per Charles‘ law

A. p.v = constant, if T is kept constant

B. v/T = constant, if p is kept constant

C. p/T = constant, if v is kept constant

D. T/p = constant, if v is kept constant

Answer: B

371. A close cycle gas turbine gives __________ efficiency as compared to an open cycle gas turbine.

A. Same

B. Lower

C. Higher

D. None of these

Answer: C

372. According to Avogadro‘s law, the density of any two gases is __________ their molecular masses, if the gases
are at the same temperature and pressure.

A. Equal to

B. Directly proportional to

C. Inversely proportional to

D. None of these

Answer: B

373. During which of the following process does heat rejection takes place in Carnot cycle?

A. Isothermal expansion

Page 368 of 592

B. Isentropic expansion

C. Isothermal compression

D. Isentropic compression

Answer: C

374. A tri-atomic molecule consists of __________ atoms.

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

Answer: C

375. Which of the following has the minimum atomic mass?

A. Oxygen

B. Sulphur

C. Nitrogen

D. Carbon

Answer: D

376. The mass of carbon per kg of flue gas is given by

A. (11/3) CO2 + (3/7) CO

B. (3/7) CO2 + (11/3) CO

C. (7/3) CO2 + (3/11) CO

D. (3/11) CO2 + (7/3) CO

Answer: A

377. When a system changes its state from one equilibrium state to another equilibrium state, then the path of
successive states through which the system has passed, is known as

A. Thermodynamic law

B. Thermodynamic process

C. Thermodynamic cycle

D. None of these

Page 369 of 592

Answer: B

378. When the gas is cooled at constant pressure,

A. Its temperature increases but volume decreases

B. Its volume increases but temperature decreases

C. Both temperature and volume increases

D. Both temperature and volume decreases

Answer: D

379. Otto cycle consists of

A. Two constant volume and two isentropic processes

B. Two constant pressure and two isentropic processes

C. Two constant volume and two isothermal processes

D. One constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic processes

Answer: A

380. The efficiency of a gas turbine is given by

A. (Net work output)/(Work-done by the turbine)

B. (Net work output)/(Heat supplied)

C. (Actual temperature drop)/(Isentropic temperature drop)

D. (Isentropic increase in temperature)/(Actual increase in temperature)

Answer: B

381. An open cycle gas turbine works on

A. Carnot cycle

B. Otto cycle

C. Joule‘s cycle

D. Stirling cycle

Answer: C

382. If the value of n = 0 in the equation pvn = C, then the process is called

A. Constant volume process

B. Adiabatic process

Page 370 of 592

C. Constant pressure process

D. Isothermal process

Answer: C

383. The efficiency of Ericsson cycle is __________ Carnot cycle.

A. Greater than

B. Less than

C. Equal to

D. None of these

Answer: C

384. The mass of excess air supplied is equal to

A. (23/100) × Mass of excess carbon

B. (23/100) × Mass of excess oxygen

C. (100/23) × Mass of excess carbon

D. (100/23) × Mass of excess oxygen

Answer: D

385. The universal gas constant (or molar constant) of a gas is the product of

A. Molecular mass of the gas and the gas constant

B. Atomic mass of the gas and the gas constant

C. Molecular mass of the gas and the specific heat at constant pressure

D. Molecular mass of the gas and the specific heat at constant volume

Answer: A

386. The molecular mass expressed in gram (i.e. 1 g – mole) of all gases, at N. T. P., occupies a volume of

A. 0.224 liters

B. 2.24 liters

C. 22.4 liters

D. 224 liters

Answer: C

387. The standard value of atmospheric pressure taken at sea level is

Page 371 of 592

A. 1.013 bar

B. 760 mm of Hg

C. 1013 × 102 N/m2

D. All of these

Answer: D

388. The process is adiabatic, if the value of n in the equation pvn = C, is

A. Zero

B. One

C. γ

D. ∝

Answer: C

389. The polytropic index (n) is given by

A. log (p1p2)/log (v1v2)

B. log (p2/ p1)/log (v1/ v2)

C. log (v1/ v2)/ log (p1/p2)

D. log [(p1v1)/(p2v2)]

Answer: B

390. Which of the following gas is mostly used in town for street and domestic lighting and heating?

A. Producer gas

B. Coal gas

C. Mond gas

D. Coke oven gas

Answer: B

391. In an irreversible process, there is a

A. Loss of heat

B. No loss of heat

C. Gain of heat

D. No gain of heat

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Answer: A

392. The general law for the expansion or compression of gases, is

A. pv = C

B. pv = m R T

C. pvn = C

D. pvγ = C

Answer: C

393. The principal constituents of a fuel are

A. Carbon and hydrogen

B. Oxygen and hydrogen

C. Sulphur and oxygen

D. Sulphur and hydrogen

Answer: A

394. The reading of the pressure gauge fitted on a vessel is 25 bar. The atmospheric pressure is 1.03 bar and the
value of ‗g‘ is 9.81 m/s2. The absolute pressure in the vessel is

A. 23.97 bar

B. 25 bar

C. 26.03 bar

D. 34.81 bar

Answer: C

395. High air-fuel ratio in gas turbines

A. Increases power output

B. Improves thermal efficiency

C. Reduces exhaust temperature

D. Do not damage turbine blades

Answer: C

396. The ratio of root mean square velocity to average velocity of gas molecules at a particular temperature is

A. 0.086

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B. 1.086

C. 1.086

D. 4.086

Answer: B

397. One molecule of oxygen consists of __________ atoms of oxygen.

A. 2

B. 4

C. 8

D. 16

Answer: A

398. A series of operations, which takes place in a certain order and restore the initial conditions at the end, is
known as

A. Reversible cycle

B. Irreversible cycle

C. Thermodynamic cycle

D. None of these

Answer: C

399. The compression ratio for petrol engines is

A. 3 to 6

B. 5 to 8

C. 15 to 20

D. 20 to 30

Answer: B

400. The hyperbolic process is governed by

A. Boyle‘s law

B. Charles‘ law

C. Gay-Lussac law

D. Avogadro‘s law

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Answer: A

401. According to kinetic theory of gases, the velocity of molecules __________ with the increase in temperature.

A. Remains constant

B. Increases

C. Decreases

D. None of these

Answer: B

402. The ultimate analysis of coal consists of the determination of the percentage of

A. Carbon

B. Hydrogen and nitrogen

C. Sulphur and ash

D. All of these

Answer: D

403. The heating of gas at constant volume is governed by

A. Boyle‘s law

B. Charles‘ law

C. Gay-Lussac law

D. Avogadro‘s law

Answer: C

404. In a steady flow process, the ratio of

A. Heat transfer is constant

B. Work transfer is constant

C. Mass flow at inlet and outlet is same

D. All of these

Answer: D

405. The entropy may be expressed as a function of

A. Pressure and temperature

B. Temperature and volume

Page 375 of 592

C. Heat and work

D. All of these

Answer: A

406. The gas constant (R) is equal to the __________ of two specific heats.

A. Sum

B. Difference

C. Product

D. Ratio

Answer: B

407. Work-done in a free expansion process is

A. Zero

B. Minimum

C. Maximum

D. Positive

Answer: A

408. Kelvin-Planck‘s law deals with

A. Conservation of work

B. Conservation of heat

C. Conversion of heat into work

D. Conversion of work into heat

Answer: C

409. Second law of thermodynamics defines

A. Heat

B. Work

C. Internal energy

D. Entropy

Answer: D

410. Which of the following gas has the highest calorific value?

Page 376 of 592

A. Coal gas

B. Producer gas

C. Mond gas

D. Blast furnace gas

Answer: A

411. One reversible heat engine operates between 1600 K and T2 K and another reversible heat engine operates
between T2 K and 400 K. If both the engines have the same heat input and output, then temperature T2 is equal to

A. 800 K

B. 1000 K

C. 1200 K

D. 1400 K

Answer: A

412. According to Kelvin-Planck‘s statement, a perpetual motion of the __________ is impossible.

A. First kind

B. Second kind

C. Third kind

D. None of these

Answer: B

413. The value of one bar (in S. I. units) is equal to

A. 1 × 102 N/m2

B. 1 × 103 N/m2

C. 1 × 104 N/m2

D. 1 × 105 N/m2

Answer: D

414. The value of gas constant (R) in S. I. units is

A. 0.287 J/kgK

B. 2.87 J/kgK

C. 28.7 J/kgK

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D. 287 J/kgK

Answer: D

415. The compression ratio for Diesel engines is

A. 3 to 6

B. 5 to 8

C. 15 to 20

D. 20 to 30

Answer: C

416. The ratio of molar specific heats for mono-atomic gas is

A. 1

B. 1.4

C. 1.67

D. 1.87

Answer: C

418. Steam coal is a

A. Pulverized coal

B. Brown coal

C. Coking bituminous coal

D. Non-coking bituminous coal

Answer: D

419. When a gas is heated at constant pressure

A. Its temperature will increase

B. Its volume will increase

C. Both temperature and volume will increase

D. Neither temperature not volume will increase

Answer: C

420. Diesel cycle consists of __________ processes.

A. Two constant volume and two isentropic

Page 378 of 592

B. Two constant pressure and two isentropic

C. Two constant volume and two isothermal

D. One constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic

Answer: D

421. Select the wrong statement

A. A Joule cycle consists of two constant volume and two isentropic processes.

B. An Otto cycle consists of two constant volume and two isentropic processes.

C. An Ericsson cycle consists of two constant pressure and two isothermal processes.

D. All of the above

Answer: A

422. The compression ratio is the ratio of

A. Swept volume to total volume

B. Total volume to swept volume

C. Swept volume to clearance volume

D. Total volume to clearance volume

Answer: D

423. One kg of carbon requires 4/3 kg of oxygen and produces __________ kg of carbon monoxide gas.

A. 8/3

B. 11/3

C. 11/7

D. 7/3

Answer: D

424. The efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle efficiency when

A. Cut-off is increased

B. Cut-off is decreased

C. Cut-off is zero

D. Cut-off is constant

Answer: C

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425. The behavior of a perfect gas, undergoing any change in the variables which control physical properties, is
governed by

A. Boyle‘s law

B. Charles‘ law

C. Gay-Lussac law

D. All of these

Answer: D

426. The __________ is obtained when carbonization of coal is carried out at 500° to 700° C.

A. Soft coal

B. Hard coal

C. Pulverized coal

D. Bituminous coal

Answer: A

427. A molecule consisting of one atom is known as

A. Mono-atomic

B. Di-atomic

C. Tri-atomic

D. Poly-atomic

Answer: A

428. The unit of energy is S. I. units is

A. Joule (J)

B. Joule meter (Jm)

C. Watt (W)

D. Joule/meter (J/m)

Answer: A

429. The amount of heat generated per kg of fuel is known as

A. Calorific value

B. Heat energy

Page 380 of 592

C. Lower calorific value

D. Higher calorific value

Answer: A

430. The entropy __________ in an irreversible cyclic process.

A. Remains constant

B. Decreases

C. Increases

D. None of these

Answer: C

431. For a perfect gas, according to Boyle‘s law (where p = Absolute pressure, v = Volume, and T = Absolute
temperature)

A. p v = constant, if T is kept constant

B. v/T = constant, if p is kept constant

C. p/T = constant, if v is kept constant

D. T/p = constant, if v is kept constant

Answer: A

432. Which of the following is the extensive property of a thermodynamic system?

A. Pressure

B. Volume

C. Temperature

D. Density

Answer: B

433. The increase in entropy of a system represents

A. Increase in availability of energy

B. Increase in temperature

C. Decrease in pressure

D. Degradation of energy

Answer: D

Page 381 of 592

434. A cycle consisting of two isothermal and two isentropic processes, is known as

A. Carnot cycle

B. Stirling cycle

C. Ericsson cycle

D. Joule cycle

Answer: A

435. When coal is strongly heated continuously for 42 to 48 hours in the absence of air in a closed vessel, the
process is known as __________ of fuel.

A. Atomization

B. Carbonization

C. Combustion

D. None of these

Answer: B

436. Which of the following is an intensive property of a thermodynamic system?

A. Volume

B. Temperature

C. Mass

D. Energy

Answer: B

437. In an extensive property of a thermodynamic system

A. Extensive heat is transferred

B. Extensive work is done

C. Extensive energy is utilized

D. None of these

Answer: D

438. All perfect gases change in volume by 1/273th of its original volume at 0°C for every 1°C change in
temperature, when the pressure remains constant. This statement is called

A. Boyle‘s law

B. Charles‘ law

Page 382 of 592

C. Gay-Lussac law

D. Joule‘s law

Answer: B

439. When cut-off ratio is __________ the efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle efficiency.

A. Zero

B. 1/5

C. 4/5

D. 1

Answer: A

440. The atomic mass of oxygen is

A. 8

B. 18

C. 16

D. 32

Answer: C

441. The gas turbine cycle with regenerator improves

A. Thermal efficiency

B. Work ratio

C. Avoids pollution

D. None of these

Answer: A

442. Which of the following process can be made reversible with the help of a regenerator?

A. Constant pressure process

B. Constant volume process

C. Constant pvn process

D. All of these

Answer: D

443. One kg of carbon produces __________ kg of carbon dioxide.

Page 383 of 592

A. 3/7

B. 7/3

C. 11/3

D. 3/11

Answer: C

444. The kinetic energy per kg molecule of any gas at absolute temperature T is equal to (where Ru = Universal gas
constant)

A. Ru × T

B. 1.5 Ru × T

C. 2 Ru × T

D. 3 Ru × T

Answer: B

445. If in the equation pvn = C, the value of n = ∝, then the process is called

A. Constant volume process

B. Adiabatic process

C. Constant pressure process

D. Isothermal process

Answer: A

446. The value of specific heat at constant pressure (cp) is __________ that of at constant volume (cv).

A. Less than

B. Equal to

C. More than

D. None of these

Answer: C

447. One kg of carbon monoxide requires __________ kg of oxygen to produce 11/7 kg of carbon dioxide gas.

A. 4/7

B. 11/4

C. 9/7

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D. All of these

Answer: A

448. The efficiency of Diesel cycle depends upon

A. Temperature limits

B. Pressure ratio

C. Compression ratio

D. Cut-off ratio and compression ratio

Answer: D

449. The efficiency of the Carnot cycle is (where T1 and T2 = Highest and lowest temperature during the cycle)

A. (T1/T2) – 1

B. 1 – (T1/T2)

C. 1 – (T2/T1)

D. 1 + (T2/T1)

Answer: C

450. The gas in cooling chamber of a closed cycle gas turbine is cooled at

A. Constant volume

B. Constant temperature

C. Constant pressure

D. None of these

Answer: C

451. When coal is first dried and then crushed to a fine powder by pulverizing machine, the resulting fuel is called

A. Wood charcoal

B. Bituminous coal

C. Briquetted coal

D. None of these

Answer: D

452. The thermodynamic difference between a Rankine cycle working with saturated steam and the Carnot cycle is
that

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A. Carnot cycle can‘t work with saturated steam

B. Heat is supplied to water at temperature below the maximum temperature of the cycle

C. A Rankine cycle receives heat at two places

D. Rankine cycle is hypothetical

Answer: B

300+ TOP Engineering Materials MCQs and Answers Quiz

Engineering Materials Multiple choice Questions

1. The composition of silver solder is

A. Silver, copper, zinc

B. Silver, tin, nickel

C. Silver, lead, zinc

D. Silver, copper, aluminium

Answer: A

2. When a steel containing __________ 0.8% carbon is cooled slowly below the lower critical point, it consists of
ferrite and pearlite.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. More than

D. None of these

Answer: B

3. Pipes for bicycle frames are made of

A. Cold rolled steel

B. Hot rolled steel

C. Forged steel

D. Cast steel

Answer: A

4. Which one of the following metals would work-harden more quickly than the others?

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A. Copper

B. Brass

C. Lead

D. Silver

Answer: B

5. Iron-carbon alloys containing carbon ________ 4.3% are known as hyper-eutectic cast irons.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. More than

D. None of these

Answer: C

6. Bell metal contains

A. 70% copper and 30% zinc

B. 90% copper and 10% tin

C. 85 – 92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel

D. 70 – 75% copper and rest tin

Answer: D

7. The temperature required for full annealing in hypereutectoid steel is

A. 30° C to 50° C above upper critical temperature

B. 30° C to 50° C below upper critical temperature

C. 30° C to 50° C above lower critical temperature

D. 30° C to 50° C below lower critical temperature

Answer: C

8. The charge of the blast furnace consists of

A. Calcined ore (8 parts), coke (4 parts) and limestone (1 part)

B. Calcined ore (4 parts), coke (1 part) and limestone (8 parts)

C. Calcined ore (1 part), coke (8 parts) and limestone (4 parts)

D. Calcined ore, coke and limestone all in equal parts

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Answer: A

9. The following element can‘t impart high strength at elevated temperature

A. Manganese

B. Magnesium

C. Nickel

D. Silicon

Answer: B

10. The percentage carbon content in wrought iron is about

A. 0.02

B. 0.1

C. 02

D. 0.4

Answer: A

11. Heavy duty leaf and coil springs contain carbon of the following order

A. 0.2%

B. 0.5%

C. 0.8%

D. 1.0%

Answer: D

12. The silicon steel is widely used for

A. Connecting rods

B. Cutting tools

C. Generators and transformers in the form of laminated cores

D. Motor car crankshafts

Answer: C

13. Blast furnace produces following by reduction of iron ore

A. Cast iron

B. Pig iron

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C. Wrought iron

D. Malleable iron

Answer: B

14. For a steel containing 0.8% carbon

A. There is no critical point

B. There is only one critical point

C. There are two critical points

D. There can be any number of critical points

Answer: B

15. Nickel in steel

A. Improves wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness

B. Refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation, improves corrosion and heat resistant properties

C. Improves cutting ability and reduces hardenability

D. Gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anti-corrosion properties

Answer: D

16. Which of the following impurity in cast iron makes it hard and brittle?

A. Silicon

B. Sulphur

C. Manganese

D. Phosphorus

(1) Answer: B

17. Tensile strength of steel can be safely increased by

A. Adding carbon up to 2.8%

B. Adding carbon up to 6.3%

C. Adding carbon up to 0.83%

D. Adding small quantities of copper

Answer: C

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18. Which of the following metal is used for nuclear energy?

A. Uranium

B. Thorium

C. Niobium

D. All of these

Answer: D

19. Cemented carbide tools are not found to be suitable for cutting

A. Brass

B. Cast iron

C. Aluminium

D. Steel

Answer: D

20. Y-alloy contains

A. 3.5 to 4.5% copper, 0.4 to 0.7% magnesium, 0.4 to 0.7% manganese and rest aluminium

B. 3.5 to 4.5% copper, 1.2 to 1.7% manganese, 1.8 to 2.3% nickel, 0.6% each of silicon, magnesium and iron, and
rest aluminium

C. 4 to 4.5% magnesium, 3 to 4% copper and rest aluminium

D. 5 to 6% tin, 2 to 3% copper and rest aluminium

Answer: B

21. Amorphous material is one

A. In which atoms align themselves in a geometric pattern upon solidification

B. In which there is no definite atomic structure and atoms exist in a random pattern just as in a liquid

C. Which is not attacked by phosphorous

D. Which emits fumes on melting

Answer: B

22. According to Indian standard specifications, SG 400/15 means

A. Spheroidal graphite cast iron with B.H.N. 400 and minimum tensile strength 15 MPa

B. Spheroidal graphite cast iron with minimum tensile strength 400 MPa and 15 percent elongation

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C. Spheroidal graphite cast iron with minimum compressive strength 400 MPa and 15 percent reduction in area

D. None of the above

Answer: B

23. Brass (alloy of copper and zinc) is an example of

A. Substitutional solid solution

B. Interstitial solid solution

C. Intermetallic compounds

D. All of the above

Answer: A

24. In process annealing, the hypo eutectoid steel is

A. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled in still air

B. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled suddenly in a suitable cooling
medium

C. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled slowly in the furnace

D. Heated below or closes to the lower critical temperature and then cooled slowly

Answer: D

25. Pick up the wrong statement

A. Aluminium in steel results in excessive grain growth

B. Manganese in steel induces hardness

C. Nickel and chromium in steel helps in raising the elastic limit and improve the resilience and ductility

D. Tungsten in steels improves magnetic properties and hardenability

Answer: A

26. A coarse grained steel

A. Is less tough and has a greater tendency to distort during heat treatment

B. Is more ductile and has a less tendency to distort during heat treatment

C. Is less tough and has a less tendency to distort during heat treatment

D. Is more ductile and has a greater tendency to distort during heat treatment

Answer: A

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27. Pick up the wrong statement Nickel and chromium in steel help in

A. Providing corrosion resistance

B. Improving machining properties

C. Providing high strength at elevated temperatures

D. Raising the elastic limit

Answer: B

28. Normalising of steel is done to

A. Refine the grain structure

B. Remove strains caused by cold working

C. Remove dislocations caused in the internal structure due to hot working

D. All of the above

Answer: D

29. Steel contains

A. 80% or more iron

B. 50% or more iron

C. Alloying elements like chromium, tungsten nickel and copper

D. Elements like phosphorus, sulphur and silicon in varying quantities

Answer: B

30. Which of the following has a fine gold colour and is used for imitation jewellery?

A. Silicon bronze

B. Aluminium bronze

C. Gun metal

D. Babbitt metal

Answer: B

31. Elinvar, an alloy used in precision instruments, hair springs for watches, etc. contains the following element as
principal alloying element

A. Iron

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B. Copper

C. Aluminium

D. Nickel

Answer: D

32. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A. Steel with 0.8% carbon is wholly pearlite

B. The amount of cementite increases with the increase in percentage of carbon in iron

C. A mechanical mixture of 87% cementite and 13% ferrite is called pearlite

D. The cementite is identified as round particles in the structure

Answer: C

33. Which of the following has highest specific strength of all structural materials?

A. Magnesium alloys

B. Titanium alloys

C. Chromium alloys

D. Magnetic steel alloys

Answer: B

34. In a hardening process, the hypo-eutectoid steel is

A. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled in still air

B. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled suddenly in a suitable cooling
medium

C. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled slowly in the furnace

D. Heated below or closes to the lower critical temperature and then cooled slowly

Answer: B

35. The correct composition of Babbitt metal is

A. 87.75% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 0.25% Bi

B. 90% Sn, 2% Cu, 4% Sb, 2% Bi, 2% Mg

C. 87% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 1% Al

D. 82% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 3% Al, 3% Mg

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Answer: A

36. When steel containing less than 0.8% carbon is cooled slowly from temperatures above or within the critical
range, it consists of

A. Mainly ferrite

B. Mainly pearlite

C. Ferrite and pearlite

D. Pearlite and cementite

Answer: C

37. Dow metal contains

A. 94% aluminium, 4% copper and 0.5% Mn, Mg, Si and Fe

B. 92.5% aluminium and, 4% copper, 2% nickel and 1.5% Mg

C. 90% aluminium and 90% copper

D. 90% magnesium and 9% aluminium with some copper

Answer: D

38. Body centered cubic space lattice is found in

A. Zinc, magnesium, cobalt, cadmium, antimony and bismuth

B. Gamma iron, aluminium, copper, lead, silver and nickel

C. Alpha iron, tungsten, chromium and molybdenum

D. None of the above

Answer: C

39. Which of the following alloys does not have copper as one of the constituents?

A. Delta metal

B. Monel metal

C. Constantan

D. Nichrome

Answer: D

40. In spheroidising process, the steel is

A. Heated below the lower critical temperature and then cooled slowly

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B. Heated up to the lower critical temperature and then cooled in still air

C. Heated slightly above the lower critical temperature and then cooled slowly to a temperature of 600°C

D. None of the above

Answer: C

41. Which of the following alloys does not contain tin?

A. White metal

B. Solder admiralty

C. Fusible metal

D. Phosphor bronze

Answer: A

42. The bond formed by transferring electrons from one atom to another is called

A. Ionic bond

B. Covalent bond

C. Metallic bond

D. None of these

Answer: A

43. Addition of manganese to aluminium results in

A. Improvement of casting characteristics

B. Improvement of corrosion resistance

C. One of the best known age and precipitation hardening systems

D. Improving machinability

Answer: B

44. When medium carbon steel is heated to coarsening temperature

A. There is no change in grain size

B. The average grain size is a minimum

C. The grain size increases very rapidly

D. The grain size first increases and then decreases very rapidly

Answer: C

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45. Admiralty gun metal contains

A. 63 to 67% nickel and 30% copper

B. 88% copper, 10% tin and rest zinc

C. Alloy of tin, lead and cadmium

D. Iron scrap and zinc

Answer: B

46. The alloy, mainly used for corrosion resistance in stainless steels is

A. Silicon

B. Manganese

C. Carbon

D. Chromium

Answer: D

47. The correct sequence for descending order of machinability is

A. Grey cast iron, low carbon steel, wrought iron

B. Low carbon steel, grey cast iron, wrought iron

C. Wrought iron, low carbon steel, grey cast iron

D. Wrought iron, grey cast iron, low carbon steel

Answer: A

48. Duralumin contains

A. 3.5 to 4.5% copper, 0.4 to 0.7% magnesium, 0.4 to 0.7% manganese and rest aluminium

B. 3.5 to 4.5% copper, 1.2 to 1.7% manganese, 1.8 to 2.3% nickel, 0.6% each of silicon, magnesium and iron, and
rest aluminium

C. 4 to 4.5% magnesium, 3 to 4% copper and rest aluminium

D. 5 to 6% tin, 2 to 3% copper and rest aluminium

Answer: A

49. Admiralty brass used for steam condenser tubes contains copper and zinc in the following ratio

A. 50 : 50

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B. 30 : 70

C. 70 : 30

D. 40 : 60

Answer: B

50. A steel containing 16 to 18% chromium and about 0.12% carbon is called

A. Ferritic stainless steel

B. Austenitic stainless steel

C. Martenistic stainless steel

D. Nickel steel

Answer: A

51. Ductile cast iron

A. Contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in Free State and is obtained by the slow cooling of molten cast iron

B. Is also known as chilled cast iron and is obtained by cooling rapidly. It is almost unmachinable

C. Is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough and easily machined metal

D. Is produced by small additions of magnesium (or creium) in the ladle. Graphite is in nodular or spheroidal form
and is well dispersed throughout the material

Answer: D

52. Which of the following iron exist between 910°C and 1403°C?

A. α-iron

B. β-iron

C. γ-iron

D. δ-iron

Answer: C

53. Malleable cast iron

A. Contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in Free State and is obtained by the slow cooling of molten cast iron

B. Is also known as chilled cast iron and is obtained by cooling rapidly. It is almost unmachinable

C. Is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough, and easily machined metal

D. Is produced by small additions of magnesium (or cerium) in the ladle. Graphite is in the nodular or spheroidal
form and is well dispersed throughout the material

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Answer: C

54. The presence of hydrogen in steel causes

A. Reduced neutron absorption cross-section

B. Improved Weldability

C. Embrittlement

D. Corrosion resistance

Answer: C

55. Which is the false statement about wrought iron? It has

A. High resistance to rusting and corrosion

B. High ductility

C. Ability of hold protective coating

D. Uniform strength in all directions

Answer: D

56. Which of the following is added in low carbon steels to prevent them from becoming porous?

A. Sulphur

B. Phosphorus

C. Manganese

D. Silicon

Answer: D

57. Which of the following element results in presence of free graphite in C.I.?

A. Carbon

B. Sulphur

C. Silicon

D. Manganese

Answer: C

58. Free cutting steels

A. Contain carbon in free from

B. Require minimum cutting force

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C. Is used where rapid machining is the prime requirement

D. Can be cut freely

Answer: C

59. Grey cast iron

A. Contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in Free State and is obtained by the slow cooling of molten cast iron

B. Is also known as chilled cast iron is obtained by cooling rapidly. It is almost unmachinable

C. Is produced by annealing process. I is soft, tough and easily machined metal

D. Is produced by small additions o magnesium (or cerium) in the ladle Graphite is in nodular or spheroidal form
and is well dispersed throughout the material

Answer: A

60. The aluminium alloy, mainly used, for anodized utensil manufacture, is

A. Duralumin

B. Y-alloy

C. Magnalium

D. Hindalium

Answer: D

61. White cast iron

A. Contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in Free State and is obtained by the slow cooling of molten cast iron

B. Is also known as chilled cast iron and is obtained by cooling rapidly. It is almost unmachinable

C. Is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough and easily machined metal

D. Is produced by small additions of magnesium (or creium) in the ladle. Graphite is in nodular or spheroidal form
and is well dispersed throughout the material

Answer: B

62. The compressive strength of cast iron is __________that of its tensile strength.

A. Equal to

B. Less than

C. More than

D. None of these

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Answer: C

63. Monel metal contains

A. 63 to 67% nickel and 30% copper

B. 88% copper and 10% tin and rest zinc

C. Alloy of tin, lead and cadmium

D. Malleable iron and zinc

Answer: A

64. In the lower part of the blast furnace (zone of fusion), the temperature is

A. 400° to 700°C

B. 800°C to 1000°C

C. 1200°C to 1300°C

D. 1500°C to 1700°C

Answer: C

65. The temperature at which ferromagnetic alpha iron transforms to paramagnetic alpha iron is

A. 770°C

B. 910°C

C. 1050°C

D. Below recrystallization temperature

Answer: A

66. The ratio of the volume occupied by the atoms to the total volume of the unit cell is called

A. Coordination number

B. Atomic packing factor

C. Space lattice

D. None of these

Answer: B

67. Which is false statement about annealing? Annealing is done to

A. Relieve stresses

B. Harden steel slightly

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C. Improve machining characteristic

D. Soften material

Answer: B

68. When low carbon steel is heated up to upper critical temperature

A. There is no change in grain size

B. The average grain size is a minimum

C. The grain size increases very rapidly

D. The grain size first increases and then decreases very rapidly

Answer: B

69. Dislocations in materials refer to the following type of defect

A. Point defect

B. Line defect

C. Plane defect

D. Volumetric defect

Answer: B

70. Pearlite consists of

A. 13% carbon and 87% ferrite

B. 13% cementite and 87% ferrite

C. 13% ferrite and 87% cementite

D. 6.67% carbon and 93.33% iron

Answer: B

71. Sulphur in steel

A. Acts as deoxidiser

B. Reduces the grain size

C. Decreases tensile strength and hardness

D. Lowers the toughness and transverse ductility

Answer: D

72. The toughness of a material __________ when it is heated.

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A. Remain same

B. Decreases

C. Increases

D. None of these

Answer: B

73. Structural steel contains following principal alloying elements

A. Nickel, chromium and manganese

B. Tungsten, molybdenum and phosphorous

C. Lead, tin, aluminium

D. Zinc, sulphur, and chromium

Answer: A

74. In basic Bessemer process, the furnace is lined with

A. Silica bricks

B. A mixture of tar and burnt dolomite bricks

C. BothA. andB.

D. None of these

Answer: B

75. Aluminium bronze contains

A. 94% aluminium, 4% copper and 0.5% Mn, Mg, Si and Fe

B. 92.5% aluminium, 4% copper, 2% nickel, and 1.5% Mg

C. 10% aluminium and 90% copper

D. 90% magnesium and 9% aluminium with some copper

Answer: C

76. The material in which the atoms are arranged chaotically, is called

A. Amorphous material

B. Mesomorphous material

C. Crystalline material

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D. None of these

Answer: A

77. The percentage of carbon in pig iron varies from

A. 0.1 to 1.2%

B. 1.5 to 2.5%

C. 2.5 to 4%

D. 4 to 4.5%

Answer: D

78. Crystal structure of a material is, generally, examined by

A. Naked eye

B. Optical microscope

C. Metallurgical microscope

D. X-ray techniques

Answer: D

79. A reversible change in the atomic structure of steel with corresponding change in the properties is known as

A. Molecular change

B. Physical change

C. Allotropic change

D. Solidus change

Answer: C

80. An eutectoid steel consists of

A. Wholly pearlite

B. Wholly austenite

C. Pearlite and ferrite

D. Pearlite and cementite

Answer: A

81. Ductility of a material can be defined as

A. Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in compression

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B. Ability to recover its original form

C. Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension

D. All of the above

Answer: C

82. Which of the following property is desirable in parts subjected to shock and impact loads?

A. Strength

B. Stiffness

C. Brittleness

D. Toughness

Answer: D

83. In compression, a prism of brittle material will break

A. By forming a bulge

B. By shearing along oblique plane

C. In direction perpendicular to application of load

D. By crushing into thousands of pieces

Answer: B

84. The main alloying elements high speed steel in order of increasing proportion are

A. Vanadium, chromium, tungsten

B. Tungsten, titanium, vanadium

C. Chromium, titanium, vanadium

D. Tungsten, chromium, titanium

Answer: A

85. Corundum contains more than 95%

A. Steel

B. Al2O3

C. SiO2

D. MgO

Answer: B

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86. The aluminium alloy made by melting aluminium with 2 to 10% magnesium and 1.75% copper is called

A. Duralumin

B. Y-alloy

C. Magnalium

D. Hindalium

Answer: C

87. Brass contains

A. 70% copper and 30% zinc

B. 90% copper and 10% tin

C. 85 – 92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel

D. 70 – 75% copper and rest tin

Answer: A

88. There are fourteen atoms in a unit cell of

A. Body centered cubic space lattice

B. Face centered cubic space lattice

C. Close packed hexagonal space lattice

D. None of these

Answer: B

89. A specimen of aluminium metal when observed under microscope shows

A. B.C.C. crystalline structure

B. F.C.C. crystal structure

C. H.C.P. structure

D. A complex cubic structure

Answer: B

90. The defect which takes place due to imperfect packing of atoms during crystallization is known as

A. Line defect

B. Surface defect

C. Point defect

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D. None of these

Answer: C

91. Large forgings, crank shafts, axles normally contain carbon up to

A. 0.05 to 0.20%

B. 0.20 to 0.45%

C. 0.45 to 0.55%

D. 0.55 to 1.0%

Answer: C

92. Which of the following statement is incorrect about duralumin?

A. It is prone to age hardening

B. It can be forged

C. It has good machining properties

D. It is lighter than pure aluminium

Answer: D

93. The hardness of steel primarily depends on

A. Percentage of carbon

B. Percentage of alloying elements

C. Heat treatment employed

D. Shape of carbides and their distribution in iron

Answer: D

94. Gamma-iron occurs between the temperature ranges of

A. 400°C to 600°C

B. 600°C to 900°C

C. 900°C to 1400°C

D. 1400°C to 1530°C

Answer: C

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95. Alnico, an alloy used extensively for permanent magnets contains iron, nickel, aluminium and cobalt in the
following ratio

A. 50 : 20 : 20 : 10

B. 40 : 30 : 20 : 10

C. 50 : 20 : 10 : 20

D. 30 : 20 : 30 : 20

Answer: A

96. According to Indian standard specifications, plain carbon steel designated by 40 C8 means that the carbon
content is

A. 0.04%

B. 0.35 to 0.45%

C. 0.4 to 0.6%

D. 0.6 to 0.8%

Answer: B

97. If a refractory contains high content of silicon, it means refractory is

A. Acidic

B. Basic

C. Neutral

D. Brittle

Answer: C

98. Cementite consist of

A. 13% carbon and 87% ferrite

B. 13% cementite and 87% ferrite

C. 13% ferrite and 87% cementite

D. 6.67% carbon and 93.33% iron

Answer: D

99. The usual composition of a soldering alloy is

A. Tin, lead and small percentage of antimony

B. Tin and lead

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C. Tin, lead and silver

D. Tin and copper

Answer: A

100. The property of a material which enables it to retain the deformation permanently, is called

A. Brittleness

B. Ductility

C. Malleability

D. Plasticity

Answer: D

101. The tensile strength of wrought iron is maximum

A. Along the lines of slag distribution

B. Perpendicular to lines of slag distribution

C. Uniform in all directions

D. None of the above

Answer: A

102. The metal suitable for bearings subjected to heavy loads, is

A. Silicon bronze

B. White metal

C. Monel metal

D. Phosphor bronze

Answer: B

103. Which of the following elements does not impart hardness to steel?

A. Copper

B. Chromium

C. Nickel

D. Silicon

Answer: A

104. In low carbon steels, presence of small quantities of sulphur improves

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A. Weldability

B. Formability

C. Machinability

D. Hardenability

Answer: C

105. Cobalt in steel

A. Improves wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness

B. Refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation, improve corrosion and heat resistant proper ties

C. Improves cutting ability and reduce hardenability

D. Gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anti corrosion property

Answer: C

106. Which of the following metal shrinks most from molten state to solid state?

A. Cast iron

B. Cast steel

C. Brass

D. Admiralty metal

Answer: D

107. Tungsten in steel

A. Improves wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness

B. Refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation, improves corrosion and heat resistant properties

C. Improves cutting ability and reduces hardenability

D. Gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anti-corrosion properties

Answer: B

108. The ability of a material to resist fracture due to high impact loads, is called

A. Strength

B. Stiffness

C. Toughness

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D. Brittleness

Answer: C

109. Which is false statement about normalizing? Normalizing is done to

A. Refine grain structure

B. Reduce segregation in casting

C. Improve mechanical properties

D. Induce stresses

Answer: D

110. Hematite iron ore contains iron about

A. 30%

B. 45%

C. 55%

D. 70%

Answer: D

111. The surface hardness of the following order is achieved by nitriding operation

A. 600 VPN

B. 1500 VPN

C. 1000 to 1100 VPN

D. 250 VPN

Answer: C

112. The unit cells

A. Contain the smallest number of atoms which when taken together have all the properties of the crystals of the
particular metal

B. Have the same orientation and their similar faces are parallel

C. May be defined as the smallest parallelepiped which could be transposed in three coordinate directions to build
up the space lattice

D. All of the above

Answer: D

113. Which of the following represents the allotropic forms of iron?

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A. Alpha iron, beta iron and gamma iron

B. Alpha iron and beta iron

C. Body centered cubic iron and face centered cubic iron

D. Alpha iron, gamma from and delta iron

Answer: D

114. Which of the following property is desirable for materials used in tools and machines?

A. Elasticity

B. Plasticity

C. Ductility

D. Malleability

Answer: A

115. Points of arrest for iron correspond to

A. Stages at which allotropic forms change

B. Stages at which further heating does not increase temperature for some time

C. Stages at which properties do not change with increase in temperature

D. There is nothing like points of arrest

Answer: A

116. The portion of the blast furnace below its widest cross-section is called

A. Hearth

B. Stack

C. Bosh

D. Throat

Answer: C

117. Taps dies and drills contain carbon

A. Below 0.5%

B. Below 1%

C. Above 1%

D. Above 2.2%

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Answer: C

118. The coke in the charge of blast furnace

A. Controls the grade of pig iron

B. Acts as an iron bearing mineral

C. Supplies heat to reduce ore and melt the iron

D. Forms a slag by combining with impurities

Answer: C

119. The percentage of carbon in grey iron castings usually varies between

A. 0.5 to 1%

B. 1.2%

C. 2.5 to 4.5%

D. 5 to 7%

Answer: C

120. The machinability of steel is improved by adding

A. Nickel

B. Chromium

C. Nickel and chromium

D. Sulphur, lead and phosphorus

Answer: D

121. The ultimate tensile strength and yield strength of most of the metals, when temperature falls from 0 to 100°C
will

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remain same

D. First increase and then decrease

Answer: A

122. Macrostructure of a material is, generally, examined by

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A. Naked eye

B. Optical microscope

C. Metallurgical microscope

D. X-ray techniques

Answer: A

123. Which of the following pipes is least corrosion resistant?

A. Brass

B. Mild steel

C. Cast iron

D. Wrought iron

Answer: D

124. Wrought iron

A. Is a ductile material

B. Can be easily forged or welded

C. Cannot stand sudden and excessive shocks

D. All of these

Answer: D

125. The metallic structure of mild steel is

A. Body centered cubic

B. Face centered cubic

C. Hexagonal close packed

D. Cubic structure

Answer: A

126. The material in which the atoms are arranged regularly in some directions but not in others, is called

A. Amorphous material

B. Mesomorphous material

C. Crystalline material

D. None of these

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Answer: B

127. Vanadium in high speed steels

A. Promotes decarburisation

B. Provides high hot hardness

C. Forms very hard carbides and thus increases wear resistance

D. Promotes retention of austenite

Answer: C

128. Which of the following material has nearly zero coefficient of expansion?

A. Stainless steel

B. High speed steel

C. Invar

D. Heat resisting steel

Answer: C

129. Nodular iron has

A. High machinability

B. Low melting point

C. High tensile strength

D. All of the above

Answer: D

130. The addition of which of the following improves machining of copper?

A. Sulphur

B. Vanadium

C. Tin

D. Zinc

Answer: A

131. Pig iron is the name given to

A. Raw material for blast furnace

B. Product of blast furnace made by reduction of iron ore

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C. Iron containing huge quantities of carbon

D. Iron in molten form in the ladles

Answer: B

132. Which of the following when used in ordinary low carbon steels, makes the metal ductile and of good bending
qualities?

A. Sulphur

B. Phosphorus

C. Manganese

D. Silicon

Answer: C

133. In which of the following cases, consideration of creep is important

A. Flywheel of steam engine

B. Cast iron pipes

C. Cycle chains

D. Gas turbine blades

Answer: D

134. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. The product produced by blast-furnace is called cast iron

B. The pig iron is the name given to the product produced by cupola

C. The cast iron has high tensile strength

D. The chilled cast iron has no graphite

Answer: D

135. Muntz metal contains copper and zinc in the ratio of

A. 50 : 50

B. 40 : 60

C. 60 : 40

D. 20 : 80

Answer: C

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136. 1841 high speed steel contains

A. Vanadium 4%, chromium 18% and tungsten 1%

B. Vanadium 1%, chromium 4% and tungsten 18%

C. Vanadium 18%, chromium 1% and tungsten 4%

D. None of the above

Answer: B

137. Age-hardening is related with

A. Stainless steel

B. Gun metal

C. German silver

D. Duralumin

Answer: D

138. Which of the following statement is true about brittle fracture?

A. High temperature and low strain rates favour brittle fracture

B. Many metals with hexagonal close packed (H.C.P) crystal structure commonly show brittle fracture

C. Brittle fracture is always preceded by noise

D. Cup and cone formation is characteristic for brittle materials

Answer: B

139. Recrystallization temperature can be lowered by

A. Purification of metal

B. Grain refinement

C. Working at lower temperature

D. All of the above

Answer: D

140. The ability of a material to absorb energy in the plastic range is called

A. Resilience

B. Creep

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C. Fatigue strength

D. Toughness

Answer: A

141. Maximum percentage of carbon in austenite is

A. 0.025%

B. 0.26%

C. 0.8%

D. 1.7%

Answer: D

142. In low carbon steels, ________ raises the yield point and improves the resistance to atmospheric corrosion.

A. Sulphur

B. Phosphorus

C. Manganese

D. Silicon

Answer: B

143. Super conduction by metals is observed in the temperature range of

A. Below 10°K

B. Above 100°K

C. Around 0°C

D. Around 100°C

Answer: A

144. Connecting rod is, usually, made from

A. Low carbon steel

B. High carbon steel

C. Medium carbon steel

D. High speed steel

Answer: C

145. Ferromagnetic alpha iron exists in temperature range of

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A. Below 723°C

B. 770 to 910°C

C. 910 to 1440°C

D. 1400 to 1539°C

Answer: A

146. Which of the following impurity in cast iron promotes graphite nodule formation and increases the fluidity of
the molten metal?

A. Silicon

B. Sulphur

C. Manganese

D. Phosphorus

Answer: A

147. For the allotropic forms of iron, the points of arrest are

A. The points where no further change occurs

B. Constant for all metals

C. The points where there is no further flow of metal

D. The points of discontinuity

Answer: D

148. Inconel contains

A. 65% nickel, 15% chromium and 20% iron

B. 68% nickel, 29% copper and 3% other constituents

C. 80% nickel and 20% chromium

D. 80% nickel, 14% chromium and 6% iron

Answer: D

149. A reversible change in the atomic structure of the steel with a corresponding change in the properties is known
as

A. Allotropic change

B. Recrystallization

C. Heat treatment

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D. Precipitation

Answer: A

150. A material is said to be allotropic, if it has

A. Fixed structure at all temperatures

B. Atoms distributed in random pattern

C. Different crystal structures at different temperatures

D. Any one of the above

Answer: C

151. An important property of high silicon (12-18%) cast iron is the high

A. Hardness

B. Brittleness

C. Plasticity

D. Ductility

Answer: A

152. Dye penetrant method is generally used to locate

A. Core defects

B. Surface defects

C. Superficial defects

D. Temporary defects

Answer: B

153. Constantan an alloy used in thermocouples is an alloy of

A. Copper and tin

B. Copper and zinc

C. Copper and iron

D. Copper and nickel

Answer: D

154. Delta-iron occurs between the temperature ranges of

A. 400°C to 600°C

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B. 600°C to 900°C

C. 900°C to 1400°C

D. 1400°C to 1530°C

Answer: D

155. White cast iron contains carbon in the form of

A. Free carbon

B. Graphite

C. Cementite

D. White carbon

Answer: C

156. The heat treatment process used for softening hardened steel is

A. Carburising

B. Normalizing

C. Annealing

D. Tempering

Answer: D

157. Stress relaxation is the phenomenon

A. In which parts are not loaded

B. In which stress remains constant on increasing load

C. In which deformation tends to loosen the joint and produces a stress reduced

D. Stress reduces on increasing load

Answer: C

158. Babbitt metal is a

A. Lead base alloy

B. Copper base alloy

C. Tin base alloy

D. Cadmium base alloy

Answer: C

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159. Hardness of lower bainite (tempered martensite) is about

A. RC 65

B. RC 48

C. RC 57

D. RC 80

Answer: C

160. Silicon when added to copper improves

A. Machinability

B. Hardness

C. Hardness and strength

D. Strength and ductility

Answer: C

161. A material is known as allotropic or polymorphic if it

A. Has a fixed structure under all conditions

B. Exists in several crystal forms at different temperatures

C. Responds to heat treatment

D. Has its atoms distributed in a random pattern

Answer: B

162. The brown smoke during the operation of a Bessemer converter indicates that the

A. Air is burning out silicon and manganese

B. Silicon and manganese has burnt and carbon has started oxidizing

C. The converter must be titled to remove the contents of the converter

D. The brown smoke does not occur during the operation of a Bessemer converter

Answer: A

163. The percentage of carbon in low carbon steel is

A. 0.05%

B. 0.15%

C. 0.3%

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D. 0.5%

Answer: B

164. A small percentage of boron is added to steel in order to

A. Increase hardenability

B. Reduce machinability

C. Increase wear resistance

D. Increase endurance strength

Answer: A

165. Neutral solution is one which has pH value

A. Greater than 7

B. Less than 7

C. Equal to 7

D. pH value has nothing to do with neutral solution

Answer: C

166. The coordination number of a face centered cubic space lattice is

A. Six

B. Twelve

C. Eighteen

D. Twenty

Answer: B

167. Lead is poured into the joint between two pipes. These pipes may be made of

A. Cast iron

B. Vitrified clay

C. Asbestos cement

D. Concrete

Answer: A

168. Brass is an alloy of

A. Copper and zinc

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B. Copper and tin

C. Copper, tin and zinc

D. None of these

Answer: A

169. Malleability of a material can be defined as

A. Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in compression

B. Ability to recover its original form

C. Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension

D. All of the above

Answer: A

170. Tin base white metals are used where the bearings are subjected to

A. Large surface wear

B. Elevated temperatures

C. Light load and pressure

D. High pressure and load

Answer: A

171. Which of the following is not the correct method of increasing fatigue limit?

A. Shot peening

B. Nitriding of surface

C. Cold working

D. Surface decarburisation

Answer: D

172. In full annealing, the hypo eutectoid steel is heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and
then cooled

A. In still air

B. Slowly in the furnace

C. Suddenly in a suitable cooling medium

D. Any one of these

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Answer: B

173. Materials after cold working are subjected to following process to relieve stresses

A. Hot working

B. Tempering

C. Normalizing

D. Annealing

Answer: D

174. Iron-carbon alloys containing 1.7 to 4.3% carbon are known as

A. Eutectic cast irons

B. Hypoeutectic cast irons

C. Hypereutectic cast irons

D. None of these

Answer: B

175. Which is false statement about case hardening? Case hardening is done by

A. Electroplating

B. Cyaniding

C. Induction hardening

D. Nitriding

Answer: A

176. White cast iron has

A. Carbon in the form of carbide

B. Low tensile strength

C. High compressive strength

D. All of these

Answer: D

177. Following elements have face-centered cubic structure

A. Gamma iron (910° to 1400°C), Cu, Ag, Au, Al, Ni, Pb, Pt

B. Mg, Zn, Ti, Zr, Br, Cd

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C. A iron (below 910°C and between 1400 to 1539°C), W

D. All of the above

Answer: A

178. When low carbon steel is heated up to lower critical temperature

A. There is no change in grain size

B. The average grain size is a minimum

C. The grain size increases very rapidly

D. The grain size first increases and then decreases very rapidly

Answer: A

179. The molecules in a solid move

A. In a random manner

B. In a haphazard way

C. In circular motion

D. Back and forth like tiny pendulums

Answer: D

180. Balls for ball bearings are made of

A. Cast iron

B. Mild steel

C. Stainless steel

D. Carbon-chrome steel

Answer: D

181. Which of the following display properties similar to that of steel?

A. Blackheart cast iron

B. Whiteheart cast iron

C. BothA. andB.

D. None of these

Answer: C

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182. Which is false statement about properties of aluminium?

A. Modulus of elasticity is fairly low

B. Wear resistance is very good

C. Fatigue strength is not high

D. Creep strength limits its use to fairly low temperatures

Answer: B

183. The steel widely used for motor car crankshafts is

A. Nickel steel

B. Chrome steel

C. Nickel-chrome steel

D. Silicon steel

Answer: B

184. Foundry crucible is made of

A. Mild steel

B. German silver

C. Lead

D. Graphite

Answer: D

185. The stiffness is the ability of a material to resist

A. Deformation under stress

B. Fracture due to high impact loads

C. Externally applied forces with breakdown or yielding

D. None of the above

Answer: A

186. The ability of a material to resist softening at high temperature is known as

A. Creep

B. Hot tempering

C. Hot hardness

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D. Fatigue

Answer: C

187. The type of space lattice found in alpha-iron is

A. Face centered cubic space lattice

B. Body centered cubic space lattice

C. Close packed hexagonal space lattice

D. None of these

Answer: B

188. Mild steel belongs to the following category

A. Low carbon steel

B. Medium carbon steel

C. High carbon steel

D. Alloy steel

Answer: A

189. Closed packed hexagonal space lattice is found in

A. Zinc, magnesium, cobalt, cadmium, antimony and bismuth

B. Gamma-iron, aluminium, copper, lead, silver and nickel

C. Alpha-iron, tungsten, chromium and molybdenum

D. None of the above

Answer: A

190. The ultimate tensile strength of low carbon steel by working at a high strain rate will

A. Decrease

B. Increase

C. Remain constant

D. First increase and then decrease

Answer: B

191. When elements like nickel, chromium, copper and molybdenum are added to the molten cast iron, it produces

A. White cast iron

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B. Nodular cast iron

C. Malleable cast iron

D. Alloy cast iron

Answer: D

192. Slow plastic deformation of metals under a constant stress is known as

A. Creep

B. Fatigue

C. Endurance

D. Plastic deformation

Answer: A

193. The elastic stress strain behavior of rubber is

A. Linear

B. Nonlinear

C. Plastic

D. No fixed relationship

Answer: B

194. Isotropic materials are those which have the same

A. Elastic properties in all directions

B. Stresses induced in all directions

C. Thermal properties in all directions

D. Electric and magnetic properties in all directions

Answer: A

195. Which of the following metal is used in making electrical resistance wire for electric furnaces and heating
elements?

A. Babbitt metal

B. Monel metal

C. Nichrome

D. Phosphor bronze

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Answer: C

196. Recrystallization temperature is one

A. At which crystals first start forming from molten metal when it is cooled

B. At which new spherical crystals first begin to form from the old deformed one when a strained metal is heated

C. At which change of allotropic form takes place

D. At which crystals grow bigger in size

Answer: B

197. The charge is fed into the blast furnace through the

A. Stack

B. Throat

C. Bosh

D. Tyres

Answer: B

198. Delta iron occurs at temperature of

A. Room temperature

B. Above melting point

C. Between 1400°C and 1539°C

D. Between 910°C and 1400°C

Answer: C

199. The property of a material essential for spring materials is

A. Stiffness

B. Ductility

C. Resilience

D. Plasticity

Answer: C

200. Which of the following constituents of steels is softest and least strong?

A. Austenite

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B. Pearlite

C. Ferrite

D. Cementite

Answer: C

201. Which of the following is an amorphous material?

A. Mica

B. Silver

C. Lead

D. Glass

Answer: D

202. The following types of materials are usually the most ductile

A. Face centered cubic lattice

B. Body centered cubic lattice

C. Hexagonal close packed lattice

D. All of the above

Answer: A

203. Chromium when added to steel _________ the tensile strength.

A. Does not effect

B. Decreases

C. Increases

D. None of these

Answer: C

204. Pure iron is the structure of

A. Ferrite

B. Pearlite

C. Austenite

D. Ferrite and cementite

Answer: A

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205. The lower critical temperature

A. Decreases as the carbon content in steel increases

B. Increases as the carbon content in steel increases

C. Is same for all steels

D. Depends upon the rate of heating

Answer: C

206. Gamma iron exits at following temperature

A. Room temperature

B. Near melting point

C. Between 1400°C and 1539°C

D. Between 910°C and 1400°C

Answer: D

207. In induction hardening ________ is high.

A. Current

B. Voltage

C. Frequency

D. Temperature

Answer: C

208. Paramagnetic alpha iron changes to gamma iron at

A. 770°C

B. 910°C

C. 1440°C

D. 1539°C

Answer: B

209. Which of the following statements are true for annealing of steels?

A. Steels are heated to 500 to 700°C

B. Cooling is done slowly and steadily

C. Internal stresses are relieved

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D. All of these

Answer: D

210. The crystal structure of gamma iron is

A. Body centered cubic

B. Face centered cubic

C. Hexagonal close packed

D. Cubic structure

Answer: B

211. Induction hardening is basically a

A. Carburising process

B. Surface hardening process

C. Core hardening process

D. None of these

Answer: B

212. The crystal of alpha iron is

A. Body centered cubic

B. Face centered cubic

C. Hexagonal close packed

D. Cubic structure

Answer: A

213. Malleable cast iron is produced

A. By adding magnesium to molten cast iron

B. By quick cooling of molten cast iron

C. From white cast iron by annealing process

D. None of these

Answer: C

214. The unique property of cast iron is its high

Page 432 of 592

A. Malleability

B. Ductility

C. Surface finish

D. Damping characteristics

Answer: D

215. Steel containing ferrite and pearlite is

A. Hard

B. Soft

C. Tough

D. Hard and tough

Answer: B

216. Cast iron is characterized by minimum of following percentage of carbon

A. 0.2%

B. 0.8%

C. 1.3%

D. 2%

Answer: D

217. Grey cast iron has

A. Carbon in the form of free graphite

B. High tensile strength

C. Low compressive strength

D. All of these

Answer: A

218. In grey cast iron, carbon is present in the form of

A. Cementite

B. Free carbon

C. Flakes

D. Spheroids

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Answer: C

219. In nodular iron, graphite is in the form of

A. Cementite

B. Free carbon

C. Flakes

D. Spheroids

Answer: D

220. In high speed steels, manganese is used to tougher the metal and to increase its

A. Yield point

B. Critical temperature

C. Melting point

D. Hardness

Answer: B

221. In malleable iron, carbon is present in the form of

A. Cementite

B. Free carbon

C. Flakes

D. Nodular aggregates of graphite

Answer: D

222. The purpose of heat treatment is to

A. Relieve the stresses set up in the material after hot or cold working

B. Modify the structure of the material

C. Change grain size

D. Any one of these

Answer: D

223. Wrought iron is

A. Hard

B. High in strength

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C. Highly resistant to corrosion

D. Heat treated to change its properties

Answer: C

224. When the steel is normalized, its

A. Yield point increases

B. Ductility decreases

C. Ultimate tensile strength increases

D. All of these

Answer: D

225. Sulphur in pig iron tends to make it

A. Hard

B. Soft

C. Ductile

D. Tough

Answer: A

226. Pick up wrong statement about wrought iron

A. It contains carbon of the order of 0 to 0.25%

B. It melts at 1535°C

C. It is very soft and ductile

D. It is made by adding suitable percentage of carbon to molten iron and subjecting the product to repeated
hammering and rolling

Answer: D

227. Combined carbon in iron makes the metal

A. Soft and gives coarse grained crystalline structure

B. Soft and gives a fine grained crystalline structure

C. Hard and gives a coarse grained crystalline structure

D. Hard and gives a fine grained crystalline structure

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Answer: D

228. Iron is

A. Paramagnetic

B. Ferromagnetic

C. Ferroelectric

D. Dielectric

Answer: B

229. Manganese is added in low carbon steel to

A. Make the steel tougher and harder

B. Raise the yield point

C. Make the steel ductile and of good bending qualities

D. All of the above

Answer: C

230. Chilled cast iron has

A. No graphite

B. A very high percentage of graphite

C. A low percentage of graphite

D. Graphite as its basic constituent of composition

Answer: A

231. The metal suitable for bearings subjected to light loads, is

A. Silicon bronze

B. White metal

C. Monel metal

D. Phosphor bronze

Answer: D

232. Cast iron has

A. High tensile strength

B. Its elastic limit close to the ultimate breaking strength

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C. High ductility

D. All of the above

Answer: B

233. Nodular cast iron is produced by adding ________ to the molten cast iron.

A. Nickel

B. Chromium

C. Copper

D. Magnesium

Answer: D

234. In mottled cast iron, carbon is available in

A. Free form

B. Combined form

C. Nodular form

D. Partly in free and partly in combined state

235. An important property of malleable cast iron in comparison to grey cast iron is the high

A. Compressive strength

B. Ductility

C. Carbon content

D. Hardness

Answer: B

236. Monel metal is an alloy of

A. Nickel and copper

B. Nickel and chromium

C. Nickel, Chromium and iron

D. Copper and chromium

Answer: A

238. Carbon steel is

A. Made by adding carbon in steel

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B. Refined from cast iron

C. An alloy of iron and carbon with varying quantities of phosphorus and sulphur

D. Extensively used for making cutting tools

Answer: C

239. Annealing of white cast iron results in production of

A. Malleable iron

B. Nodular iron

C. Spheroidal iron

D. Grey iron

Answer: A

240. The alloying element which can replace tungsten in high speed steels is

A. Nickel

B. Vanadium

C. Cobalt

D. Molybdenum

Answer: D

241. ‗Killed steels‘ are those steels

A. Which are destroyed by burning

B. Which after their destruction are recycled to produce fresh steel

C. Which are deoxidized in the ladle with silicon and aluminium

D. In which carbon is completely burnt

Answer: C

242. Hardness of steel depends on

A. Amount of carbon it contains

B. The shape and distribution of the carbides in iron

C. Method of fabrication

D. Contents of alloying elements

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Answer: B

243. Free carbon in iron makes the metal

A. Soft and gives a coarse grained crystalline structure

B. Soft and gives a fine grained crystalline structure

C. Hard and gives a coarse grained crystalline structure

D. Hard and gives a fine grained crystalline structure

Answer: A

244. Maximum percentage of carbon in ferrite is

A. 0.025%

B. 0.06%

C. 0.1%

D. 0.25%

Answer: A

245. Tungsten when added to steel __________ the critical temperature.

A. Does not effect

B. Lowers

C. Raises

D. None of these

Answer: C

246. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by addition of

A. Chromium and nickel

B. Sulphur, phosphorus, lead

C. Vanadium, aluminium

D. Tungsten, molybdenum, vanadium, chromium

Answer: A

247. The material widely used for making pendulums of clocks is

A. Stainless steel

B. High speed steel

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C. Heat resisting steel

D. Nickel steel

Answer: D

248. The most effective inhibitor of grain growth, when added in small quantities is

A. Carbon

B. Vanadium

C. Manganese

D. Cobalt

Answer: B

249. The property of a material due to which it breaks with little permanent distortion, is called

A. Brittleness

B. Ductility

C. Malleability

D. Plasticity

Answer: A

250. Depth of hardness of steel is increased by addition of

A. Nickel

B. Chromium

C. Tungsten

D. Vanadium

Answer: B

251. When filing or machining cast iron makes our hands black, then it shows that ________ is present in cast iron.

A. Cementite

B. Free graphite

C. Both ‗A‘ and ‗B‘

D. None of these

Answer: B

252. Railway rails are normally made of

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A. Mild steel

B. Alloy steel

C. High carbon

D. Tungsten steel

Answer: C

253. The carbon in the pig iron varies from

A. 0.1 to 0.5%

B. 0.5 to 1%

C. 1 to 5%

D. 5 to 10%

Answer: C

254. Machining properties of steel are improved by adding

A. Sulphur, lead, phosphorous

B. Silicon, aluminium, titanium

C. Vanadium, aluminium

D. Chromium, nickel

Answer: A

255. The hardness of steel depends upon the

A. Amount of cementite it contains

B. Amount of carbon it contains

C. Contents of alloying elements

D. Method of manufacture of steel

Answer: A

256. Eutectoid steel contains following percentage of carbon

A. 0.02%

B. 0.3%

C. 0.63%

D. 0.8%

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Answer: D

257. The electric process of steel making is especially adapted to

A. Alloy and carbon tool steel

B. Magnet steel

C. High speed tool steel

D. All of these

Answer: D

258. The basic constituents of Hastelloy are

A. Aluminium, copper etc.

B. Nickel, molybdenum etc.

C. Nickel, Copper, etc.

D. All of the above

Answer: B

259. German silver contains

A. 1% silver

B. 2% silver

C. 5% silver

D. No silver

Answer: D

260. Basic constituents of Monel metal are

A. Nickel, copper

B. Nickel, molybdenum

C. Zinc, tin, lead

D. Nickel, lead and tin

Answer: A

261. An alloy of copper, tin and zinc is known as

A. Brass

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B. Bronze

C. Gun metal

D. Muntz metal

Answer: C

262. German silver is an alloy of

A. Silver and some impurities

B. Refined silver

C. Nickel, Copper and zinc

D. Nickel and copper

Answer: C

263. Quenching is not necessary when hardening is done by

A. Case hardening

B. Flame hardening

C. Nitriding

D. Any one of these

264. Surveying tapes are made of a material having low coefficient of expansion and enough strength. The alloy
used is

A. Silver metal

B. Duralumin

C. Hastelloy

D. Invar

Answer: D

265. The alloying element which increases residual magnetism and coercive magnetic force in steel for magnets is

A. Chromium

B. Nickel

C. Vanadium

D. Cobalt

Answer: D

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266. A cold chisel is made of

A. Mild steel

B. Cast iron

C. H.S.S.

D. High carbon

Answer: D

267. Blast furnace is used to produce

A. Pig iron

B. Cast iron

C. Wrought iron

D. Steel

Answer: A

268. An engineer‘s hammer is made of

A. Cast iron

B. Forged steel

C. Mild steel

D. High carbon steel

Answer: D

269. The blade of a power saw is made of

A. Boron steel

B. High speed steel

C. Stainless steel

D. Malleable cast iron

Answer: B

14. Inconel is an alloy of

A. Nickel, chromium and iron

B. Nickel, copper

C. Nickel, Chromium

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D. Nickel, zinc

270. The strength is the ability of a material to resist

A. Deformation under stress

B. Externally applied forces with breakdown or yielding

C. Fracture due to high impact loads

D. None of these

Answer: B

271. By severely deforming a metal in a particular direction it becomes

A. Ductile

B. Malleable

C. Homogeneous

D. Anisotropic

Answer: D

272. Solder is an alloy consisting of

A. Tin, antimony, copper

B. Tin and copper

C. Tin and lead

D. Lead and zinc

Answer: B

273. Iron ore is usually found in the form of

A. Oxides

B. Carbonates

C. Sulphides

D. All of these

Answer: D

274. Cyaniding is the process of

A. Dipping steel in cyanide bath

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B. Reacting steel surface with cyanide salts

C. Adding carbon and nitrogen by heat treatment of steel to increase its surface hardness

D. Obtaining cyanide salts

Answer: C

275. Shock resistance of steel is increased by adding

A. Nickel

B. Chromium

C. Nickel and chromium

D. Sulphur, lead and phosphorus

Answer: C

276. Induction hardening is the process of

A. Hardening surface of work-piece to obtain hard and wear resistant surface

B. Heating and cooling rapidly

C. Increasing hardness throughout

D. Inducing hardness by continuous process

Answer: A

277. The loss of strength in compression with simultaneous gain in strength in tension due to overloading is known
as

A. Hysteresis

B. Creep

C. Visco elasticity

D. Boeschinger effect

Answer: D

278. Process of Austempering results in

A. Formation of bainite structure

B. Carburised structure

C. Martenistic structure

D. Lamellar layers of carbide distributed throughout the structure

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Answer: A

279. Hardness of martensite is about

A. RC 65

B. RC 48

C. RC 57

D. RC 80

Answer: A

280. Ball bearings are, usually, made from

A. Low carbon steel

B. High carbon steel

C. Medium carbon steel

D. Chrome steel

Answer: D

281. Weld decay is the phenomenon found with

A. Cast iron

B. Mild steel

C. Nonferrous materials

D. Stainless steel

Answer: D

282. Hardness of upper bainite (acicular structure) is about

A. RC 65

B. RC 48

C. RC 57

D. RC 80

Answer: B

283. Carbon in iron is an example of

A. Substitutional solution

B. Interstitial solid solution

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C. Intermetallic compounds

D. All of the above

Answer: B

284. Argentite is the principal ore or raw material for

A. Aluminium

B. Tin

C. Zinc

D. Silver

Answer: D

285. Nimonic contains __________ percentage of nickel as that of Inconel.

A. Same

B. Less

C. More

D. None of these

Answer: A

286. An example of amorphous material is

A. Zinc

B. Lead

C. Silver

D. Glass

Answer: D

287. Which is false statement about tempering? Tempering is done to

A. Improve machinability

B. Improve ductility

C. Improve toughness

D. Release stresses

Answer: A

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288. Which of the following is the binding material in cemented carbides?

A. Cobalt

B. Nickel

C. Vanadium

D. Iron

Answer: A

289. Shock resisting steels should have

A. Low wear resistance

B. Low hardness

C. Low tensile strength

D. Toughness

Answer: D

290. Chromium in steel

A. Improves wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness

B. Refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation, improves corrosion and heat resistant properties

C. Improves cutting ability and reduces hardenability

D. Gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anti-corrosion properties

Answer: A

291. Manganese in steel increases its

A. Tensile strength

B. Hardness

C. Ductility

D. Fluidity

Answer: A

292. Tungsten in high speed steel provides

A. Hot hardness

B. Toughness

C. Wear resistance

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D. Sharp cutting edge

Answer: A

293. Sulphur in cast iron

A. Makes the iron soft and easily machinable

B. Increases hardness and brittleness

C. Make the iron white and hard

D. Aids fusibility and fluidity

Answer: B

294. Connecting rod is usually made of

A. Aluminium

B. Low carbon steel

C. Medium carbon steel

D. High carbon steel

Answer: C

295. The hardness is the property of a material due to which it

A. Can be drawn into wires

B. Breaks with little permanent distortion

C. Can cut another metal

D. Can be rolled or hammered into thin sheets

Answer: C

296. High carbon steel carries carbon percentage

A. 0.1 to 0.3%

B. 0.3 to 0.6%

C. 0.6 to 0.8%

D. 0.8 to 1.5%

Answer: D

297. The hardness of steel increases if it contains

A. Austenite

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B. Martensite

C. Pearlite

D. Cementite

Answer: B

298. The presence of sulphur in pig iron makes

A. It easily machinable

B. It brittle

C. It hard

D. The casting unsound

Answer: D

299. Melting point of iron is

A. 1539°C

B. 1601°C

C. 1489°C

D. 1712°C

Answer: A

300. Compressive strength of grey cast iron in tonnes/cm is of the order of

A. 35

B. 57

C. 710

D. 1015

Answer: B

301. Cupola produces following material

A. Cast iron

B. Pig iron

C. Wrought iron

D. Malleable iron

Answer: A

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302. Beryllium bronze has

A. High yield point

B. High fatigue limit

C. BothA. andB.

D. None of these

Answer: C

303. The machinability of steel is increased by

A. Silicon and sulphur

B. Phosphorous, lead and sulphur

C. Sulphur, graphite and aluminium

D. Phosphorous and aluminium

Answer: B

304. Drop forging dies contain carbon of the order of

A. 0.1 to 0.2%

B. 0.25 to 0.5%

C. 0.6 to 0.7%

D. 0.7 to 0.9%

Answer: C

305. The alloying element which reduces the formation of iron sulphide in steel is

A. Chromium

B. Nickel

C. Vanadium

D. Manganese

Answer: D

306. Preheating is essential in welding

A. Cast iron

B. High speed steel

C. All nonferrous materials

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D. All of the above

Answer: A

307. Steel made from phosphate iron is

A. Brittle

B. Hard

C. Ductile

D. Tough

Answer: A

308. The crystal structure of brass is

A. F.C.C.

B. B.C.C.

C. H.C.P.

D. Orthorhombic crystalline structure

Answer: A

309. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding

A. Chromium and nickel

B. Nickel and molybdenum

C. Aluminium and zinc

D. Tungsten and sulphur

Answer: A

310. Which of the following is used for bearing liner?

A. Gun metal

B. Bronze

C. Bell metal

D. Babbitt metal

Answer: D

311. Aluminium bronze contains aluminium and copper in the ratio of

A. 50 : 50

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B. 40 : 60

C. 60 : 40

D. 10 : 90

Answer: D

312. Bronze contains

A. 70% copper and 30% zinc

B. 90% copper and 10% tin

C. 85 – 92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel

D. 70 – 75% copper and rest tin

Answer: B

313. Gun metal contains

A. 70% copper and 30% zinc

B. 90% copper and 10% tin

C. 85 – 92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel

D. 70 – 78% copper and rest tin

Answer: C

314. Perminvar alloy having constant permeability is an alloy of

A. Nickel, copper and iron

B. Nickel, copper and zinc

C. Copper, nickel and antimony

D. Iron, zinc and bismuth

Answer: A

315. The alloy used for making electrical resistances and heating elements is

A. Nichrome

B. Invar

C. Magnin

D. Elinvar

Answer: A

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316. Permalloy is a

A. Kind of stainless steel

B. None ferrous alloy

C. Polymer

D. Nickel and iron alloy having high permeability

Answer: D

317. Phosphor bronze contains

A. 0.5% of phosphorous

B. 1% phosphorous

C. 2.5% phosphorous

D. None of the above

Answer: D

318. Free cutting steels

A. Are used where ease in machining is the criterion

B. Contain carbon in free form

C. Require least cutting force

D. Do not exist

Answer: Option

319. Delta metal is an alloy of

A. Copper, zinc and iron

B. Iron, nickel and copper

C. Iron, lead and tin

D. Iron, aluminium and magnesium

Answer: A

320. Addition of copper to aluminium results in

A. Improvement of casting characteristics

B. Improvement of corrosion resistance

C. One of the best known age and precipitation hardening systems

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D. Improving machinability

Answer: C

322. Addition of lead and bismuth to aluminium results in

A. Improvement of casting characteristics

B. Improvement of corrosion resistance

C. One of the best known age and precipitation hardening systems

D. Improving machinability

Answer: D

323. Cast iron is a

A. Ductile material

B. Malleable material

C. Brittle material

D. Tough material

Answer: C

324. Addition of silicon to aluminium results in

A. Improvement of casting characteristics

B. Improvement of corrosion resistance

C. One of the best known age and precipitation hardening systems

D. Improving machinability

Answer: A

325. White metal contains

A. 63 to 67% nickel and 30% copper

B. 88% copper and 10% tin and rest zinc

C. Alloy of tin, lead and cadmium

D. Silver and chromium

Answer: C

326. German silver contains

A. 1% silver

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B. 2.5% silver

C. 5% silver

D. 10% silver

Answer: C

327. Smelting is the process of

A. Removing the impurities like clay, sand etc. from the iron ore by washing with water

B. Expelling moisture, carbon dioxide, sulphur and arsenic from the iron ore by heating in shallow kilns

C. Reducing the ore with carbon in the presence of a flux

D. All of the above

Answer: C

328. Babbitt metal is a

A. Lead base alloy

B. Tin base alloy

C. Copper base alloy

D. BothA. andC. above

Answer: D

329. Duralumin contains

A. 94% aluminium, 4% copper and 0.5% Mn, Mg, Si and Fe

B. 92.5% aluminium, 40% copper, 2% nickel, and 1.5% Mg

C. 10% aluminium and 90% copper

D. 90% magnesium and 9% aluminium with some copper

Answer: A

330. Which of the following material has maximum ductility?

A. Mild steel

B. Copper

C. Nickel

D. Aluminium

Answer: A

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331. Acidic solution is one which has pH value

A. Greater than 7

B. Less than 7

C. Equal to 7

D. pH value has nothing to do with neutral solution

Answer: B

332. Basic solution is one which has pH value

A. Greater than 7

B. Equal to 7

C. Less than 7

D. pH value has nothing to do with basic solution

Answer: A

333. Pearlite is a combination of

A. Ferrite and cementite

B. Cementite and gamma iron

C. Ferrite and austenite

D. Ferrite and iron graphite

Answer: A

334. Austenite is a combination of

A. Ferrite and cementite

B. Cementite and gamma iron

C. Ferrite and austenite

D. Ferrite and iron graphite

Answer: B

335. Specify the sequence correctly

A. Grain growth, recrystallization, stress relief

B. Stress relief, grain growth, recrystallization

C. Stress relief, recrystallization, grain growth

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D. Grain growth, stress relief, recrystallization

Answer: C

336. The transistor is made of

A. Silver

B. Gold

C. Copper

D. Germanium

Answer: D

337. Thermoplastic materials are those materials which

A. Are formed into shape under heat and pressure and results in a permanently hard product

B. Do not become hard with the application of heat and pressure and no chemical change occurs

C. Are flexible and can withstand considerable wear under suitable conditions

D. Are used as a friction lining for clutches and brakes

Answer: B

338. The percentage of carbon in cast iron varies from

A. 0.1 to 0.5

B. 0.5 to 1

C. 1 to 1.7

D. 1.7 to 4.5

Answer: D

339. The hardness and tensile strength in austenitic stainless steel can be increased by

A. Hardening and cold working

B. Normalizing

C. Martempering

D. Full annealing

Answer: A

340. An alloy steel which is work hardenable and which is used to make the blades of bulldozers, bucket wheel
excavators and other earth moving equipment contain iron, carbon and

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A. Chromium

B. Silicon

C. Manganese

D. Magnesium

Answer: C

341. Beryllium bronze contains

A. 60% copper and 40% beryllium

B. 80% copper and 20% beryllium

C. 97.75% copper and 2.25% beryllium

D. 99% copper and 1% beryllium

Answer: C

342. Cast iron is manufactured in

A. Blast furnace

B. Cupola

C. Open hearth furnace

D. Bessemer converter

Answer: B

343. The lower critical point for all steels is

A. 600°C

B. 700°C

C. 723°C

D. 913°C

Answer: C

344. The hardness of steel increases if it contains

A. Pearlite

B. Ferrite

C. Cementite

D. Martensite

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Answer: C

345. The cupola is used to manufacture

A. Pig iron

B. Cast iron

C. Wrought iron

D. Steel

Answer: B

346. The type of space lattice found in gamma-iron is

A. Face centered cubic space lattice

B. Body centered cubic space lattice

C. Close packed hexagonal space lattice

D. None of these

Answer: A

347. Cartridge brass can be

A. Cold rolled into sheets

B. Drawn into wires

C. Formed into tube

D. Any one of these

Answer: D

348. Which of the following steel making process is being adopted at Rourkela (in India) Steel Plant?

A. Bessemer process

B. Open hearth process

C. Electric process

D. LD process

Answer: D

349. Bronze is an alloy of

A. Copper and zinc

Page 461 of 592

B. Copper and tin

C. Copper, tin and zinc

D. None of these

Answer: B

350. Steel with __________ carbon is known as hypo-eutectoid steel.

A. 0.8%

B. Below 0.8%

C. Above 0.8%

D. None of these

Answer: B

351. Age hardening is related to

A. Duralumin

B. Brass

C. Copper

D. Silver

Answer: A

352. The maximum internal diameter of a blast furnace is about

A. 3 m

B. 6 m

C. 9 m

D. 12 m

Answer: C

353. The machinability of aluminium increases when _________ is added to aluminium.

A. Copper

B. Magnesium

C. Silicon

D. Lead and bismuth

Answer: D

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354. Eutectoid reaction occurs at

A. 600°C

B. 723°C

C. 1147°C

D. 1493°C

Answer: B

355. Nickel when added to copper improves

A. Machinability

B. Hardness

C. Hardness and strength

D. Strength and ductility

Answer: B

300+ TOP Material Handling MCQs and Answers Quiz Test

Material Handling Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following resistance depends on the train speed?

A. Journal friction

B. Track resistance

C. Frictional resistance

D. all of the above

Answer: D.all of the above

2. In case of electric traction, power supply frequency for 25 kV single phase system is

A. 60 Hz

B. 16? Hz

C. 25 Hz

E. 50 Hz

Answer: E.50 Hz

3. The number of cylinders in case of steam locomotives is

Page 463 of 592

A. Eight

B. Four

D. Two

E. One

Answer: D.Two

4. In case of screw conveyors, cut flights are used for

A. grains

B. cereals

C. light materials

D. all of the above

Answer: D.all of the above

5. Which one of the following shovel excavators is considered most efficient in loading carriers?

A. Dipper shovel

B.

C. Clam shell

D. Back hoe

E. Drag line

Answer: A.Dipper shovel

6. In screw conveyors, ribbon screws are used for

A. wet and sticky materials

B. granular materials

C. none of the above

Answer: A.wet and sticky materials

7. A jack having 2 cm as the diameter of the screw at the root of the thread, may be expected to safely lift a load of
about

A. 25 to 30 tonnes

B. 40 to 50 tonnes

C. 5 to 7 tonnes

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D. 35 to 40 tonnes

Answer: C.5 to 7 tonnes

8. Automatic scales can be used with

A. belt conveyors

B. apron conveyors

C. pivoted bucked carriers

D. Any of the above

Answer: D.Any of the above

9. The angle of repose depends on

A. shape of the material

B. smoothness of the material

C. degree of fineness of the material

D. all of the above

Answer: D.all of the above

10. Car shakers are often used for

A. unloading of coal

B. loading of granular materials

C. both (A) and (B) above

D. None of the above

Answer: A.unloading of coal

11. A four wheel drive has

A. differential on rear side only

B. differential on front side only

C. both front as well as rer differentials

D. no differential

Answer: C.both front as well as rer differentials

12. The maximum degree of broad gauge line is

A. 8?

Page 465 of 592

B. 10?

C. 12?

D. 14?

Answer: B.10?

13. In case of flight conveyors the angle of flight is seldom allowed to exceed

A. 40?

B. 75?

C. 70?

D. 60?

Answer: E.40?

14. In case of pneumatic system, a receiver is

A. a device for storing compressed air

B. a divice for storing atmospheric air

C. a device for cleaning air

D. a device for cooling air

Answer: A.a device for storing compressed air

15. Flight conveyors are mainly used for conveying

A. grains

B. iron ore

C. bauxite

D. coal

Answer: D.coal

16. A chain link while in use may be subjected to

A. bending

B. shear

C. tension

D. Any of the above

Answer: D.Any of the above

Page 466 of 592

17. In case of a single girder overhead travelling crane, the section used is

A. I-beam

B. Z-section

D. angle iron

E. a channel

Answer: A.I-beam

18. The distance between the rails of a metre gauge railway line is

A. One metre

B. 0.692 metre

C. 4 ft, 6

D. 3 ft, 9

Answer: A.One metre

19. Pneumatic conveyors are generally used for conveying

A. package goods

B. granular material

C. mineral ores

E. heavy goods

Answer: B.granular material

20. Electric motor used for skip hoists may be

A. dc motor

B. Slip ring type induction motor

C. Ward Leonard system

D. Any of the above

Answer: D.Any of the above

21. We know that acid phosphate (damp) adheres to the belt of belt conveyor. Which of the following conveyor will
be preferred for conveying this material?

A. Screw conveyor

B. Flight conveyor

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C. pneumatic conveyor

D. Any of the above

Answer: A.Screw conveyor

22. In case of an overhead travelling crane, the hoisting unit is supported on

A. a pillar

B. a bridge

C. a tower

D. Any of the above

Answer: B.a bridge

23. Which of the following material has the highest weight/volume ratio?

A. Barley

B. Coke

C. Limestone

D. Charcoal

Answer: C.Limestone

24. The expected life of a light commercial vehicle is nearly

A. 350,000 km

B. 250,000 km

C. 150,000 km

D. 50,000 km

Answer: C.150,000 km

25. In electric traction, the torque exerted is

A. continuous, pulsating

B. pulsating, continuous

D. pulsating, pulsating

E. continuous, continuous

Answer: A.continuous, pulsating

26. A 90 HP tractor dozer working on a dozing distance of about 60 m will give an output of about

Page 468 of 592

A. 4000 cu-m/hr

B. 4 cu-m/hr

D. 40 cu-m/hr

E. 400 cu-m/hr

Answer: D.40 cu-m/hr

27. A 7.5 cu.m scraper working on a 150 m haul is expected to give an output of approximately

A. 1 cu-m/hr

B. 10 cu-m/hr

C. 5 cu-m/hr

D. 100 cu-m/hr

Answer: D.100 cu-m/hr

28. The fuel consumption of a diesel engine per BHP per hour is nearly

A. 300 cc

B. 100 cc

C. 400 cc

E. 200 cc

Answer: E.200 cc

29. Jacks may be

A. screw type

B. rack-and-lever type

C. hydraulic type

D. Any of the above

Answer: D.Any of the above

30. Pneumatic cranes are used where

A. electricity could be hazardous

B. advantage could be taken of existing air supply

C. either of (A) or (B) above

Answer: C.either of (A) or (B) above

Page 469 of 592

31. The horse power of electric motor for a 50 tonne locomotive should be around

A. 5 HP

B. 750 HP

C. 7.5 HP

D. 75 HP

Answer: B.750 HP

32. Which of the following condition of rail surface will offer the least resistance?

A. Greasy

B. Very dry

D. Average dampness

E. Very wet

Answer: A.Greasy

33. Which conveyor can be used for handling wood chips?

A. Belt conveyor

B. Pneumatic conveyor

C. Screw conveyor

D. Any of the above

Answer: D.Any of the above

34. The permissible belt slope while transporting wood chips will be

A. 15?

B. 27?

C. 12?

D. 20?

Answer: B.27?

35. Alum is

A. hygroscopic

B. abrasive

C. none of the above

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Answer: B.abrasive

36. Hoisting and haulage ropes are frequently greased to

A. minimize wear

B. prevent corrosion

C. both (A) and (B) above

Answer: C.both (A) and (B) above

37. All of these form explosive dust except

A. Starch

B. Soyabean flour

C. Pulverized Mica

D. Sulphur

Answer: C.Pulverized Mica

38. All of the following could be the reasons for the formation of kinks in a rail EXCEPT

A. Uneven wear of the rail head

B. Defect in gauge alignment

C. Temperature variation

D. Loose packing at joint

Answer: C.Temperature variation

39. The pressure of air in case of pneumatic tools is generally in the range

A. 14 to 16 kg/cm2

B. 4 to 6 kg/cm2

C. 34 to 36 kg/cm2

D. 24 to 26 kg/cm2

Answer: B.4 to 6 kg/cm2

40. Most of the lifting magnets are

A. not designed for continuous duty

B. designed for continuous duty

Answer: A.not designed for continuous duty

Page 471 of 592

41. The maximum degree of curvature on metre gauge is

A. 8?

B. 12?

C. 16?

D. 10?

Answer: C.16?

42. Which of the following locomotive has the highest operational availability?

A. Steam

B. Diesel

C. Electric

Answer: C.Electric

43. Average weight/volume ration for ash is around

A. 300 kg/m3

B. 1200 kg/m3

C. 900 kg/m3

D. 600 kg/m3

Answer: D.600 kg/m3

44. While dragging, the coefficient of friction (using steel plate) will be least in case of

A. anthracite coal

B. coke

C. bituminous coal

D. hog fuel

Answer: A.anthracite coal

45. The efficiency of diesel locomotive is in the range

A. 20 to 30 percent

B. 40 to 50 percent

C. 10 to 15 percent

D. 60 to 70 percent

Page 472 of 592

Answer: E.20 to 30 percent

46. A 6 x 7 steel wire rope indicates

A. The core wire has 6 mm diameter and it is covered by seven strands

B. the rope has six wires and each wire has seven strands

C. The rope has six strands and each strand is composed of seven wires

D. The rope has 6 mm mean diameter and 7 mm outer diameter

Answer: C.The rope has six strands and each strand is composed of seven wires

47. Kink‘ in a steel wire rope is produced

A. when the rope is permanently elongated due to overloading

B. when some strands are broken

D. when a rope with a loop or twist in its length is pulled tight

E. when the rope looses its springing action

Answer: D.when a rope with a loop or twist in its length is pulled tight

48. Cable ways are generally used in

A. mining areas for transportation of minerals

B. sleepers, pipes etc

C. heavy machinery

D. None of the above

Answer: A.mining areas for transportation of minerals

49. Which hoist is generally preferred for repetitive or high speed lifting?

A. Magnetic lifting hoist

B. Electric hoist

C. Hand chain hoist

D. None of the above

Answer: B.Electric hoist

50. Coarse salt is hygroscopic and corrosive in weight. It can be transported using

A. belt conveyors

B. flight conveyors

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C. pneumatic conveyors

D. Any of the above

Answer: D.Any of the above

51. Highest density material is

A. Damp sand

B. Lead salt

C. Cement

D. Coarse salt

Answer: E.Lead salt

52. Which of the following material has the lowest weight/volume ratio?

A. Charcoal

B. Wheat

C. Lignite

D. Oats

Answer: A.Charcoal

53. Which hoist is often used in erection work?

A. Magnetic lifting hoist

B. Electric hoist

C. Hand chain hoist

D. all of the above

Answer: C.Hand chain hoist

54. Belt life is reduced by

A. impact of loading

B. conveying horizontally as compared to incline

C. using pulverized materials

D. all of the above

Answer: A.impact of loading

55. In case ac motors are used on E.O.T. the type of motor used is

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A. synchronous motor

B. wound roto-induction motor

C. squirrel case induction motor

D. Any of the above

Answer: B.wound roto-induction motor

56. The number of sleepers per rail (n = length of rail in metres)

A. is n + 1

B. varies from n + 1 to n + 3

C. varies from n + 9 to n + 12

D. varies from n + 3 to n + 6

Answer: D.varies from n + 3 to n + 6

57. Skip hoists used on blast furnaces are generally

A. manually driven

B. steam engine driven

C. electric motor driven

D. air motor driven

Answer: C.electric motor driven

58. The normal capacity of a one metre escalator is around

A. 8000 to 10000 passengers per hour

B. 1000 passengers per hour

C. 2000 to 3000 passengers per hour

D. 5000 to 6000 passengers per hour

Answer: D.5000 to 6000 passengers per hour

59. The angle of repose for anthracite coal is around

A. 37?

B. 11?

C. 27?

D. 17?

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Answer: C.27?

60. Air hoists provide

A. slow speeds only

B. infinitely variable speeds

C. stepped movement

D. fast speeds only

Answer: B.infinitely variable speeds

61. Tanker type wagons are used on railways for the transportation of

A. oils

B.

C. powders

D. fertilizers

E. grains

Answer: A.oils

62. Lifting magnets cannot be used for

A.

B. handling materials above dull-red heat

C. under water handling

D. handling dust of magnetic materials

E. handling ferrous castings

Answer: B.handling materials above dull-red heat

63. Lift trucks are used in industries generally for the transportation of

A. batches of material

B. castings only

C. non-ferrous materials

D. heavy equipment

Answer: A.batches of material

64. Which of the following device is used for dragging the material?

Page 476 of 592

A. Skip hoists

B. Escalators

C. Winches

D. Bucket elevators

Answer: C.Winches

65. Practically all power shovels can be converted for operation as

A. dragline excavators

B. cranes

C. both (A) and (B) above

D. None of the above

Answer: C.both (A) and (B) above

66. Which of the following shovel excavator has got the shortest cycle time?

A. Backhoe

B. Dipper shovel

C. Drag line

D. Clam shell

Answer: B.Dipper shovel

67. Which one of the following shovel excavator is not suitable for operation in hard soil or rock?

A. Drag line

B. Back hoe

D. Dipper shovel

E. Clam shell

Answer: E.Clam shell

68. In case of belt conveyors, a tripper is used to

A. facilitate loading

B. facilitate unloading

C. prevent shock loading

D. prevent damage to belt

Page 477 of 592

Answer: B.facilitate unloading

69. In case of skip hoists, complete control of speed from standstill to maximum for all values of load from
maximum positive to maximum negative is obtainable while using

A. Slip ring induction motor

B. dc series motor

C. dc compound motor

E. Ward Leonard system of control

Answer: E.Ward Leonard system of control

70. Bull headed rails are generally provided at

A. points and crossings

B.

C. curved tracks

D. bridges

E. bifurcation of tracks

Answer: A.points and crossings

71. The steam engine used on steam locomotive is

A. condensing, variable speed type

B. non-condensing, constant speed type

C. condensing, constant speed type

E. non-condensing, variable speed type

Answer: E.non-condensing, variable speed type

72. Identify the incorrect statement, if any

A. Crawler tractors are more compact and powerful

B. Crawler tractors can travel faster than wheel tractors

C. Crawler tractors are generally more costly than the wheeled tractors

E. Wheeled tractors are liable to slip over very smooth or loose fittings when increased power is applied to the
wheels.

Answer: B.Crawler tractors can travel faster than wheel tractors

73. Which of the following has the lowest weight/volume ratio?

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A. Chalk

B. Talc

D. Silica flour

E. Saw dust

Answer: E.Saw dust

74. The method of speed control used on 25 kV, 50 Hz single phase traction is

A. tap changing control of transformer

B. reduced current method

C. series parallel operation of motors

D. Any of the above

Answer: A.tap changing control of transformer

75. Which of the following is a hygroscopic material?

A. Purnice

B. Carbon black

D. Ammonium nitrate

E. Bone meal

Answer: D.Ammonium nitrate

76. A shovel having dipper capacity of one cubic metre working on good common earth will handle approximately

A. 100 cubic metres/hour

B. 175 cubic metres/hour

C. 15 cubic metes/hour

E. 45 cubic metres/hour

Answer: B.175 cubic metres/hour

77. Which of the following material is corrosive?

A. Sulphur

B.

C. Starch

D. Soap flakes

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E. Zinc oxide

Answer: A.Sulphur

78. Which one of the following is not a excavating and moving type machine?

A. Clam shell

B. Drag line

C. Scraper

E. Dump truck

Answer: E.Dump truck

79. Boiler plant ash is generally handled using

A. hydraulic conveyors

B. belt conveyors

C. screw conveyors

D. any of the above

Answer: A.hydraulic conveyors

80. The overall efficiency of steam locomotive system is

A. 5 to 10 percent

B.

C. 35 to 45 percent

D. 15 to 25 percent

E. 25 to 35 percent

Answer: A.5 to 10 percent

81. The phenomenon of misalignment of rails due to temperature changes is known as

A. Buckling

B.

C. Cropping

D. Hogging

E. Creeping

Answer: A.Buckling

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82. Derricks are generally used

A. in quarries

B. for construction work

C. for outdoor works

D. Any of the above

Answer: D.Any of the above

83. Wood preferred for sleepers is

A. Chir

B. Shesham

C. Deodar

E. Sal

Answer: A.Chir

84. The overload capacity of a diesel engine is around

A. 10 percent

B. 50 percent

C. 1 percent

D. 25 percent

Answer: A.10 percent

85. Which of the following key is not used in railway tracks?

A. Stuart key

B. Woodruff key

D. Cotter key

E. Morgan key

Answer: B.Woodruff key

86. In case of excalators, the angle of incline from horizontal is

A.

B. 10?

C. 15?

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D. 30?

E. 45?

Answer: D.30?

87. Which of the following item can be conveyed using pneumatic conveyors?

A. soda ash

B. salt cake

C. carbon black

D. all of the above

Answer: D.all of the above

88. Which of the following has lubricating action?

A.

B. Graphite

C. Saw dust

D. Cottonseed

E. Rubber scrap

Answer: B.Graphite

89. A 25 mm wire rope sling can safely take a load of

A. 40 to 50 tonnes

B.

C. 4 to 5 tonnes

D. 25 to 30 tonnes

E. 90 to 100 tonnes

Answer: C.4 to 5 tonnes

90. While dragging, the coefficient of friction (using steel plate) will be maximum in case of

A.

B. coke

C. bituminous coal

D. anthracite

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E. hog fuel, dry

Answer: C.bituminous coal

91. Welded link wheel chains are surface hardened to

A. increase shock absorption capacity

B. increase load carrying capacity

C. provide adequate wear life

D. all of the above

Answer: C.provide adequate wear life

92. In case of skip hoists, the hoisting speed generally ranges from

A. 20 to 30 m/s

B. 6 to 15 m/s

C. 1 to 5 m/s

E. 30 to 50 m/s

Answer: B.6 to 15 m/s

93. In case of hand powered cranes, the capacity is generally restricted to

A. 250 tonnes

B. 150 tonnes

C. 1 tonne

D. 50 tonnes

Answer: D.50 tonnes

94. Skip hoists are generally used where

A. the lift is too high

B. the lumps to be lifted are large

C. the material is pulverized

D. all of the above

Answer: D.all of the above

95. Arsenic salts are heavy as well as poisonous. Which of the following conveyor is preferred for its handling?

A. Belt conveyor

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B. Screw conveyor

C. Flight conveyor

D. Any of the above

Answer: B.Screw conveyor

96. Which braking system is not used in case of earth moving machinery?

A. Hydraulic braking system

B. Vacuum braking system

C. Pneumatic braking system

D. Mechanical braking system

Answer: B.Vacuum braking system

97. As compared to anthracite coal, the angle of repose for coke will be

A.

B. more

C. less

E. same

Answer: B.more

98. In case of broad gauge track the distance between the rails is

A. 1.562 metre

B. 1.0 metre

C. 0.762 metre

E. 1.676 metre

Answer: E.1.676 metre

99. Braking system is invariably incorporated in case of

A. Electric hoists

B. Magnetic hoists

C. Hand chain hoists

D. all of the above

Answer: A.Electric hoists

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100. Jacks are portable, hand-operated devices for moving

A.

B. heavy

C. heavy

D. light

E. light

Answer: C.heavy

101. Ammonium nitrate is hygroscopic as well as an explosive. Which of the following conveyor can be used for
this material?

A. Flight conveyor

B. Continuous flow conveyor

C. Screw conveyor

D. Any of the above

Answer: D.Any of the above

102. Chains for material handling equipment are generally made of

A. carbon steel

B.

C. wrought iron

D. mild steel

E. cast iron

Answer: A.carbon steel

103. Which of the following types of rail is not used on broad gauge?

A. 90 m

B. 60 R

D. 75 R

E. 115 R

Answer: B.60 R

104. Drag line excavators are used for digging

Page 485 of 592

A. drainage ditches

B. canals

C. gravel pits

D. Any of the above

Answer: D.Any of the above

105. In material handling plants, automatic scales are used for

A. dressing the material

B.

C. weighing the material

D. batching the material

E. sizing the material

Answer: C.weighing the material

106. In case of bridge girders

A. I-sections are used

B. box-girders are used

C. any of the above can be used

Answer: C.any of the above can be used

107. Which one of the following does not fall under the category of hoisting equipment?

A. Drag line

B.

C. Pull lift

D. Jack

E. Chain hoist

Answer: A.Drag line

108. In case of lifting magnets, for releasing the material lifted

A. direction of dc current is reversed

B.

C. ac current is passed through the coil

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E. hooks are used

Answer: A.direction of dc current is reversed

109. In case of diesel-electric locomotives

A. power output of diesel engine is taken by dc generator

B. electric motors serve as prime source of power

C. electric motors as well diesel engine provide the propulsive power

D. None of the above

Answer: A.power output of diesel engine is taken by dc generator

110. In screw conveyors, ribbon screws are used for

A. molasses

B. hot tar

C. asphalt

D. all of the above

Answer: D.all of the above

111. In case of belt conveyors, while conveying earth, as excavated, the maximum permissible slope is around

A. 10?

B. 30?

C. 40?

D. 20?

Answer: D.20?

112. In case of a belt conveyor, the driving motor

A. always runs at slow speed

B. always starts on load

C. always starts on no load

E. always starts at high speed

Answer: B.always starts on load

113. Lift trucks may be

A. manually operated

Page 487 of 592

B. battery operated

C. diesel engine powered

D. Any of the above

Answer: D.Any of the above

114. Pillar cranes are generally used for

A. light work

B. infrequent service

C. either of (A) or (B) above

Answer: C.either of (A) or (B) above

115. Hammer blow occurs in

A. all engines

B. steam engines

C. electric engines

D. diesel engines

Answer: B.steam engines

116. Which of the following has tendency to adhere to metal?

A. Mica dust

B. Talc

D. Silica flow

E. Gypsum

Answer: B.Talc

117. All of the following are granular materials EXCEPT

A. Alum

B. Hog fuel

C. Bran

D. Coffee beans

Answer: B.Hog fuel

118. Rubber belts in case of belt conveyors are reinforced with

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A. rayon

B. nylon

C. polyster

D. Any of the above

Answer: D.Any of the above

119. Which of the following crane is self-propelled?

A. Locomotive crane

B. Column jib crane

C. Derricks

D. all of the above

Answer: A.Locomotive crane

120. Ash is abrasive as well as dusty. Which conveyor will be preferred for its handling?

A. Drag chain conveyor

B. Belt conveyor

D. Flight conveyor

E. Screw conveyor

Answer: A.Drag chain conveyor

121. Which of the following is the least preferred conveyor for handling glue?

A. Continuous flow conveyor

B. Screw conveyor

C. Belt conveyor

E. Pneumatic conveyor

Answer: E.Pneumatic conveyor

122. The normal speed on escalator is around

A.

B. 9.8 m/s

C. 1 m/s

D. 0.45 m/s

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E. 2.5 m/s

Answer: D.0.45 m/s

123. All of the following are fragile except

A. Glass tubes

B.

C. Borax

D. Coffee beans

E. Carbon black (pellets)

Answer: C.Borax

124. The advantage of electric braking is

A. it is instantaneous

B.

C. motor continues to remain loaded during braking

D. it avoids wear to track

E. More heat is generated during braking

Answer: D.it avoids wear to track

125. The handling capacity of a drag line having buckets of one cubic metre capacity is expected to be highest in
case of

A.

B. light moist clay

C. clay, wet sticky

D. clay, hard tough

E. sand or gravel

Answer: B.light moist clay

126. The expected life of a wheeled tractor is nearly

A. 2 to 3 years

B. 8 to 10 years

D. 1 year

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E. 5 to 6 years

Answer: B.8 to 10 years

127. Lifting magnets are used as material handling devices for

A. pig iron

B. billets

C. tubes

D. all of the above

Answer: D.all of the above

128. The horse power to weight ratio of a diesel engine may be expected to be of the order of

A. 45 to 50 kg/HP

B. 85 to 100 kg/HP

D. 10 to 15 kg/HP

E. 25 to 35 kg/HP

Answer: A.45 to 50 kg/HP

129. The horse power required to move a belt conveyor increases as

A. conveyor speed

B. load increases

C. angle of inclination increases

D. all of the above

Answer: D.all of the above

130. In case of pneumatic conveyors the minimum diameter of bend should be at least

A. six

B. three

C. two

E. ten

Answer: B.three

131. Which one of the following does not form a part of the specification for steel wire rope?

A. Length

Page 491 of 592

B. Material of core

D. Surface finish

E. Lay

Answer: D.Surface finish

132. On metre gauge, the maximum horse power of engine, on Indian Railways is around

A. 1400

B. 150

C. 2400

E. 750

Answer: A.1400

133. Which of the following bearing is not used in earth moving equipment?

A. Jewel bearing

B. Needle bearing

C. Bush bearing

D. Ball bearing

Answer: A.Jewel bearing

134. Which of the following is sticky material?

A. Sand (dam)

B. Sewage sludge (wet)

C. Malt

D. all of the above

Answer: D.all of the above

135. A cylinder and a piston is invariably a part of

A. screw type jacks

B. rack-and-lever type jacks

C. hydraulic jacks

D. all of the above

Answer: C.hydraulic jacks

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136. Bearings used on railway wagons are

A. plumber blocks

B. needle bearings

C. ball bearings

D. roller bearings

Answer: D.roller bearings

137. Roller conveyors are used for the movement of

A. corrosive materials

B. granular materials

C. package goods

E. fine dusts

Answer: C.package goods

138. Which locomotives are preferred for tunnel construction work?

A. Steam locomotives

B. Electric locomotives

C. Storage battery locomotives

D. None of the above

Answer: C.Storage battery locomotives

139. Which motor is preferred for belt conveyors?

A. synchronous motor

B. wound rotor induction motor

C. double squirrel cage induction motor

D. None of the above

Answer: C.double squirrel cage induction motor

140. In case of belt conveyors, the permissible slope will be maximum while conveying

A. Earth, dry

B.

C. Anthracite coal

Page 493 of 592

D. Dry sand

E. Wood chips

Answer: E.Wood chips

141. A diesel engine cannot be

A. more efficient than a petrol engine

B.

C. used as prime-mover on locomotives

D. run on variable speed

E. started on load

Answer: E.started on load

142. The number of driving wheels in case of a 4 – 10 – 2 locomotive will be

A. 4

B. 6

C. 10

D. 2

Answer: C.10

143. Flight conveyors are used for the trans-portation of

A. granular materials

B. lumpy materials

C. pulverized materials

D. all of the above

Answer: D.all of the above

144. Hydraulic dredges are used in

A. mining of platinum

B.

C. river and harbour work

D. mining of tin

E. mining of gold

Page 494 of 592

Answer: C.river and harbour work

145. In case of skip hoists, the band-type brake is generally used for

A.

B. small hoists for light duty

C. large hoists for light duty

D. large hoists for heavy duty

E. small hoists for heavy duty

Answer: B.small hoists for light duty

146. The motions of crane-hoisting, trolley traversing and bridging may be powered by

A. electric motors

B. air motors

C. hydraulic units

D. Any of the above

Answer: D.Any of the above

147. Which of the following conveyor can be used for handling saw dust?

A. Belt conveyor

B. Flight conveyor

C. Pneumatic conveyor

D. Any of the above

Answer: D.Any of the above

148. While dragging, the coefficient of friction (using steel plate) will be least in case of

A. Hydrated lime

B. Grains

C. Cement

E. Clays

Answer: B.Grains

149. Hopper bottom type wagon are used on Indian Railways for transportation of

A. grains

Page 495 of 592

B. fertilisers

C. coal

D. all of the above

Answer: C.coal

150. The horse power to weight ratio of a steam engine is generally of the order of

A.

B. 20 – 30 kg/HP

C. 30 – 50 kg/HP

D. 60 – 80 kg/HP

E. 10 – 15 kg/HP

Answer: D.60 – 80 kg/HP

151. The sinuous path taken by an engine as against the alignment of the track is known as

A. Hunting motion

B. Lurching motion

D. Rolling motion

E. Nosing motion

Answer: E.Nosing motion

152. Pneumatic tyres are not used for providing

A. speed

B. traction

C. friction

D. comfort

Answer: C.friction

153. Escalators have the advantage of

A. continuity of motion

B. greater capacity

C. small space requirement

D. all of the above

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Answer: D.all of the above

154. On railways a dynamometer car is used for

A. recording the condition of track

B.

C. dinning facilities

D. tourists

E. military purpose

Answer: A.recording the condition of track

155. Dragline is generally used for

A. excavation

B. pushing

C. dragging

D. Any of the above

Answer: A.excavation

156. For railway track, the sleepers are made of

A. wood

B. cast iron

C. RCC

D. Any of the above

Answer: D.Any of the above

157. Which of the following cannot be handled using lifting magnets?

A. High manganese steel

B. Mild steel plates

C. Castings of cast iron

E. Scrap iron

Answer: A.High manganese steel

158. The handling capacity of a drag line having bucket of one cubic metre capacity is expected to be least while
handling

Page 497 of 592

A. Sand

B. Clay, wet sticky

C. Gravel.

D. Clay, hard tough

Answer: B.Clay, wet sticky

159. In which wire rope application, the highest factor of safety is necessary?

A. Tow ropes

B. Drag lines

C. Slings

D. Struck guys

Answer: C.Slings

160. Small chain hooks are generally

A. cast

B.

C. cast and machined

D. cold headed

E. drop forged

Answer: E.drop forged

161. The thickness of belt is usually specified in terms of

A. merit number

B. thickness in mm

C. number of plies

D. index number

Answer: C.number of plies

162. All of the following are free flowing materials EXCEPT

A. Soda ash

B.

C. Mica, pulverized

Page 498 of 592

D. Wheat

E. Lead salts

Answer: E.Lead salts

163. A type size is specified as 8.25 – 20 in. In this 20 indicates

A. outer diameter in inches

B. cross-section of tyre in sq. inches

C. mean diameter of the tyre in inches

E. rim diameter in inches

Answer: E.rim diameter in inches

164. In case direct current motors are used for electric overhead cranes, the motors used are generally

A. shunt wound

B.

C. series wound

D. differentially compound wound

E. cumulatively compound wound

Answer: C.series wound

165. Which of the following characteristic can be assigned to metallic dusts?

A. Abrasive

B. Corrosive

D. Sticky

E. Hygroscopic

Answer: A.Abrasive

166. Which railway sleeper provides the best rigidity?

A. Cast iron

B. RCC

C. Wooden

E. Cast steel

Answer: B.RCC

Page 499 of 592

167. The expected life of aerial transport system (rope way or cable way) is usually

A. 20 years

B.

C. 1 year

D. 5 years

E. 2 to 3 years

Answer: A.20 years

168. In which case, the permissible incline in belt conveyor will be minimum?

A. Clay, dry fine

B.

C. Dry silica sand

D. Coal, slack

E. Powdered lime

Answer: C.Dry silica sand

169. In case of belt conveyors, the bearings used for return idlers are

A. anti-friction bearings

B. cast iron bearings

D. bush bearings

E. split bush bearings

Answer: A.anti-friction bearings

170. In case of belt conveyors, the permissible slope will be least while conveying

A. Gravel pebbles

B. Sand

C. Wood chips

E. Lignite

Answer: A.Gravel pebbles

171. In case of belt conveyors, while conveying anthracite, the maximum permissible slope is

A.

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B. 20?

C. 28?

D. 30?

E. 16?

Answer: E.16?

172. An ideal traction system should have

A. high starting tractive effort

B. easy speed control

C. equipment capable of withstanding large temporary overloads

D. all of the above

Answer: D.all of the above

173. Inflation pressure for truck tyres is generally

A.

B. 6 kg/cm2

C. 3 kg/cm2

D. 2.2 kg/cm2

E. 1 kg/cm2

Answer: B.6 kg/cm2

174. Wrought iron

A. is brittle

B. has shock absorbing properties

C. can be easily welded using electric arc

D. all of the above

Answer: B.has shock absorbing properties

175. In case of locomotion, the coefficient of adhesion is highest when

A. the rails are wet

B. the rails are oiled

C. the rails are dusty

Page 501 of 592

E. the rails are dry

Answer: A.the rails are wet

176. The size of electric motor depends on

A. hoisting speed

B. weight of load

C. period of acceleration and retardation

D. all of the above

Answer: D.all of the above

177. Transportation by locomotives is known as

A.

B. Hauling

C. Pushing

D. Lifting

E. Dragging

Answer: B.Hauling

178. Dozers are used for handling material by

A. dragging

B. pulling

C. pushing

D. Any of the above

Answer: D.Any of the above

179. The power requirement in case of a screw conveyor depends on

A. material to be handled

B. rate of transportation

C. length of conveyor

D. all of the above

Answer: D.all of the above

180. Discoloration should be avoided while handing

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A. Silica flour

B. Starch

C. Tobacco

E. Zinc oxide

Answer: E.Zinc oxide

181. The pressure of steam in a steam locomotive system is

A.

B. 115 to 125 kg/cm2

C. 20 to 30 kg/cm2

D. 70 to 90 kg/cm2

E. 10 to 15 kg/cm2

Answer: E.10 to 15 kg/cm2

182. In case the clutch of a tractor slips, the probable cause cannot be

A. worn out clutch plates

B. misalignment of plates

C. weak or broken pressure springs

E. high engine speed

Answer: E.high engine speed

183. If a pump is operating at 100 rpm, it should be a

A.

B. rotory pump

C. centrifugal pump

D. sliding vane type pump

E. reciprocating pump

Answer: E.reciprocating pump

184. Which one of the following does not form a part of Derrick crane?

A.

B. Bull wheel

Page 503 of 592

C. Jack

D. Must

E. Boom

Answer: C.Jack

185. Regenerative braking is

A. more

B. less

C. less

D. more

Answer: D.more

186. In which case of permissible incline in belt conveyor will be maximum?

A. Stone, crushed

B.

C. Coal, run of mine

D. Foundry sand

E. Wet clay

Answer: D.Foundry sand

187. Electric overhead travelling cranes operate on

A.

B. ac only

D. either ac or dc

E. dc only

Answer: D.either ac or dc

188. In Kando system for electric locomotion

A.

B. dc supply is used to run series motors

C. three phase ac is converted into dc

D. single phase ac is converted into dc

Page 504 of 592

E. single phase supply is converted into three phase system

Answer: E.single phase supply is converted into three phase system

189. In case clutch is to be introduced in the drive for belt conveyor, which clutch will be preferred?

A. Dog clutch

B. Spring loaded clutch

C. Hydraulic clutch

D. Any of the above

Answer: C.Hydraulic clutch

190. All of the following materials have abrasive action on the belt conveyors except?

A. Alum

B. Borax

D. Wet ash

E. Arsenic salts

Answer: E.Arsenic salts

191. While dragging, the coefficient to friction (using steel plate) will be maximum in case of

A. wet saw dust

B. cement

C. dry, hog fuel

D. soda ash

Answer: B.cement

192. Rails for railway track are made of

A. mild steel

B. cast iron

C. high speed steel

D. chrome steel

Answer: D.chrome steel

193. Which of the following locomotive has the best acceleration characteristics?

A. Diesel engine

Page 505 of 592

B. Steam engine

C. Electric engine

E. Shunting engine

Answer: C.Electric engine

194. Which of the following characteristic can be assigned to soda ash?

A. Free flowing

B. Explosive

C. Fragile

D. Caustic

Answer: D.Caustic

195. In case of Indian Railway diesel engines which type of diesel engine is used?

A. Radial type engine

B. V-type engine

D. Multi-cylinder in line engine

E. Wankel engine

Answer: D.Multi-cylinder in line engine

300+ TOP Theory of Machines MCQs and Answers Quiz

Theory of Machines Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following disciplines provides study of inertia forces arising from the combined effect of the mass
and the motion of the parts

A. theory of machines

B. applied mechanics

C. mechanisms

D. kinetics

E. kinematics.

Answer: D

2. Which of the following disciplines provides study of relative motion between the parts of a machine

Page 506 of 592

A. theory of machines

B. applied mechanics

C. mechanisms

D. kinetics

E. kinematics.

Answer: E

3. Which of the following disciplines provides study of the relative motion between the parts of a machine and the
forces acting on the parts

A. theory of machines

B. applied mechanics

C. mechanisms

D. kinetics

E. kinematics.

Answer: A

4. The type of pair formed by two elements which are so connected that one is constrained to turn or revolve about a
fixed axis of another element is known as

A. turning pair

B. rolling pair

C. sliding pair

D. spherical pair

E. lower pair,

Answer: A

5. Which of the following is a lower pair

A. ball and socket i

B. piston and cylinder

C. cam and follower

D. A. and B. above

E. belt drive.

Answer: D

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6. If two moving elements have surface contact in motion, such pair is known as

A. sliding pair

B. rolling pair

C. surface pair

D. lower pair

E. higher pair.

Answer: E

7. The example of lower pair is

A. shaft revolving in a bearing

B. straight line motion mechanisms

C. automobile steering gear

D. all of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

8. Pulley in a belt drive acts as

A. cylindrical pair

B. turning pair

C. rolling pair

D. sliding pair

E. surface pair.

Answer: C

9. The example of rolling pair is

A. bolt and nut

B. lead screw of a lathe

C. ball and socket joint

D. ball bearing and roller bearing

E. all of the above.

Answer: D

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10. Any point on a link connecting double slider crank chain will trace a

A. straight line

B. circle

C. ellipse

D. parabola

E. hyperbola.

Answer: C

11. The purpose of a link is to

A. transmit motion

B. guide other links

C. act as a support

D. all of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

12. A universal joint is an example of

A. higher pair

B. lower pair

C. rolling pair

D. sliding pair

E. turning pair.

Answer: B

13. Rectilinear motion of piston is converted into rotary by

A. cross head

B. slider crank

C. connecting rod

D. gudgeon pin

E. four bar chain mechanism.

Answer: B

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14. Pitch point on a cam is

A. any point on pitch curve

B. the point on cam pitch curve having the maximum pressure angle

C. any point on pitch circle

D. the point on cam pitch curve having the minimum pressure angle

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

15. The values of velocity and acceleration of piston at near dead center for a slider-crank mechanism will be

A. 0, and more than co2r

B. 0, and less than coV

C. 0, 0

D. cor, 0

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

16. The example of spherical pair is

A. bolt and nut

B. lead screw of a lathe

C. ball and socket joint

D. ball bearing and roller bearing

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

17. Cross head and guides form a

A. lower pair

B. higher pair

C. turning pair

D. rolling pair

E. sliding pair.

Answer: E

Page 510 of 592

19. A circular bar moving in a round hole is an example of

A. incompletely constrained motion

B. partially constrained motion

C. completely constrained motion

D. successfully constrained motion

E. none of the above

Answer: A

20. If some links are connected such that motion between them can take place in more than one direction, it is called

A. incompletely constrained motion

B. partially constrained motion

C. completely constrained motion

D. successfully constrained motion

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

21. If there are L number of links in a mechanism then number of possible inversions is equal to

A. L + 1

B. L – 1

C. L

D. L + 2

E. L – 2.

Answer: C

22. Kinematic pairs are those which have two elements that

A. have line contact

B. have surface contact

C. permit relative motion

D. are held together

E. have dynamic forces.

Answer: C

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24. The lower pair is a

A. open pair

B. closed pair

C. sliding pair

D. point contact pair

E. does not exist.

Answer: B

25. Automobile steering gear is an example of

A. higher pair

B. sliding pair

C. turning pair

D. rotary pair

E. lower pair.

Answer: E

26. In higher pair, the relative motion is

A. purely turning

B. purely sliding

C. purely rotary

D. purely surface contact

E. combination of sliding and turning.

Answer: E

27. Which of the following has sliding motion

A. crank

B. connecting rod

C. crank pin

D. cross-head

E. cross head guide.

Answer: D

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28. The example of higher pair is

A. belt, rope and chain drives

B. gears, cams

C. ball and roller bearings

D. all of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

29. Which of the following mechanism is obtained from lower pair

A. gyroscope

B. pantograph

C. valve and valve gears

D. generated straight line motions

E. all of the above.

Answer: E

30. Which of the following would constitute a link

A. piston, piston rings and gudgeon pin

B. piston, and piston rod

C. piston rod and cross head

D. piston, crank pin and crank shaft

E. piston, piston-rod and cross head.

Answer: E

31. The Scott-Russell mechanism consists of

A. sliding and turning pairs

B. sliding and rotary pairs

C. turning and rotary pairs

D. sliding pairs only

E. turning pairs only.

Answer: A

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32. Davis steering gear consists of

A. sliding pairs

B. turning pairs

C. rolling pairs

D. higher pairs

E. lower pairs.

Answer: A

33. Ackermann steering gear consists of

A. sliding pairs

B. turning pairs

C. rolling pairs

D. higher pairs

E. lower pairs.

Answer: B

34. A completely constrained motion can be transmitted with .

A. 1 link with pin joints

B. 2 links with pin joints

C. 3 links with pin joints

D. 4 links with pin joints

E. all of the above.

Answer: D

36. Oldham‘s coupling is the

A. second inversion of double slider crank chain

B. third inversion of double slider crank chain

C. second inversion of single slider crank chain

D. third inversion of slider crank chain

E. fourth inversion of double slider crank chain.

Answer: B

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37. Sense of tangential acceleration of a link

A. is same as that of velocity

B. is opposite to that of velocity

C. could be either same or opposite to velocity

D. is perpendicular to that of velocity

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

38. A mechanism is an assemblage of

A. two links

B. three links

C. four links or more than four links

D. all of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

39. The number of links in pantograph mechanism is equal to

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

E. 6.

Answer: C

40. Elements of pairs held together mechanically is known as

A. closed pair

B. open pair

C. mechanical pair

D. rolling pair

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

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41. Shaft revolving in a bearing is the following type of pair

A. lower pair

B. higher pair

C. spherical pair,

D. cylindrical pair

E. bearing pair.

Answer: A

42. Rectangular bar in a rectangular hole is the following type of pair

A. completely constrained motion

B. partially constrained motion

C. incompletely constrained motion

D. freely constrained motion

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

43. A foot step bearing and rotor of a vertical turbine form examples of

A. incompletely constrained motion

B. partially constrained motion

C. completely constrained motion

D. successfully constrained motion

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

44. A slider crank chain consists of following numbers of turning and sliding pairs

A. I, 3

B. 2, 2

C. 3, 1

D. 4, 0

E. 0, 4.

Answer: C

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45. Relationship between the number of links (L) and number of pairs (P) is

A. P = 2L-4

B. P = 2L + 4

C. P = 2L+2

D. P = 2L-2

E. P = L-4.

Answer: C

46. In problem 47, the chain is unconstrained when

A. L.H.S. = R.H.S.

B. L.H.S. > R.H.S.

C. L.H.S. < R.H.S.

D. there is no such criterion for checking above requirement

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

47. Angle of descent of cam is defined as the angle

A. during which the follower returns to its initial position

B. of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower

C. through which the cam rotates during the period in which the follower remains in the highest position

D. moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position

E. moved by the cam from beginning of ascent to the termination of descent.

Answer: A

48. Angle of action of cam is defined as the angle

A. during which the follower returns to its initial position

B. of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower

C. through which the cam rotates during the period in which the follower remains in the highest position

D. moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position

E. moved by the cam from beginning of ascent to the termination of descent.

Answer: E

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49. Angle of dwell of cam is defined as the angle

A. during which the follower returns to its initial position

B. of rotation of the cam for definite dis¬placement of the follower

C. through which the cam rotates during the period in which the follower remains in the highest position

D. moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position

E. moved by the cam from a beginning of ascent to the termination of descent.

Answer: C

50. In problem 47, the chain is constrained when

A. L.H.S. = R.H.S.

B. L.H.S. < R.H.S.

C. L.H.S. > R.H.S.

D. there is no such criterion for checking above requirement

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

51. The tendency of a body to resist change from rest or motion is known as

A. mass

B. friction

C. inertia

D. resisting force

E. resisting torque.

Answer: C

52. Angle of ascent of cam is defined as the angle

A. during which the follower returns to its initial position

B. of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower

C. through which the cam rotates during the period in which the follower remains in highest position

D. moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position

E. moved by the cam from beginning oi ascent to the termination of descent.

Answer: D

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53. The type of coupling used to join two shafts whose axes are neither in same straight line nor parallel, but
intersect is

A. flexible coupling

B. universal coupling

C. chain coupling

D. Oldham‘s coupling

E. American coupling.

Answer: B

54. The advantage of the piston valve over D-slide valve is that in the former case

A. wear is less

B. power absorbed is less

C. both wear and power absorbed are low

D. the pressure developed being high provides tight sealing

E. there is overall economy of initial cost, maintenance and operation.

Answer: C

55. Flexible coupling is used because

A. it is easy to disassemble

B. it is easy to engage and disengage

C. it transmits shocks gradually

D. it prevents shock transmission and eliminates stress reversals

E. it increases shaft life.

Answer: D

56. With single Hooke‘s joint it is possible to connect two shafts, the axes of which have an angular misalignment
up to

A. 10°

B. 20°

C. 30°

D. 40°

E. 60°.

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Answer: D

57. The Hooke‘s joint consists of :

A. two forks

B. one fork

C. three forks

D. four forks

E. five forks.

Answer: A

58. The Klein‘s method of construction for reciprocating engine mechanism

A. is based on acceleration diagram

B. is a simplified form of instantaneous center method

C. utilises a quadrilateral similar to the diagram of mechanism for reciprocating engine

D. enables determination of Corioli‘s component

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

59. It is required to connect two parallel shafts, the distance between whose axes is small and variable. The shafts
are coupled by

A. universal joint

B. knuckle joint

C. Oldham‘s coupling

D. flexible coupling

E. electromagnetic coupling.

Answer: C

60. The e.g. of a link in any mechanism would experience

A. no acceleration

B. linear acceleration

C. angular acceleration

D. both angular and linear accelerations

Page 520 of 592

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

61. In elliptical trammels

A. all four pairs are turning

B. three pairs turning and one pair sliding

C. two pairs turning and two pairs sliding

D. one pair turning and three pairs sliding

E. all four pairs sliding.

Answer: C

62. In automobiles the power is transmitted from gear box to differential through

A. bevel gear

B. universal joint

C. Hooke‘s joint

D. Knuckle joint

E. Oldham‘s coupling.

Answer: C

63. The indicator using Watt mechanism is known as

A. Thompson indicator

B. Richard indicator

C. Simplex indicator

D. Thomson indicator

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

64. The Ackermann steering mechanism is preferred to the Davis type in automobiles because

A. the former is mathematically accurate

B. the former is having turning pair

C. the former is most economical

D. the former is most rigid

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E. none of thfr above.

Answer: B

65. Transmission of power from the engine to the rear axle of an automobile is by means of

A. compound gears

B. worm and wheel method

C. Hooke‘s joint

D. crown gear

E. bevel gears.

Answer: C

66. When a ship travels in a sea, which of the effect is more dangerous

A. steering

B. pitching

C. rolling

D. all of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

67. In an ideal machine, the output as compared to input is

A. less

B. more

C. equal

D. may be less or more depending on efficiency

E. always less.

Answer: C

68. Governor is used in automobile to

A. decrease the variation of speed

B. to control

C. to control SN

D. all of the above

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E. none of the above.

Answer: C

69. In gramophones for adjusting the speed of the turntable, the following type of governor is commonly employed

A. Hartung governor

B. Wilson Hartnell governor

C. Pickering governor

D. Inertia governor

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

70. For fluctuating loads, welsuited bearing is

A. ball bearing

B. roller bearing

C. needle roller bearing

D. thrust bearing

E. sleeve bearing.

Answer: C

71. Crowning on pulleys helps

A. in increasing velocity ratio

B. in decreasing the slip of the belt

C. for automatic adjustment of belt posi-tion so that belt runs centrally

D. increase belt and pulley life

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

72. Idler pulley is used

A. for changing the direction of motion of the belt

B. for applying tension

C. for increasing -velocity ratio

D. all of the above

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E. none of the above.

Answer: B

73. In multi-V-belt transmission, if one of the belt is broken, we have to change the

A. broken belt

B. broken belt and its adjacent belts

C. all the belts

D. there is no need of changing any one as remaining belts can take care of transmission of load

E. all the weak belts.

Answer: C

74. The moment on the pulley which produces rotation is called

A. inertia

B. momentum

C. moment of momentum

D. work

E. torque.

Answer: E

75. Creep in belt drive is due to

A. material of the pulley

B. material of the belt

C. larger size of the driver pulley

D. uneven extensions and contractions due to varying tension

E. expansion of belt.

Answer: D

76. TJie horse power transmitted by a belt is dependent upon

A. tension on tight side of belt

B. tension on slack side of belt

C. radius of pulley

D. speed of pulley

Page 524 of 592

E. all of the above.

Answer: E

77. The locus of a point on a thread unwound from a cylinder will be

A. a straight line

B. a circle

C. involute

D. cycloidal

E. helix.

Answer: C

78. To transmit power from one rotating shaft to another whose axes are neither parallel nor intersecting, use

A. spur gear

B. spiral gear

C. bevel gear

D. worm gear

E. crown gear.

Answer: D

79. For S.H.M. cam, the acceleration of the follower at the ends of the stroke and aimidstroke respectively, is

A. maximum and zero

B. zero and maximum

C. minimum and maximum

D. zero and minimum

E. maximum and minimum.

Answer: A

80. Throw of a cam is the maximum distance of the follower from

A. base circle

B. pitch circle

C. root circle

D. prime circle

Page 525 of 592

E. inner circle.

Answer: A

81. To obviate axial thrust, following gear drive is used

A. double helical gears having opposite teeth

B. double helical gears having identical teeth

C. single helical gear in which one of the teeth of helix angle a is more

D. mutter gears

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

82. Which of the following is false statement in respect of differences between machine and structure

A. Machines transmit mechanical work, whereas structures transmit forces

B. In machines, relative motion exists be-tween its members, whereas same does hot exist in case of structures

C. Machines modify movement and work, whereas structures modify forces

D. Efficiency of machines as well as structures is below 100%

E. Machines are run by electric motors, but structures are not.

Answer: D

83. If D1 and D2 be the diameters of driver and driven pulleys, then belt speed is proportional to

A. D1/D2

B. D2/D1

C. D1-D2.

D. D1

E. D1+D2.

Answer: D

84. Typewriter constitutes

A. machine

B. structure

C. mechanism

D. inversion

Page 526 of 592

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

85. Lower pairs are those which have

A. point or line contact between the two elements when in motion

B. surface contact between the two elements when in motion

C. elements of pairs not -held together mechanically

D. two elements that permit relative motion

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

86. A point on a link connecting double slider crank chain traces a

A. straight line

B. circle

C. parabola

D. hyperbola

E. ellipse.

Answer: E

87. A pantograph is a mechanism with

A. lower pairs

B. higher pairs

C. rolling pairs

D. turning pairs

E. spherical pairs.

Answer: A

88. Kinematic pairs are those which have

A. point or line contact between the two elements when in motion

B. surface contact between the two ele-ments when in motion

C. elements of pairs not held together mechanically

D. two elements that permit relative mo-tion

Page 527 of 592

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

89. If the opposite links of a four bar linkage are equal, the links will always form a

A. triangle

B. rectangle

C. parallelogram

D. pentagon

E. trapezoid.

Answer: C

90. Higher pairs are those which have

A. point or line contact between the two elements when in motion

B. surface contact between the two ele-ments when in motion

C. elements of pairs not held together mechanically

D. two elements that permit relative motion

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

91. A cam mechanism imparts following motion

A. rotating

B. oscillating

C. reciprocating

D. all of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

92. A cam with a roller follower would con stitute following type of pair

A. lower pair

B. higher pair

C. open pair

D. close pair

Page 528 of 592

E. cam pair.

Answer: B

93. The approximate straight line mechanism is a

A. four bar linkage

B. 6 bar linkage

C. 8 bar linkage

D. 3 bar linkage

E. 5 bar linkage.

Answer: A

94. ―Open pairs are those which have

A. point or line contact between the two elements when in motion

B. surface contact between the two ele-ments when in motion

C. elements of pairs not held together mechanically

D. two elements that permit relative motion

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

95. Peaucellier mechanism has

A. eight links

B. six links

C. four links

D. twelve links

E. five links.

Answer: A

96. Hart mechanism has

A. eight links

B. six links

C. four links

D. twelve links

Page 529 of 592

E. five links.

Answer: B

97. A chain comprises of 5 links having 5 joints. Is it kinematic chain ?

A. yes

B. no

C. it is a marginal case

D. data are insufficient to determine it

E. unpredictable.

Answer: B

99. The main disadvantage of the sliding pair is that it is

A. bulky

B. wears rapidly

C. difficult to manufacture

D. A. and B. above

E. A. and C. above.

Answer: D

100. For a kinematic chain to be considered as mechanism

A. two links should be fixed

B. one link should be fixed

C. none of the links should be fixed

D. there is no such criterion

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

101. An eccentric sheave pivoted at one point rotates and transmits oscillatory motion to a link whose one end is
pivoted and other end is connected to it. This mechanism has

A. 2 links

B. 3 links

C. 4 links

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D. 5 links

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

102. Whitworth quick return mechanism is obtained by inversion of

A. slider crank mechanism

B. kinematic chain

C. five link mechanism

D. roller cam mechanism

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

103. In its simplest form, a cam mechanism consists of following number of links

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. none.

Answer: C

104. Which of the following mechanisms produces mathematically an exact straight line motion

A. Grasshopper mechanism

B. Watt mechanism

C. Peaucellier‘s mechanism

D. Tchabichiff mechanism

E. Ackermann mechanism.

Answer: C

105. In a mechanism, usually one link is fixed.

If the fixed link is changed in a kinematic chain, then relative motion of other links

A. will remain same

B. will change

Page 531 of 592

C. could change or remain unaltered depending oh which link is fixed

D. will not occur

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

106. A kinematic chain requires at least

A. 2 links and 3 turning pairs

B. 3 links and 4 turning pairs

C. 4 links and 4 turning pairs

D. 5 links and 4 turning pairs

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

107. In a darg link quick return mechanism, the shortest link is always fixed. The sum of the shortest and longest
link is

A. equal to sum of other two

B. greater than sum of other two

C. less than sum of other two

D. there is no such relationship

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

108. The following is the inversion of slider crank chain mechanism

A. Whitworth quick return mechanism

B. hand pump

C. oscillating cylinder engine

D. all of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

109. Kinematic pairs are those which have

A. two elements held together mechani-cally

Page 532 of 592

B. two elements having relative motion

C. two elements having Coroili‘s com-ponent

D. minimum of two instantaneous centres

E. all of the above.

Answer: B

110 A typewriter mechanism has 7 number of binary joints, six links and none of higher pairs. The mechanism is

A. kinematically sound

B. not sound

C. soundness would depend upon which link is kept fixed

D. data is not sufficient to determine same

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

111. In a four-bar chain it is required to give an oscillatory motion to the follower for a continuous rotation of the
crank. For the lengths of 50 mm of crank and 70 mm of the follower, determine theoretical maximum length of
coupler. The distance between fixed pivots of crank and followers is

A. 95 mm

B. slightly less than 95 mm

C. slightly more than 95 mm

D. 45 mm

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

112. In above example, the minimum length of the coupler will be

A. 45 mm

B. slightly less than 45 mm

C. slightly more than 45 mm

D. 95 mm

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

113. In S.H.M., acceleration is proportional to

Page 533 of 592

A. velocity

B. displacement

C. rate of change of velocity

D. all of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

114. For simple harmonic motion of the of follower, a cosine curve represents

A. displacement diagram

B. velocity diagram

C. acceleration diagram

D. all of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

115. In S.H.M., the velocity vector w.r.t. displacement vector

A. leads by 90°

B. lags by 90°

C. leads by 180°

D. are in phase

E. could be anywhere.

Answer: A

116. A body having moment of inertia o:m2 is rotating at 210 RPM and r with another body at rest having I 40 kg
m2. The resultant speed after ing will be

A. 90 RPM

B. 100 RPM

C. 80 RPM

D. data are insufficient

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

Page 534 of 592

117. Inertia force acts

A. perpendicular to the accel< force

B. along the direction of accel* force

C. opposite to the direction of ace ing force

D. in any direction w.r.t. accel* force depending on the magnit two

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

118. The frequency of oscillation at compared to earth will be

A. 6 times more

B. 6 times less

C. 2.44 times more

D. 2.44 times,less

E. 36 times less.

Answer: D

119. Polar moment of inertia (IP) of ac disc is to ht determined by suspen by a wire and noting the frequei

oscillations (/)

A. Ipocf

B. Ipocf

C. Ip oc j

D. Ipoc-

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

120. If the radius of gyration of a compound pendulum about an axis through e.g. is more, then its frequency of
oscillation will be

A. less

B. more

C. same

D. data are insufficient to determine same

Page 535 of 592

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

121. The Bifilar suspension method is used to determine

A. natural frequency of vibration

B. position of balancing weights

C. moment of inertia

D. centripetal acceleration‘

E. angular acceleration of a body.

Answer: C

122. Which is the false statement about the properties of instantaneous centre

A. at the instantaneous center of rotation, one rigid link rotates instantaneously relative to another for the
configuration of mechanism considered

B. the two rigid links have no linear velocities relative to each other at the instantaneous centre

C. the two rigid links which have no linear velocity relative to each other at this center have the same linear velocity
to the third rigid link

D. the double centre can be denoted either by 02 or Ol2, but proper selection should be made

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

123. Instantaneous center of rotation of a link in a four bar mechanism lies on

A. right side pivot of this link

B. lift side pivot of this link

C. a point obtained by intersection on extending adjoining links

D. can‘t occur

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

124. The number of links and instantaneous centers in a reciprocating engine mechanism are

A. 4, 4

B. 4, 5

C. 5, 4

Page 536 of 592

D. 6, 4

E. 4, 6.

Answer: E

125. According to Kennedy‘s theorem, if three bodies have plane motions, their instantaneous centers lie on

A. a triangle

B. a point

C. two lines

D. a straight line

E. a curve.

Answer: D

126. In a rigid link OA, velocity of A w.r.t. will be

A. parallel to OA

B. perpendicular to OA

C. at 45° to OA

D. along AO

E. along OA.

Answer: B

127. Two systems shall be dynamically equivalent when

A. the mass of two are same

B. e.g. of two coincides

C. M.I. of two about an axis through e.g. is equal

D. all of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: D

128. The velocity of any point in mechanism relative to any other point on the mechanism on velocity polygon is
represented by the line

A. joining the corresponding points

B. perpendicular to line as per A.

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C. not possible to determine with these data

D. at 45° to line as per A.

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

129. The absolute acceleration of any point P in a link about center of rotation 0 is

A. along PO

B. perpendicular to PO

C. at 45° to PO

D. along OP

E. none of the above.

Answer: E

130. Angular acceleration of a link can be determined by dividing the

A. centripetal component of acceleration with length of link

B. tangential component of acceleration with length of link

C. resultant acceleration with length of link

D. all of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

131. Corioli‘s component of acceleration exists whenever a point moves along a path that has

A. linear displacement

B. rotational motion

C. tangential acceleration

D. centripetal acceleration

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

132. The direction of Corioli‘s component of acceleration is the direction

A. of relative velocity vector for the two coincident points rotated by 90° in the direction of the angular velocity of
the rotation of the link

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B. along the centripetal acceleration

C. along tangential acceleration

D. along perpendicular to angular velocity

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

133. In a shaper mechanism, the Corioli‘s component of acceleration will

A. not exist

B. exist

C. depend on position of crank

D. unpredictable

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

134. The magnitude of tangential acceleration is equal to

A. velocity2 x crank radius

B. velocityvcrankradius

C. (velocity/crankradius)

D. velocity x crank radius2

E. none of the above.

Answer: B

135. Tangential acceleration direction is

A. along the angular velocity

B. opposite to angular velocity

C. may be any one of these

D. perpendicular to angular velocity

E. none of the above.

Answer: C

136. Corioli‘s component is encountered in

A. quick return mechanism of shaper

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B. four bar chain mechanism

C. slider crank mechanism

D. A. and C. above

E. all of the above.

Answer: A

137. Klein‘s construction gives a graphica construction for

A. slider-crank mechanism

B. velocity polygon

C. acceleration polygon

D. four bar chain mechanism

E. angular acceleration.

Answer: C

138. Klein‘s construction can be used to determine acceleration of various parts when the crank is at

A. inner dead centre

B. outer dead centre

C. right angles to the link of the stroke

D. at 45° to the line of the stroke

E. all of the above.

Answer: E

139. The number of centers in a crank driven slider crank mechanism are

A. 0

B. 2

C. 4

D. 6

E. may be any number depending upon position of mechanism.

Answer: B

140. Corioli‘s component acts

A. perpendicular to sliding surfaces

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B. along sliding surfaces

C. somewhere in between above two

D. unpredictable

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

141. The sense of Corioli‘s component is such that it

A. leads the sliding velocity vector by 90°

B. lags the sliding velocity vector by 90°

C. is along the sliding velocity vector

D. leads the sliding velocity vector by 180°

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

142. Klein‘s construction can be used when

A. crank has a uniform angular velocity

B. crank has non-uniform velocity

C. crank has uniform angular acceleration

D. crank has uniform angular velocity and angular acceleration

E. there is no such criterion.

Answer: A

143. Klein‘s construction is useful to determine

A. velocity of various parts

B. acceleration of various parts

C. displacement of various parts

D. angular acceleration of various parts

E. all of the above.

Answer: B

144. A circle passing through the pitch point with its center at the center of cam axis is known as

A. pitch circle

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B. base circle

C. prime circle

D. outer circle

E. cam circle.

Answer: C

145. The pressure angle of a cam depends upon

A. offset between centre lines of cam and follower

B. lift of follower

C. angle of ascent

D. sum of radii of base circle and roller follower

E. all of the above.

Answer: E

146. Cam size depends upon

A. base circle

B. pitch circle

C. prime circle

D. outer circle

E. none of the above.

Answer: A

147. Cylindrical cams can be classified as

A. circular

B. tangent

C. reciprocating

D. all of the above

E. none of the above.

Answer: E

148. The maximum value of the pressure angle in case of cam is kept as

A. 10°

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B. 14°

C. 20°

D. 30°

E. 25°.

Answer: D

149. For the same lift and same angle of ascent, a smaller base circle will give

A. a small value of pressure angle

B. a large value of pressure angle

C. there is no such relation with pressure angle

D. something else

E. none of the above is true.

Answer: B

150. Cam angle is defined as the angle

A. during which the follower returns to its initial position

B. of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower

C. through which, the cam rotates during the period in which the follower remains in the highest position

D. moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position

E. moved by the can from beginning of i ascent to the termination of descent.

Answer: B

300+ TOP Control Systems Objective Questions and Answers MCQs

CONTROL SYSTEMS Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. In an open loop control system

A. Output is independent of control input

B. Output is dependent on control input

C. Only system parameters have effect on the control output

D. None of the above

Answer: A

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2. For open control system which of the following statements is incorrect ?

A. Less expensive

B. Recalibration is not required for maintaining the required quality of the output

C. Construction is simple and maintenance easy

D. Errors are caused by disturbances

Answer: B

3. A control system in which the control action is somehow dependent on the output is known as

A. Closed loop system

B. Semiclosed loop system

C. Open system

D. None of the above

Answer: A

4. In closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback gain the overall gain of the system will

A. decrease

B. increase

C. be unaffected

D. any of the above

Answer: A

5. Which of the following is an open loop control system ?

A. Field controlled D.C. motor

B. Ward leonard control

C. Metadyne

D. Stroboscope

Answer: A

6. Which of the following statements is not necessarily correct for open control system ?

A. Input command is the sole factor responsible for providing the control action

B. Presence of non-linearities causes malfunctioning

C. Less expensive

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D. Generally free from problems of non-linearities

Answer: B

7. In open loop system

A. the control action depends on the size of the system

B. the control action depends on system variables

C. the control action depends on the input signal

D. the control action is independent of the output

Answer: D

8. has tendency to oscillate.

A. Open loop system

B. Closed loop system

C. Both A. and B.

D. Neither A. nor B.

Answer: B

9. A good control system has all the following features except

A. good stability

B. slow response

C. good accuracy

D. sufficient power handling capacity

Answer: B

10. A car is raining at a constant speed of 50 km/h, which of the following is the feedback element for the driver ?

A. Clutch

B. Eyes

C. Needle of the speedometer

D. Steering wheel

E. None of the above

Answer: C

11. The initial response when tne output is not equal to input is called

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A. Transient response

B. Error response

C. Dynamic response

D. Either of the above

Answer: A

12. A control system working under unknown random actions is called

A. computer control system

B. digital data system

C. stochastic control system

D. adaptive control system

Answer: C

13. An automatic toaster is a ______ loop control system.

A. open

B. closed

C. partially closed

D. any of the above

Answer: A

14. Any externally introduced signal affecting the controlled output is called a

A. feedback

B. stimulus

C. signal

D. gain control

Answer: B

15. A closed loop system is distinguished from open loop system by which of the following ?

A. Servomechanism

B. Feedback

C. Output pattern

D. Input pattern

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Answer: B

16 is a part of the human temperature control system.

A. Digestive system

B. Perspiration system

C. Ear

D. Leg movement

Answer: B

17. By which of the following the control action is determined when a man walks along a path ?

A. Brain

B. Hands

C. Legs

D. Eyes

Answer: D

18. is a closed loop system.

A. Auto-pilot for an aircraft

(6) Direct current generator

C. Car starter

D. Electric switch

Answer: A

19. Which of the following devices are commonly used as error detectors in instruments ?

A. Vernistats

B. Microsyns

C. Resolvers

D. Any of the above

Answer: D

20. Which of the following should be done to make an unstable system stable ?

A. The gain of the system should be decreased

B. The gain of the system should be increased

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C. The number of poles to the loop transfer function should be increased

D. The number of zeros to the loop transfer function should be increased

Answer: B

21. increases the steady state accuracy.

A. Integrator

B. Differentiator

C. Phase lead compensator

D. Phase lag compensator

Answer: A

22. A.C. servomotor resembles

A. two phase induction motor

B. Three phase induction motor

C. direct current series motor

D. universal motor

Answer: A

23. As a result of introduction of negative feedback which of the following will not decrease ?

A. Band width

B. Overall gain

C. Distortion

D. Instability

Answer: A

24. Regenerative feedback implies feedback with

A. oscillations

B. step input

C. negative sign

D. positive sign

Answer: D

25. The output of a feedback control system must be a function of

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A. reference and output

B. reference and input

E. input and feedback signal

D. output and feedback signal

Answer: A

26. is an open loop control system.

A. Ward Leonard control

B. Field controlled D.C. motor

C. Stroboscope

D. Metadyne

Answer: B

27. A control system with excessive noise, is likely to suffer from

A. saturation in amplifying stages

B. loss of gain

C. vibrations

D. oscillations

Answer: A

28. Zero initial condition for a system means

A. input reference signal is zero

B. zero stored energy

C. ne initial movement of moving parts

D. system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components

Answer: D

29. Transfer function of a system is used to calculate which of the following ?

A. The order of the system

B. The time constant

C. The output for any given input

D. The steady state gain

Page 549 of 592

Answer: C

30. The band width, in a feedback amplifier.

A. remains unaffected

B. decreases by the same amount as the gain increase

C. increases by the sane saaaajajt as the gain decrease

D. decreases by the same amount as the gain decrease

Answer: C

31. On which of the following factors does the sensitivity of a closed loop system to gain changes and

load disturbances depend ?

A. Frequency

B. Loop gain

C. Forward gain

D. All of the above

Answer: D

32. The transient response, with feedback system,

A. rises slowly

B. rises quickly

C. decays slowly

D. decays quickly

Answer: D

33. The second derivative input signals modify which of the following ?

A. The time constant of the system

B. Damping of the system

C. The gain of the system

D. The time constant and suppress the oscillations

E. None of the above

Answer: D

34. Which of the following statements is correct for any closed loop system ?

Page 550 of 592

A. All the co-efficients can have zero value

(6) All the co-efficients are always non-zero

C. Only one of the static error co-efficients has a finite non-zero value

D. None of the above

Answer: C

35. Which of the following statements is correct for a system with gain margin close to unity or a phase margin
close to zero ?

A. The system is relatively stable

B. The system is highly stable

C. The system is highly oscillatory

D. None of the above

Answer: C

36. Due to which of the following reasons excessive bond width in control systems should be avoided ?

A. It leads to slow speed of response

B. It leads to low relative stability

C. Noise is proportional to band width

D. None of the above

Answer: C

37. In a stable control system backlash can cause which of the following ?

A. Underdamping

B. Overdamping

C. Poor stability at reduced values of open loop gain

D. Low-level oscillations

Answer: D

38. In an automatic control system which of the following elements is not used ?

A. Error detector

B. Final control element

C. Sensor

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D. Oscillator

Answer: D

39. In a control system the output of the controller is given to

A. final control element

B. amplifier

C. comparator

D. sensor

E. none of the above

Answer: A

40. A controller, essentially, is a

A. sensor

B. clipper

C. comparator

D. amplifier

Answer: C

41. Which of the following is the input to a controller ?

A. Servo signal

B. Desired variable value

C. Error signal

D. Sensed signal

Ans:

42. The on-off controller is a _____ system.

A. digital

B. linear

C. non-linear

D. discontinuous

Ans:

43. The capacitance, in force-current analogy, is analogous to

Page 552 of 592

A. momentum

B. velocity

C. displacement

D. mass

Answer: D

44. The temperature, under thermal and electrical system analogy, is considered analogous to

A. voltage

B. current

C. capacitance

D. charge

E. none of the above

Answer: A

45. In electrical-pneumatic system analogy the current is considered analogous to

A. velocity

B. pressure

C. air flow

D. air flow rate

Answer: D

46. In liquid level and electrical system analogy, voltage is considered analogous to

A. head

B. liquid flow

C. liquid flow rate

D. none of the above

Answer: A

47. The viscous friction co-efficient, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous to

A. charge

B. resistance

C. reciprocal of inductance

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D. reciprocal of conductance

E. none of the above

Answer: B

48. In force-voltage analogy, velocity is analogous to

A. current

B. charge

C. inductance

D. capacitance

Answer: A

49. In thermal-electrical analogy charge is considered analogous to

A. heat flow

B. reciprocal of heat flow

C. reciprocal of temperature

D. temperature

E. none of the above

Answer: D

50. Mass, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous to

A. charge

B. current

C. inductance

D. resistance

Answer: C

51. The transient response of a system is mainly due to

A. inertia forces

B. internal forces

C. stored energy

D. friction

Answer: C

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52. signal will become zero when the feedback signal and reference signs are equal.

A. Input

B. Actuating

C. Feedback

D. Reference

Answer: B

53. A signal other than the reference input that tends to affect the value of controlled variable is known as

A. disturbance

B. command

C. control element

D. reference input

Answer: A

54. The transfer function is applicable to which of the following ?

A. Linear and time-in variant systems

B. Linear and time-variant systems

C. Linear systems

D. Non-linear systems

E. None of the above

Answer: A

55. From which of the following transfer function can be obtained ?

A. Signal flow graph

B. Analogous table

C. Output-input ratio

D. Standard block system

E. None of the above

Answer: A

56. is the reference input minus the primary feedback.

A. Manipulated variable

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B. Zero sequence

C. Actuating signal

D. Primary feedback

Answer: C

57. The term backlash is associated with

A. servomotors

B. induction relays

C. gear trains

D. any of the above

Ans:

58. With feedback _____ increases.

A. system stability

B. sensitivity

C. gain

D. effects of disturbing signals

Answer: A

59. By which of the following the system response can be tested better ?

A. Ramp input signal

B. Sinusoidal input signal

C. Unit impulse input signal

D. Exponentially decaying signal

Answer: C

60. In a system zero initial condition means that

A. The system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components

B. The system is working with zero stored energy

C. The system is working with zero reference signal

Answer: A

61. In a system low friction co-efficient facilitates

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A. reduced velocity lag error

B. increased velocity lag error

C. increased speed of response

D. reduced time constant of the system

Answer: A

62. Hydraulic torque transmission system is analog of

A. amplidyneset

B. resistance-capacitance parallel circuit

C. motor-generator set

D. any of the above

Ans:

63. Spring constant in force-voltage analogy is analogous to

A. capacitance

B. reciprocal of capacitance

C. current

D. resistance

Answer: B

64. The frequency and time domain are related through which of the following?

A. Laplace Transform and Fourier Integral

B. Laplace Transform

C. Fourier Integral

D. Either B. or C.

Answer: A

65. An increase in gain, in most systems, leads to

A. smaller damping ratio

B. larger damping ratio

C. constant damping ratio

D. none of the above

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Answer: A

66. Static error coefficients are used as a measure of the effectiveness of closed loop systems for

specified ________ input signal.

A. acceleration

B. velocity

C. position

D. all of the above

Answer: D

67. A conditionally stable system exhibits poor stability at

A. low frequencies

B. reduced values of open loop gain

C. increased values of open loop gain

D. none of the above

Answer: B

68. The type 0 system has ______ at the origin.

A. no pole

B. net pole

C. simple pole

D. two poles

E. none of the above

Answer: A

69. The type 1 system has ______ at the origin.

A. no pole

B. net pole

C. simple pole

D. two poles

Answer: C

70. The type 2 system has ______ at the origin.

Page 558 of 592

A. no net pole

B. net pole

C. simple pole

D. two poles

Answer: D

71. The position and velocity errors of a type-2 system are

A. constant, constant

B. constant, infinity

C. zero, constant

D. zero, zero

Answer: C

72. Velocity error constant of a system is measured when the input to the system is unit _______ function.

A. parabolic

B. ramp

C. impulse

D. step

Answer: B

73. In case of type-1 system steady state acceleration is

A. unity

B. infinity

C. zero

D. 10

Answer: B

74. If a step function is applied to the input of a system and the output remains below a certain level for all the time,
the system is

A. not necessarily stable

B. stable

C. unstable

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D. always unstable

E. any of the above

Answer: A

75. Which of the following is the best method for determining the stability and transient response ?

A. Root locus

B. Bode plot

C. Nyquist plot

D. None of the above

Answer: A

76. Phase margin of a system is used to specify which of the following ?

A. Frequency response

B. Absolute stability

C. Relative stability

D. Time response

Answer: C

77. Addition of zeros in transfer function causes which of the following ?

A. Lead-compensation

B. Lag-compensation

C. Lead-lag compensation

D. None of the above

Answer: B

78. technique is not applicable to nonlinear system ?

A. Nyquist Criterion

B. Quasi linearization

C. Functional analysis

D. Phase-plane representation

Answer: A

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79. In order to increase the damping of a badly underdamped system which of following compensators may be used
?

A. Phase-lead

B. Phase-lag

C. Both A. and B.

D. Either A. and B.

E. None of the above

Answer: A

80. The phase lag produced by transportation relays

A. is independent of frequency

B. is inverseh‘proportional to frequency

C. increases linearly with frequency

D. decreases linearly with frequency

Answer: C

81. In a stable control system saturation can cause which of the following ?

A. Low-level oscillations

B. High-level oscillations

C. Conditional stability

D. Overdamping

Ans:

82. Which of the following can be measured by the use of a tachogenerator ?

A. Acceleration

B. Speed

C. Speed and acceleration

D. Displacement

E. None of the above

Answer: B

83 is not a final control element.

Page 561 of 592

A. Control valve

B. Potentiometer

C. Electropneumatic converter

D. Servomotor

Answer: B

84. Which of the following is the definition of proportional band of a controller ?

A. The range of air output as measured variable varies from maximum to minimum

B. The range of measured variables from set value

C. The range of measured variables through which the air output changes from maximum to minimum

D. Any of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: C

85. In pneumatic control systems the control valve used as final control element converts

A. pressure signal to electric signal

B. pressure signal to position change

C. electric signal to pressure signal

D. position change to pressure signal

E. none of the above

Answer: B

86. Pressure error can be measured by which of the following ?

A. Differential bellows and straingauge

B. Selsyn

C. Strain gauge

D. Strain gauge and potentiometer

Answer: A

87. Which of the following devices is used for conversion of co-ordinates ?

A. Microsyn

B. Selsyn

Page 562 of 592

C. Synchro-resolver

D. Synchro-transformer

Answer: C

88. The effect of error damping is to

A. provide larger settling lime

B. delay the response

C. reduce steady state error

D. any of the above

E. none of the above

Answer: C

89. technique gives quick transient and stability response

A. Root locus

B. Bode

C. Nyquist

D. Nichols

Answer: A

90. A phase lag lead network introduces in the output

A. lag at all frequencies

B. lag at high frequencies and lead at low frequencies

C. lag at low frequencies and lead at high frequencies

D. none of the above

Answer: C

91. Which of the following is the non-linearity caused by servomotor ?

A. Static friction

B. Backlash

C. Saturation

D. None of the above

Answer: C

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92. can be extended to systems which are time-varying ?

A. Bode-Nyquist stability methods

B. Transfer functions

C. Root locus design

D. State model representatives

Answer: D

93. When the initial conditions of a system are specified to be zero it implies that the system is

A. at rest without any energy stored in it

B. working normally with reference input

C. working normally with zero reference input

D. at rest but stores energy

Answer: D

94. Which of the following is an electromagnetically device ?

A. Induction relay

B. Thermocouple

C. LVDT

D. Any of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: C

95. A differentiator is usually not a part of a control system because it

A. reduces damping

B. reduces the gain margin

C. increases input noise

D. increases error

Answer: C

96. If the gain of the critical damped system is increased it will behave as

A. oscillatory

B. critically damped

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C. overdamped

D. underdamped

E. none of the above

Answer: D

97. In a control system integral error compensation _______ steady state error

A. increases

B. minimizes

C. does not have any effect on

D. any of the above

Answer: B

98. With feed back _____ reduces.

A. system stability

(6) system gain

C. system stability and gain

D. none of the above

Answer: B

99. An amplidyne can give which of the following characteristics ?

A. Constant current

B. Constant voltage

C. Constant current as well as constant voltage

D. Constant current, constant voltage and constant power

E. None of the above

Answer: D

100. Which of the following can be measured by LVDT?

A. Displacement

B. Velocity

C. Acceleration

D. Any of the above

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Answer: D

101 directly converts temperature into voltage.

A. Thermocouple

B. Potentiometer

C. Gear train

D. LVDT

E. None of the above

Answer: A

102. The transfer function technique is considered as inadequate under which of the following conditions ?

A. Systems having complexities and non-linearities

B. Systems having stability problems

C. Systems having multiple input disturbances

D. All of the above

Answer: D

103. Which of the following is the output of a thermocouple ?

A. Alternating current

B. Direct current

C. A.C. voltage

D. D.C. voltage

E. None of the above

Answer: D

104. A.C. servomotor is basically a

A. universal motor

B. single phase induction motor

C. two phase induction motor

D. three phase induction motor

Answer: C

105. The first order control system, which is well designed, has a

Page 566 of 592

A. small bandwidth

B. negative time constant

C. large negative transfer function pole

D. none of the above

Answer: C

106. Which of the following is exhibited by Root locus diagrams ?

A. The poles of the transfer function for a set of parameter values

B. The bandwidth of the system

C. The response of a system to a step input

D. The frequency response of a system

E. None of the above

Answer: A

Maintenance Management MCQ Multiple Choice Questions with Answers

1. ___ is concerned with the direction and pooling of all internal resources to control the availability and
performance of the plants and types of machinery at expected levels.

Show Answer

Maintenance management

2. The ___ machines were programmed for highly reliable production.

Show Answer

Computer Numerical Control (CNC)

3. The objective of maintenance is linked to the overall organizational objectives of maximizing ___ and hence ___
of the organization.

Show Answer

The productivity and profitability

4. Sound maintenance management minimizes accidents through proper maintenance of ___.

Show Answer

All safety devices

5. Maintenance manager is responsible for scheduling maintenance activities? (True/False.)

Page 567 of 592

Show Answer

True

6. Maintenance planning and ___ are some of the important, modern maintenance management activities.

Show Answer

Directing execution of maintenance plan

7. Maintenance organization establishes integrated ___ for performing high-quality maintenance activities, which
are controlled, measured, and improved upon.

Show Answer

Maintenance procedures and processes

8. Any maintenance activity requires resources.

Show Answer

True

9. Maintenance manager, quality manager, all concerned with the resources provisioning, and ___ are the four
groups that have to integrate the maintenance dynamics.

Show Answer

Higher up team

10. Good quality maintenance could contribute significantly to ___.

Show Answer

11. Certain key process areas (KPAs) are identified which may enhance the effectiveness and the capability of the
___.

Show Answer

Maintenance personnel

12. Shut-down maintenance can either be a preventive activity or a corrective activity.

Show Answer

False

13. Corrective maintenance activities include both emergency repairs (fire fighting) and preventive (or corrective)
repairs. This system is also called the ___.

Show Answer

Operate to failure

Page 568 of 592

14. Maintenance activity must be defined and managed as a process in order to achieve maximum payoff. The
maintenance management system helps the organization to work within an integral ___ covering all the machinery
and equipments.

Show Answer

Life cycle management model

15. There are three stages in the lifecycle management of any machinery namely the Acquisition phase, ___,
disposal, and replacement phase.

Show Answer

Maintenance phase

16. Subcontractor‘s function does need not to maintain data related to subcontracts.

Show Answer

False

17. Work order management function is required to plan capacity.

Show Answer

True

18. Equipment maintenance function includes scheduled preventive maintenance work.

Show Answer

True

19. Information systems will not validate data entry.

Show Answer

False

20. Vendor management function needs to maintain vendor information.

Show Answer

True

21. Equipment/machinery malfunction have a direct impact on factors like ___, production costs, product and
service quality, employee safety, and customer satisfaction.

Show Answer

Production capacity

22. The work management system evolved with a goal to achieve excellence is a deliberate process in which the
total scope of work is identified, selected, ___, to keep up and maintain records.

Page 569 of 592

Show Answer

Planned, scheduled, executed

23. From the following, find the missing functional requirements that have to be evolved and established as a part of
the maintenance system and planned accordingly for execution.

a) Maintenance management system

b) Equipment maintenance function.

c) Work order management subsystem.

d) Inventory management subsystem.

e) ______

f) Subcontractor management subsystem.

g) General Information system

Show Answer

e) Vendor management subsystem

24. Management tools for a successful critique process include ___.

Show Answer

Worker feedback

25. ___ can be closed and declared complete when defined requirements in the approved work package have been
met.

Show Answer

Close Work

26. Execute work describes the ___ and ___ associated with the actual performance of the work.

Show Answer

Processes, Tools

27. ___ systems are often put in place to collect work requests.

Show Answer

Work management

28. The performance measurement in ___ has become one of the key ingredients to achieving operational
excellence.

Show Answer

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Maintenance

29. In order to maximize maintenance effectiveness and equipment uptime and minimize losses, organizations want
to adopt the best practices in maintenance for which the benchmarking and ___ maintenance methods could be
evolved to measure performance.

Show Answer

Balanced Scorecard

30. For effective control of maintenance, the ___ measurement of performance is essential.

Show Answer

Annual

31. MTTR depends on how well the maintenance crews are in a position to quickly locate the ___ of the problem
and find out remedial measures?

Show Answer

Root cause

32. Requirements of a good maintenance program are:

a) Good supervision and administration of the maintenance department.

b) Consultation with production for fixing priority schedules of maintenance work.

c) A good lubrication schedule.

d) Clear instruction to maintenance crew regarding maintenance work.

e) _______.

f) Adequate stock of spare parts, recommended by equipment manufacturers.

g) Data, regarding failure and corrective maintenance work carried out earlier.

Show Answer

e) Keeping proper records of maintenance, service manuals, and handbooks

33. ___ of very basic technical tasks through a set of standard operating procedures will minimize errors and
improves the efficiency of the operations.

Show Answer

Standardization

34. The maintenance costs are the six big losses to the organization and can be classified under.

a) Breakdowns and unplanned shutdown losses

b) Excessive setup, changeovers, and adjustments losses

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c) Idling and minor stoppages

d) _______

e) Startup losses

f) Quality defects and their losses

Show Answer

d) Running at reduced speeds of the machine

35. The gap between the current level of performance and the ___ level of performance is nothing but the
improvements required, which have to be achieved within the shortest possible time.

Show Answer

Desired

36. Records must include the following:

a) Downtime hours arise from both preventive maintenance and breakdowns.

b) Cost implications of downtime.

c) ________.

d) Frequency and nature of failures of key pieces of equipment.

e) Cost of maintenance services.

f) Identification of persons performing the work on all major types of equipment.

Show Answer

c) Severity

37. Breakdowns can be measured in terms of their frequency and also the ___.

Show Answer

Frequency

38. ___ measure indicates how often the equipment was not fit for use, whereas the severity measure indicates how
long it was unavailable due to breakdown.

Show Answer

Measuring Availability

39. Measures that capture the attributes pertaining to breakdowns and other maintenance performances are
mentioned below. These are:

a) Measuring Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)

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b) Measuring Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)

c) ______.

Show Answer

c) Measuring Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)

40. ___ is the expected time of the arrival of a failure.

Show Answer

Measuring Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)

41. ___ on the other hand is the expected time for restoring the equipment back to working condition.

Show Answer

Availability

42. The ___ is defined as the fraction of the time the equipment is available for production use.

Show Answer

time Total Failures of Number

43. Failure rate of the compressor = ___

Show Answer

Number of Failures

________

Total time

44. MTBF = ___

Show Answer

Total time

_____________

Number of Failures

45. MTTR = ___

Show Answer

Repair time

_________

No of repairs

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46. Availability = ___

Show Answer

MTBF

___________

(MTBF + MITR)

47. The effectiveness of maintenance can be evaluated in terms of the ___ and ___.

Show Answer

Maintenance cost incurred, equipment downtime

48. Maintenance cost index (as a percentage) = ___.

Show Answer

[((Annual maintenance cost) x 100)/(Cost of Production)]

49. Frequency of breakdowns = ___.

Show Answer

Number of breakdowns per week

_______________________

Available machine hours per week

50. Downtime index (as a percentage) = ___.

Show Answer

(Downtime per week) 100

_____________________

Available machine hours per week

51. Available machine-hours = ___.

Show Answer

[(Weekly working days) x (hours per day) x (Number of machines)]

52. Breakdown Maintenance index = ___.

Show Answer

(Labour hours spent on breakdown maintenance) x 100

__________________________________

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Labor hours spent on all forms of maintenance

53. Labour Cost of Planned Maintenance Index = ___.

Show Answer

(Labour hours spent on planned maintenance) x 100

______________________________

(Labour hours spent on all machines)

54. Equipment Availability = ___.

Show Answer

[((Operating Time)/((Operating Time + Maintenance Time))] ]

55. It is mandatory for the ___ to supply the equipment as specified in the purchase order and also ensure that all the
documentation asked for is supplied with the equipment.

Show Answer

OE manufacturer

56. Further specific training needs of both ___ and ___ have to be accomplished to the satisfaction of the customer.

Show Answer

Production, maintenance staff

57. Scope of supply contracts includes the supply of equipment, ___ of the equipment, supply of documentation, and
training of personnel in the maintenance of the equipment.

Show Answer

Erection and commissioning

58. The equipment catalog is an important requirement for ___.

Show Answer

Effective maintenance

59. ___ gives us details of the overall specifications and dimensions of the machine and certain salient features.

Show Answer

Catalogs

60. Manuals are prepared by categorizing into different critical areas and hence separate manuals for each of these
___ of the machine.

Show Answer

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Critical operations

61. Manuals prepared and issued by the manufacturer provide the following information:

a) List of recommended spare parts and the quantity to be stocking

b) _________

c) Basic set of troubleshooting methods

d) Recommendations on the frequency of maintenance

Show Answer

b) Recommended methods of maintenance

62. A troubleshooting mechanism is a structured approach to identify the ___ of the problem that needs some
correction in a maintenance scenario.

Show Answer

Root cause

63. A fault tree is a ___ of the circuitry that will trace the component failure to a specific portion of the network and
help maintenance attend to the problem.

Show Answer

Network diagram

64. The decisions that are taken from this maintenance policy will be more of an ___ decision rather than the
technical one.

Show Answer

Economic

65. The planned actions by the maintenance manager amount to a reduction in the total maintenance cost, which is
nothing but the ___ of the preventive and remedial maintenance costs.

Show Answer

Sum total

66. For an effective PM program, detailed records need not be maintained for each of the machines.

Show Answer

False

67. Equipment specifications and checklists are not needed for inspection of Plant Maintenance activities and during
early decisions on replacements.

Show Answer

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False

68. Data is also necessary to determine whether or not the maintenance actions in the previous occasion have really
enhanced the life of the equipment or whether or not the cost of maintenance exceeded the total savings in losses
due to breakdowns.

Show Answer

True

69. Maintenance department requires reliable data for analyzing and evaluating the problems through statistical
methods before initiating the maintenance actions.

Show Answer

True

70. The amounts of data that are generated in a large factory are always huge and hence computers are generally
used to maintain the database for the maintenance department to access whenever required.

Show Answer

True

22643 Mechatronics MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions)

22643 Mechatronics MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions)

Unit 1 .Introduction

Q.1. In which stage the measurement system comes in contact with the measurand or the

quantity to be measured?

a. Transducer Stage

b. Signal Processor Stage

c. Output Stage

d. None of the above

Q.2.The characteristic that provides an output with respect to the relation with the input is

called as ___________

a. calibration of a system

b. response of a system

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c. characteristic relation of a system

d. instrumentation of a system

Q.3. Following acts as detector in Optical sensor

a .Light emitting diode

b. Photo diode

c. Transistor

d. All of the above

Q.4.Following type of sensors is used to generate information in object grasping and

obstacle avoidance.

a. Hall Effect sensor

b. Proximity sensor

c. Light sensor

d. Optical sensors

Q.5.Hall Effect sensors are used in

a. Flow meter

b. Fuel level indicator

c. Both (A) and (B)

d. None of the above

Q.6.Inductive proximity sensors can be effective only when the objects are of _____

materials.

a. Ferro magnetic

b. Diamagnetic

c. Paramagnetic

d. All of the above

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Q.7. Self generating type transducers are _____ transducers.

a. Active

b. Passive

c. Secondary

d. Inverse

Q.8. transducer that converts measurand into the form of pulse is called

a. Active transducer

b Analog transducer

c. Digital transducer

d. Pulse transducer

Q.9.Strain gauge, LVDT and thermocouple are examples of

a. Active transducers

b. Passive transducers

c. Analog transducers

d. Primary transducers

Q.10. In wire wound strain gauges, the change in resistance is due to

a. Change in diameter of the wire

b. Change in length of the wire

c. Change in both length and diameter

d. Change in resistivity

Q.11. Bonded wire strain gauges are

a. Exclusively used for construction of transducers

b. Exclusively used for stress analysis

c. Used for both stress analysis and construction of transducer

d. Pressure measurement

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Q.12. The principle of operation of LVDT is based on the variation of

a. Self inductance

b. Mutual inductance

c. Reluctance

d. Permanence

Q.13.The device which converts one energy into another is called a

a. Transistor

b. Transducer

c. PLC

d. Micro controller

Q.14.The capacitance microphone is used for the detection of

a. Heart rate

b. Blood flow

c. Heart sound

d. Foot pressure

Q.15.Which of the following is correct for tactile sensors

a. Touch sensitive

b. Pressure sensitive

c. Input voltage sensitive

d. Humidity sensitive

Q.16.Thermocouple generate output voltage according to

a. Circuit parameters

b. Humidity

c. Temperature

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d. Voltage

Q.17. The computer devices and smart phones that have _______ with pressure sensor.

a. Automotive Industry

b. Industrial

c. Aviation

d. Touch screen

Q.18. ________ consists of two different metals connected at two points.

a. Thermistor

b. Resistance Thermometer

c. Thermocouple

d. Semiconductor based sensor

Q.19. Example for positive displacement meter is

a. Variable area flow meter

b Turbine meters

c. Rotary piston meter

d. Venturi

Q.20. Thermocouples consist of a pair of wires made of dissimilar metals joined together at

one or more junctions that generate a voltage when subjected to a temperature gradient .

This phenomenon is known as the _________

a. See back effect

b. piezoelectric effect

c. Photovoltaic

d. Photoconductor

Q.21. Optical _________ is utilized to measure the temperature of objects. This relies on

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blackbody radiation.

a. Spectroscopy

b. Pyrometry

c. Geometry

d. Reflection

Q.22. which of the following can be measured using Piezo–electric transducer?

a. Velocity

b. Displacement

c. Force

d. Sound

Q.23. Decoders and Encoders are doing reverse operation.

a. True

b. False

Q.24. A decoder converts n inputs to __________ outputs.

a. n

b. n2

c.2n

d. nn

Q.25. which of the following can be represented for decoder?

a. Sequential circuit

b .Combinational circuit

c .Logical circuit

d .None of the mentioned

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Q.26. which sensor can detect nearby objects?

a) Proximity sensor

b) Humidity sensor

c) Touch sensor

d) Pressure sensor

Q.27.The monitoring of machines, gears and objects are achieved by which sensor?

a) Humidity sensor

b) Proximity sensor

c) Touch sensor

d) Pressure sensor

Q.28. which proximity sensor detects metal objects?

a) Capacitive Proximity Sensor

b) Magnetic Proximity Sensor

c) Ultrasonic Proximity Sensor

d) Inductive Proximity Sensor

Q.29.Which proximity sensors are used in automotive?

a) Inductive Proximity Sensor

b) Capacitive Proximity Sensor

c) Magnetic Proximity Sensor

d) Ultrasonic Proximity Sensor

Q.30. which proximity sensor detects positioning of an object?

a) Inductive Proximity Sensor

b) Capacitive Proximity Sensor

c) Optical Proximity Sensor

d) Magnetic Proximity Sensor

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Q.31. which proximity sensor detects metal objects?

a) Capacitive Proximity Sensor

b) Magnetic Proximity Sensor

c) Ultrasonic Proximity Sensor

d) Inductive Proximity Sensor

Q.32. what is the relation between capacitance and input impedance?

a. directly proportional

b. constant

c. proportional to square

d. inversely proportional

Q.33. LVDT is a/an

a Transformer

b. Differential output transformer

c. Variable core transformer

d. Linear variable core differential output transformer

Q.34.Capacitance principle cannot be used to measure

a. Level

b. Pressure

c. Thickness/width

d. Conductivity

Q.35. which of the following are encoder advantages?

a. Low cost

b. High resolution

c. High reliability and accuracy

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d. All of the Above

Q.36. what are single output channel incremental encoders used for?

a. Sense Direction

b Sense Speed (Tachometers)

c. Position Feedback

Q.37.A counter is required to keep track of information produced by an ____ optical

encoder.

a. absolute

b .Incremental

Q.38____ optical encoders are capable of measuring velocity

a. absolute

b .Incremental

Q.39.VFD stands for?

a. Very fine dog

b. Variable Air volume

c. Variable Frequency Drive

Unit 2 Signal Conditioning

Q.1.An ideal operational amplifier has

a. infinite output impedance

b. zero input impedance

c. infinite bandwidth

d. All of the above

Q.2.Op–amps used as high– and low–pass filter circuits employ which configuration?

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a. Non–inverting

b. comparator

c. open–loop

d. inverting

Q.3.A non–inverting closed–loop op–amp circuit generally has a gain factor:

a. Less than one

b. Greater than one

c. of zero

d. Equal to one

Q.4.With negative feedback, the returning signal:

a. Aids the input signal

b.is proportional to output current

c. opposes the input signal

d. is proportional to differential voltage gain

Q.5. An output that is proportional to the addition of two or more inputs is from which

type of amplifier

a. differentiator

b.. difference

c. summing

d. analog subtractor

Q.6.Which bit coder is required to code a signal with 16 levels?

a) 8 bit

b) 4 bit

c) 2 bit

d) 1 bit

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Q.7.Which of the following is done to convert a continuous time signal into discrete time

signal?

a) Modulating

b) Sampling

c) Differentiating

d) Integrating

Q.8.In a flash analog–to–digital converter, the output of each comparator is connected to an

input of a ________.

a. Decoder

b. priority encoder

c. multiplexer

d. demultiplexers

Q.9.Which term applies to the maintaining of a given signal level until the next sampling?

a. Holding

b. Aliasing

c. Shannon frequency sampling

d.―Stair–stepping‖

Q.10. The dual–slope analog–to–digital converter finds extensive use in ________.

a. digital voltmeters

b. frequency counters

c. function generators

d. all of the above

Q.11.A 4–bit R/2R ladder digital–to–analog converter uses ________.

a. Two resistor values

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b. One resistor value

c. Three resistor values

d. Four resistor values

Q.12. Which A/D conversion method has a fixed conversion time?

a. Single–slope analog–to–digital converter

b .Dual–slope analog–to–digital converter

c. Digital–ramp analog–to–digital converter

d. Successive–approximation analog–to–digital converter

Q.13. which is a typical application of digital signal processing?

a. Noise elimination

b. Music signal processing

c. Image processing

d. All of the above

Q.14. how are unwanted frequencies removed prior to digital conversion?

a. Pre–filters

b. Digital signal processing

c. Sample–and–hold circuits

d. All of the above

Q.15. which of the following best defines Nyquist frequency?

a. The frequency of resonance for the filtering circuit

b. The second harmonic

c. The lower frequency limit of sampling

d. The highest frequency component of a given analog signal

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Q.16.What is the function of the comparators in the 555 timer circuit?

a. to compare the output voltages to the internal voltage divider

b. to compare the input voltages to the internal voltage divider

c. to compare the output voltages to the external voltage divider

d. to compare the input voltages to the external voltage divider

Q17. Which combinational circuit is renowned for selecting a single input from multiple

inputs & directing the binary information to output line?

a. Data Selector

b. Data Distributer

c. Both a & b

d. None of the above

Q.18. It is possible for an enable or strobe input to undergo an expansion of two or more

MUX ICs to the digital multiplexer with the proficiency of large number of _____.

a. inputs

b. outputs

c. selection lines

d. all of the above

Q.19.Which is the major functioning responsibility of the multiplexing combinational

circuit?

a. Decoding the binary information

b. Generation of all minterms in an output function with OR–gate

c. Generation of selected path between multiple sources and a single destination

d. All of the above

Q.20. Multiplexers work with ________________

a. Analog signal

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b. Digital signal

c. Both analog and digital signal

d. none of the mentioned

Q.21. what is a multiplexer?

a. It is a type of decoder which decodes several inputs and gives one output

b. A multiplexer is a device which converts many signals into one

c. It takes one input and results into many output

d. It is a type of encoder which decodes several inputs and gives one output

Q.22. Demultiplexer act as an encoder

a. True

b. False

Q.23.The serial port is used to connect basically _____ and processor

a. I/O devices

b Speakers

c. Printer

d. Monitor

Q.24. which of the following is not a multiplexer?

a..8–to–1 line

b. 16–to–1 line

c. 4–to–1 line

d. 1–to–4 line

Q.25. which of the following is the pin efficient method of communicating between other

devices?

a. Serial port

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b. parallel port

c. peripheral port

d. memory port

Q.26. the serial port is used to connect basically _____ and processor.

a. I/O devices

b. Speakers

c. Printer

d. Monitor

Q.27. which of these is an area for temporary memory storage?

a. buffer

b. register

c. table

d. flag

Q.28. The processor of knowing the status of device and transferring the data with

matching speeds is called

a. Handshaking

b. Peripheral

c. Ports

d. None of these

Q.29. To avoid loading during read operation, the device used is

a. latch

b. flip–flop

c. buffer

d. tri–state buffer

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Q.30. The signals that are provided to maintain proper data flow and synchronization

between the data transmitter and receiver are

a. Handshaking signals

b. Control signals

c. Input signals

d. None

Q.31. The popular technique that is used in the integration of ADC chips is

a. Successive approximation

b. Dual slope integration

c. Successive approximation and dual slope integration

d. None

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