OBG

McQ {CHO}
MCQs
Q.1 What are the 2 basic components of Q.11_ The term gravida denotes a condition
of?
ANC? (a) Frequency of pregnancy
(a) Supervision - examination (b) Frequency of viable pregnancy
(b) Examination - advice (c) Condition of serious pregnancy
(c) Registration - monitoring (d) Total number of viable fetus
(d) Prevention - promotion Q.12 What is average (ideal) height of Indian
Q.2. According to guideline pregnancy mother’s to conduct normal labour
registration time will be? chances?
(a) In 1" Trimester (a) 5 feet
(b) In 1“ Contact (b) 5 feet 5 inch
(c) In 3 Trimester (c) 4 feet 7 inch
(d) Anytime in pregnancy (d) 5 feet 4 inch
Q.3 What are the total number of minimum Q.13) Which amount is ideal for gaining
weight
recommended ANC visits? in a normal single tone pregnancy?
(a) 8 (b) 11 (a) 16 kg (30 pound)
(c) 4 (d) 15 (b) Ll kg (24 pound)
Q.4 Which will be ideal time duration to (c) 12 kg (22 pound)
perform 3™ ANC visit? (d) 15 kg (28 pound)
(a) 24-28 week (b) 28-36 week Q.14 In which trimester of pregnancy rapid
(c) 36-40 week (d) 28-32 week fetal weight gain occur?
Q.5 Neglee Formula to calculate EDD will be? (a) 1* Trimester (b) 3" Trimester
(a) 9 month + LMP + 7 days (c) 2™ Trimester (d) Equal in All
(b) 7 day + LMP + 9 month Q.15 What will be ideal pattern to assess
(c) LMP + 9 month + 7 days pallor/cyanosis changes in pregnant
(d) 7 day + 9 month + LMP mother?
Q.6 Calculate EDD for a mother who report (a) Nails - conjunctiva - Tongue
her last menstrual period on © 20 (b) Tongue — Conjunctiva - Nails
November 2021? {c) Conjunctiva — Nails - Tongue
(a) 27 July (b) 27 August (d) Conjunctiva — Tongue — Nails
(c) 20 August (d) 27 September
Q.7. During ANC visit mother report her last Note - Assessment approach follow
center
period on 17" June 2021 with a regular (conjunctiva) to periphery (Nails)
cycle duration about 24 days, calculate
her EDD? Q.16 What will be basic purpose to perform
(a) 17 March (b) 17 April oral examination of pregnant mother?
(c) 13 March (d) 21 March (a) To assess dental caries
(b) To assess gum bleeding
Note - Average cycle duration 28 days if (c) To assess dry mouth
question report about less/more days then (d) To examine white patches
subtraction/addition done. Q.17. Which hormone is associated with the
Q.8 A pregnant women 1" time delivered a condition of pregnancy induced hyper-
baby will term as: salivation?
(a) Nullipara (b) Primigravida (a) Prolactin (b) Estrogen
(c) Primipara (d) Multigravida (c) Progesterone (d) Thyroid
Q.9 In ANC documentation term elderly Q.18 Which of the following intervention is
primigravida stand for? appropriate to overcome the condition of
(a) 1" pregnancy after 30 year age gum-bleeding in pregnancy?
(b) More than 5 pregnancy up to 30 year age (a) Instruct to use betadin — gargle
solution
(c) 1" delivery after 30 year age (b) Refer for higher center
(d) More than 2 fetus in single pregnancy (c) Avoidance of toothbrush and use
finger
Q.10 Ideal timing of preterm birth range will massage
be? (d) Vitamin B complex therapy
(a) 20-37 week Q.19 Breast is the modification of which gland?

(b) 28-37 week

(c) 22-37 week
(d) 24-36 week

(a) Sweat

(b) Sebaceous
(c) Serumenous
(d) Salivary

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7426955591, 7426955593 42
MCQs

Q.20

Q.21

Q.22

Q.23

Q.24

Q.25

Q.26

Q.27

Q.28

In pregnancy total number of

montagomerry tubercle will be?

(a) 10-20

(b) 15-25

(c) 5-25

(d) 5-15

Montagomerry tubercle of pregnancy

characterized as?

(a) Sweat gland proliferation

(b) Sebaceous gland proliferation

(c) Indication of cancer character

(d) Outlining of dark area

During pregnancy dark outlining around

the tubercle term as?

(a) Secondary areola

(b) Primary areola

(c) Sebaceous growth

(d) Mamary growth

Which statement best explain about

pregnancy induced edema condition?

(a) Associated fetal bilateral growth

(b) Most common in both upper-lower extremity

(c) Increase circulation increase edema

(d) Right sided edema is most common

Note — In pregnancy uterus maintain

dextro-rotation (right) and responsible
for right sided edema.

Ideal timing to assess edematous

extremities in physical examination?

(a) 5 minute pressing

(b) 15 second pressing

(c) 5 second pressing

(d) 1 minute pressing

The relationship of maximum length

between maternal uterus and fetal
vertebra is known as?

(a) Presentation (b) Attitude

(c) Lie (d) Denominator

Which will be suitable example of Lie for
conduction of normal labour?

(a) Longitudinal (b) Transverse

(c) Oblique (d) Curve

Which of the following’ will be

appropriate for fetus lie?

(a) Total number 4

(b) Normal lies transverse

(c) Relation with lower uterine segment

(d) Oblique is unstable

Identify suitable statement to explain

fetus presentation?

(a) Occupy lower uterine segment

(b) Maintain maximum length relation

(c) Bony prominent area

(d) Relation between body parts

0.29

Q.30
Q.31

Q.32

Q.33

Q.34

Q.35

Q.36

Q.37

Q.38

Q.39

Q.40

Q.41

The normal fetus presentation in a

normal labour process will be?

(a) Breech (b) Cephalic

(c) Vertex (d) Shoulder

Identify inappropriate statement to
perform Leopold maneuvers?

(a) Basic purpose fetal part identification

(b) Always stand on left side

(c) Perform after 28 week gestation

(d) Total number 4

What is the basic purpose to perform 1*

grip?

(a) To identify fetus lie

(b) To confirm engagment

(c) To identify descent

(d) To confirm fetal attitude

Which obstetrical grip provide formation

about fetus head engagment?

(a) LP Ist (b) LP 2nd

(c) LP 3rd (d) LP 4th

Which obstetrical grip provide

information about fetus head engagment?
(a) Fundal (b) Umlical

(c) 1" pelvic (d) 2™ Pelvic

Which _ obstetrical grip _ provide
information about fetus head engagment?

(a) Fundal (b) Lateral

(c) Pawlick (d) Pelvic

Identify the grip provide most comfort to

pregnant mother?

(a) LP Ist (b) LP 2nd

(c) LP 4th (d) LP 3rd

Identify the grip provide most

uncomforted to pregnant mother?

(a) LP Ist (b) LP 2nd

(c) LP 4th (d) LP 3rd

Which obstetrical grip provide maximum

information to examiner?

(a) Fundal (b) Pelvic

(c) Pawlick (d) Umblical

Which obstetrical grip confirm fetal head
descent process?

(a) LP 4th (b) LP 3rd

(c) LP 2nd (d) LP Ist

Which obstetrical grip confirm fetal head

descent process?

(a) 1* Pelvic (b) Lateral

(c) 2 pelvic (d) Fundal

Which obstetrical grip confirm fetal head

descent process?

(a) Fundal (b) Umbilical

(c) True pelvic (d) Pawlick

Identify the Leopold perform by using
only one hand?

(a) LP Ist (b) LP 2nd

(c) LP 3rd (d) LP 4th

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MCQs

Q.42

Q.43

Q.44

Q.45

Q.46

Q.47

Q.48

Q.49

Q.50

Q51

Select appropriate result

performance of 1" pelvic grip?
(a) It confirm fetal head descent process

(b) It is most uncomfortable for mother

(c) Hand divergion confirm engagment

(d) It perform after LP 3rd

Which is appropriate statement in the

performance of 1" and 2™ grip?

(a) In transverse lie fundal grip absent.

(b) In transverse lie lateral grip diagnose

back and extremities

(c) In longitudinal lie fundal grip diagnose

back and extremities

(d) In longitudinal lie lateral grip diagnose

head and buttocks

Select non-appropriate statement before

performing fundal height assessment?
(a) Use of measuring tape

(b) Dorsal recumbent position

(c) Direction Pubis - xiphoid

(d) Bladder must be full

Which will be best suitable position to

perform fundal height assessment?
(a) Supine with tilt

(b) Dorsal recumbent

(c) Left lateral

(d) Lithotomy

Around 32 week gestational age fundal

during

height will be?

(a) 32 cm (b) 28 cm
(c) 35 cm (d) 26 cm

During which week of gestational age

fundus located at umblicus level?

(a) 12 week (b) 24 week

(c) 36 week (d) 40 week

Equal fundus height level is present in

which pair of gestational age?

(a) 24-28 (b) 32-36

(c) 30-36 (d) 32-40

Equal fundus height level is

differentiating by which medical
abbreviation?

(a) Lightning (b) Descent

(c) Engagment (d) Quickening

The most reliable sign of fetal well being
will be?

(a) FHS

(b) Fetal length

(c) Fetal movement

(d) Fetus & respiration

Select appropriate pair who explain

normal fetus movement result?

(a) 10 in 12 hour

(b) 12 in 10 hour

(c) 12 in 2 hour

(d) 10 in 2 hour
Q.52

Q.53

Q.54

Q.55

Q.56

Q.57

Q.58

Q.59

0.60

Q.61

The 1" fetus movement feel by mother is

known as?

(a) Lightning (b) Descent

(c) Engagment (d) Quickening

The best suitable time period to assess

quickening?
(a) 10-12 week
(c) 20-24 week

(b) 16-18 week

(d) 24-28 week

A community nurse must have

information about fetal movement
process, which information have wrong
value regarding this?

(a) It is reliable well being indicator

(b) Can easily access by mother

(c) Increase movement indicate fetal distress

(d) 10 movement within 12 hour is normal
At which of pregnancy FHS can be assess

by fetoscope?
(a) 12 week (b) 20 week
(c) 16 week (d) 10 week

The best place to locate FHS during

pregnancy will be?

(a) Maternal abdomen — fetal chest

(b) Maternal abdomen — fetal back

(c) Fetal back — maternal back

(d) Fetal chest — maternal chest

What is normal range of FHR?

(a) 120-160

(b) 110-150

(c) 140-160

(d) 150-180

Which statement best explain FHS

location in cephalic presentation?

(a) At the level of umbilicus

(b) Above the level of umbilicus

(c) Below the level of umbilicus

(d) Midpoint of umbilicus — spine line

Under Lab investigation method ‘UPT’

appropriate to identify which

component? (a) Hemoglobin

(b) Protein

(c) HCG

(d) Sugar

Which alphabet is coded over ‘UPT-KIT*

to declare true or false interpretation?
(a)S

(b)R

(c)C

(d) T

What is the famous name _ of

chemical/Test to identify sugar in urine?
(a) Dipstick

(b) Boiling

(c) Benedict

(d) RDT

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MCQs

Q.62

Q.63

Q.64

Q.65

Q.66

Q.67

Q.68

Q.69

Q.70

Q.71

Dipstick coded method is_ useful

investigation tool to identify which
component?

(a) Sugar in urine

(b) Protein in urine

(c) Hb in blood

(d) Both (A) and (B)

What is the famous name of test to

identify malaria parasite in blood?

(a) Dipstick (b) Boiling

(c) Benedict (d) RDT

In community setting ‘RDT’ stand for

which abbreviation?

(a) Rapid disposable test

(b) Real diagnostic tool

(c) Regimen diagnosis technique

(d) Retrovirus diagnostic test

If a pregnant mother got infection by

both falciparum and vivex species then
what will be interpretation mode over
test?

(a) C (b) C/T,

(c) C/T; (d) C/T,,T:
During performance of ‘RDT’ the result
value C/T; indicative for which finding?
(a) No malaria

(b) Vivex malaria

(c) Falciparum malaria

(d) Both B and C

True gestational age is about how many

days?
(a) 280 days (b) 300 days
(c) 266 days (d) 294 days

In pregnant mother “Perinatal period”

stands for which duration?

(a) Start from viability

(b) Start from conception

(c) Duration of pregnancy

(d) Duration of labour

In pregnant mother “Prenatal Period”

stands for which duration?

(a) Start from viability

(b) Start before conception

(c) Duration of pregnancy

(d) Duration of labour

Which uterine layer designated as living

Ligature?

(a) Longitudinal muscle

(b) Oblique muscle

(c) Circular muscle

(d) Endometrium

Identify inappropriate pair regarding

pregnancy related uterine shape changes?
(a) Normal : Pyriform

(b) 6 week : Heris egg

(c) 8 week : Giobular

(d) 28 week : Pyriform

0.72

Q.73

Q.74

Q.75

Q.76

Q.77

Q.78

Q.79

Q.80

Q.81

During pregnancy vaginal PH is?

(a) Acidic (b) More acidic

(c) Alkaline (d) Neutral

Which of the following pregnancy

induced cervical changes is appropriate?
(a) Become hypertrophied and decrease
mucus

(b) Become more rigid and hard

(c) Become bright red in colour

(d) Condition of physiological leucorrea

How much extra-Fluid volume is retained
during pregnancy?

(a) 11 Ltr (b) 6.5 Ltr

(c) 5 Lir (d) 9.5 Ltr
Which statement best explain the

condition of physiological anemia?

(a) More plasma then RBC

(b) More RBC then plasma

(c) Both plasma / RBC decrease

(d) Both plasma / RBC increase

Which basic principal is responsible for

the condition of physiological Anemia?

(a) Hemoconcentration (b) Decrease HB

(c) Hemodilution (d) Decrease RBC
A community nurse must have idea that
during normal pregnancy blood pressure
will be?

(a) Increase (b) Decrease

(c) Normal (d) None

A slight decrease in blood pressure

during pregnancy supposed to be related
with which activity?

(a) Increase blood volume

(b) Progesterone induced dilation

(c) Estrogen induced dilation

(d) Increase cytokine level

Which pregnancy structure supposed to

be a cause of postural hypotension of
pregnancy?

(a) Uterine dextro-rotation

(b) Placenta

(c) Maternal posture

(d) Fetus

In postural hypotension up to which

extent blood pressure change?

(a) 5-15 mm Hg increase

(b) 20 mm Hg increase

(c) 5-15 mm Hg decrease

(d) 20 mm Hg decrease

During ante-natal check-up a community

nurse identifies the condition of postural
hypotension, which will be priority work
should be performed?

(a) Immediate oxygenation

(b) Left Lateral position

(c) Immediate Refer

(d) IV 500 ML NS

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MCQs

Q.82

Q.83

Q.84

Q.85

Q.86

Q.87

Q.88

Q.89

Q.90

Q.91

During pregnancy general physiological

edema is related to which physiological
change?

(a) Increase plasma volume

(b) Increase sodium retention

(c) Decrease plasma protein

(d) Hypertension condition

Which hormone is responsible to develop

increase sense of smell during pregnancy?
(a) HCG

(b) Estrogen

(c) Progesterone

(d) Prolactin

Which hormone is responsible to decrease

GIT peristaltic movement in Pregnancy?
(a) HCG

(b) Estrogen

(c) Progesterone

(d) Prolactin

Heartburn of Pregnancy related to which

hormonal action?

(a) HCG
(b) Estrogen

(c) Progesterone

(d) Prolactin

Heartburn of pregnancy related to which

physiological activity?

(a) Gravid uterus Pressure

(b) Intestinal displacement

(c) Increase HCL Production

(d) Relaxation of cardiac sphinctor

Constipation of pregnancy related to
which physiological activity?

(a) Gravid uterus Pressure

(b) Intestinal displacement

(c) Decrease Peristalsis

(d) Relaxation of Anal Sphinctor

Which of the following pregnancy

induced change is not appropriate?

(a) Respiration normal

(b) Tidal volume increase

(c) Bladder capacity increase

(d) Urine frequency increase

Which endocrinal Hormone have variable

nature in pregnancy?

(a) Pitutory (b) TSH

(c) FSH/LH (d) Adrenal

In Pregnancy which endocrinal gland

have maximum functioning level?

(a) Pitutory (b) Thyroid

(c) Pineal (d) Adrenal

Linea Nigra of Pregnancy best defined

as?

(a) Single Light Line

(b) Multiple Light lines

(c) Single dark line

(d) Multiple dark lines

Q.92

Q.93

Q.94

Q.95

Q.96

0.97

Q.98

Q.99

Q.100

Q.101

Q.102

Q.103

Q.104

Striate gravidarum of pregnancy best

defined as?

(a) Single light line

(b) Multiple light line

(c) Single dark line

(d) Multiple dark line

What is normal pregnancy posture?

(a) Kypnosis (b) Lordosis

(c) Scoliosis (d) Normal posture

At which body area pregnancy stretch
mark present?

(a) Chest (b) Abdomen

(c) Thigh’s (d) All of above

Linea Nigra will extend frolm?

(a) Pubis-xiphoid

(b) Xiphoid-Umblicus

(c) Umblicus-Pubis
(d) Chest-Abdomen

The softening of uterus with lateral

implantation is known as?

(a) Chadwick (b) Hegar

(c) Goodells (d) Piskaeck

Palmer sign elicits?

(a) Uterine contraction

(b) Softening of cervix

(c) Pulsation in fornix

(d) Isthmus compression

Which one of the following is not a sign of

early pregnancy?
(a) Goodell (b) Hegar
(c) Cullen (d) Palmer

In early pregnancy softened isthmus at 6-

10 week of gestation known as?

(a) Goodells (b) Chadwick

(c) Piskaec (d) Hegar

Not a sign of early pregnancy?

(a) Lemon’s (b) Osiander

(c) Piskaeck (d) Palmer

Palmer sign is pregnancy refer’s to?

(a) Rhythmic contraction

(b) Pulsation in fornix

(c) Discoloration vagina

(d) None

Osiander’s sign mean’s?

(a) Pulsation in fornix

(b) Bluish vagina

(c) Soft cervix

(d) Contraction’s

Which of the following will be a

presumptive sign of pregnancy?

(a) Amenorrea (b) FHS

(c) Bluish Vagina (d) Fornix pulsation

Which of the following will be a probable
sign of pregnancy?
(a) Amenorrea

(c) Bluish vagina

(b) FHS
(d) Urine frequency

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MCQs

Q.105

Q.106

Q.107

Q.108

Q.109

Q.110

Q.111

Q.112

Q.113

Q.114

Which of the following will be a

presumptive sign of pregnancy?

(a) Goodells

(b) Morning sickness

(c) Braxton-Hicks

(d) Lightning

Which of the following will not be a

presumptive sign of pregnancy?

(a) Amenorrea

(b) Quickning

(c) Cholasma

(d) Morning sickness

Bluish discoloration of genitalia known

as?

(a) Chadwick (b) Jacquimer

(c) Osciender (d) Palmer

Around which week of gestation, fetus

part palpation start?

(a) 20 week (b) 28 week

(c) 10 week (d) 18 week

Butterfly sign of pregnancy is related
with which activity?
(a) Fetal movement (b) Part palpation

(c) Pigmentation (d) Sense of relief

Around which week of gestation, Braxton
Hick’s contraction become start?
(a) 8 week

(b) 16 week

(c) 24 week

(d) 32 week

Which clinical —_— condition

correlated with pseudocysis?

(a) Cholasma

(b) Quickening

(c) Hegar

(d) All of these

Which clinical sign not related with the

concept of psudocysis?

(a) USG

(b) FHS

(c) Part palpation

(d) All of these

Maternal feeling of relaxation known as

lightning occur in which trimester of
pregnancy?

(a) Ist

(b) IInd

(c) IIrd

(d) IVth

Ballottement activity is best demonstrated

by which statement?

(a) Fetal movement in amniotic fluid

(b) Maternal feeling of relaxation

(c) Painless contraction

(d) 1“ fetal movement

exactly

Q.115

Q.116

Q.117

Q.118

Q.119

Q.120

Q.121

Q.122

Q.123

Which community nurse instruction is

not appropriate given to overcome
morning sickness?

(a) Naturopathy Acupressure measure

(b) Don’t allow empty stomach

(c) Early morning fresh juice

(d) Dry carbohydrate therapy

Which will be priority intervention done

by CHO to encounter the condition of
hyperemesis?

(a) Immediate referral

(b) IVRL then refer

(c) General naturopathy

(d) Provide carbohydrate

Pregnancy issue urine frequency manage

by which measure’s?

(a) Maintain Hygiene

(b) Voiding schedule

(c) Kegal exercise

(d) All of these

Kegal exercise is mainly instructed to

overcome which pregnancy issue?

(a) Urine frequency

(b) Vaginal discharge

(c) Nausea-vomiting

(d) Backaclte

Appropriate CHO based intervention to

encounter foul smelling vaginal

discharge?

(a) Provide pads (b) Douclte

(c) Refer (d) Antibiotic’s

Select appropriate intervention to
overcome pregnancy induced edema
condition?

(a) Extremity elevation

(b) No prolonge standing

(c) Avoid tight clothing

(d) All of these

In the management of Heartburn of

pregnancy which intervention have
minimum value?

(a) Supine position after meal

(b) Cold milk

(c) Use antacids

(d) Avoid spicy food

Which therapeutic measure is not

routinely recommended to manage
constipation of pregnancy?

(a) Increase fluid-fiber

(b) Increase ambulation

(c) Use enema

(d) Isabgol

In community maternal complaint of

supra-pubic pain is community co-related
with which?

(a) Pregnancy posture

(c) Ectopic

(b) UTI
(d) Fetus pressure
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MCQs

Q.124

Q.125

Q.126

Q.127

Q.128

Q.129

Q.130

Q.131

Q.132

Q.133

Q.134

Q.135

Q.136

Backache related to pregnancy is not

managed by which instruction?

(a) Avoid massage

(b) Comfortable bed

(c) Flat surface

(d) Exercise

What are the clinical sign suggestive for

severe anemic condition?

(a) Palpitation (b) Pallor

(c) Dyspnea (d) All of these
What is minimum recommended

duration of resting time in pregnant

mother?

(a) 10-12 hour

(c) 12-16 hour (d) 6-8 hour

Which physical activity is not

recommended for pregnant mother?

(a) Swimming (b) Cycling

(c) Stretching (d) Sky diving

The most common radiation hazard’s
over developing fetus will be?

(a) MR (b) Leukemia

(c) IUGR (d) Abortion

Which ideal physical activity must be
instructed by nurse to pregnant female?
(a) Swimming (b) Jogging

(c) Sky diving (d) Climbing

Ideal prophylactic dose of folic acid in

IFA is?

(a) 0.1 mg (b) 0.5 mg

(c) | mg (d) 5 mg

Ideal RDA of calcium supplement in

pregnant female is?

(a) 1200 mg (b) 600 mg

(c) 900 mg (d) 300 mg

What will be ideal amount of glucose use

in screening test of GDM?

(b) 8-10 hour

(a) 100 gm (b) 75 gm

(c) 50 gm (d) 25 gm

PAL level in heavy working female is?

(a) 2.3 (b) 4.6

(c) 1.8 (d) 2.9

Recommended dose of levothyroxiene in a

pregnancy with TSH level 3-10 miu/L?
(a) No requirement (b) 25 meg

(c) 50 mcg (d) 100 mcg

A community nurse with a result of > 1:8

antigen in RPR kit will recommended
how many dose of antibiotic’s?

(a) Single dose (b) Double dose

(c) Triple dose (d) No requirement

What is ideal quantities of combination in
a single tablet of IFA?

(a) 60 mg iron + 1 mg folic acid

(b) 100 mg iron + 5 mg folic acid

(c) 60 mg iron + 5 mg folic acid

(d) 100 mg iron + 0.5 mg folic acid

Q.137

Q.138

Q.139

Q.140

Q.141

Q.142

Q.143

Q.144

Q.145

Q.146

A community nurse providing instruction

to take IFA tablet, which information is
wrong?

(a) Taken before meal

(b) Black stool common

(c) Don’t take with tea/coffee milk

(d) Therapeutic dose 2 tablet / day

What is recommended prophylactic dose

of IFA?

(a) | TAB. /3 month

(b) | TAB. / 6 month

(c) 2 TAB. /3 month

(d) 2 TAB. / 6 month

What is recommended therapeutic dose

of IFA?

(a) 1 TAB. /3 month

(b) | TAB. / 6 month

(c) 2 TAB. /3 month

(d) 2 TAB. / 6 month

According to guideline, what is ideal time
duration to start IFA in pregnancy?

(a) Before 6 week conception

(b) Within 1“ Trimester

(c) 14-16 wee onward’s

(d) Anytime

In INDIA about how much percentage of

daily calcium RDA _ consumed in
pregnancy?

(a) 60% (b) 30%

(c) 50% (d) 40%

Which pregnancy disorder associated

with calcium deficient condition?

(a) Hypertension

(b) Thyroidisin

(c) Diabetes

(d) Pre-term labour

What is ideal quantities of combination in

a single preparation of calcium tablet?
(a) 500 mg calcium + 250 IU D3

(b) 1000 mg calcium + 500 TU D3

(c) 500 mg calcium + 500 TU D3

(d) 250 mg calcium + 250 TU D3

What is recommended dose of calcium

tablet?

(a) | TAB/day (b) 2 TAB/day

(c) 4% TAB/day (d) 3 TAB/day

Minimum recommended dose of TT
injection in a pregnant mother will be?
(a) Single dose

(b) Triple dose

(c) Double dose

(d) Not mandatory

Ideal and safest
administration is?

(a) 0.5 mg buttock’s

(c) | mg buttocks

route of TT

(b) 0.5 mg arms

(d) 1 mg arms

ar
Gurjar Ki Thadi, opp. Metro Pillar No. 67 New Sanganer Road, Jaipur. Mb.
7426955591, 7426955593 48
MCQs

Q.147

Q.148

Q.149

Q.150

Q.151

Q.152

Q.153

Q.154

Q.155

Q.156

Q.157

What is ideal recommended gap to

develop antibodies after rubella
vaccination?

(a) 4 week (b) 6 week

(c) 2 week (d) 8 week

Ideal timing to administer Rhogam

sensitive dose?

(a) At birth (b) Within 72 hour

(c) At 28 week (d) At 36 week
Select appropriate pair who are eligible
for Rhogam sensitive dose?

(a) Negative mother negative father

(b) Positive mother positive father

(c) Positive mother negative father

(d) Negative mother positive father

What are the basic steps in birth

preparation of high risk mother?

(a) Place with SBA

(b) Locate FRU

(c) Institutional delivery

(d) All of these

The global incidence of GDM is?

(a) lin 10 (b) 1 in 100

(c) 1 in 1000 (d) 1 in 10000

How many screening routinely
recommended to diagnose GDM?

(a) 1 Time (b) 2 Time

(c) 3 Time (d) 4 Time

What is routine screening timing of

GDM?

(a) 8-12 week (b) 12-16 week

(c) 24-28 week (d) 28-32 week

Recommended blood sugar level to
declare GDM?

(a) > 120 mg/dL

(b) > 140 mg/dL

(c) > 180 mg/dL

(d) > 200 mg/dL

In diabetic mother ‘MNT’ stands for?

(a) Multinational team

(b) Micro nutrient therapy

(c) Medical nutrition therapy

(d) Macro nutrient table

1" line therapy for diabetic pregnancy

will be?

(a) MNT

(b) Exercise

(c) Insulin

(d) Oral drug

In diabetic mother, dietary supplements

follow which appropriate proportion
(CHO: FAT : Protein)?

(a) 40 : 20: 40

(b) 40: 40: 20

(c) 20: 40: 40

(d) 30: 30: 30

Q.158

Q.159

Q.160

Q.161

Q.162

Q.163

Q.164

Q.165

Q.166

Q.167

In the management of diabetic pregnancy

term ‘PAL’ stands for?

(a) Permanent activity level

(b) Patient activity level

(c) Physical activity level

(d) Person activity level

Total calorie requirement in diabetic

mother, calculated as which formula?

(a) BMR + PAL (b) BMR - PAL

(c) BMR + PAL (d) BMR X PAL

What is the meaning of OVERT
hypothyroidism?

(a) TSH f se FT4)

(b) TSH# se FT4

(c) Tent se FT4

(d) TSHy se FT4)

What is the meaning of subclinical

hypothyroidism?

(a) TSH4 se FT4 Normal

(b) TSH Normal FT4 4se

(c) TSH# se FT4 #se

(d) TSH} se FT4 4se

After initiation of Levothyroxiene tablet,

what is minimum follow up testing time?
(a) 3 week (b) 4 week

(c) 6 week (d) 8 week

Confirmative diagnostic test for syphilis
is?

(a) POC (b) RPR

(c) RDT (d) UPT

In syphilis term ‘RPR’ stands for?

(a) Real plasma regimen

(b) Rapid plasma reaction

(c) Rapid plasma regimen

(d) Real plasma reaction

In ANC documentation MCP card mean?

(a) Mother — child planning

(b) Mother — child protection

(c) Mother — care planning

(d) Mother — craft plan

In ANC documentation term

indicate?

(a) Mother — Child tracking system

(b) Mother — Child therapy services
(c) Mother — Child treatment Schedule
(d) Mother — Child therapy solution

‘MCTS’

INTRA — NATAL PERIOD

Which characteristic value is not

appropriate to explore the meaning of
labour?

(a) Process of expulsion

(b) At term

(c) Spontaneous nature

(d) Within 12 hour

Gurjar Ki Thadi, opp. Metro Pillar No. 67 New Sanganer Road, Jaipur. Mb.
7426955591, 7426955593 49
MCQs

Q.168

Q.169

Q.170

Q.171

Q.172

Q.173

Q.174

Q.175

Q.176

How many essential ‘P’ for the

conduction of labour?

(a) 4P

(b) 3 P

(c)5P

(d) 16 P

Labour onset process involve several

concept identify unmatchefull pair from
the following?

(a) Aging placenta : Decrease Supply

(b) Growing Fetus : Uterine Stretching

(c) Fetal steroid : Decrease estrogen

(d) Ferguson reflex : Oxytocin release

Which appropriate result is available
with the condition of aging placenta?
(a) Increase supply

(b) Decrease supply

(c) Fetus growth

(d) Oxytocin release

Ferguson reflex associated with which

condition?

(a) Oxytocin release

(b) Estrogen release

(c) Progesterone release

(d) All of these

Which of the following supposed to be
cause of increase prostaglandin

production in labour?

(a) Aging placenta

(b) Fetal membrane

(c) Fetal steroid hormone

(d) Ferguson reflex

Pre-labour symptoms present around

which duration?

(a) Just before labour

(b) | week before

(c) 2-3 week before

(d) | month before

Which of the following is not a character

of Pre-labour?

(a) Cervical dilation

(b) Lightning

(c) Show

(d) Nesting

Identify character of Pre-labour from

following?

(a) Placenta separation

(b) Fetus delivery

(c) Cervical dilation

(d) Ripening

In Pre-labour condition of cervical

ripening stand for?

(a) Mucus Plug

(b) Cervical Maturity

(c) Increase energy

(d) Increase discharge

Q.177

Q.178

Q.179

Q.180

Q.181

Q.182

Q.183

Q.184

Q.185

0.186

Q.187

Q.188

Sudden increase in maternal body energy

level (a4) just before labour known as?
(a) Kidding (b) Nesting

(c) Ripening (d) Show

Passing of mucus plug per-vaginum

before onset of normal labour process
characterized as?

(a) Lightning (b) Nesting

(c) Ripening (d) Show

All of the following pain character

increase except?

(a) Duration (b) Frequency

(c) Interval (d) Regularity

In labour pain “peak of correction”

characterized as?

(a) ACME (b) Increment

(c) Decrement (d) Systole
In labour pain “uterine systole”

characterized as?
(a) Intensity (b) Interval

(c) Increment (d) Radiating power

In labour characters onset and ending of
same contraction characterized as?
(a) Interval (b) Duration

(c) Increment (d) Decrement

In labour characters onset of one and

onset of 2™ correction is characterized
as? (a) Increment (b)
Decrement

(c) Interval (d) Duration

In labour character increase-decrease

strength characterized as?

(a) Severity - Intensity

(b) Duration - Interval

(c) Radiation - Nonradiation

(d) Increment — Decrement

Which of the following feature is

inappropriate in explaining labour pain
characters?

(a) Radiate from back to abdomen

(b) Systole indicate hardness

(c) Decrease with ambulation

(d) Regular in nature

How many stages are involve in normal

labour?

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 2

(d) 5

Which stage of labour characterized as

full cervical dilation?

(a) Ist (b) 2nd

(c) 3rd (d) 4th

Full cervical dilation to deliver Placenta

in which stage?
(a) Ist

(c) 3rd
(b) 2nd
(d) 4th

Gurjar Ki Thadi, opp. Metro Pillar No. 67 New Sanganer Road, Jaipur. Mb.
7426955591, 7426955593 50
MCQs

Q.189

Q.190

Q.191

Q.192

Q.193

Q.194

Q.195

Q.196

Q.197

Q.198

Q.199

Q.200

Which stage of labour called as

examination stage?
(a) Cervical (b) Birth

(c) Placental (d) Observational

In which stage of labour maximum time
consumed?

(a) Observational (b) Placental

(c) Birth (d) Cervical

Which stage of labour called as after

birth?

(a) Cervical (b) Birth

(c) Placental (d) Observational

Parturient is designated as?

(a) Mother in labour

(b) Fetus in labour

(c) Health worker in labour

(d) After birth procedure

Under which stage of labour full cervical

dilation is achieved?

(a) Latent (b) Active

(c) Transitional (d) All of these
Under which stage of labour maximum
cervical dilation is achieved?

(a) Latent (b) Active

(c) Transitional (d) All of these

Identify appropriate intervention for
Latent stage?

(a) Allow activities

(b) Deep breathing

(c) Rest between contractions

(d) All of these

Identify appropriate
active stage?

(a) Allow activities

(b) Deep breathing

(c) Rest between contractions

(d) All of these
Identify appropriate
Transitional stage?

(a) Allow activities

(b) Deep breathing

(c) Rest between contractions

(d) All of these

In which sub-stage maternal behavior

anxious?

(a) Latent (b) Active

(c) Transitional (d) All of these

In which sub-stage maternal behavior

talkative?

(a) Latent (b) Active

(c) Transitional (d) All of these

In which sub-stage mother loose her

control?

(a) Latent

(c) Transitional

intervention for
intervention for

(b) Active
(d) All of these

Q.201

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Q.204

Q.205

Q.206

Q.207

Q.208

Q.209

Q.210

Q.211

In active stage of labour uterine

contraction present up to how much
duration?

(a) 60-90 second

(b) 20-40 second

(c) 50-80 second

(d) 40-60 second

At which exact point labour pain start?

(a) Cervix (b) Fundus

(c) Right corner (d) Left corner

What is the meaning of uterine polarity?
(a) Division of uterus

(b) Upper-lower segment

(c) Physiological condition

(d) All of these

Under “Bucket - Holding” pattern

bucket will stand for which information?
(a) Lower circular

(b) Upper longitudinal

(c) Lower longitudinal

(d) Upper circular

Under “Bucket-Holding” pattern holder

will stand for which information?

(a) Lower circular

(b) Upper longitudinal

(c) Lower longitudinal

(d) Upper circular

“Contraction — ring” of labour pain

characterized as?

(a) Nonvisible - permanent

(b) Visible — Permanent

(c) Nonvisible - temporary

(d) Visible - temporary

What is the meaning of cervical —

effacement?

(a) Shortning (b) Softning

(c) Loosening (d) Taking-up

How much effacement expected if

cervical length is 2.5 cm?

(a) 100% (b) 75%

(c) 50% (d) 0%

What is average cervical dilation rate in

primi?

(a) | cm/HR (b) 2 cm/HR

(c) 1.2 cm/HR (d) 1.5 cm/HR

What is average cervical dilation rate in

multi?

(a) 1 cm/HR (b) 2 cm/HR

(c) 1.2 cm/HR (d) 1.5 cm/HR

Pregnancy event “Forewater” what it
means?

(a) Fluid the head in pelvis front

(b) Fluid the head in pelvis behind

(c) Fluid the head in abdomen front

(d) Fluid the head in Abdomen behind

Gurjar Ki Thadi, opp. Metro Pillar No. 67 New Sanganer Road, Jaipur. Mb.
7426955591, 7426955593 51
MCQs

Q.212

Q.213

Q.214

Q.215

Q.216

Q.217

Q.218

Q.219

Q.220

Q.221

Q.222

Pregnancy event “Hind water” what it

means?

(a) Fluid front the head in pelvis

(b) Fluid behind the head in pelvis

(c) Fluid front the head in Abdomen

(d) Fluid behind the head in Abdomen

Select ideal position for labour?

(a) Lithotomy

(b) Dorsal recumbent

(c) Squatting

(d) Dorsal Tilt

Select ideal position for examination?

(a) Lithotomy

(b) Dorsal recumbent

(c) Squatting

(d) Dorsal Tilt

Select ideal position to push the fetus?

(a) Lithotomy

(b) Dorsal recumbent

(c) Squatting

(d) Dorsal Tit

Select ideal position to transfer mother in

labour?

(a) Lithotomy

(b) Dorsal recumbent

(c) Squatting

(d) Dorsal Tilt

Which will be ideal position during 1*

stage labour?

(a) Lithotomy

(b) Dorsal recumbent

(c) Squatting

(d) Dorsal Tilt

What is the purpose

SCORE?” in labour?

(a) Maternal readiness for labour

(b) Induction of labour
(c) Progress of labour
(d) Recording of labour
“BISHOP SCORE”

of “BISHOP

is which kind of

examination?
(a) Abdominal (b) Physical
(c) Pervaginal (d) Laboratory

Most important component of Bishop

score will be?

(a) Cervical position

(b) Cervical dilation

(c) Head station

(d) Cervical effacement

How many components included in

BISHOP?

(a) 5 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 13

What is the maximum scoring in

BISHOP?

(a) 5 (b) 4

(c) 6 (d) 13

Q.223

Q.224

Q.225

Q.226

Q.227

Q.228

Q.229

Q.230

Q.231

Q.232

What is the minimum scoring in

BISHOP?

(a) 5 (b) 4

(c) 6 (d) 13

What is the purpose of “Partograph” in

labour?

(a) Maternal readiness for labour

(b) Recording of labour

(c) Induction of labour

(d) All of these

How frequently a partograph must be

recorded?

(a) 1/2 hourly (b) 1 hourly

(c) 4 hourly (d) 2 hourly

At which cervical dilation the partogram

filling started?

(a)Ocm (b) 3cm

(c) 44cm (d) 7 cm

Select appropriate frequency to record

FHR in partogram?

(a) Every 30 minute in Latent

(b) Every 15 minute in active

(c) Every 5 minute in 2™ stage

(d) All of these

Unrupture/maintain condition of
amniotic cavity denoted by which symbol
in partograph?

(a) I

(b)C

(c)M

(d) B

Under mounding process non-reducable

overlapping condition receive how many
number?

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 3

Which symbol is used to denote cervical

dilation?

(a) ©
(b) ©x)
(c) (¢)
(d)(~”)

Alert line of partograph extend upto?

(a) 4-8 cm

(b) 6-10 cm

(c) 4-10 cm

(d) 0-4 cm

After how much time of Alert line next

action line is drawn in partograph?
(a) 6 hour

(b) 4 hour
(c) 2 hour

(d) 8 hour

Gurjar Ki Thadi, opp. Metro Pillar No. 67 New Sanganer Road, Jaipur. Mb.
7426955591, 7426955593 52
MCQs

Q.233

Q.234

Q.235

Q.236

Q.237

Q.238

Q.239

Q.240

Q.241

Q.242

Appropriate interpretation of “Left to

Alert” is?

(a) Normal condition

(b) Prolonged condition

(c) Prepare for cesarean

(d) Not in labour

Appropriate interpretation of “Right to

action” line?

(a) Normal condition

(b) Prolonged condition

(c) Prepare for cesarean

(d) Not in labour

“Fifth formula”
which condition?
(a) Membrane status

(b) Head descent

(c) Bishop score

(d) Uterine contraction

Total number of cardinal movements in

mectanism of labour is?

(a) 9 (b) 10

(c) 8 (d)7
Out of the following which one is 1*
cardinal?

(a) Descent (b) Engagment

(c) Extension (d) Restitution

Out of the following which one is

universal?

(a) Descent

(b) Engagment

(c) Extension

(d) Restitution

Most important cardinal movement will

be?

(a) Descent

(b) Engagment

(c) Extension

(d) Restitution

Out of the following which one is visible

movement?

(a) Descent

(b) Engagment

(c) Extension

(d) Restitution

Which will be ideal position to conduct

normal Jabour?

(a) LOA > LOT

(b) LOT > LOA

(c) ROA > ROT

(d) ROT > ROA

For which movement pelvic resistance is

important?

(a) Crowning

(b) Extension
(c) Flexion

(d) Restitution

in labour related to

Q.243

Q.244

Q.245

Q.246

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Q.253

Amount of total head rotation in normal

labour?

(a) 1/8 (b) 2/8

(c) 3/8 (d) 4/8

Amount of maximum head rotation

(single time) in normal labour?

(a) 1/8 (b) 2/8

(c) 3/8 (d) 4/8

What is true about external rotation step?

(a) Continuation of restitution

(b) Purpose shoulder rotation

(c) Total amount 1/8

(d) All of these

Which principle is
delivery of head?

(a) Flexion

(b) Extension

(c) Lateral flexion

(d) Adduction

Select priority intervention in 2™ stage

labour?

(a) FHR Monitoring

(b) Bering-down promotion

(c) Perineal resistence

(d) PV examination

What is ideal method to conduct PV

examination?

(a) 6-9 clock

(b) 3-12 clock

(c) 3-9 clock

(d) 6-12 clock

Which intervention of community nurse

is not appropriate in 2"" stage labour?
(a) Baby pulling

(b) Supra-pubic bladder assessment

(c) Instruction of mouth breathing

(d) No routine enema

A community nurse must have idea that

appropriate timing of episiotomy will be?
(a) Just before crowning

(b) During perineal buldging

(c) 3-4 cm scalp visibility

(d) All of these

Under which type of episiotomy risk of

bartholin damage greater?

(a) Median (b) Lateral

(c) Medio-lateral (d) J Shape

Under which type of episiotomy risk of

rectum damage greater?

(a) Median (b) Lateral

(c) Medio-Lateral (d) J Shape

Which statement best explain about J

shape variety?

(a) 1.5 cm medial cut

(b) 1 cm lateral cut

(c) 5-7 clock position

(d) All of these

responsible for

Gurjar Ki Thadi, opp. Metro Pillar No. 67 New Sanganer Road, Jaipur. Mb.
7426955591, 7426955593 53
MCQs

Q.254

Q.255

Q.256

Q.257

Q.258

Q.259

Q.260

Q.261

Q.262

Q.263

“REEDA SCALE” is a parameter of

which assessment?

(a) Incision type

(b) Healing type

(c) Pain assessment

(d) Suturing type

What are the pain releaving measures

used after episiotomy?

(a) Cold therapy — Sitz bath

(b) Perineal wash — air exposure

(c) Air cushions for sitting

(d) All of these

Placenta delievery completed in how

much duration?

(a) 5 Minute

(b) 15 Minute

(c) 15-20 Minute

(d) 30 Minute

Delievery of placenta — after delievery of

fetus completed within how much
duration?
(a) 5 minute

(b) 15 minute

(c) 15-20 minute

(d) 30 minute

What are the basic cause

separation of placenta in labour?
(a) Retrection of muscle

(b) Decrease area

(c) Placental bed damage

(d) All of these

In which placenta sepration mechanism

risk of clot formation present?

(a) Meschultze (b) DUCANNE

(c) Marginal (d) Revealed

False statement for central sepration

mechanism is?

(a) Fetus surface appear first

(b) Minimum blood loss

(c) Clot formation

(d) 20% prcidence

False statement for marginal sepration

mechanism is?

(a) Mc schultze pattern

(b) Maternal surface ppear first

(c) More bleeding risk

(d) No clot formation

Which will be most confirmative sign of

placenta sepration?

(a) Cord length (b) Gush of blood

(c) Fundus nature (d) Hemostasis

Out of the following will not be a sign of

placenta — sepration?

(a) Supra-pubic buldge

(b) Bleeding
(c) Decrease cord length

(d) Hemostasis

behind

Q.264

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Q.271

Q.272

Q.273

sepration

Hemostsis after placenta

achieved by:

(a) Coagulation activation

(b) Retraction

(c) Oblique muscle contrection

(d) All of these

Inappropriate finding of fundus

assessment after placenta sepration will

be?

(a) Decrease height

(b) Globular

(c) Hard nature

(d) Increase height

Active management (AMTSL) start from

which event of labour?

(a) Placenta birth

(b) Baby birth

(c) After labour

(d) After delievery

Drug of choice in AMTSL will be?

(a) Oxytocin

(b) Prostaglandin

(c) Methargine

(d) RU 486

What is ideal time of cord-clamping in

AMTSL?

(a) Within | minute

(b) 1-3 minute

(c) Within 5 minute

(d) 30 second

In AMTSL what is the meaning of CCT?

(a) Counter cord traction

(b) Controlled cord traction

(c) Complete cord traction

(d) Careful cord traction

As per bio waste principal placenta is

disposed under which container?

(a) Yellow

(b) Blue

(c) Red

(d) Black

TOST —- PARTUM PERIOD

Post partum period will start, after?

(a) Labour (b) Delievery

(c) Both (d) None

Post partum period will start after?

(a) Labour
(b) Fetus delievery

(c) Placenta delievery

(d) All of these

Calculate the total duration of post-

partum?

(a) 42 days
(c) 1.5 month

(b) 6 week
(d) All of these

Gurjar Ki Thadi, opp. Metro Pillar No. 67 New Sanganer Road, Jaipur. Mb.
7426955591, 7426955593 54
MCQs

Q.274

Q.275

Q.276

Q.277

Q.278

Q.279

Q.280

Q.281

Q.282

Q.283

What is the meaning of immediate post-

partum?

(a) 1* day

(b) 1" week

(c) Remaining 5 week

(d) All of these

In post-partum period what is the

meaning of term involution?

(a) Anatomical changes of orgen

(b) Physiological changes of orgen

(c) Total body system changes

(d) Genital orgen changes

In post partum period what is the

meaning of term PUERPARIUM?

(a) Anatomical changes of orgen

(b) Physiological changes of orgen

(c) Total body system changes

(d) Genital orgen changes

Which statement is appropriate for post-

partum changes?

(a) Initial bradycardia then tachycardia

(b) Urine retention — constipation common
(c) Weight gain

(d) Hypothermia related to dehydration

Increase body temperature in immediate

post partum is related to which

condition?

(a) Dehydration (b) Pyrexia

(c) Sepsis (d) Mastitis

In post-partum weight lose is associated

with?

(a) Dehydration (b) Diuresis

(c) Lactation (d) Locnia

Under uterine changes complete cervical

closure achieve within?

(a) 24 hour

(b) 10 days

(c) 7 days

(d) Never

In post-partum uterus become pelvic

orgen at which duration?

(a) 10 days

(b) 10-12 days

(c) 7-10 days

(d) 12-14 days

Complete endometrium regeneration

achieves t which time in post-partum?

(a) Within 4 week

(b) Within 6 week

(c) Within 12 week

(d) Within 10 week

What is the maximum duration of

Lochia? (a) 1 week

(b) 2 week
(c) 3 week

(d) 6 week

Q.284

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Q.289

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Q.291

Q.292

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Q.297

Q.298

What is the average duration of Lochia?

(a) | week (b) 2 week

(c) 3 week (d) 6 week

What is the origion source of Lochia?
(a) Uterus (b) Cervix

(c) Vagina (d) All of these

What is the total amount of Lochia?
(a) 100-250 ml (b) 250-300 ml
(c) 250-400 ml (d) 100 ml
Vaginal discharge contain decidua,
cotyledon RBC identify type of lochia?
(a) Rubra (b) Serosa

(c) Alba (d) Metra

Vaginal discharge contain pus, wound,

WBC, Micro-organism, identify type of
locnia?

(a) Rubra (b) Serosa

(c) Alba (d) Metra

Vaginal discharge contain cell, mucus,
water, epithelium, identify type of locnia?
(a) Rubra (b) Serosa

(c) Alba (d) Metra

Which will be major responsible hormone

for Lactation?

(a) Estrogen (b) Progesterone

(c) HPL (d) Prolactin

Which will be major stimulent for
lactation?

(a) Sucking (b) Oxytocin

(c) Let-down (d) Pumping

“Secreation of milk” designated as?

(a) Mamogenasis (b) Lactogenasis

(c) Galactokinesis (d) Galacto Poiesis

“Ejaculation of milk” designated as?

(a) Mmogenasis (b) Lactogenasis

(c) Galactokinesis (d) Galactopoiesis

Major responsible hormone for
Galactokinesis?

(a) Oxytocin (b) Prolactin

(c) Estrogen (d) Progesterone

Which one is true, about post-partum
menstrual changes?

(a) Mensturation before ovulation

(b) Ovulation before mensturation

(c) Ovulation — mensturtion same time

(d) Ovulation — mensturation | month gap

Ideal time of Ovulation in Lactating
mother?

(a) 4 week (b) 6 week

(c) 10 week (d) After 12 week

Ideal time of ovulation in non-lactating
mother?

(a) 4 week (b) 6 week

(c) 10 week (d) After 12 week

What is total number of post natal visit?
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 3 (d) 6

Gurjar Ki Thadi, opp. Metro Pillar No. 67 New Sanganer Road, Jaipur. Mb.
7426955591, 7426955593 55
MCQs

Q.299

Q.300

Q.301

Q.302

Q.303

Q.304

Q.305

Q.306

Q.307

Q.308

For which benefit early post-partum

ambulation is compulsory?

(a) Wound healing

(b) Circulatory change

(c) Stitch repair

(d) Drainage promotion

Why rest is essential in post-partum

period?

(a) Wound healing

(b) Circulatory change

(c) Stitch repair

(d) Drainage promotion

‘After pain’ are move common in which

group?

(a) Non lactating primi

(b) Non lactating multi

(c) Lactating primi

(d) Lactating multi

‘After pain’ are less common in which

group?

(a) Non lactating primi

(b) Non lactating multi

(c) Lactating pnmi

(d) Lactating mullti

Which therapy is most effective during

feeding a newborn?

(a) Ice application

(b) Warm application

(c) Breast pump

(d) Ibuprofen

In pyrexia increase temperature present

upto?
(a) 3 days (b) 7 days
(c) 10days (d) 42 days

In post partum sepsis body temperature

will be?

(a) 38°C (b) 38.5°C

(c) 40°C (d) 41°C

Which of the following is most common

infection of post-partum?

(a) Cystitis

(b) Mastitis

(c) Endometritis

(d) Vaginitis

Which clinical term is used for delayed

involution?

(a) Subinvolution

(b) Superinvolution

(c) Suprainvolution

(d) All of these

Best therapy to prevent post partum

mastitis?

(a) Hydration

(b) Feeding
(c) Breast-Pump

(d) Danazol

Q.309

Q.310

Q.311

Q.312

Q.313

Q.314

Q.315

Q.316

Q.317

Q.318

Best therapy to prevent post partum

cystitis?
(a) Antibiotic (b) Kegal
(c) Irrigation (d) Hydration

Post-partum blues commonly associated

with which?

(a) Physiological changes

(b) Lactation

(c) Hormone withdrawal

(d) Hormone excess

Most common site of post partum

hematoma is?
(a) Vulva

(c) Perineum

(b) Vagina
(d) Anal

Disease Conditions

Which clinical pathology included under

APH?

(a) Placenta Previa

(b) Abruption
(c) Uterine rupture

(d) All of these

First clinical intervention for APH will

be? (a) FHR assessment

(b) Maternal vital’s

(c) Bleeding assessment

(d) IV-Fluid

APH include vaginal bleeding upto?

(a) Labour

(b) Fetus delievery

(c) Placenta delievery

(d) Pregnancy

What is true about placenta-previa?

(a) Sepration from normal position

(b) No placenta sepration

(c) Sepration due to lower implantation

(d) Severe — painful bleeding

Most common leading risk factor for

placenta previa will be?

(a) Hypertension

(b) Congenital defect

(c) Decidua defect

(d) Previous history

What are the character's of placenta-

previa bleeding?

(a) Painless

(b) Warning

(c) Revealed

(d) All of these

“Painless bleeding” is the

character of which pathology?
(a) Abruption
(b) Molar

(c) Previa

(d) Ectopic

unique

Gurjar Ki Thadi, opp. Metro Pillar No. 67 New Sanganer Road, Jaipur. Mb.
7426955591, 7426955593 56
MCQs

Q.319

Q.320

Q.321

Q.322

Q.323

Q.324

Q.325

Q.326

Q.327

Q.328

Why bleeding of placenta-previa is

painless?

(a) Weak connection

(b) Weak fetus

(c) Weak placenta

(d) Weak uterus

On which basis placenta-previa types are

classified?

(a) Bleeding amount

(b) OS covering

(c) Placenta connection

(d) Fundus covering

Which placental variety declaive as “most

dangerous”?

(a) Type 4th (b) Type Ist

(c) Type 2nd (d) Type 3rd

Which diagnostic approach not used for
previa?

(a) Warning hemorrage

(b) USG

(c) Placentogrphy
(d) PV

What is the best management advice for

placenta previa mother’s?

(a) Fluid therapy

(b) Rest is best

(c) Delievery conduction

(d) Blood transfusion

What is the meaning of

“ABRUPTION"?

(a) Taxemia

(b) Accidental bleeding

(c) Me first

(d) Normal sepration

In abruption placenta seprate from?

(a) Lower segment

(b) Cornual Area

(c) Normal location

(d) Cervical Area

Most common leading risk factor for

abruption will be?

(a) Hypertension

(b) Congenital

(c) Decidua defect

(d) Previous history

Which substance abuse responsible for

transient hypertension?

(a) Smoking

(b) Alcohol

(c) Tabacoo

(d) Cocaine

In concealed abruption nature of utrus

will be?

(a) Rigid board

(b) Soft globular

(c) Tender, boggy

(d) Non palpable

Term

Q.329

Q.330

Q.331

Q.332

Q.333

Q.334

Q.335

Q.336

Q.337

Q.338

Q.339

Q.340

Q.341

Q.342

In couvelaire uterus, what is the location

of blood collection?

(a) Behind placenta (b) In Peritoneum

(c) In uterine layer (d) Outside vagina
Which character is not appropriate for
active management APH?

(a) Severe bleeding (b) Mild type

(c) Age > 37 week (d) Distress

Which character is not appropriate for

expectant management of APH?

(a) Mild bleeding (b) Mild type

(c) Age > 37 week (d) No distress

Ideal management tool for the condition
of uterine rupture?

(a) LSCS (b) Arm + synto

(c) Steroid (d) Lapratomy
Select appropriate treatment modality for
heavy bleeding abruption condition?

(a) LSCS (b) ARM + synto

(c) Steroid (d) Lapratomy
Select appropriate treatment modality for
mild bleeding abruption condition?

(a) LSCS (b) ARM + synto

(c) Steroid (d) Lapratomy
What is the amount of blood loss in major
PPH?

(a) 500-1000 ml (b) 1000-2000 ml

(c) > 2000 ml (d) < 500 ml

What are the expected findings in a

mother with PPH?

(a) Tachycardia (b) Hypothermia

(c) Alter sensorium (d) All of these

Which clinical result suggestive for PPH?
(a) 1 pad 10 minute (b) 2 pad 10 minute
(c) 3 pad 10 minute (d) 5 pad 10 minute
What is the most common cause of
immediate PPH?

(a) Retain tissue (b) Atonic uterus

(c) Infection (d) Trauma

What is the most common cause of

delayed PPH?

(a) Retained tissue (b) Atonic uterus

(c) Bleeding disorder (d) Trauma
Appropriate time duration of delayed
PPH is?

(a) Within 24 hour

(b) 24 hour — 6 week

(c) 2 week — 4 week

(d) 4 week — 8 week

What are the suitable antibiotics to

manage secondary PPH?

(a) Ampicilline (b) Metronidazole

(c) Gentamycin (d) All of these

At which duration condition “retained

placenta” declare?
(a) > 1 hour
(c) > 5 minute

(b) > 30 minute

(d) > 45 minute

Gurjar Ki Thadi, opp. Metro Pillar No. 67 New Sanganer Road, Jaipur. Mb.
7426955591, 7426955593 57
MCQs

0.343

Q.344

Q.345

Q.346

Q.347

Q.348

Q.349

Q.350

Q.351

Q.352

What is ideal recommended method of

blood-blood product administration in
PPH?

(a) 1:4:1 (b) I:1:1

(c) 4:1:1 (d) 4:4:4

Select ideal intervention for retained

placenta with absence of active vaginal
bleeding?

(a) MRP (b) CCT

(c) Oxytocin (d) Methargine

Which will be drug of choice in PPH
management?

(a) Oxytocin (b) Methargine

(c) Carboprost (d) Mesoprost

Total recommended dose of mesopristol
in the management of Atonic PPH?

(a) 200 meg

(b) 400 mcg

(c) 600 meg

(d) 800 mcg

In which condition bi-manual

compression is performed under PPH

management? (a) Oxytocin failure
(b) Ergometrine failure
(c) Prostaglandin failure

(d) All of these

Temponade condition primarily manage

by which technique?

(a) Suturing

(b) Baloon

(c) Ligtion

(d) Removal

Best suitable surgical technique for PPH

management will be?

(a) Suturing

(b) Baloon

(c) Ligtion

(d) Removal

What is ideal NS amount to be filled in

Brkri-baloon temponade?

(a) 100-200 ml

(b) 300-500 ml

(c) 500-800 ml

(d) 800-1000 ml

Select appropriate synonym for the term

Hypertension?

(a) Toxemia

(b) Accidental bleeding

(c) Me first

(d) All of these

Ideal amount of proteinure in pre-

eclampsia will be?

(a) +1

(b) +2

(c) +3

(d) +4
Q.353

Q.354

Q.355

Q.336

Q.357

Q.358

Q.359

Q.360

Q.361

Q.362

Q.363

A CHO must have idea about frequency

of BP monitoring in pre-eclmpsia, it is?
(a) 6 hourly

(b) 4 hourly

(c) 8 hourly

(d) 12 hourly

What is 1" clinical symptom of Pre-

eclampsia?

(a) Proteinurea

(b) Rise blood pressure

(c) Ring finger edema

(d) Convulsion

Which will supposed to be a primary

causative factor to induce pre-eclampsia
in mother?

(a) Placenta

(b) Mother

(c) Fetus

(d) Hormones

Most common maternal complaint in pre-

eclmpsia will be?
(a) Epigestric pain

(b) Insomnia

(c) Headache

(d) Weight gain

Most common clinical observation in pre-

eclampsic mother will be?

(a) Weight gain

(b) IUGR

(c) Edema

(d) Blood pressure

Appropriate interpretation of roll over

test will be?

(a) #'se BP in supine position

(b) Tse BP in Lateral position

(c) }se BP in supine position

(d) +se BP in lateral position

Drug of choice in chronic hypertension?

(a) Methyldopa

(b) Labetalol

(c) Mgso4

(d) Nifidipine

Drug of choice in PIH?

(a) Methyldop (b) Labetalol

(c) Mgso4 (d) Nifidipine

Drug of choice in hypertension crisis?

(a) Methyidopa (b) Labetlol

(c) Mgso4 (d) Nifidipine

Drug of choice in _ pre-eclmpsia
management?

(a) Methyldopa (b) Labetalol

(c) Mgso4 (d) Nifidipine

Drug of choice in edampsia prevention

and management?
(a) Methyldopa

(c) Mgso4

(b) Labetalol
(d) Nifidipine

Gurjar Ki Thadi, opp. Metro Pillar No. 67 New Sanganer Road, Jaipur. Mb.
7426955591, 7426955593 58
MCQs

Q.364

Q.365

Q.366

Q.367

Q.368

Q.369

Q.370

0.371

Q.372

Q.373

Q.374

Q.375

A CHO instruct ideal diet-plan to pre-

eclmpsic mother will be?

(a) High fat — High protein

(b) High CHO — High Fat

(c) Low Fat — Low protein

(d) High CHO —- High protein

Which will not be danger sign of pre-

edampsia?

(a) Nisual symptom (b) Oligourea

(c) HELLP (d) Edema

Most complicated duration of eclampsic

convulsion will be?
(a) In Pregnancy

(c) In Post-Pertum

(b) In Labour
(d) Same in all

In post partum risk of eclmpsic

convulsion is present upto?

(a) 12 hour (b) 48 hour

(c) 24 hour (d) 72 hour

Ideal amount of protelnuria in eclampsia
is?

(a) +1 (b) +2

(c) +3 (d)+4

Which stage of convulsion declare as

actual stage?

(a) Pre-monitoring (b) Tonic

(c) Clonic (d) coma

Character of tongue-biting available in
which stage of convulsion?

(a) Tonic

(b) Clonic

(c) Pre-monitoring

(d) Coma

Which phase of convulsion known as

‘AURA’?

(a) Pre-monitoring (b) Tonic

(c) Clonic (d) Coma

Under which stage of convulsion rapid

body movement demonstrable?

(a) Pre-monitoring (b) Tonic

(c) Clonic (d) Coma

Character of “total body spasm” under
which stage of convulsion?

(a) Pre-monitoring (b) Tonic

(c) Clonic (d) Coma

A pregnant mother moving from pre-

eclampsia to eclampsia, what will be
initial action?

(a) Safety measure

(b) Airway clearance

(c) Mgso4

(d) Delievery conduction

Highest priority action for eclmpsic

mother?
(a) Safety measure

(b) Airway clearance

(c) Mgso4

(d) Delievery conduction

0.376

Q.377

Q.378

Q.379

Q.380

Q.381

Q.382

Q.383

Q.384

Q.385

Q.386

Q.387

Q.388

Q.389

Definitive management for a mother with

eclampsia?

(a) Safety (b) Airway

(c) Mgso4 (d) Delievery

What is myso4?

(a) CNS depressant (b) Tocolytic

(c) Vasodilator (d) Anticorvalecent

What is therapeutic serum level of
mgso4? (a) 4-7 (b)
7-10

(c) 10-12 (d) > 12

Which will be earliest symptom of mgso4

toxicity?
(a) Respiration (b) Flushing

(c) Loss of reflex (d) Hypotension

Priority nursing monitoring in mgso4
therapy?

(a) Blood pressure (b) Respiration

(c) Temperature (d) Pulse

Most common cause of prolonged labour

is?

(a) Inertia (b) Malpresentation

(c) Twin’s (d) CPD

Most common cause of obstructed labour

will be?
(a) Inertia (b) Cervical dystocia
(c) Pre-maturity (d) Bandal ring
Identify unusual finding during PV
examination of a prolonged labour
mother?

(a) Foul smell

(b) Vulva edema

(c) Hot vagina

(d) Increase discharge

Most common infection associated with

preterm labour is?

(a) Chorio-amniotis (b) Syphillis

(c) Vaginosis (d) Streptococal

Drug of choice in pre-term labour?

(a) Betametrasone (b) Oxytocin

(c) Tocolytic (d) Aspirin

Drug of choice to inhibit pre-term labour is?

(a) Betamethasone (b) Oxytocin

(c) Tocolytic (d) Aspirin

What are the varieties of cord prolapse?

(a) Occult (b) Presentation

(c) Prolapse (d) All

Ideal management for the condition of

cord prolapse will be?

(a) Trendelenburg position

(b) Bladder filling

(c) LSCS

(d) Oxytocin

Under which categories perineal tear

involve rectal mucosa?
(a) 1°

(c) 3°

(b) 2°
(d) 4°

Gurjar Ki Thadi, opp. Metro Pillar No. 67 New Sanganer Road, Jaipur. Mb.
7426955591, 7426955593 59
MCQs

Q.390

0.391

Q.392

Q.393

Q.394

Q.395

Q.396

Q.397

Q.398

Q.399

Q.400

Q.401

Triple layer involyment under which

category of perineal tear?

(a) 1° (b) 2°

(c) 3° (d) 4°

Under which categories of perineal tear

involve vaginal mucosa?

(a) 1° (b) 2°
(c) 3° (d) 4°
Which kind of perineal tear is
manageable in community health setting?
(a) 1° (b) 2°
(c) 3° (d) 4°

Appropriate intervention to manage 1°

tear?

(a) Pad into cavity (b) IV fluid

(c) Pad covering (d) Foot end raising

Which will not be a feature of uterine
rupture?

(a) Tender abdomen

(b) FHS present

(c) Fetal part feeling

(d) Abdominal pain

Select suitable pair to declare precipitate
labour?

(a) > 2 HOUR, <5 CM/HR

(b) > 2 HOUR, > 5 CM/HR

(c) < 2 HOUR, <5 CM/HR

(d) <2 HOUR, > 5 CM/HR

Which maternal risk associated with

precipitate condition Labour?

(a) PPH (b) Inversion

(c) Shock (d) Hypertension

Which will be most common example of
malpresentation?

(a) Cephalic (b) Shoulder

(c) Breech (d) Compound

Most common cause of malpresentation
will be?

(a) Pre-maturity

(b) Oligohydramnios

(c) IUGR

(d) Placenta-previa

In primi mother, which breech variety

common?

(a) Complete (b) Frank

(c) Footling (d) Knee

In multipara mother, which breech

variety common?

(a) Complete (b) Frank

(c) Footling (d) Knee

“Pinnard Process” related to delievery

of?

(a) Head

(b) Shoulder

(c) Buttock

(d) Extrimity
Q.402

Q.403

Q.404

Q.405

Q.406

Q.407

Q.408

Q.409

Q.410

Q.411

Q.412

Q.413

“Lovust maneaveur” related to delievery

of?

(a) Head (b) Shoulder

(c) Buttock (d) Extremity

“Burn-marshal” related to delievery of?
(a) Head (b) Shoulder

(c) Buttock (d) Extremity

Select appropriate statement for dizygotic

twins?

(a) | ovum, | sperm, same sex

(b) 1 ovum, | sperm, same/different sex

(c) 2 ovum, 2 sperm, same sex

(d) 2 ovum, 2 sperm, same/different sex

Select appropriate statement for
monozygotic twins?

(a) 1 ovum, | sperm, same sex

(b) 1 ovum, 1 sperm, same/different sex

(c) 2 ovum, 2 sperm, same sex

(d) 2 ovum, 2 sperm, same/different sex

Which will be most common connection
point in conjoined twins?
(a) Head (b) Chest

(c) Abdomen (d) Back

What is the name of ovulation-inducing

drug?

(a) Dnazol (b) Bromocriptine

(c) Clomiphen citrate (d) All of these

In which variety of twins “Peak Sign”

common?

(a) Monozygotic (b) Dizygotic

(c) Conjoined (d) Simease

In which variety of twins “TTTS”

common?

(a) Monozygotic (b) Dizygotic

(c) Conjoined (d) Simease

How much expected weight gain in twins

pregnancy?
(a) 10-15 kg (b) 16-20 kg

(c) 20-25 kg (d) 25-30 kg

Which will be most common risk
associated with twins pregnancy?

(a) Obstructed labour

(b) Pre-term labour

(c) Risk of cesarean

(d) Precipitate labour

At which level of HB, pregnancy declared

Anemic?

(a) < 11 gm%

(b) < 10 gm%

(c) < 12 gm%

(d) <9 gm%

A pregnant mother with HB value 8.5

gm, will categorize in which?

(a) Mild

(b) Moderate

(c) Severe
(d) Very severe

Gurjar Ki Thadi, opp. Metro Pillar No. 67 New Sanganer Road, Jaipur. Mb.
7426955591, 7426955593 60
MCQs

Q.414

Q.415

Q.416

Q.417

Q.418

Q.419

Q.420

Q.421

Q.422

Q.423

What are the symptoms of anemic

mother. For which immediate reference

compulsory?
(a) Pallor (b) RR > 30/min
(c) Restlessness (d) All of these

Maximum incidence of tubal pregnancy

present in which part of fallopian tube?
(a) Intersticial

(b) Isthmus

(c) Ampulla

(d) Infundibulum

Maximum survival of tubal pregnancy

present in which part of fallopian tube?
(a) Intersticial

(b) Isthmus

(c) Ampulla

(d) Infundibulum

Which will be a common cause of

ectopic? (a) Previous history

(b) Tubal surgery

(c) PID

(d) Smoking

Which will be a common complaint. of

ectopic?

(a) Amenorrea

(b) Vaginal bleeding

(c) Lower abdominal pain

(d) Shock

Drug of choice for the management of

ectopic?

(a) Misopristol

(b) Methotraxate

(c) Mifepristone

(d) Oxytocin

Most common future complication of

mole?

(a) Chorio-carcinoma

(b) GID

(c) GIN

(d) PSTT

“Snow-Storm pattern” is unique feature

of which pathology?

(a) Ectopic

(b) IUD

(c) Twins

(d) Molar

What is mandatory duration of follow-up

in molar?

(a) 12 month

(b) 9 month

(c) 6 month

(d) 3 month

Which will be 1“ degenerative structure

in IUD?
(a) Skin

(c) Brain
(b) Heart
(d) Kidney

Q.424

Q.425

Q.426

Q.427

Q.428

Q.429

Q.430

Q.431

Q.432

Q.433

Q.434

Q.435

Q.436

What is true about “Robert Sign” of

TUD?

(a) Within 7 day

(b) Bone liquefaction

(c) Spinal curvature

(d) Gas in cardiac chamber

What is true about “Spalding Sign” of

IUD?

(a) Within | day (b) Bone liquefaction

(c) Spinal curvature (d) Gas in chamber
Which will be common cause of early
pregnancy loss?

(a) Abortion (b) Mole

(c) Ectopic (d) APH

What is common cause of abortion?
(a) Infection (b) Trauma

(c) Chromosome (d) Hormone

What is the character of arcuate uterus?

(a) No fundus
(b) Fundus depression

(c) Fundus elevation

(d) 2 Fundus

Most common cause of recurrent

abortion?

(a) Uterine Fundus (b) OS opening

(c) Vessel shrinkage (d) Adhesion

“Aashermann syndrome” characterized

by which pathological feature?

(a) Fundus depression

(b) OS opening

(c) Vessel shrinkage

(d) Adhesion

In which variety of abortion recovery

possible?

(a) Threatned (b) Inevitable

(c) Incomplete (d) Missed

In which variety of abortion recovery

impossible?

(a) Threatned (b) Inevitable

(c) Incomplete (d) Missed

Which abortion variety characterized by

retained tissue?

(a) Threatned (b) Inevitable

(c) Incomplete (d) Missed

Which abortion characterized as “silent

abortion”?

(a) Threatned (b) Inevitable

(c) Incomplete (d) Missed

Which abortion § characterized as

“Habitual abortion”?

(a) Missed (b) Recurrent

(c) Septic (d) Threatned
Which activity is performmed in

“Encirclage”?
(a) OS closure
(c) Fundus repair

(b) Uterine stiching

(d) Hormonal therapy

Gurjar Ki Thadi, opp. Metro Pillar No. 67 New Sanganer Road, Jaipur. Mb.
7426955591, 7426955593 61
MCQs

Q.437

Q.438

Q.439

Q.440

Q.441

Q.442

Q.443

Q.444

Q.445

Q.446

Q.447

Q.448

In abortion what is the meaning of

“MMA”?

(a) Micro-method abortion

(b) Medical-method abortion

(c) Manual — Method abortion

(d) All of these

What is upper limit of using MMA

method?

(a) 7 week (b) 12 week

(c) 15 week (d) 22 week

What are the contra-indications of using

MMA method?

(a) Anemia (b) Ectopic

(c) Hypertension (d) All of these

Select appropriate drug’s combination in
MMA?

(a) Mesopristol + Methotraxate

(b) Mifepristone + Mesopristol

(c) Mifepristone + methotraxate

(d) All of these

What is the mechanism of action drug

R4-486?

(a) Anti progesterone (b) Anti cancer

(c) Uterotonic (d) Antibiotic

How many visits are recommended in

MMaA following?

(a) 4 (b) 2

(c)3 (d) 1

Upto how many days bleeding is expected

after MMA therapy?

(a) 7 day (b) 13 day

(c) 10 day (d) 21 day

Ideal timing to use manual vacum

aspiration?

(a) 0-7 week (b) 7-12 week

(c) 12-15 week (d) > 15 week

Ideal timing to perform suction —

evacuation?

(a) Upto 7 week (b) 7-12 week

(c) Upto 15 week (d) After 15 week

Ideal timing to perform dilation -
evacution?

(a) Upto 7 week (b) 7-12 week

(c) Upto 15 week (d) After 15 week

Ideal timing to use oxytocin infusion for
abortion?

(a) Upta 7 week

(c) Upto 15 week

(b) 7-12 week

(d) After 15 weak

GYNIC

Puberty is defined as?

(a) Genital orgen development

(b) Primary sex character development

(c) Secondary sex character development
(d) Height-weight growth

Q.449

Q.450

Q.451

Q.452

Q.453

Q.454

Q.455

Q.456

Q.457

Q.458

Q.459

Q.460

Q.461

What is 1" sign of female puberty?

(a) Thelarche

(b) Menarche

(c) Pubarche

(d) Adrenarche

Time before puberty known as?

(a) Early puberty (b) Late Puberty

(c) Climetric (d) Precocious

Which hormone deficiency is main in
menopause?

(a) FSH

(b) Estrogen

(c) LH

(d) Progesterone

What is most common complaint in

menopause?
(a) Osteoporosis (b) UTI
(c) Hot Flush (d) Mood Swing

Time before menopause known as?

(a) Climetric

(b) Pre-cocious

(c) Ovarian Failure

(d) Early menopause

What is basic purpose of menstrual cycle?

(a) Bleeding (b) Ovulation

(c) Fertility (d) Pregnancy

Which hormone is primarily responsible

for ovulation?

(a) FSH (b) Estrogen

(c) LH (d) Progesterone

“Maintenance of Pregnancy” achieve by
which hormone?

(a) FSH (b) Estrogen

(c) LH (d) Progesterone

Which hormone responsible to develop
graffian Follicle?

(a) FSH (b) Estrogen

(c) LH (d) Progesterone

Endometrium growth achieve by which

hormone?

(a) FSH (b) Estrogen

(c) LH (d) Progesterone

How much average blood loss in
menstruation?

(a) 20-40 ml (b) 35-50 ml

(c) 50-80 ml (d) 100-150 ml

What is the character of epilnenorrea?

(a) Duration < 21 day

(b) Duration > 35 day

(c) Bleeding < 20 ml

(d) Bleeding > 80 ml

What is the character of menorrhagia?

(a) Duration < 21 day
(b) Duration > 35day

(c) Bleeding < 20 ml

(d) Bleeding > 80 ml

Gurjar Ki Thadi, opp. Metro Pillar No. 67 New Sanganer Road, Jaipur. Mb.
7426955591, 7426955593 62
MCQs

Q.462

Q.463

Q.464

Q.465

Q.466

Q.467

Q.468

Q.469

Q.470

Q.471

Q.472

Q.473

In which disorder “hidden menstruation”

present?

(a) DUB (b) Cryptomenorre

(c) Metro-rrhagia (d) Epimenorrea
Acyclic, excessive bleeding is the
character of?

(a) Menorrhgia

(b) Metrorrhagia

(c) Menometrorrhagia
(d) Epimenorrea
Dysmenorrea pain present upto?
(a) 1-3 day of menstruation
(b) 24 hour after menstruation
(c) In complete menstruation
(d) In complete cycle

What are the features

dysmenorrea?

(a) Teen age start

(b) Radiating

(c) Ovulation related

(d) All of these

What are the features of secondary

dysmenorrea?

(a) Medical issue (b) Non-radiating

(c) Older women (d) All of these
Symptoms of pre-menstrual syndrome
present in which phase of cycle?

(a) Bleeding (b) Follicular

(c) Secretory (d) All of these

The severe form. of pre menstrual

syndrome known as?

(a) PMT

(b) PMDD

(c) PMS

(d) Psycho-somatic condition

The term ‘PMT’ stand for?

(a) Pre-menstrual Tension

(b) Post-menstrual Tension

(c) Post — Menopausal Tension

(d) Pre-menstrual Tone

Which will supposed to be a cause of

depression in pre-menstrual syndrome?
(a) Hormone shifting

(b) Endorphin change

(c) Low Serotonine level

(d) Dietry issue

Most common type of vaginitis will be?

(a) Bacterial (b) Parasitic

(c) Fungal (d) Senile

Most common vaginitis in pregnancy will

be?

(a) Bacterial (b) Parasitic

(c) Fungal (d) Senile

Strawberry spot appearance present in
which vaginitis?
(a) Bacterial

(c) Fungal
of primary

(b) Parasitic
(d) Senile

Q.474

Q.475

Q.476

Q.477

Q.478

Q.479

Q.480

Q.481

Q.482

Q.483

Q.484

Q.485

Pink colour vaginal discharge suggestive

for?

(a) Lochia (b) Cervical cancer

(c) Menopause (d) Moniliasis
Which intervention explain by CHO is
inappropriate. For the care during vagina
discharge?

(a) Wear cotton panties

(b) Avoid tight cloth

(c) No douche

(d) Wipe from back to front

Which micro-orgenism responsible for

puerperal mastitis?

(a) E.coli (b) Streptococus

(c) Staphyococus (d) Rubella

Which micro-orgenism responsible for

non puerperal mastitis?

(a) E.coli (b) Streptococus

(c) Staphylococus (d) Rubella

What are the characters of inflammatory
breast?

(a) Superficial area (b) Feeding problem

(c) Non movable mass (d) All of these
What are the characters of breast
abscess?

(a) Deep wall infection

(b) Movable mass

(c) Persistent fever

(d) All of these

Which will be best management tool in

breast abscess?

(a) Drainage method _(b) Analgesic

(c) Antibiotics (d) Heat therapy
Fibrocystic breast disease is main

character of?

(a) Puerperal mastitis

(b) Nopuerperal mastitis
(c) Breast lump

(d) All of these

What is the main character of

fibroedenoma?

(a) Fluid cyst

(b) Without fluid cyst

(c) Pus cyst

(d) Hemorrgic cyst

Which will be most common cause of

breast lump?

(a) Changing hormone (b) Malignancy

(c) Infection (d) Breast Feeding

Which will be refer pain area in cervical
pathology?

(a) Thigh’s (b) Inguinal area

(c) Lower sacrum (d) Upper sacrum

Inguinal pain is related to which pelvic

pathology?
(a) Uterine (b) Ovarian
(c) Cervical (d) Uterosacral

Gurjar Ki Thadi, opp. Metro Pillar No. 67 New Sanganer Road, Jaipur. Mb.
7426955591, 7426955593 63
MCQs

Q.486

Q.487

Q.488

Q.489

Q.490

Q.491

Q.492

Q.493

Q.494

Q.495

Q.496

Q.497

Q.498

Pelvic pain after amenorrea associated

with?

(a) Gynic pain (b) Ectopic pain

(c) UTI (d) PID

What will be surgical techniques in Pelvic

pain?

(a) Hysterectomy (b) LUNA

(c) PSN (d) All of these
What is LUNA?

(a) Lasor uterine nerve ablation

(b) Laproscopic umblical node atrophy

(c) Laproscopic uterine nerve ablation

(d) Linear uretnral nerve ablation

What is cystocele?

(a) Bladder herniation

(b) Uretnra herniation

(c) Rectum herniation

(d) Bowel herniation

Which clinical term is used for bowl
herpiation?
(a) Cystocele (b) Urethrocele

(c) Rectocele (d) Enterocele

Vaginal herniation from lower 1/3
anterior known as?

(a) Cystocele (b) Urethrocele

(c) Rectocele (d) Enterocele

Uterus desend below the os within vagina
is which kind of prolapse?

(a) 1° (b) 2°

(c) 3° (d) 4°
“Procendetia” in prolapse stand for
which degree?

(a) 1° (b) 2°

(c) 3° (d)4°

“Pessary” in prolapse is which kind of

therapy?

(a) Conservative (b) Preventive

(c) Surgical (d) Curative

What is the purpose of restorative

surgery?
(a) Tissue repair (b) Uterus removal
(c) Closing vagina (d) All of these
What is the purpose of “Extirpative
surgery”?

(a) Tissue repair

(b) Uterus removal

(c) Closing vagina

(d) All of these

What is the purpose of “obliterative

surgery”?

(a) Tissue repair (b) Uterus removal

(c) Closing vagina (d) All of these
Which will be known as most common
PID?

(a) Cervicitis
(c) Oopnritis
(b) Vaginitis
(d) Salpingitis

Q.499

Q.500

Q.501

Q.502

Q.503

Q.504

Q.507

Q.508

Q.509

Q.510

Q.511

Q.512

Highest risking age group for fibroid

uterus will be?

(a) 15-25 year (b) 25-35 year

(c) 35-45 year (d) 45-55 year
Which variety of fibroid is
common?

(a) Intramural (b) Intersticial

(c) Submucous (d) Subserous
The most common symptom of fibroid
uterus is?

(a) Menorrhgia (b) Vaginal discharge

(c) Dysmenorrea (d) Metrorrhagia
BSO technique of hystrectomy involve?
(a) Total (b) Subtotal

(c) PAN (d) Radical

What is asthenozoospermia?

(a) Absence semen (b) Absence sperm

(c) Non motile sperm (d) Dead sperm
Which clinical term is used for dead
sperm condition?

(a) Nacrozoospermia

(b) Asthenozoospermia

(c) Azoospermia
(d) Aspermia

What is aspermia?

(a) Absence sperm (b) Absence semen

(c) Dead sperm (d) Non motile sperm
Which will leading cause of female
infertility?

(a) Endometriosis (b) PID

(c) Vaginal Antibody (d) PCOD

Which hormone have deficit value in

PCOD?

(a) FSH (b) LH

(c) Estrogen (d) Androgen

Which will be most widely used ART?

most

(a) GIFT (b) ZIFT

(c) IVF (d) TUI

The best intervention to manage

infertility will be?

(a) IVF (b) Adoption

(c) Hysterectomy (d) Gene therapy

Which age group is consider under

teenage pregnancy?

(a) 10-15 year (b) 15-20 year

(c) 10-19 year (d) 21-30 year

“GATGER APPROCH” useful in which
condition?

(a) Adolescent counseling

(b) Teenage counseling

(c) Marriage counseling

(d) Contraception counseling

Which will not be a component of

‘HEADS’ approach?
(a) Home

(c) Sexuality
(b) Education
(d) Demography

Gurjar Ki Thadi, opp. Metro Pillar No. 67 New Sanganer Road, Jaipur. Mb.
7426955591, 7426955593 64
MCQs

ANSWER KEY

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Gurjar Ki Thadi, opp. Metro Pillar No. 67 New Sanganer Road, Jaipur. Mb.
7426955591, 7426955593 42
MCQs

ANSWER KEY

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Gurjar Ki Thadi, opp. Metro Pillar No. 67 New Sanganer Road, Jaipur. Mb.
7426955591, 7426955593 43