230

APEEJAY SCHOOL, MAHAVIR MARG, JALANDHAR

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION, 2024-25
SUBJECT : BUSINES STUDIES
CLASS : XII
Time : 3 hrs. M.M. : 80

General Instructions :
i. This question paper contains 34 questions
ii. Marks are indicated against each question.
iii. Questions nos. 1 to 20 carry 1 mark each.
iv. Questions nos. 21 to 24 carry 3 mark each.
v. Questions nos. 25 to 30 carry 1 mark each.
vi. Questions nos. 31 to 34 carry 1 mark each.

1. The application of principles of management is dependent upon the prevailing situation at a particular
point of time. The characteristic of principles of management reflected in the above statement is :
a. Contingent b. Universal applicability
c. Flexible d. Cause and effect relationship
2. “Some learning opportunities are designed and delivered to improve skills and abilities of employees whereas
some others are designed to help in the growth of individuals in all respects”. Identify the two concepts.
a. Placement and Orientation b. Training and Development
c. Performance Appraisal and Compensation d. Promotion and Career Planning
3. ABC Group of companies decided to donate 2% of its sales to ‘Child Rights and You(CRY) for improving
the condition of children in India. This initiative by the companywas highly appreciated by the public and
that increased the goodwill of the company. Identify the objective of management depicted in the given
case.
a. Organizational Objectives b. Social Objectives
c. Personnel Objectives d. None of these
4. ‘VS Motors Ltd. recognized the need for small cars in India’. Identify the importance of Business Environment
highlighted in the above line.
a. It helps the firm to identify opportunities and get the first mover advantage
b. It helps the firm in improving performance
c. It helps the firm in planning and policy formation.
d. It helps in SWOT analysis
5. A company has its registered office in Delhi, manufacturing unit at Gurgaon and marketing and sales
department at Faridabad. The company manufactures the Fast Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG). Which
type of Organisation structure should it adopt to achieve its target?
a. Functional structure b. Divisional structure
c. Formal organisation structure d. Informal organisation structure
6. The workers of a factory remain idle because of lack of knowledge of hi tech machines. Frequent visit of
engineer is made which causes high overhead charges. How can this problem be removed?
a. Apprenticeship training b. Internship training
c. Vestibule training d. Induction training
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7. Directors of Aman Ltd. assigned the task of implementing the plans and policies framed by the board to
all the departmental heads. Departmental heads appointed supervisors, superintendent, executives, etc. so
that work can be assigned to workers as per the plan. Supervisors kept a check on workers as per the
plan.
Identify the feature of management highlighted in above para.
a. Management is multi-dimensional b. Management is a group activity
c. Management is a dynamic function d. Management is a goal-oriented process
8. Mr. Sanjeev, a manager believes that through principles of management do not provide straight jacket
solutions to all managerial problems, yet they cannot be underestimated because even a small guideline
helps to solve a given problem. Mr. Sanjeev in dealing with a situation of conflict between two departments,
always emphasizes the primacy of the overall goals of the organisation.
Identify the principle of management followed by Mr. Sanjeev.
a. Subordination of individual interest to general interest
b. Centralisation and Decentralisation
c. Discipline
d. Initiative
9. “Accurate forecasts become essentials for successful plans.” Identify the step of one of the functions of
the management highlighted above.
a. Setting Objectives b. Follow up Action
c. Developing Premises d. Implementing the plan
10. Match the followingi.
i. Separation of planning and . a. Standardization of work
executing functions
ii. Setting benchmarks for every b. Simplification of work
business activity which must be
adhered to during production
iii. Eliminating superfluous varieties, c. Method Study
sizes and dimensions.
iv. Minimizing the cost of production d. Functional foremanshipCodes :
and maximise the quality and satisfaction
of the customer.
a. (i)-(c); (ii)-(a); (iii)-(d); (iv)-(b) b. (i)-(d); (ii)-(a); (iii)-(b); (iv)-(c)
c. (i)-(a); (ii)-(b); (iii)-(c); (iv)-(d) d. (i)-(b); (ii)-(c); (iii)-(d); (iv)-(a)
11. For the following statements, choose the correct options.
Statement I : Planning is looking ahead while Controlling is looking back.
Statement II : Planning and Controlling are both backward looking as well as forward looking.
a. Statement I is correct and Statement II is not correct
b. Statement II is correct and Statement I is not correct
c. Both the Statements I and II are correct.
d. Both the Statements I and II are not correct
12. .………………………. provides the standards against which actual performance can be measured.
a. Controlling b. Planning
c. Directing d. Staffing
13. A situation of under staffing would necessitate the starting of the …………………. process

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14. .……………………refers to systematic effort to delegate to the lowest level all authority except that
which can be exercised at central points.
a. Authority b. Accountability
c. Delegation d. Decentralization
15. Observe the picture given below and identify the principle highlighted in it.

a. Scalar Chain b. Discipline

c. Order d. Initiative
16. Biru Nandan, Chairman of Lalit group of companies founded Biru University for undergraduate and
postgraduate courses in diverse disciplines. The Information Technology department of the Lalit Power
Ltd., had few vacancies related to Cyber security. The Human Resource Department of the Company
decided to recruit fresh engineering graduates from ‘Biru University’ for the same. The source of recruitment
is
a. Direct recruitment b. Campus Recruitment
c. Employment exchange d. Advertisement
17. While scrutinizing the production records, it is found that in a particular batch the rejection was 5%
against the set standard of 2%. The management found out that this was due to negligence of quality
control staff. This action is part of which step in controlling process?
a. Measurement of actual performance b. Comparing actual performance with standards
c. Analyzing deviations d. Taking corrective actions 1
18 Statement I : Informal organisation refers to the organizational structure which is designed by the management
to accomplish a particular task.
Statement II : The structure in a formal structure can be divisional or functional
a. Statement I is true and II is false. b. Statement II is true and I is false.
c. Both the statements are true d. Both the statements are false 1
19. Observe the picture given below and identify the step of staffing highlighted in it.

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a. Estimating manpower requirement b. Recruitment

c. Selection d. Placement and Orientation 1
20. Mr. Gopal, HR Manager of a company, selects each person scientifically, assigns work to each employee
according to her/his physical, mental and intellectual capabilities. He also gives them the required training
so that they may produce more and earn more. This will ensure their prosperity for both company and
workers. Identify the principle/technique of scientific management highlighted in the above case.
a. Method Study
b. Harmony, not discord
c. Cooperation, not individualism
d. Development of each and every person to his/her greatest efficiency 1
21. “Planning and Controlling are inseparable twins of management” Explain this statement with the help of
3 relevant points. 3
22. In an attempt to cope up with the Reliance Jio’s onslaught in 2018, market leader BhartiAirtel has refreshed
its ¹ 149 prepaid plan to offer 2GB of 3G/4G data per day, twice the amount it offered earlier.Name and
explain the type of plan is highlighted in the given examples. 3
23. Differentiate between Functional and Divisional structure of organisation on the following basis :
a. Formation b. Specialization
c. Cost/ Economical 3
24. Production manager of Beta Ltd. took special care of the interest and ability of his subordinates while
distributing work among them. He was of the firm opinion that a worker should be given one work again
and again so that he may become expert in it. One day he took round of his department and noticed that
the workers were not doing their job quickly. On enquiry, he learnt that the workers worked non-stop
which was the main cause of their slow speed. He immediately issued an order that during their working
hours, the workers will have an interval to take rest.
a. State the principle of management followed here? Explain.
b. Which technique of scientific management is indicated in above para? Explain 3
25. Ashutosh Goenka was working in ‘Axe Ltd.’, a company manufacturing air purifier. He found that the
profits had started declining from the last six months. Profit has an implication for the survival of the
firm, so he analyzed the business environment to find out the reasons for this decline.a.Identify the level
of management at which Ashutosh Goenka was working.b.State three other functions being performed by
Ashutosh Goenka. 4
26. Mahinder Agro Ltd. started a new venture for distribution of harmful and chemical fertilizers free vegetables.
They conducted a survey to find out consumer preferences for such vegetables. They found that most of
the consumers were concerned about the harmful chemicals being used in growing the vegetables. They
found that 90% of the households were searching for its alternatives. The company contacted a group of
agriculture experts to lay down the procedure for growing the vegetables by the farmers. They decided to
train the farmers in new technology to grow chemical free vegetables according to new innovative methods.
The experts also suggested soil management techniques through which farmers would be able to create an
abundant and lasting harvest.
Identify and explain the two dimensions of business environment highlighted in the above para. 4
27. In order to improve employee productivity and increase employee morale, Zion ltd adopted various ways
of training such as :
a. Mr. Ramesh was provided with equipment which were similar to those which he would be using.
b. Harish and Rakesh were put under the guidance of a master to acquire high levels of skills
Identify and Explain the training methods adopted in (a) & (b). 4
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28. “Management is a profession like medical or legal profession” Do you agree with this statement. Give
any four reasons in support of your answer. 4
29. Mr. Raghav is working as the Managing Director ‘Clerk Residency Ltd. The business of this company is
to build, furnished houses. The success of the company depends on the level of its advertisement. That is
why this department has been set up separately in the company. Different standards have been fixed to
keep a control over its quality and cost e.g., the standard of raw material to be used in the construction
and the standard of working conditions and wages, realizing the importance of advertisement, the M.D.
gave the right of spending money up to 10 lakh to the Departmental Manager without seeking his permission.
When the other departmental managers came to know of this authority, they also demanded this type of
authority. This decision started yielding positive results. ‘Then the M.D. again decided to give the authority
of spending money to a limit freely to the supervisors also.
a. Which concept of management is referred to according to which the Advertisement Manager has
been given the authority of spending money to a limit?
b. Explain three elements of the concept identified in (a) 4
30. In an interview with a leading news channel, Mr. Rakesh Kwatra, CEO of ‘Get My Job” has suggested
that the Companies which want more and more people to apply for jobs in their organisation should make
the process of applying for jobs easier and candidate friendly. It is for this reason, he said, that most
progressive companies today have a short application process. He also said that the application form
filled by the candidate is very important as it is the information supplied in the application forms, which
helps the manager in eliminating unqualified or unfit job seekers. The company can create a mechanism
that attempts to measure certain characteristics of individuals like aptitude, manual dexterity, and intelligence
to personality. The candidate may then be called for an in-depth conversation to evaluate their suitability
for the job.
a. Name the function of the management referred in above case.
b. Explain the next three steps in the process which can be subsequently performed by the company.
4
31. ‘Kanpur Leather Ltd.’ is the manufacturer of leather products. It is producing on large scale and its
organizational structure is functional. In the production department various foremen have been employed.
Each foreman has been made responsible for production, planning, implementation and control. This has
led to a situation of confusion and uncertainty.Suggest and explain the technique of scientific management
to Kanpur Leather Ltd. which may help it to effectively organize planning and its production. 6
32. Ishita works as a corporate event coordinator in an event management company. She has been made an
overall official in charge for organizing a painting exhibition for one of the clients of the company. For
ensuring that the exhibition takes place successfully, she identifies the various activities involved and
divides the whole work into various task groups like marketing committee, decoration committee and
reception committee. In order to facilitate coordination within and among committees, she appoints a
supervisor of each group. Each member in the group is asked to report to their respective supervisors and
all the supervisors are expected to work as per Ishita’s orders.In context of the above case :
a. Identify and explain the function of management being performed by Ishita.
b. Describe briefly the various steps involved in the performance of the function of management as
identified in part (a) of the question 6
33. Agro Ltd. is a highly reputed company and many people want to join this company. The employees of this
organisation are very happy and they discuss how they came in contact with this organisation. Aman said
that he was introduced by the present sales manager, Mr.Vivek. Benu said that he had applied through

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newspaper and was appointed as H.R. Manager. Vaibhav said he was directly called by the company
from his IIM Institute after completing MBA.
a. The above discussion is indicating an important function of management. Name the function of
management.
b. The management function identified follows a particular concept. Identify and explain the step of
this process.
c. Identify the methods of the concept identified in part (b) by quoting the lines from the above para.
6
34. ‘Dharvi’is a washing machine manufacturing company. The company decides to enter into music system
manufacturing industry. The company has a committed top management, but they know serious planning
is required at every level and in every department. It knows that there are various challenges in the market
where its decisions regarding the new industry might fail. Still the top management doesn’t want to waste
a lot of resources on its plans. It knows that sometimes plans take more time in making than getting
implemented. However, the company wants to proceed with a positive approach. It has decided to study
all the aspects of its competitors, to set all its objectives and to allocate the required resources. The company
did well in its previous business. At that time, they took situations very seriously as they knew everything
the company would do had to be based on concrete plans. The company will start its operations from next
month.”Quoting the lines from the above case study answer the following questions”
a. Write three limitations of planning which are highlighted in the above case?
b. Which type of plan is indicated in the above case?
c. Which feature of planning is highlighted above? (Any 2) 6

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APEEJAY SCHOOL, MAHAVIR MARG, JALANDHAR

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION, 2024-25
SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY
CLASS : XII
Time : 3 hrs. M.M. : 70

General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully.
(a) There are 33 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
(b) SECTION A consists of 16 multiple -choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
(c) SECTION B consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
(d) SECTION C consists of 7 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
(e) SECTION D consists of 2 case - based questions carrying 4 marks each.
(f) SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
(g) All questions are compulsory.
(h) Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.

SECTION A
The following questions are multiple -choice questions with one correct answer. Each question carries
1 mark. There is no internal choice in this section.
1. The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water and ethanol is less than that of water and ethanol. The
mixture shows –
(a) no deviation from Raoult’s Law. (b) positive deviation from Raoult’s Law.
(c) negative deviation from Raoult’s Law. (d) that the solution is unsaturated. 1
2. –5
KH value for Ar(g), CO2 (g), HCHO (g) and CH4 (g) are 40.39, 1.67, 1.83×10 and 0.413 respectively.
Arrange these gases in the order of their increasing solubility-
(a) HCHO < CH4 < CO2 < Ar (b) HCHO < CO2 < CH4 < Ar
(c) Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO (d) Ar < CH 4 < CO2 < HCHO 1
3. Which one of the following is diamagnetic ion?
(a) Co2+ (b) Ni2+
(c) Cu2+ (d) Zn2+ 1
4. -5
The half life of the first order reaction having rate constant K = 1.7 × 10 s is -1

(a) 12.1 h (b) 9.7 h

(c) 11.3 h (d) 1.8 h 1
5. The charge required for the reduction of 1 mol of MnO 4–1 to MnO2 is=
(a) 1 F (b) 3 F
(c) 5 F (d) 6 F 1
6. Which is the correct IUPAC name for-

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(a) 1-Methyl-chlorobenzene (b) Toluene

(c) 1-Chloro-4-methylbenzene (d) 1-Methyl-4-chlorobenzene 1
7. Which among the following is a false statement?
(a) Rate of zero order reaction is independent of initial concentration of reactant.
(b) Half life of a third order reaction is inversely proportional to square of initial concentration of the
reactant.
(c) Molecularity of a reaction may be zero or fraction.
(d) For a first order reaction, t 1/2=0.693/K 1
8. The values of standard reduction potential of X, Y and Z metals are 0.34 V, 0.80 V and -0.45 V. Mention
their order of strength as reducing agent
(a)Z > Y > X (b)Z > X > Y
(c)X > Y > Z (d)Y > Z > X 1
9. Chlorobenzene on reaction with NaOH at 300K followed by acidic hydrolysis produces-
(a) Phenol (b) Sodium phenoxide
(c) Benzaldehyde (d) Benzoic acid 1
10. Which of the following aqueous solutions should have the highest boiling point-
(a) 1.0 M Glucose (b) 1.0 M Na 2SO4
(c) 1.0 M KCl (d) 1.0 M Urea 1
11. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons-
(a) Mg2+ (b) Ti3+
(c) V 3+ (d) Fe2+ 1
12. Molecules whose mirror image is non- superimposable over them are known as chiral. Which of the following
molecules is chiral in nature-
(a) 2-Bromobutane (b) 1-Bromobutane
(c) 2-Bromopropane (d) 2-Bromopropan-2-ol 1
13. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)-
Assertion (A) : The highest oxidation states of the 3d metals depends only on electronic configuration of
the metal.
Reason (R) : The number of electrons in the (n-1)d and ns subshells determine the oxidation states exhibited
by the metal.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true. 1
14. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)-
Assertion (A) : ›m for weak electrolytes shows a sharp increase when the electrolytic solution is diluted.
Reason (R) : For weak electrolytes degree of dissociation increases with dilution of solution.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true. 1
15. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)-

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Assertion (A) : In monohaloarenes, further electrophilic substitution occurs at ortho and para positions.
Reason (R) : Halogen atom is a ring deactivator.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true. 1
16. Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)-
Assertion (A) : La(OH)3 is more basic than Lu(OH) 3
Reason (R) : Due to smaller size of Lu +3, it shows more covalent character.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true. 1
SECTION–B
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in one question. The following questions are
very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.
17. Describe the preparation of potassium dichromate from iron chromite ore. What is the effect of increasing
pH on a solution of potassium dichromate? 2
18. (a) For a chemical reaction R ’! P, the variation in the concentration (R) vs time (t) plot is given as-
(i) Predict the order of the reaction.
(ii) What is the slope of the curve?

(b) A reaction is of first order in reactant A and of second order in reactant B. How is the rate of this
reaction affected when the concentration of B alone is increased to three times ? 1+1=2
19. 2
(a) Arrange the following compounds in order of reactivity towards S N displacement :2-Bromo-2-
methyibutane, 1-Bromopentane, 2-Bromopentane.
(b) Give chemical test to distinguish between the following pair of compounds : Chloroform and Carbon
tetrachloride 1+1=2
20. (a) Explain why on addition of 1 mol glucose to 1 litre water the boiling point of water increases.
(b) Blood cells are isotonic with 0.9% sodium chloride solution. What happens if we place blood cells
in a solution containing1.2% sodium chloride solution?
OR
(a) Out of 1M glucose and 2M glucose, which one has a higher boiling point and why?
(b) What happens when the external pressure applied becomes more than the osmotic pressure of solution?
1+1=2
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21. In the following pairs of halogen compounds, which compound undergoes faster S N1 reaction- 1+1=2

SECTION C
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in one question. The following questions are
short answer type and carry 3 marks each.
22. A 5% solution (by mass) of cane sugar(C 12H22O11) in water has freezing point of 271 K. Calculate the
freezing point of 5% glucose(C6H12O6) in water if freezing point of pure water is 273.15 K. 3
23. (a) How would you account for the following :
Cr2+ is reducing in nature while with the same d-orbital configuration (d 4) Mn3+ is an oxidising agent.
(b) Complete the following chemical equations :
(i) MnO4-1 (aq) + S2O32- (aq) + H2O (l) ’!
(ii) Cr2O72- (aq) + Fe2+ (aq) + H+ (aq) ’! 1+2=3
24. Calculate the emf of the following cell at 25C (write cell reaction also)-
Al (s) |Al3+ (0·001 M) || (0·50M) Ni2+ |Ni (s)
Given : E 0 (Ni 2+ /Ni) = – 0·25V
E 0 (Al 3+ / Al ) = – 1·66 V [ log 2 = 0·3010 , log(8)=0.9031,log 5=0.69897] 3
25. -1
(a) The rate constant for a first order reaction is 60 s . How much time will it take to reduce the initial
concentration of the reactant to its 1/16 th value ?(log2=0.3010)
(b) Give one difference between order and molecularity of a reaction? 2+1=3
26. (a) Corrosion is an electrochemical phenomenon, why?
(b) Which will have greater molar conductivity and why? Sol A. =1 mol KCl dissolved in 200cc of the
solution or Sol B. =1 mol KCl dissolved in 500cc of the solution.
(c) Is it safe to stir AgNO3 solution with a copper spoon? Why
(E0Ag+/ Ag= 0.80 Volt; E0Cu+2/ Cu= 0.34 Volt) (1+1+1)=3
27. The following results have been obtained during the kinetic studies of the reaction.
2A+B ——–> C + D

Experiment [A] mol L–1 [B] mol L–1 Initial rate of formation
of D mol L–1 min–1

I. 0.1 0.1 6.0 × 10–3

II. 0.3 0.2 7.2 × 10 –2
III. 0.3 0.4 2.88 × 10–1
IV. 0.4 0.1 2.40 × 10–2

Determine the rate law and the rate constant for the reaction. 3
28. Primary alkyl halide C4H9Br (a) reacted with alcoholic KOH to give compound (b). Compound (b) is
reacted with HBr to give (c) which is an isomer of (a). When (a) is reacted with sodium metal it give
compound (d), C8H18 which is different from the compound formed when n-butyl bromide is reacted with
sodium. Give the structural formula of (a,b,c,d) and write the equations for any two reactions involved .
OR

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Explain why-
(i) the dipole moment of chlorobenzene is lower than that of cyclohexyl chloride?
(ii) alkyl halides, though polar, are immiscible with water?
(iii) Grignard reagents should be prepared under anhydrous conditions?
SECTION D
The following questions are case -based questions. Each question has an internal choice and carries
4 (1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
29. READ THE PASSAGE GIVEN BELOW AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW-
The rate of a chemical reaction is influenced by various factors, including temperature, concentration of
reactants, surface area, and the presence of catalysts. In this case study, we focus on how temperature
affects the rate of a reaction.
Consider the reaction between hydrochloric acid (HCl) and sodium thiosulfate (Na‚ S‚ Oƒ ) :
Na2 S2 O3 (aq)+2HCl(aq)’!2NaCl(aq)+SO 2 (g)+S(s)+H2 O(l)
This reaction produces a yellow precipitate of sulfur, which makes it suitable for studying the effect of
temperature on reaction rates.
Experiment-
1. Setup : Prepare four different solutions of sodium thiosulfate and hydrochloric acid with the same
initial concentrations but at different temperatures : 10°C, 20°C, 30°C, and 40°C.
2. Procedure :
o Mix a fixed volume of sodium thiosulfate solution with hydrochloric acid at one of the given
temperatures.
o Observe the time it takes for the yellow precipitate to form to a specified level (e.g., obscuring
a mark on the bottom of the reaction vessel).
o Repeat the experiment for each temperature setting.
3. Data Collection :
o Record the time taken for the reaction to reach the specified level of sulfur precipitation at
each temperature.
Answer the following questions :
(a) Explain why increasing the temperature increases the rate of reaction , using the collision theory?
(b) Predict how the rate of reaction would be affected if a catalyst were added. Why does a catalyst
influence the rate of reaction?
(c) The rate of a reaction quadruples when the temperature changes from 293 K to 313 K. Calculate
the energy of activation of the reaction assuming that it does not change with temperature.(log 4=0.6020),(log
2=0.3010)
OR
(c) The rate constant for the decomposition of a hydrocarbon is 2·418 × 10 -5 s-1 at 546 K. If the energy
of activation is 179·9 kJ mol -1, what will be the value of pre-exponential factor?(log2.418=0.3816,
antilog of 12.54=3.467×1012) 1+1+2
30. READ THE PASSAGE GIVEN BELOW AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW-
Any battery (actually it may have one or more than one cell connected in series) or cell that we use as a
source of electrical energy is basically a galvanic cell where the chemical energy of the redox reaction is
converted into electrical energy. However, for a battery to be of practical use it should be reasonably
light, compact and its voltage should not vary appreciably during its use. There are mainly two types of
batteries.In the primary batteries, the reaction occurs only once and after use over a period of time battery

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becomes dead and cannot be reused again. The most familiar example of this type is the dry cell (known
as Leclanche cell after its discoverer). A secondary cell after use can be recharged by passing current
through it. Production of electricity by thermal plants is not a very efficient method and is a major source
of pollution. In such plants, the chemical energy (heat of combustion) of fossil fuels (coal, gas or oil) is
first used for converting water into high pressure steam. This is then used to run a turbine to produce
electricity. We know that a galvanic cell directly converts chemical energy into electricity and is highly
efficient. It is now possible to make such cells in which reactants are fed continuously to the electrodes
and products are removed continuously from the electrolyte compartment. Galvanic cells that are designed
to convert the energy of combustion of fuels like hydrogen, methane, methanol, etc. directly into electrical
energy are called fuel cells.
Answer the following questions :
(a) Which cells are used in hearing aids and in Apollo Space Programme?
(b) Write the electrode reactions involved in the working of H 2 – O2 fuel cell.
(c) The standard electrode potential for Daniel cell is 1.1 V. Write the overall reaction and Calculate
the standard Gibbs energy for the cell reaction. (F = 96,500 C mol -1)
OR
(c) Write the name of the cell which is generally used in working inverters. Write the reactions taking
place at the anode and the cathode of this cell. 1+1+2
SECTION E
The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. All questions have an internal
choice.
31. ATTEMPT ANY FIVE PARTS OUT OF SEVEN(a-g) FROM THIS QUESTION-
(a) Many of the transition elements and their compounds can act as good catalysts?
(b) The metallic radii of the third (5d) series of transition elements are virtually the same as those of
the corresponding members of the second series. Why?
(c) Why there is a greater range of oxidation states among the actinides than among the lanthanides?
(d) Why many of the transition elements are known to form interstitial compounds.
(e) Sc (21) is a transition element but Ca (20) is not. Give reason
(f) Compounds of transition elements are generally colored. Justify.
(g) The enthalpies of atomization of the transition elements are quite high. Why?
32. (a) Determine the osmotic pressure of a solution prepared by dissolving 25 mg of K 2SO4 in 2 litre of
water at 25°C, assuming that it is completely dissociated.(Atomic mass of K=39,S=32,O=16)
(b) According to Raoult’s law, what is meant by positive and negative deviations and how is the sign of
solH related to positive and negative deviations from Raoult’s law?
OR
(a) An antifreeze solution is prepared from 222.6 g of ethylene glycol, (C 2 H6O2 ) and 200 g of water.
Calculate the molality of the solution. If the density of the solution is 1.072 g mL -1, then what shall
be the molarity of the solution?
(b) Explain why aquatic species are more comfortable in cold water rather than in warm water?
(c) What is meant by positive deviations from Raoult’s law? What is the sign of mixH for positive
deviation?
33. (a) How will you carry out the following conversions :
(i) 2-Bromopropane to 1-bromopropane
(ii) Benzene to p-chloronitrobenzene

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(iii)Benzyl alcohol in to 2-Phenylethanoic acid

Write the chemical equations in support of your answer.
(b) (i) Predict all the alkenes that would be formed by dehydrohalogenation of 1-Bromo-l-
methylcyclohexane with sodium ethoxide in ethanol and identify the major alkene.
(ii) What happens when - Ethyl chloride is treated with AgNO 2
Write the chemical equations in support of your answer. (3+2)
OR
(a) How can the following conversions be carried out :
(i) Aniline to bromobenzene
(ii) Chlorobenzene to 2-chloroacetophenone
(iii) Chloroethane to butane
Write the chemical equations in support of your answer.
(b) Write the major product(s) in the following :

(i)

(ii)

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APEEJAY SCHOOL, MAHAVIR MARG, JALANDHAR

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION, 2024-25
SUBJECT : COMPUTER SCIENCE
CLASS : XII
Time : 3 hrs. M.M. : 70

General Instructions :
 Please check this question paper contains 35 questions.
 The paper is divided into 4 Sections- A, B, C, D and E.
 Section A consists of 18 questions (1 to 18). Each question carries 1 Mark.
 Section B consists of 7 questions (19 to 25). Each question carries 2 Marks.
 Section C consists of 5 questions (26 to 30). Each question carries 3 Marks.
 Section D consists of 2 questions (31 to 32). Each question carries 4 Marks.
 Section E consists of 3 questions (33 to 35). Each question carries 5 Marks.
 All programming questions are to be answered using Python Language only.

Section-A
1. State True or False :
“Identifiers are names used to identify a variable, function in a program”.
2. Consider a declaration L = (1, ‘Python’, ‘3.14’). Which of the following represents the data type of L?
(a) List (b) Tuple
(c) Dictionary (d) String
3. Which of the following will give output as [5,14,6] if lst=[1,5,9,14,2,6]?
(a) print(lst[0 : :2]) (b) print(lst[1 : :2])
(c) print(lst[1 :5 :2]) (d) print(lst[0 :6 :2])
4. Identify the output of the following Python statements. x = 2 while x < 9 : print(x, end=’’) x = x + 1
(a) 12345678 (b) 123456789
(c) 2345678 (d) 23456789
5. Which of the following statement(s) would give an error after executing the following code?
Stud={“Murugan” :100,”Mithu” :95} # Statement 1
print (Stud [95]) # Statement 2
Stud[“Murugan”]=99 # Statement 3
print(Stud.pop()) # Statement 4
print(Stud) # Statement 5
(a) Statement 2 (b) Statement 4
(c) Statement 3 (d) Statements 2 and 4
6. What is the possible outcome/s of following code?
Possible options :
import random
colors = [‘red’, ‘green’, ‘blue’, ‘yellow’, ‘purple’, ‘orange’]
random_sample = random.randint (3, 5)
print (colors [random_sample])

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(a) green (b) yellow

(c) blue (d) orange
7. What is the scope of a variable defined inside a function?
(a) Global scope (b) Local scope
(c) Universal scope (d) Function scope
8. Write a statement to send the file pointer position 10 bytes forward from current location of file, consider
fp as file object.
(a) fp.seek(10) (b) fp.seek(10,1)
(c) fp.tell(10) (d) fp.seek(1,10)
9. Which of the following option is not correct?
a. if we try to read a text file that does not exist, an error occurs.
b. if we try to read a text file that does not exist, the file gets created.
c. if we try to write on a text file that does not exist, no error occurs.
d. if we try to write on a text file that does not exist, the file gets Created.
10. Sanya wants to remove an element from empty stack. Which of the following term is related to this?
(a) Empty Stack (b) Overflow
(c) Underflow (d) Clear Stack
11. What is degree in database?
a. Foreign key of the table b. Primary key of the table
c. Number of columns in the table d. Number of rows in the table
12. Which SQL command used to change or modify any attribute/column like addition and deletion of column
in database?
a. create b. alter
c. delete d. update
13. Which SQL clause is used to filter the result of SELECT statement in Relational Database?
a. from b. where
c. join d. having
14. What is the main difference between CHAR and VARCHAR datatype in SQL?
a. CHAR is case-sensitive while VARCHAR is non case sensitive
b. CHAR store variable length strings while VARCHAR stores fixed length string
c. CHAR store fixed length strings while VARCHAR stores variable length string
d. CHAR is used storing numeric data while VARCHAR is used for text data
15. Fill in the blank :___________ method is used to execute a SQL query on a MySQL database?
16. Which of the following is NOT a required argument to the connect () function?
a. Hostname b. Username
c. Password d. Database name
17 and 18 are ASSERTION AND REASONING based questions. Mark the correct choice as
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is True but R is False
(d) A is false but R is True
17. Assertion (A) : List can not become key in a dictionary.
Reasoning(R) : Only integers can be keys in a dictionary.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of A

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(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not correct explanation of A

(c) A is True but R is false
(d) R is true, but A is false
18 Assertion (A) : To use a function from a particular module, we need to import the module.
Reason (R) : Import statement can be written anywhere in the program, before using a function from that
module.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is True but R is False
(d) A is false but R is True
Section-B
19. What is Stack? What basic operations can be performed on them?
20. Rewrite the following code after removing the syntactical errors (if any). Underline each correction.
def chksum :
x = input (“Enter a number”)
if (x + 2 = 0) :
for i range (2*x) :
print i
loop else :
print “$”
21. Write a function LShift(Arr,n) in Python, which accepts a list Arr of numbers and n is a numeric value
by which all elements of the list are shifted to left. Sample Input Data of the list
Arr= [ 10,20,30,40,12,11],
n=2
Output :
Arr = [30,40,12,11,10,20]
Or
Write a function countNow(PLACES) in Python, that takes the dictionary, PLACES as an argument and
displays the names (in uppercase) of the places whose names are longer than 5 characters.
For example, Consider the following dictionary
PLACES={1 :”Delhi”,2 :”London”,3 :”Paris”,4 :”New York”,5 :”Doha”}
The output should be :
LONDON NEW YORK
22. What will be the output of the following Python Code?
def divide (a, b) :
if b == 0 :
return “You can’t divide any number by zero”, None
return a b, “Division s uccessful.”
res, msg = divide (50, 5)
print (res, mssg) |

res, mes = divide (50, 0)

print (res, msg)
23. Write a suitable Python statement for each of the following task using built in functions or methods only:
i. to delete an element Mumbai :50 from dictionary d.
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ii. To display words in a string S in the form of a list.

Or
Write a Python program to display alternate characters of a string my_str.
For example,
If my_str =”COMPUTER SCIENCE”
the output should be CMUE CEC
24. Differentiate between count() and count(*) functions in SQL with appropriate example.
Or
Categorize the following commands as DDL or DML.INSERT, UPDATE, ALTER, DROP
25. What will be the output of the following Python Code?
a = 30
def cal (x) :
global a
if a  2 == 0 :
x+=a
else :
x-=a
return x
x=20
print (call (35), end=“#”)
print (call (40, end = “@”)
Section-C
26. Give output for following SQL queries as per given table :
Table : Hospital

No Name Age Department Dateofadm Charges Gender

1 Arpit 62 Surgery 21/01/98 300 M
2 Zarina 22 ENT 12/12/97 250 F
3 Kareem 32 Orthipedic 19/02/98 200 M
4 Arun 12 Surgery 11/01/98 300 M
5 Zubin 30 ENT 12/01/98 250 M
6 Ketaki 16 ENT 24/02/98 250 M
7 Ankita 29 Cardiology 20/02/98 800 F

i. SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT Charges) FROM HOSPITAL;

ii. SELECT MIN(Age) FROM HOSPITAL WHERE Gender=’M’;
iii. SELECT SUM(Charges) FROM HOSPITAL WHERE Department = ‘ENT’;
27 a. Define a function SGcounter() that counts and display number of S and G present in a text file
‘A.txt” e.g., SAGAR JOON IS GOING TO MARKET. It will display S :2 G :2
Or
b. Write a function in Python that counts the number of “is”, “am” or “are” words present in a text
file “HELLO.TXT”. If the “HELLO.TXT” contents are as follows :
Here are two sentences that contain “is,” “am,” or “are” :

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“She is studying for her final exams. We are planning a trip to the mountains next weekend.”
The output of the function should be : Count of is/am/are in file : 2
28. Write the output of the following SQL queries based on table TRANSACTION given below
A. Table : TRANSACTION

T _ NO M _ NO AMOUNT CARD _ TYPE DATE STATUS

1 11 500 CREDIT 2019 - 10 - 11 SUCCESS
2 11 170 CREDIT 2019 - 10 - 14 FAILURE
3 13 800 DEBIT 201 - 10 - 24 FAILURE
4 12 90 CREDIT 2019 - 11 - 10 SUCCESS
5 13 1400 DEBIT 2019 - 11 - 11 SUCCESS
6 11 500 DEBIT 2019 - 11 - 18 SUCCESS
7 13 1600 DEBIT 2019 - 11 - 27 FAILURE

(i) SELECT M_NO, MIN(AMOUNT) FROM TRANSACTION GROUP BY M_NO HAVING

COUNT(*)>2;
(ii) SELECT T_NO, AMOUNT FROM TRANSACTION WHERE CARD_TYPE=’CREDIT’;
B. Write the command to see the structure of the given table.
29. Charu has to create a database named MYEARTH in MYSQL. She now needs to create a table named
CITY in the database to store the records of various cities across the globe.
The table CITY has the following structure :
Table : CITY
FIELD NAME DATA TYPE REMARKS
CityCode CHAR(5) Primary Key
CityName VARCHAR(20)
Size Integer
AvgTemp Integer
PollutionRate Integer
Population Integer
30 A list, NList, contains following record as list elements :
[City, Country, distance from Delhi]
Each of these records are nested together to form a nested list.
Write the following user defined functions in Python to perform the specified operations on the stack
named travel.
i. Push_element(NList) : It takes the nested list as an argument and pushes a list object containing
name of the city and country, which are not in India and distance is less than 3500 km from Delhi.
ii. Pop_element() : It pops the objects from the stack and displays them. Also, the function should
display “Stack Empty” when there are no elements in the stack.
For example : If the nested list contains the following data :
NList=[[“Newyork”,”USA”,11734], [“Naypyidaw”, “Myanmar”,3219],
[“Dubai”,”UAE”,2194], [“London”,”England”,6693], [“Gangtok”, “India”,1580],
[“Columbo”, “Sri Lanka”, 3405]]
The stack should contain :

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[“Naypyidaw”, “Myanmar”,3219],
[“Dubai”,”UAE”,2194],
[“Columbo”, “Sri Lanka”, 3405]
The output should be :
[“Columbo”, “Sri Lanka”, 3405]
[“Dubai”,”UAE”,2194]
[“Naypyidaw”, “Myanmar”,3219]
Stack Empty
Section-D (4 marks each)
31. Write SQL statements for the following queries (i) to (v) based on the relations
CUSTOMER and TRANSACTION given below :
Table : CUSTOMER

ACNO NAME GENDER BALANCE

C1 RISHABH M 15000
C2 AAKASH M 12500
C3 INDIRA F 9750
C4 TUSHAR M 14600
C5 ANKITA F 22000

Table : TRANSACTION

ACNO TDATE AMOUNT TYPE

C1 2020 - 07 - 21 1000 DEBIT
C5 2019 - 12 - 31 1500 CREDIT
C3 2020 - 01 - 01 2000 CREDIT
1. To display all information about the CUSTOMERS whose NAME starts with ‘A’.
2. To display the NAME and BALANCE of Female CUSTOMERS (with GENDER as ‘F’) whose
TRANSACTION Date (TDATE) is in the year 2019.
3. To display the total number of CUSTOMERS for each GENDER.
4. To display the CUSTOMER NAME and BALANCE in ascending order of GENDER.
32. Mr. Manish Kumar is writing a program to create a CSV file “user.csv” which will contain user name
and password for some entries. He has written the following code. As a programmer, help him to successfully
execute the given task.
import ___________ # Line 1
def addCsvFile (UserName, PassWord) : # to write / add data into the CSV file
f=open (‘user.csv’, ‘__________’) # Line 2
# csv file reading code
def readCsvFile () : # to read data from CSV file with
open (‘user, csv’, ‘r’) as newFile :
newFileReader = csv. _______ (newFile) # Line 3
for row in newFileReader :
print (row[0], row[1])
newFile. ____________# Line 4
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addCsvFile (‘‘Arjun”, “123@456”)

addCsvFile (“Arunima”, “aru@nima”)
addCsvFile (“Frida”, “myname@FRD”)
readCsvFile () #line 5
(a) Name the module he should import in Line 1.
(b) In which mode, Manish should open the file to add data into the file
(c) Fill in the blank in Line 3 to read the data from a csv file.
(d) Fill in the blank in Line 4 to close the file.
Section-E
33. The IT Company XYZ has asked their IT manager Ms. Preeti to maintain the data of all the employees in
two tables EMPLOYEE and DEPT. Ms. Preeti has created two tables EMPLOYEE and DEPT. She entered
6 rows in EMPLOYEE table and 5 rows in DEPT table.
Table : DEPt

D _ CODE D _ NAME CITY

D001 INFRASTRUCTURE DELHI
D002 MARKETING DELHI
D003 MEDIA MUMBAI
D005 FINANCE KOLKATA
D004 HUMAN RESOURCE MUMBAI
Table : EMPLOYEE

E _ NO NAME DOJ DOB GENDER D _ CODE SALARY

1001 Vinay 2013 - 09 - 02 1991 - 09 - 01 MALE D001 250000
1002 Ruby 2012 - 12 - 11 1990 - 12 - 15 FEMALE D003 270000
1003 Anuj 2013 - 02 - 03 1987 - 09 - 04 MALE D005 240000
1007 Sunny 2014 - 01 - 17 1988 - 10 - 19 MALE D004 250000
1004 Rohit 2012 - 12 - 09 1986 - 11 - 14 MALE D001 270000
1005 Preeti 2013 - 11 - 18 1989 - 03 - 31 FEMALE D002 NULL

Note : DOJ refers to date of joining and DOB refers to date of Birth of employees.
Based on the above data, answer the following questions :
1. Identify the column which can be consider as primary key in EMPLOYEE table and Identify the
column which can be consider as primary key in DEPT table
2. What is the degree and cardinality of EMPLOYEE table?
3. What is the degree and cardinality of DEPT table?
4. Write SQL queries for the following :
Insert two new row in Employee table with following data :
1006 Rahul 2019-11-06 1992-01-04 MALE D003 167000
1008 Sonam 2022-01-06 1991-04-06 FEMALE D005 156000
5. To update SALARY to 230000 of those employee whose E_NO is 1004.
34. a. A binary file “PLANTS.dat” has structure (ID, NAME, PRICE).

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Write the definition of a function WRITEREC () in Python, to input data for records from the user
and write them to the file PLANTS.dat.
Write the definition of a function SHOWHIGH () in Python, which reads the records of PLANTS.
dat and displays those records for which the PRICE is more than 500.
b. What is the use of with statement in Python?
Or
a. A binary file “PATIENTS.dat” has structure (PID, NAME, DISEASE). Write the definition of a
function countrec () in Python that would read contents of the f ile “PATIENTS.dat” and display
the details of those patients who have the DISEASE as ‘COVID-19’. The function should also
display the total number of such patients whose DISEASE is ‘COVID-19’.
b. What is file mode? Name the default file mood.
35. Write a program that reads the records from the table employee and displays only those records of employee
table who don’t lives in city ‘Delhi’ :
E_ID – varchar(50)
E_Name – char(50)
Salary – int(15)
City – char(20)
Note the following to establish connectivity between Python and MySQL :
Username is root
Password is 12345
The table exists in a MySQL database named company. The table has four attributes (E_ID, E_Name,
Salary, City).
Or
Write a python program to update name of employee in Employee table whose employee id is ‘E1001’
(Take updates name as an input from the user). Note the following to establish connectivity between Python
and MySQL : Username is root Password is 12345 The table exists in a MySQL database named company.
The table has five attributes (Emp_ID, Emp_Name, DOJ, Gender, Salary)

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APEEJAY SCHOOL, MAHAVIR MARG, JALANDHAR

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION, 2024-25
SUBJECT : ECONOMICS
CLASS : XII
Time : 3 hrs. M.M. : 80

General Instructions :
1. This question paper contains two sections :
Section A – Macro Economics Section B – Indian Economic Development
2. This paper contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions type questions of 1 mark each.
3. This paper contains 4 Short Answer Questions type questions of 3 marks each to be answered in 60 to
80 words.
4. This paper contains 6 Short Answer Questions type questions of 4 marks each to be answered in 80 to
100 words.
5. This paper contains 4 Long Answer Questions type questions of 6 marks each to be answered in 100 to
150 words.

Section A – Introductory Macro Economics

1. The scenario which would lead to an increase in GDP, but might notnecessarily improve overall welfare?
(a) Reduction in income inequality
(b) Rapid growth of the financial sector
(c) Expansion of environmentally harmful industries
(d) Increased government investment in education and healthcare 1
2. The Image given blow is showing melting of candle. This will be measured ….

(a) at a point of time (b) over a period of time

(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) or (b) 1
3. Read the following statements-Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives given
below :
Assertion (A) : Market price is the difference between factor cost and net subsidies.
Reason (R) : Depreciation is added to net investment to convert into gross investment.
Alternatives :
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true
(d) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false 1

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4. Which of the following gives a correct definition of the term ‘near money’?
(a) Asset which has no store of value function.
(b) Asset which is a medium of exchange.
(c) Asset which has 100% liquidity.
(d) Asset which fulfils the store of value function and can be converted into a medium of exchange at a
short notice 1
5. Read the following statements carefully :
Statement 1 : Money Supply refers to stock of money held by public in spendable form.
Statement 2 : The stock of Gold held with RBI , and cash held by government in treasury and with
central bank are included in money supply.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following :
(a) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true (b) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are false (d) Both statements 1 and 2 are true 1
6. Match the options of Column I with their correct options in Column II.
Column I Column II
A. Corporation Tax (i) Capital Receipts
B. Special assessment (ii) Tax Revenue
C. Sale of share of Maruti by government (iii) Capital Expenditure
D. Purchase of land for constructing expressway (iv) Non –tax revenue
Codes A B C D
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 1
7. Read the following statements carefully :
Statement 1 : Recovery of loans, borrowing and disinvestment etc. are the examples of revenue receipts.
Statement 2 : The receipts which neither create any liability nor lead to any reduction in asset are called
revenue receipts.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct alternative from the following :
(a) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
(b) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are false
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are true 1
8. Two friends Mira and Sidhi were discussing the exchange rate systems.‘Under this system, the exchange
rates are determined by the market forces of demand and supply. However, deliberate effortsare made by
the competent authority to keep the exchange rates within a specific range’. The above-mentioned statement
was given by Sidhi. Identify the type of exchange rate system was she talking about?
(a) Floating Exchange Rate (b) Fixed Exchange Rate
(c) Managed Fixed Exchange Rate (d) Managed Floating Exchange Rate 1

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9. Choose the correct alternatives to be filled in given blanks A, B and C.

(a) A - Export of goods, B - Gifts, remittances and grants, C - Net non-factor income
(b) A - Gifts, remittances and grants, B - Export of goods, C - Net non-factor income
(c) A - Net non-factor income, B - Export of goods, C - Gifts, remittances and grants
(d) A - Export of goods, B - Net non-factor income, C - Gifts, remittances and grants 1
10. Complete the table given below :Export of GoodsImport of GoodsSurplus/ Deficit100 cr …………-200
cr. ………. 400 cr.
(a) 300 cr, 600 cr (b) 600 cr, 300 cr
(c) 600 cr, 400 cr (d) 400 cr , 600 cr 1
11. Distinguish between stock and Flow Variables. 3
12. Explain how government budget can be helpful in bringing economic stabilization (both inflationary and
deflationary conditions) in the economy. 3
13. Defend or Refute the following statements with valid argument :
1. ‘Machine purchased is always a Capital good.’
2. ‘ Milk purchased by a person is always a final good.’
3. ‘Subsidies to the producers, should be treated as transfer payments’.
4. ‘Domestic service (household services) performed by a women are not considered as an economic
activity. 4
14. Explain the implications of Fiscal deficit. 4
15. Explain the difference between Autonomous items and Accommodating items. 4
16. ‘Money Multiplier plays a vital role in determining the credit creation power of the banking system’.
Elaborate the statement with a suitable numerical example. 6
17. Calculate (a) Gross Domestic Product at market price
(b) Factor Income from abroad
Items Rs. (in crore)
(i) Gross National Product at factor cost 6,150

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(ii) Net Exports(-) 50

(iii) Compensation of Employees 3000
(iv) Rent 800
(v) Interest 900
(vi) Profit 1,300
(vii) Net Indirect Taxes 300
(viii) Net Domestic Capital Formation 800
(ix) Gross fixed capital formation 850
(x) change in stock 50
(xi) Dividend 300
(xii) Factor Income to abroad 80
OR
Calculate Net Domestic Product at Factor cost by Expenditure method and Income Method
Items Rs. (in crore)
(i) Value of output in Economic Territory 4,100
(ii) Net Imports (-) 50
(iii) Intermediate Purchase by Primary Sector 600
(iv) Private Final Consumption Expenditure 1,450
(v) Intermediate Purchase by Secondary Sector 700
(iv) Government Final consumption expenditure 400
(vii) Net Domestic Fixed Capital Formation 200
(viii) Intermediate Purchase by Tertiary Sector 700
(ix) Net change in stock (-) 50
(x) Net Indirect Taxes 100
(xi) Consumption of Fixed Capital 50
Part B- Indian Economic Development
18. During British Rule in India, Indian Agriculture output witnessed stagnation due to…….
(a) decline in handicraft (b) drain of Indian Wealth
(c) Land Settlement (d) Introduction of Railways 1
19. Read the following statements-Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives given
below :
Assertion (A) : India developed a sound industrial base during the colonial rule.
Reason (R) : The Industrial sector was crying for modernization , diversification , capacity building and
increased public investment.
Alternatives :
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion
(A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion
( A)
(c) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true
(d) Both Assertion ( A) and Reason ( R) are False 1
20. Arrange the following events in chronological order in context of Indian economy and choose the correct
alternative :
(i) Establishment of TISCO

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(ii) First Census data collected during British India

(iii) Opening of Suez Canal
(iv) Introduction of railways by the British
Alternatives :
(a) ii, iv, iii, i (b) iv, ii, iii, i
(c) iv, iii, ii, i (d) I, ii, iii, iv 1
21. During British rule, Island waterways proved to be uneconomical because :
(a) it was built on high cost (b) of competition from railways
(c) of easy access of airways (d) Both ( a) and ( b) 1
Read the following hypothetical text and answer the Question num. 22 to 25
The performance of Indian Economy during the period of first seven five year plan ( 1950-1990) was
satisfactory if not very impressive. On the eve of Independence, India was an industrially backward country,
but during this period of first seven plans, our industries became far more diversified , with the stress
being laid on the public investments in the industrial sector.
The policy of import substitution led to protection of the domestic industries against the foreign producers
but we failed to promote a strong export surplus. Although public sector expanded to a large extent but it
could not bring desired level of improvement in the secondary sector.
Excessive government regulations prevented the natural trajectory of growth entrepreneurship as there
was no competition , no innovation and no modernization on the front of the industrial sector. Many
public sector undertakings (PSU’s) incurred huge losses due to operational inefficiencies, red-tapism ,
poor technology and other similar reasons.
These PSUs continued to function because it was difficult to close a government undertaking even it is a
drain on country’s limited resources.
On the agricultural front, due to the measures taken under the green revolution , substantial rise in output
has started generating marketable surplus and India more or less became self sufficient in the production
of food grains. So the needs for reform of economic policy was widely felt in the context of changing
global economic scenario to achieve desired growth in the country.
22. Which of the following was not a reason for the public sector to play a major in the initial phase of Indian
Economic Planning?
(choose the correct alternative)
(a) Private entrepreneurs lacked sufficient capital for investment.
(b) Government aimed at social welfare.
(c) The market was big enough to encourage private industrialists for investment.
(d) The government wanted to protect the indigenous producers from the foreign competition 1
23. Inward looking trade strategy aimed at …………
(a) Social Welfare (b) promoting agricultural production
(c) increasing exports (d) protecting domestic Industries 1
24. Green Revolution leads to marketable surplus. what does it refers to?
(a) Production of crops for self consumption.
(b) Production of crops for selling in the market.
(c) Production of crops for maintaining sufficient stock.
(d) All of the above 1
25. Read the following statements-Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct alternatives given
below :

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Assertion (A) : Many public sector undertakings incurred huge losses due to operational inefficiencies.
Reason (R) : Red- tapism was one of the reasons for continuation of such enterprises.
Alternatives :
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are False
(c) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true
(d) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false 1
26. Read the following statements carefully :
Statement 1 : the demonetization of currency was undertaken by Indian government on 8 th November
2016.
Statement 2 : demonetization has increased the popularity of e- wallets in India.In the light of the given
statements, choose the correct alternative from the following :
(a) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
(b) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are false
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are true 1
27. GST is applicable on ……….. of a good.
(a) Demand (b) Supply
(c) Production (d) All of these 1
28. Explain any positive contributions made by the British in India. 3
29. What measures have been taken for Globalization of Indian Economy? 3
30. The traditional handicrafts industries were ruined under the British rule. Give reasons in support of your
answer. 4
31. Explain the following Planning Objectives for Indian Economy :
(i) Equity (ii) Self Reliance 2+2
32. Discuss the major steps taken by the Government of India on ‘Financial sector , front under the economic
reforms of 1991. 4
33. What is green Revolution ? how did it benefit the farmers? 6
34. Industrial sector was badly affected during reform period. Substantiate the statement.
Or
Agriculture sector appears to be adversely affected by the reform process. Why? 6

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APEEJAY SCHOOL, MAHAVIR MARG, JALANDHAR

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION, 2024-25
SUBJECT : ENGLISH
CLASS : XII
Time : 3 hrs. M.M. : 80
SECTION-A
READING SKILLS (22 MARKS)
1. Read the following text. (12)
Apollo, the Greek god of music and healing, always maintained that he was the greatest musician in the
world, until Marsyas, who was part animal and part human, played the flute. Apollo’s jealousy and insecurity
drove him to eventually slay Marsyas so that his status as the greatest musician remained unchallenged.
One’s usual imagination of a god is a being who is all-knowing and pure in every intention. What makes
the Greek gods interesting is that they are shown as flawed beings who do not always act like ‘Gods’.
In appearance, the gods resemble mortals, whom, however, they far surpass in beauty, grandeur, and
strength; they are also more commanding in stature, height being considered by the Greeks an attractive
feature in men or women. They resemble human beings in their feelings and habits, marrying and having
children with them. They require daily nourishment to maintain their strength, and sleep to restore their
energy. Their blood, a bright magical fluid called Ichor, never causes disease, and, when shed, produces
new life.
The Greeks believed that the mental qualifications of their gods were much higher than those of men, but,
nevertheless, displayed human passions like revenge, deceit, and jealousy. In mythological tales, the gods
always punish the evil-doer and administer dire punishments to any mortal who dares to neglect their
worship. They often visit mankind and partake of their hospitality, and in many tales, both gods and
goddesses become attached to mortals. Although there were so many points of resemblance between gods
and men, there remained the one great characteristic distinction : immortality. Still, the gods were not
invulnerable, and were often wounded and suffered so much that they’d pray for death. The gods could
transport themselves to incredible distances with the speed of thought.
They could be invisible at will, and could take the forms of men or animals as it suited their convenience.
They could also transform human beings into trees, stones, or animals. Their robes were like those worn
by mortals, but were perfect in form and much finer in texture. Their weapons also resembled those used
by mankind. They often used spears, shields, helmets, bows and arrows. Most of these divinities lived on
the summit of Mount Olympus, each having his or her own palace. Magnificent temples were erected to
their honour, rich gifts were presented to them, and living creatures were sacrificed on their altars.
In Greek mythology, the gods take every opportunity to reveal and establish their divinity but also fall
prey to human impulses. Perhaps the Greeks did so to help generations of readers reflect on important life
lessons to avoid tragic downfalls. –E. M. Berens
Answer the following questions based on the passage above.
i. ‘... they are shown as flawed beings who do not always act like ‘Gods’. (paragraph 1)
Which of these are examples of the above statement?
I. Gods getting attached and falling in love
II. Gods punishing mortals for their wrongdoing
III. Gods showing kindness and compassion to all
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IV. Gods deceiving everyone for their personal gain

V. Gods killing a mortal out of jealousy and insecurity
Select the correct option.
A. Only I and III B. Only II and V
C. Only I, IV, and V D. Only II, IV, and V
ii. Which of these would Apollo most likely say about Marsyas’ musical ability?
A. ‘Why does everyone think he plays music well? It is obvious that he doesn’t have talent.’
B. ‘Why is he challenging me like that? I wonder what is troubling him that I can heal.’
C. ‘How can an animal play the flute? Such creatures must know their place.’
D. ‘How dare he play better than me? I am supposed to be the best in the world.’
iii. Why does the author begin the passage with a description of Apollo?
A. to show that the Greek Gods have immense power and influence over the mortals
B. to emphasise the point that the Greek Gods are based in interesting stories
C. to highlight the point that the Greek Gods are more human-like in nature
D. to state that the Greek Gods are also allowed to make mistakes
iv. What is ironic about Apollo being the one who slays Marsyas? Answer in about 40 words. 2
v. Based on your reading of paragraph 3, explain what ‘invulnerable’ means. Answer in one sentence.
vi. In 40 words, state any two ways that the Greek gods are superior to human beings. 2
vii. Complete the given sentence with ONE word.
From the fact that the Greek gods punish any mortal who neglects their worship, we can infer that
they are _____________.
viii. Imagine that someone was born from Ichor. In which of these situations would the Ichor be
most useful?
A. a natural disaster that causes the earth to split apart
B. a pandemic that has been caused by a contagious virus
C. a war that requires transforming into another form quickly
D. a competitive entrance exam that is very tough to qualify for
ix. What does the author mean by ‘tragic downfalls’ in paragraph 5? Give an example of a tragic
downfall in current times in about 40 words. 2
2. Read the following text and answer the questions that follow :
ChatGPT has been gaining attention for how closely it mimics human-like responses. Created by OpenAI
in 2022, it is a chatbot that has been trained to have knowledge of worldly events and phenomena up till
September 2021 and to interpret the context of texts to produce meaningful responses. The tool can provide
answers on many topics, and often states disclaimers if it cannot answer a prompt accurately. Unlike a
search engine, it cannot browse the internet for information. It also does not collect any personal information
of users.
A survey was administered to understand the uses of ChatGPT in the fields of education, healthcare and
research. There were 420 participants in the study of which 59 respondents were from the medical field,
118 respondents were students and faculty from the research field, 70 respondents identified as administrative
staff, and 173 people marked ‘other’ as their occupation. Of the 420 respondents, only 40% had used
ChatGPT before. More medical trainees and students as well as research students had used ChatGPT as
compared to medical staff and research faculty.
The survey asked about the viability of ChatGPT for its use within the fields of education, research, and
healthcare. The following table summarises the responses.

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Question Statement Number of

responds

Should No, it should be banned. 11

ChatGPT be I don’t know; it is too early to make a 226
used in statement.
Education? Yes, it should be actively incorporated. 183
Should No, it should not be used at all. 6
ChatGPT be I don’t know; it is too early to make a statement. 75
used in Yes,but it should only be used to brainstorm. 68
Research? Yes, as long as its use is transparently disclosed. 259
Yes, disclosure is NOT needed. 10
Should No, it should not be used at all. 15
ChatGPT be I don’t know; it is too early to make a statement. 177
used in Yes, it can be used for administrative purposes. 176
Healtchare? Yes, it can be used for any purpose. 51

Based on the responses, there was a greater uncertainty around its use in healthcare and education, compared
to using it in research. Regarding the use of ChatGPT in healthcare, a significant portion of respondents
(42%) approved of using it for administrative purposes (for example, preparing patient profiles or reports)
and a smaller population of respondents (12.2%) felt it could be used for any purpose.
The current application of ChatGPT and its future potential needs to be examined. It can help students
understand texts and write more effectively, simplify medical information for patients and automate
administrative tasks, and prepare a summary of information which otherwise would require hours of reading
through various resources. However, its negative impact must also be considered before institutions approve
its use Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. Complete the given sentence in ONE word.
Based on the summary table, the __________ number of respondents think that ChatGPT should not be
used. (1)
ii. The following was a prompt posted by a user in ChatGPT as their first question (1)
‘What’s my name?’
Based on information from the passage, which of these is most likely to be ChatGPT’s response?
A. ‘Error 404 : page not found.’ B. ‘Your name is user 1000004.’
C. ‘Sorry, can you repeat the question?’ D. ‘Sorry, I don’t have access to your data.
iii. Imagine that you have to write a news report on a major landslide that occurred in Manipur
on 30 June, 2022. Would using only ChatGPT be useful for your project? State why or why
not in 40 words.(2)
iv. The following are the profiles of some respondents from the survey. Based on the passage,
which of these profiles is MOST LIKELY to be a part of the 40% who have used ChatGPT
before? (1)
A. a manager in a hospital who has done 5 years of administrative work
B. a professor of Psychology who has 30 years of teaching experience
C. a college graduate who is studying in a 2-year Master’s course
D. a 25-year-old teacher who is working in a public school
v. Which of these is true about the respondents of the survey? (1)
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A. It had 118 respondents who were employed in the field of education.

B. It had 70 respondents who had administrative roles in educational institutions.
C. It had 173 respondents who were working in the field of research including students.
D. It had 59 respondents who were from the medical field including those who study medicine
vi. Why do you think some respondents feel that ChatGPT should be banned in education? State
a reason in 40 words. (2)
vii. Locate a detail from the passage that shows that we still do not know enough about ChatGPT.
Answer in one sentence. (1)
viii. State TRUE or FALSE.
More than half of the respondents think it is ok to use ChatGPT in research if one clearly states its
contribution.(1)
Section : B Writing Skills
3. Attempt ANY ONE of two in about 50 words. 4 MARKS
A. Maruti Public School will be conducting an online course on news reading during the summer vacations
for students of Class XI and XII. In this course, students will learn to understand news reports, build the
habit of reading the news regularly, and will have a chance to interact with well-known journalists. As
Ritwik Sen, Editor of the school magazine, draft a notice in about 50 words for the school notice board,
urging students to sign up. Mention any other relevant details required for the notice.
OR
B. You are Mr. Afsal Ansari, the RWA Secretary of your residential society. While on your evening walk in
the neighbourhood park, you found a small faux-leather bag containing a few documents and some cash.
You write a notice in about 50 words to be put up on the RWA(Resident Welfare Association Notice
Board), asking the owner to identify and collect it from you. Write this notice, with the necessary details.
4. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below.5 MARKS
A. Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) refers to a group of developmental disabilities that can affect a person’s
ability to communicate and interact socially. It is reported that every 1 in 100 children below 10 years has
autism in India. You are Thara George, a speech therapist experienced in treating children with special
needs. From your experience, you feel that Indian parents in general tend to keep such children away
from the normal social structure and are hesitant to get the needed professional help. Write a letter to the
editor of a national daily in about 120-150 words, helping the parents to understand strengths of autistic
children and encouraging them to help the children reach their full potential by seeking speech therapy.
Use the given cues along with your own ideas to compose this letter.

B. You are Thara George, an experienced speech therapist working in a reputed private hospital in Ernakulam,
Kerala. You saw the given advertisement in the newspaper and wish to apply for the position advertised.
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Write a letter to PK Neurosciences Research Institute Pvt Ltd along with your bio-data, expressing your
interest in the position vacant.
5. With the rise of social media platforms and the ease with which information can be shared online, false
information can have dire consequences. Write an article for the local daily, in 120-150 words, highlighting
the problem of the growing menace of fake news and misinformation, analysing the issue and provide
suggestions to tackle it. You are Kavita Bannerji, from Siliguri, West Bengal. Use the given cues, along
with your own ideas to create the article. 5 Marks
Section C Literature
6. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two given
What I want should not be
confused
with total inactivity.
Life is what it is about;
I want no truck with death.
If we were not so single-minded
about keeping our lives moving,
and for once could do nothing,
perhaps a huge silence
might interrupt this sadness
of never understanding ourselves
and of threatening ourselves with death.
(Keeping Quiet)
i. Which of these does the speaker imply through the following lines :
Life is what it is about;
I want no truck with death.
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A. Life is meant to be lived and death should not be the focus here.
B. Life is meant to teach us lessons and near-death experiences are not always bad.
C. Life is full of adventures and the fear of death should not stop us from exploring them all.
D. Life is full of many choices and thoughts about death should not be a point of consideration.
ii. Complete the given sentence appropriately.
Based on the extract, silence would help humanity to ____________. 1
iii. What does the speaker mean when he describes people as ‘single-minded’?
A. People who only work towards understanding themselves.
B. People who are driven by only one passion in their life.
C. People who only focus on rushing through their life.
D. People who can focus on only one task at a time.
iv. Justify the following statement as FALSE.
In the given extract, the speaker is ordering readers to do certain actions.
v. Based on the extract, how do you think the speaker feels about humanity? Answer in one
sentence.vi.When can a huge silence do us good?
OR
B. ‘Gainst the hot season; the mid forest brake,
Rich with a sprinkling of fair musk-rose blooms;
And such too is the grandeur of the dooms
We have imagined for the mighty dead;
All lovely tales that we have heard or read;
An endless fountain of immortal drink,
Pouring unto us from the heaven’s brink.
i. Based on the extract, complete the following analogy :
have heard : alliteration : : ................................ : oxymoron
ii. Which of these best indicates the phrase ‘mid forest brake’?
A. hidden pond B. mass of shrubs
C. canopy of trees D. sparkling stream
iii. According to the extract, which of these bring joy to human life?
(i) shady trees (ii) delightful drinks
(iii) fragrant flowers (iv) changing seasons
(v) enchanting stories
A. (i) and (iii) B. (iii) and (v)
C. (i), (iv) and (v) D. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
iv. Complete the given sentence appropriately.
When the poet mentions ‘an endless fountain of immortal drink’, he refers to________
v. Based on the extract, choose the correct option with reference to the two statements given below.
(1) Beautiful things are blessings from the divine.
(2) Beauty is an outcome of imagination.
A. Only (1) can be inferred from the extract.
B. Only (2) can be inferred from the extract.
C. Both (1) and (2) can be inferred from the extract.
D. Neither (1) nor (2) can be inferred from the extract.
vi. Which of these best describes the tone of the poet in the given extract?

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A. nostalgic B. generous
C. passionate D. contemplative
7. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, given. 4
A. Yes, I’ve taken the obvious step : I talked to a psychiatrist friend of mine, among others. I told him about
the third level at the Grand Central Station, and he said it was a waking dream wish fulfilment. He said I
was unhappy. That made my wife kind of mad.
i. Complete the following with reference to Charley’s decision to talk to a psychiatrist.
The usage of the word “obvious” in obvious step suggests that__________ .
ii. How can we say the psychiatrist’s diagnosis of Charley’s encounter as a “waking dream wish fulfilment”
was insightful, in understanding the complexity of Charley’s experience?
iii. Complete the following with an appropriate option.
If Charley’s wife’s reaction implies a sensitivity to the suggestion of marital unhappiness, then, her
becoming “kind of mad” can be viewed as a .
A. defensive stance B. protective measure
C. expression of concern D. assertion of privacy
iv. Which textual clue suggests that Charley didn’t just consult his psychiatrist friend?
OR
B. A You lose all earthly sense of perspective and time here. The visual scale ranges from the microscopic to
the mighty : midges and mites to blue whales and icebergs as big as countries (the largest recorded was
the size of Belgium). Days go on and on and on in surreal 24-hour austral summer light, and a ubiquitous
silence, interrupted only by the occasional avalanche or calving ice sheet, consecrates the place. It’s an
immersion that will force you to place yourself in the context of the earth’s geological history. And for
humans, the prognosis isn’t good.
i. The ‘visual scale’ refers to
(a) a measuring device (b) range of things one can see
(c) visionary’s belief (d) the magnitude of preparation
ii. Four people give a reason for the author’s feeling while travelling.
Choose the option that correctly summarizes it based on your understanding of the extract.

(a) Person 1 (b) Person 2

(c) Person 3 (d) Person 4
iii. Select the option that correctly fits the category of ‘microscopic to the mighty’ out of the ones given
below.
1. trace of a skin cell : trace of a bird’s egg
2. a grain of rice : field of wheat
3. a scoop of ice cream : an ice-cream cone

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4. a drop of water : Pacific Ocean

(a) 1, 2 (b) 3, 4
(c) 1, 3 (d) 2, 4
iv. Choose the option listing the elements that influences one to think of earth’s physicality.
1. breakage of an iceberg from a glacier
2. midges and mites
3. a regular seen avalanche
4. summer light in the Southern hemisphere
(a) 1, 2 (b) 3, 4
(c) 1, 4 (d) 2, 3
8. Attempt ANY ONE of the two extracts given.
The Champaran episode was a turning-point in Gandhi’s life. ‘‘What I did,” he explained, “was a very
ordinary thing. I declared that the British could not order me about in my own country.” But Champaran
did not begin as an act of defiance. It grew out of an attempt to alleviate the distress of large numbers of
poor peasants. This was the typical Gandhi pattern — his politics were intertwined with the practical,
day-to-day problems of the millions. His was not a loyalty to abstractions; it was a loyalty to living,
human beings. In everything Gandhi did, moreover, he tried to mould a new free Indian who could stand
on his own feet...
i. In the extract, the phrase ‘loyalty to abstractions’ refers to a strong commitment to __________.
A. selected groups B. simple pleasures
C. certain ideologies D. governmental authorities
ii. Select a suitable word from the extract to complete the following analogy :
change : transform : : relieve : __________.
iii. Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
The primary motive of Gandhi’s actions was to _________.
A. make Indians self-reliant B. eradicate peasant poverty
C. unite the people of Champaran D. expose the incompetence of the British
iv. Which of these best describes the primary purpose of the extract?
A. It highlights Gandhi’s intention to use peasants to overthrow colonial power.
B. It points out why the Champaran episode is still relevant in free modern India.
C. It explains the differences between the political strategies of Gandhi and the British.
D. It shows how Gandhi’s position in the Champaran struggle reflected his political views.
v. Identify the textual clue that allows the reader to infer Gandhi’s view of his own accomplishments
(clue : a word).
vi. Complete the sentence with an appropriate explanation, as per the extract.
OR.
B. His success in films overshadowed and dwarfed his literary achievements-or so his critics felt. He composed
several truly original ‘story poems’ in folk refrain and diction and also wrote a sprawling novel Thillana
Mohanambal with dozens of very deftly etched characters. He quite successfully recreated the mood and
manner of the Devadasis of the early 20th century. He was an amazing actor-he never aspired to the lead
roles-but whatever subsidiary role he played in any of the films, he performed better than the supposed
main players. He had a genuine love for anyone he came across and his house was a permanent residence
for dozens of near and far relations and acquaintances.
i. Which of these statements is NOT TRUE about Subbu?

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(a) His literary accomplishments stole the limelight from his films.
(b) He was a gifted poet and writer and his literary works were noteworthy.
(c) He was selfless in nature and was empathetic towards others.
(d) He never hankered after lead roles and performed minor roles in films.
ii. The word ‘sprawling’ has been used with the word ‘novel’. Pick the option with which the word
‘sprawling’ CANNOT be used.
(a) metropolis (b) handwriting
(c) campus (d) portrait
iii. The phrase ‘deftly etched’ shows that Subbu
(a) created the roles delicately.
(b) was skilful in creating the characters.
(c) pondered beyond necessity about the characters.
(d) gave very little thought to the characters.
iv. Pick the option that best describes Subbu according to the extract.
1. benevolent 2. powerful
3. accomplished 4. witty
5. generous 6. temperamental
(a) 4, 5 & 6 (b) 2, 3 & 4
(c) 1,3 & 5 (d) 3 ,4 & 6
v. Complete the analogy
Acclaimed films :Lesser-known literary works Lead roles :____________
vi What was a notable characteristic of the individual’s home?
(A) It was frequently rented out.
(B) It served as a residence for many relations and acquaintances.
(C) It was decorated with movie memorabilia.
(D) It was located in a remote area.
9. Answer ANY FIVE of the following in about 40-50 words each. (5×2=10)
i. ‘A smile does not always indicate happiness.’
Does My Mother at Sixty-Six reflect this statement? Justify your response with an example from
the poem.
ii. What does the description of Mukesh’s family in Lost Spring reveal about gender roles?
iii. What does Asokamitran’s narrative in Poets and Pancakes demonstrate about Subbu?
iv. ‘It is only when we are fearless that we begin to create.’
Does this statement hold true in the case of the poem, Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers? Support your stance
with evidence from the text.
v. In Deep Water, which qualities of the swimming instructor played a role in helping Douglas overcome
his fear?
vi. State any two characteristics that can be inferred about the people from the countryside in The
Roadside Stand.
10. Answer ANY TWO of the following three question, in about 40-50 words. (2×3=6)
(i) How would a student’s learning experience be enhanced in the ‘Students on Ice’ programme as
compared to studying only in a classroom? Analyse any one point. (Journey to the End of the Earth)
(ii) ‘It’s easy to judge others and give advice, but much more difficult to apply it to ourselves.’ Elaborate
with reference to the character of Sam in The Third Level.

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(iii) It is easier to measure and study the effects of climate change in Anatarctica. Explain with an example
from ‘Journey to the end of the Earth’.
11. Answer ANY ONE of the following in about 120-150 words. 1×6=6
i. The prose selections, Deep Water and Indigo, bring out the importance of overcoming fear, in order
to be able to lead our lives successfully. Imagine yourself to be a motivational speaker who has to
address high school students. Write this address in 120 – 150 words elaborating on occurrences
from the two texts to inspire your audience and to convince them about the importance of overcoming
fear.
You may begin like this …
Good morning, students!
We all know what it’s like to be afraid. Fear is our body’s natural response to a perceived threat or
danger. But when …
OR
(ii) Imagine that Mahatma Gandhi from the text ‘Indigo’ visits Mukesh’s town Firozabad as described
in ‘Lost Spring’. Gandhi sees how the poor bangle-makers are caught up in ‘a vicious circle of the
sahukars, the middlemen, the policemen, the keepers of law, the bureaucrats and the politicians.’
True to his nature of being an activist and a social reformist, he decides to do something about it
over a month.
As Mukesh, write a diary entry on the last day of Gandhi’s one-month stay, elaborating on any two things
that he did that transformed the people’s lives in Firozabad.
You may begin this way :
Day,Date Time
Today marks a month of Mahatma Gandhi being in our town...
12. Answer ANY ONE of the following in about 120-150 words. 1×6=6
(i) Read the paragraph and answer the question.
“He said I was unhappy. That made my wife kind of mad, but he explained that he meant the modern
world is full of insecurity, fear, war, worry and all the rest of it, and that I just want to escape. Well,
who doesn’t? Everybody I know wants to escape, but they don’t wander down into any third level at
Grand Central Station.”
Do you think “The Third level” was a story Charley made up to escape reality? Provide two pieces of
evidence from the story to support your opinion.
(ii) If we want to study and examine the Earth’s past,present and future ,Antarctica is the place to go
to. Comment.

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APEEJAY SCHOOL, MAHAVIR MARG, JALANDHAR

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION, 2024-25
SUBJECT : FASHION STUDIES
CLASS : XII
Time : 3 hrs. M.M. : 60

GENERAL INSTRUCTION
 Please check that this question paper contains 41 questions
 Section A has objective types of question and Section B contains Subjective type questions.
 Please attempt the paper neatly.

SECTION –A
1. The most creative skills in effective communication is---- ___________. 1
2. Define communication? 1
3. What do you understand by the term border line? 1
4. What is self motivation? 1
5. What is personality? 1
6. Write any two importance of self- motivation? 1
7. Name the designer who designed costume for the movie black? 1
8. Define Haute Couture? 1
9. Name any two factors affecting clothing? 1
10. Indian draped upper garment is known as? 1
11. Name any two styles of skirts? 1
12. What do you understand by the term Toga? 1
13. Name any two types of frills or ruffles? 1
14. ____________ is the oldest fashion capital. 1
15. What do you understand by the term boutique? 1
16. Studs were first used by denim brand? 1
17. What do you understand by the term tuxedo? 1
18. What is the full form of FDCI? 1
19. What is Ushnisha? 1
20. What is a fibula? 1
21. A suit with an added waistcoat is known as? 1
22. What do you understand by the term costume? 1
23. Britain fashion is famous for? 1
24. Define the term ritualistic? 1
25. Name two categories of men wear clothing? 1
26. What is a scarification? 1
27. What is Kaunakes? 1
28. Define the term Sheath costume? 1
29. What is heat transfer prints? 1
30. Name two types of prints used in children wear? 1

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SECTION–B
31. Write a note on London as a Fashion capital of the world? 2
32. What do you by Hawaiian shirt? 2
33. Write a short note on Sumerian costume? 2
34. Name any two famous Indian designers? 2
35. What is body Tattoing? Why was it done? 2
36. Name any two fashion capitals of the world? 2
37. Explain the clothing of the newborn? 3
38. Write a short on Indian Fashion at 1960s? ORWrite a short note on Greek costume? 3
39. Explain any four types of trims? 4
40. Describe the draped costumes used in Ancient India? 4
41. Write the steps of Active Listening? ORWrite a short note on identification ? 4

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APEEJAY SCHOOL, MAHAVIR MARG, JALANDHAR

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION, 2024-25
SUBJECT : HISTORY
CLASS : XII
Time : 3 hrs. M.M. : 80

General Instructions :
(i) This question paper contains 34 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) This question paper is divided into 5 sections- A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) In Section A, Questions 1 to 21 are Multiple Choice (MCQ) type questions, carrying 1 mark each.
(iv) In Section B, Questions 22 to 27 are Short Answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answers to
these questions should not exceed 60-80 words.
(v) In Section C, Questions 28 to 30 are Long Answer type questions, carrying 8 marks each. Answers to
these questions should not exceed 300-350 words.
(vi) In Section D, Questions 31 to 33 are Source-based questions with 3 sub-questions of 4 marks each.
(vii) In Section E, Question no. 34 is a Map-based question, carrying 5 marks and includes the marking of
significant test items.

SECTION-A
(Multiple Choice Questions) 21x1=21
1. Traces of Canals have been found at ______________.
(a) Kalibangan (b) Harappa
(c) Ropar (d) Shortughai
2. Our knowledge of the Indus valley civilization is mainly due to _____________.
(a) Inscriptions (b) Coins
(c) Manuscripts (d) Archaeological excavations
3. Which of the following artefacts of Harappan civilization was mainly used for long distance communication?
(a) Shells (b) Stone
(c) Seals (d) Steatite
4. Arrange the following dynasties in a chronological order.
(I) Nandas (II) Shungas
(III) Mauryas ( IV) Guptas
Options :
(a) IV, II, III, I (b) II, I, IV, III
(c) I, III, II, IV (d) III, I, IV, II
5. Who among the following rulers issued spectacular gold coins in ancient India?
(a) Mauryas (b) Yaudheyas
(c) Guptas (d) Kushanas
6. Sangam literature was written in ______________.
(a) Tamil (b) Kannada
(c) Telugu (d) Malayalam
7. Which of the following statements regarding Jatis is incorrect?
(a) Jati like Varna was based on birth.
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(b) The number of Jatis was fixed at 8.

(c) Occupational categories which did not fit into the four-fold Varna system were classified as a Jati.
(d) Jatis which shared a common occupation were organized into Shrenis.
8. Who among the following rulers rebuilt Sudarshan Lake?
(a) Chandragupta (b) Rudradaman
(c) Samudragupta (d) Vikramaditya
9. Which of the following archaeologists excavated Hastinapura?
(a) B.B Lal (b) S.N Roy
(c) John Marshall (d) R.E.M Wheeler
10. Identify the text with the help of the following information.
 It is one of the best known legal texts of early India.
 Written in Sanskrit.
 Compiled between 2nd century BCE and 2nd century CE.
Options :
(a) Dharamshastra (b) Upanishads
(c) Mahabharata (d) Manusmriti
11. Who among the following rulers worked on the preservation of Sanchi Stupa?
(a) Ruksar Begum (b) Jahanara Begum
(c) Roshnara Begum (d) Shahjahan Begum
12. Name the text written by Al-Biruni?
(a) Rihla (b) Travels in the Mughal Empire
(c) Kitab-ul-Hind (d) Das Capital
13. Which of the following statements regarding Ibn-Battuta is not true?
(a) He was a Moroccan born in Tangier.
(b) He gained knowledge due to his study of the Sharia.
(c) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq appointed him as the Qazi of Delhi.
(d) He travelled extensively in China.
14. Identify the British official with the help of the following information and select the correct option.
 He was a physician, came to India between 1794 and 1815.
 He served in the Bengal Medical Services.
 He served as a Surgeon to Lord Wellesley.
 He organized ‘Calcutta Alipore Zoo’.
Options :
(a) Marco Polo (b) Francis Buchanan
(c) Francois Bernier (d) Colon Meckenzie
15. Ibn-Battuta was amazed by the efficiency of which of the following?
(a) Spy system (b) Postal system
(c) Revenue system (d) Caste system
16. Who among the following theorists was influenced by Bernier’s writings?
(a) Ibn-Battuta (b) Karl Marx
(c) Duarte Barbosa (d) Montesquieu
17. What was Ziyarat in the language of the Sufis?
(a) Pilgrimage to the tombs of the Sufi saints for seeking Barkat.
(b) Reciting divine name
(c) Offering free kitchen
(d) Setting up of charitable trusts
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18. Which of the following are the principles of the Bhakti movement of the 16 th century?
(i) True devotion is the means of attaining God. (ii) Humans’ equality before God.
(iii) Respect for humankind. (iv) Meaningful rituals.
(CODES :
(a) (i), (ii) (b) (ii), (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
19. Which of the following statements about the teaching of Kabir is not correct?
(a) He was not against pilgrimage and idol worship.
(b) He believed in universal love.
(c) He emphasized one God and the spread of Devotionalism.
(d) He did not consider it necessary to abandon the normal life of a householder.
20. Which of the following statements regarding Mirabai is incorrect?
(a) She was a Rajput princess from Merta.
(b) Her in-laws tried to poison her.
(c) Her Guru was Ramadeva.
(d) She lived her life as a wandering saint.
21. Assertion (A) : Lingayats did not practise funerary rights such as cremation, prescribe in the Dharamshastras.
Reason (R) : They believed that on death, the devotee will be united with Shiva and will not return to this
world.
CODES :
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
SECTION-B
(Short Answer Type Questions) 6x3=18
22. How have historians provided new insight into subsistence strategies of the Harappan culture? (3)
23. th
“From the 6 century BCE, land and riverine routes criss-crossed the Indian subcontinent.” Substantiate
the statement in the context of trade. (3)
24. State three examples of social groups who were viewed with suspicion by the Brahmans. (3)
25. State three differences between Buddhism and Jainism. (3)
26. Sate the inherent problems faced by Al-Biruni in the task of understanding Indian social and Brahmanical
practices. (3)
27. Who were Alwars and Nayanaras? Mention the support they got from the Chola rulers. (1+2=3)
SECTION-C
(Long Answer Type Questions) 3x8=24
28 Describe the town planning of Harappa.
OR
Describe the contributions of various archaeologists from 1875 to 1950 in discovering the Harappan
civilisation. (8)
29. What were the different explanations offered by the early writers and historians for the growth of Magadha
as a powerful Mahajanapada? Explain. (8)
30. Explain the structural and the sculptural features of the Sanchi Stupa. (8)
SECTION-D
(Source-Based Questions) 3X4=12
31. Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions based on it.
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“Proper” social roles

Here is a story from the Adi Parvan of the Mahabharata : Once Drona, a Brahmana who taught archery
to the Kuru princes, was approached by Ekalavya, a forestdwelling nishada (a hunting community). When
Drona, who knew the dharma, refused to have him as his pupil, Ekalavya returned to the forest, prepared
an image of Drona out of clay, and treating it as his teacher, began to practise on his own. In due course,
he acquired great skill in archery. One day, the Kuru princes went hunting and their dog, wandering in the
woods, came upon Ekalavya. When the dog smelt the dark nishada wrapped in black deer skin, his body
caked with dirt, it began to bark. Annoyed, Ekalavya shot seven arrows into its mouth. When the dog
returned to the Pandavas, they were amazed at this superb display of archery. They tracked down Ekalavya,
who introduced himself as a pupil of Drona.
Drona had once told his favourite student Arjuna, that he would be unrivalled amongst his pupils. Arjuna
now reminded Drona about this. Drona approached Ekalavya, who immediately acknowledged and honoured
him as his teacher. When Drona demanded his right thumb as his fee, Ekalavya unhesitatingly cut it off
and offered it. But thereafter, when he shot with his remaining fingers, he was no longer as fast as he had
been before. Thus, Drona kept his word : no one was better than Arjuna.
31.1 Who taught archery to the Kuru princes? (1)
31.2 Why did Dronacharya refuse to teach Eklavya? (1)
31.3 What Gurudakshina did he demand and why? (1+1=2)
32. Read the given extract and answer the questions that follow.
The poor peasant
An excerpt from Bernier’s description of the peasantry in the countryside : Of the vast tracts of country
constituting the empire of Hindustan, many are little more than sand, or barren mountains, badly cultivated,
and thinly populated. Even a considerable portion of the good land remains untilled for want of labourers;
many of whom perish in consequence of the bad treatment t they experience from Governors. The poor
people, when they become incapable of discharging the demands of their rapacious lords, are not only
often deprived of the means of subsistence, but are also made to lose their children, who are carried away
as slaves. Thus, it happens that the peasantry, driven to despair by so excessive a tyranny, abandon the
country.
In this instance, Bernier was participating in contemporary debates in Europe concerning the nature of
state and society, and intended that his description of Mughal India would serve as a warning to those
who did not recognise the “merits” of private property.
32.1 Name the book written by Francois Bernier on the critical insight and reflection on the Empire of
Hindustan. (1)
32.2 What description has Bernier given on the condition of the Indian peasantry during the Mughal
Empire? (1)
32.3 Which fundamental differences did he find between the Mughal India and Europe during the 16 th
and 17th century? (2)
33. Read the given extract and answer the questions that follow.
The One Lord
Here is a composition attributed to Kabir :
Tell me, brother, how can there be
No one lord of the world but two?
Who led you so astray?
God is called by many names :
Names like Allah, Ram, Karim, Keshav, Hari, and Hazrat.
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Gold may be shaped into rings and bangles.

Isn’t it gold all the same?
Distinctions are only words we invent …
Kabir says they are both mistaken.
Neither can find the only Ram. One kills the goat, the other cows.
They waste their lives in disputation.
33.1 How has Kabir laid emphasis on the attainment of oneness with the divine? (1)
33.2 How do you think people waste their lives in disputation? (1)
33.3 How has the lyrical beauty of his poem made him a figure of inter-religious harmony? Explain. (2)
SECTION-E
(Map-Based Question) (5x1=5)
34. Mark the following on the political map of India.
(a) The Port settlement of the Harappan civilisation.
(b) The place where Buddha attained enlightenment.
(c) The place associated with Cave paintings depicting stories from the Jatakas.
(d) Ajmer.
(e) Thanjavur.

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APEEJAY SCHOOL, MAHAVIR MARG, JALANDHAR

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION, 2024-25
SUBJECT : ACCOUNTANCY
CLASS : XII
Time : 3 hrs. M.M. : 80
1. Give the average period, in months, for charging interest on drawings of a fixed amount withdrawn at the
beginning of each quarter. (1)
2. Give the accounting entry for unrecorded assets in case of reconstitution of a partnership firm. (1)
3. State one purpose of admitting a new partner in a firm. (1)
4. Write the accounting entry of goodwill, when new partner cannot bring his share of goodwill in cash. (1)
5. Name the account which is opened to credit the share of profit of the deceased partner, till the time of his
death to his capital account. (1)
6. At which rate is interest payable on the amount remaining unpaid to the executor of deceased partner? (1)
7. Under what circumstances premium for goodwill paid by the incoming partner is not recorded in the
books of accounts (1)
8. Assertion (A) : Goodwill is an intangible asset.
Reason (R) : Goodwill is the value of reputation of a firm in respect of profits expected in future, over
and above the normal profits.
Select the correct answer from the following :
(a) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is wrong.
(b) Assertion (A) is wrong, but Reason (R) is correct.
(c) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct.
(d) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are wrong. (1)
9. Assertion (A) : General Reserve is not distributed among the old partners but is carried forward in the
Balance Sheet prepared after admission of a partner.
Reason (R) : General Reserve is not set aside out of past profits and therefore, it is not distributed among
old partners.
Select the correct answer from the following :
(a) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is wrong.
(b) Assertion (A) is wrong, but Reason (R) is correct.
(c) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct.
(d) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are wrong. (1)
10. st
On 1 October, 2023, Amit, a partner, advanced a loan of ¹ 1,20,000 to the firm. In the absence of partnership
deed, the amount of interest on loan to be paid on 31 st March, 2024 will be
(a) Rs. 3600 (b) Rs. 7200
(c) Rs. 12000 (d) Rs. 6000 (1)
11. A partnership firm has four partners. How many additional partners can be admitted into the business as
per the provisions of Companies Act, 2013?
(a) 50 (b) 46
(c) 96 (d) 100 (1)
12. Goodwill is not accounted in the books if
(a) It is Purchased Goodwill
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(b) If it is a Self-generated Goodwill

(c) It is decided to be accounted by the partners
(d) Its amount is paid by the gaining partner (1)
13. A partnership firm has capital employed od ¹ 6,00,000. Its average profits are ¹ 80,000. The normal rate
of return in similar type of business is 10%. The amount of super profit is
(a) Rs. 60,000 (b) Rs. 8,000
(c) Rs. 20,000 (d) Rs. 52,000 (1)
14. Isha and Naman were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 :3. With the effect
from 1st April, 2022, they agreed to share profits and losses equally. Due to change in the profit-sharing
ratio, Isha’s gain or sacrifice will be
(a) Sacrifice 1/10 (b) Gain 1/10
(c) Sacrifice 2/5 (d) Gain 2/5 (1)
15. Asha and Nisha were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio 3 :1. Charu was admitted as
a new partner for 1 /4 share in profits of the firm which she acquired equally from Aisha and Naisha. The
new-profit sharing ratio of Asha, Nisha and Charu will be
(a) 3 : 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 1 : 2
(c) 5 : 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 2 : 1 (1)
16. rd
P and Q are partners in a firm having capitals of Rs. 15000 each. R is admitted for 1/ 3 share for which
he has to bring ¹ 20,000 for his share of capital. The amount of goodwill will be
(a) Rs. 8,000 (b) Rs. 10,000
(c) Rs. 9,000 (d) Rs. 11,000 (1)
17. Retirement or death of a partner will create a situation for the continuing partners, which is known as :
(a) Dissolution of Partnership (b) Dissolution of Partnership Firm
(c) Winding up of business (d) None of these (1)
18. Amar, Akash and Arvind are partners. On the retirement of Akash, Workmen Compensation Reserve has
a balance of Rs. 1,50,000. There was a claim of Rs. 37500 against it. How much amount will be transferred
to Akash’s Capital in respect of Workmen Compensation Reserve?
(a) Nil (b) Rs. 37,500
(c) Rs. 12,500 (d) Rs. 50,000 (1)
19. A, B and K were partners in a firm. B retires and gives his share of profit to A for Rs. 3,600 and to K for
Rs. 3,000. The gaining ratio of A and K will be
(a) 4 : 5 (b) 2 : 1
(c) 6 : 5 (d) 4 : 1 (1)
20. Vidit, Sumit and Mita were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio 4 :3 :1. Mita died and her entire
share was taken up by Vidit. The new profit-sharing ratio of Vidit and Sumit will be
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 5 : 3
(c) 3 : 5 (d) 5 : 2 (1)
21. Chander, Ravi and Tara are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 2 : 1 : 2. On 15-02-2022,
Chander died and new profit-sharing ratio between Tara and Ravi was 4 :11. On Chander’s death, the
goodwill of the firm was valued Rs. 90,000. Pass necessary journal entry for the treatment of goodwill on
Chander’s death. (3)
22. Vinod and Ramesh are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 :1 respectively. They admit
Rupesh as a partner with 1/4 share in the profits with guarantee that his share of profit shall be at least
Rs. 1,10,000. The net profit of the firm for the year ending 31 st March, 2024 was Rs. 3,20,000. Prepare
Profit and Loss Appropriation Account. (3)
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23. At the time of reconstitution of partnership firm, goodwill was valued on the basis of three years’ purchase
of the weighted average of the last four years. The profits of the preceding four years were

Year Profit Weights

2018-19 Rs. 22,000 1

2019-20 Rs. 27000 2
2020-21 Rs. 32,000 3
2021-22 Rs. 35000 4

While valuing the goodwill of the firm, it was found that the closing stock of the year 2020-21 was undervalued
by Rs. 2,000. (3)
24. X, Y and Z are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio 5 : 3 : 2. Y retires. X and Z decided to share
future profits in 3 : 2 ratio. Following balances appears in the balance sheet on retirement
General Reserve = Rs. 65,000
Workmen Compensation Reserve = Rs. 25,000
Employee Provident Fund = Rs. 1,00,000
Profit and Loss A/c (Dr )= Rs. 30,000
Pass the necessary journal entries when they decide to distribute all free reserves and accumulated profits.
(3)
25. A, B and C were partners in a firm sharing profit in the ratio 5 : 3 : 2. They have decided to share profits
equally with effect from 1 April 2024. On that date the profit and loss account showed a credit balance of
Rs. 15000. Instead of closing the Profit and Loss account, it was decided by the partners to an adjusting
entry to show the change in profit sharing ratio. Give necessary Adjustment entry to record its effect. (3)
26. P, Q and R were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio 2 : 1 : 1. Their respective capitals were P
Rs. 3,00,000, Q Rs. 2,00,000 and R Rs. 1,80,000. On 1 st April 2023, they admitted W as a new partner.
W brought Rs. 2,00,000 for his capital and necessary amount for his share of goodwill. The new profit-
sharing ratio between P, Q, R and W will be 1 : 2 : 1 : 1. Calculate the amount of Goodwill bought by W.
(4)
27. X and Y are partners. They admit Z as a new partner. Average profit of the business is Rs. 43,200 during
the last few years and normal rate of return in a similar type of business is 10%. Calculate the value of
goodwill by the capitalisation of average profit method. Assets of business Rs. 6,00,000 ( including goodwill
Rs. 18,000) and outside liabilities Rs. 2,40,000. (4)
28. Amit, Sumit and Jatin were sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. Jatin retired and Amit and
Sumit decided to continue the firm sharing profits and losses equally after Jatin’s retirement. They decided
to record the effect of the following revaluations without affecting the book values of the assets and liabilities
by passing an Adjustment Entry.

Book values (Rs. ) Revised values (Rs.)

Land & Building 5,00,000 5,50,000

Plant and Machinery 2,50,000 2,40,000
Sundry Creditors 60,000 55,000
Outstanding Expenses 60,000 75,000
Pass necessary adjustment entry.

(4)

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29. K, V and B were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses equally. Their Balance sheet as on 31 st
March 2020 was as follows.

Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs.

Capitals : Plant and Machinery 2,40,000

K Rs. 1,50,000 Stock 60,000
B Rs. 1,00,000 Sundry Debtors 35,000
V Rs. 75,000 3,25,000 Cash at Bank 50,000
General Reserve 30,000
Sundry Creditors 30,000

3,85,000 3,85,000

V died on 30th June, 2020. According to partnership deed, the executors of the deceased partner were
entitled to :
(i) Balance in the capital account.
(ii) Salary till the date of death @ Rs. 25,000 per annum
(iii) Share of goodwill calculated on the basis of twice the average profits of past three years.
(iv) Share of profit from the closure of the last accounting year till the date of death on the basis of
average of three completed years’ profits before death.
(v) Profits for 2017-18, 2018-19 and 2019-20 were Rs. 1,20,000 , Rs. 90,000 and Rs. 1,50,000
respectively.
(vi) V withdrew Rs. 15,000 on 1st June 2020 for paying her daughter’s school fees.
Prepare V’s Capital Account to be rendered to his executors. (4)
30. Yuv and Veer were partners in the firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio 3 : 1. Their balance Sheet as
on 31st March 2022 was as under :
BALANCE SHEET OF YUV AND VEER as on 31 st March, 2022

Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs.

Creditors 41,000 Plant & Machinery 60,000

General Reserve 80,000 Building 40,00
Outstanding Expenses 12,000 Investments 60,000
Capital A/C : Stock 50,000
Yuv 79,000 Debtors 38,000
Veer 48,000 1,27,000 Less : provision 4,000 34,000
Cash 16,000

2,60,000 2,60,000

They decided to Yash in the firm on 1 st April, 2022 for 1/4 share in the profits on the following terms :
(i) Yash will bring in proportionate capital and Rs. 4,000 as his share of premium for goodwill in
cash.
(ii) Investments were valued at Rs. 68,000.
(iii) Plant & Machinery was to be depreciated by 10%.
Prepare Revaluation Account and Partner’s Capital Accounts. (6)
31. A,B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 3 : 2 : 1. Their balance sheet as on 31 st
March 2022 was as follows :
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Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs.

Sundry Creditors 1,20,000 Bank 72,000

Bills Payable 64,000 Debtors 1,00,000
Workmen’s Compensation 48,000 Less : Provision 14,000 86,000
Reserve Stock 72,000
Capitals : Furniture 1,70,000
A 1,60,000 Machinery 2,80,000
B 1,60,000 Goodwill 42,000
C 1,20,000 4,40,000

6,72,000 6,72,000

B retired on 1 st April, 2022 on the following terms :

(i) Provision for doubtful debts be raised by Rs. 4,000.
(ii) Outstanding claims for damages of Rs. 4,400 be provided.
(iii) Creditors be reduced by Rs. 24,000.
(iv) Goodwill of the firm be valued at Rs. 90,000 which is to be adjusted in the gaining ratio od A and C.
Prepare Revaluation Account, Partner’s Capital Accounts and Balance sheet. (6)
32. X, Y and Z were in partnership sharing profits and losses equally. Z retired from the firm. After adjustment,
his Capital Account shows a credit balance of Rs. 1,00,000 as on 1 st April, 2021. Z is to be paid in two
annual equal installments at the end of each year of Rs. 37,500 each including interest @ 10% per annum
on the outstanding balance of each year and the balance including interest in the third year. Prepare Z’s
Loan Account till he is paid the amount due to him. (6)
33. th
P, Q and R sharing profits and losses in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2, admitted Rohan as a partner for 1/5 share in
the firm w.e.f. 1 st April, 2024. An extract of their balance sheet as at 31 st March 2024 is :
BALANCE SHEET

Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs.

Workmen Compensation Reserve 1,35,000

Pass the journal entries for Workmen Compensation Reserve on the admission of Rohan in the following
alternative cases :
Case 1 If there is no other information
Case 2 If workmen compensation claim is Rs. 45,000.
Case3 If workmen compensation claim is Rs. 1,50,000. (6)
34. st
A and B are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 3 : 2. Their capital on 31 March 2023, after
all adjustments stood at Rs. 1,65,500 and Rs. 1,27,600 respectively. Profits amounting to Rs. 50,000 for
the year 2022-23 were distributed after charging interest on drawings @12%p.a. During the year A withdrew
Rs. 15,000 at the beginning of every quarter and B withdrew Rs. 40,000 during the year. Partnership
deed is silent on interest in drawings but provides for interest on capital @5%p.a. It was found that interest
on capital has not been provided.
Showing your workings clearly, pass the necessary adjustment entry to rectify the above errors. (6)

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APEEJAY SCHOOL, MAHAVIR MARG, JALANDHAR

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION, 2024-25
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
CLASS : XII
Time : 3 hrs. M.M. : 70

General Instructions :
(1) There are 33 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
(2) This question paper has five sections : Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E.
(3) All the sections are compulsory
(4) Section A contains sixteen questions, twelve MCQ and four Assertion Reasoning based of 1 mark each,
Section B contains five questions of two marks each, Section C contains seven questions of three marks
each, Section D contains two case study based questions of four marks each and Section E contains
three long answer questions of five marks each.
(5) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question in Section B,
one question in Section C, one question in each CBQ in Section D and all three questions in Section E.
You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
(6) Use of calculators is not allowed.

SECTION-A
1. An electric dipole placed in an electric field of intensity 2 × 10 5 N/C at an angle of 30° experiences a
torque equal to 4 Nm. The charge on the dipole of dipole length 2 cm is
(a) 7 µC (b) 8 mC
(c) 2 mC (d) 5 mC 1
2. The relative magnetic permeability of a substance X is slightly less than unity and that of substance Y is
slightly more than unity, then
(a) X is paramagnetic and Y is ferromagnetic (b) X is diamagnetic and Y is ferromagnetic
(c) X and Y both are paramagnetic (d) X is diamagnetic and Y is paramagnetic 1
3. An ammeter of resistance 0.81 ohm reads up to 1 A. The value of the required shunt to increase the range
to 10 A :
(a) 0.9 ohm (b) 0.09 ohm
(c) 0.03 ohm (d) 0.3 ohm
4. What is the potential energy of the equal positive point charges of 1C each held 1 m apart in air
(a) 9 × 10–3 J (b) 9 × 10–3 eV
(c) 2eV/m (d) Zero
5. Equipotential at a great distance from a collection of charges whose total sum is not zero are approximately
(a) spheres (b) planes
(c) paraboloids (d) ellipsoids
6. Which of the following characteristics of electrons determines the current in a conductor ?
(a) Drift velocity alone. (b) Thermal velocity alone.
(c) Both drift velocity and thermal velocity. (d) Neither drift nor thermal velocity.

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7. A cell having an emf E and internal resistance r is connected

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

8. When current in a coil ch ange from 5 A to 2 A in 0.1 s, average voltage of 50V is produced. The self-
inductance of
(a) 1.67 H (b) 6H
(c) 3H (d) 067 H
9. In a pure capacitive circuit if the frequency of ac source is doubled, then its capacitive reactance will be
(a) remains same (b) doubled
(c) halved (d) zero
10. 10 cm is a wavelength corresponding to the spectrum of
(a) Infrared rays (b) Ultraviolet rays
(c) X-rays (d) Microwaves
11. Dielectric constant for metal is
(a) Zero (b) Infinite
(c) 1 (d) Greater than 1
12. Equal charges q are placed at the vertices A and B of an equilateral triangle ABC of side a. The magnitude
of electric

q 2q
(a) (b)
4 4

3q q
(c) (d)
4 2

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.
13. Assertion : The total charge stored in a capacitor is zero.
Reason : The field just outside the capacitor is /0. ( is the charge density).
14. Assertion : Terminal potential difference can be greater than t he emf of a cell.
Reason : During discharging of a cell, Terminal potential difference is always greater than the emf.
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15. Assertion : Soft iron is used as a core of transformer.

Reason : Area of hysteresis is loop for soft iron is small.
16. Assertion : The angle of dip is maximum at the poles of the earth.
Reason : The magnetic field lines are parallel to the surface of the earth at the poles.
(a) Explain why a capacitor blocks d.c and allows a.c ?
(b) 220 V a.c is more dangerous than 220 V d.c ? Explain.
17. Prove that energy due to electric field and magnetic field in an e m wave are equal. Draw a well labelled
diagram t.
18. Two charges +q and –q are located at points A(0, 0, –2) and B(0, 0, 2) respectively. How much work will
be done.
19. Find the ratio of potential differences that must be applied across the parallel and series combination of
two capacitance.
20. Write any four differences between diamagnetic, paramagnetic and feromagnetic material.
(a) A cube of side b has a charge q at each of its vertices. Determine the potential due to this charge
array at the cen
(b) Prove that electric field is negative of potential gradient.
(a) An infinite line charge produces a field of 9 × 10 4 N/C at a distance of 2 cm. Calculate the linear
charge density.
(b) Prove that electric field lines are always normal to the equipotential surface.
0–8m, number density of electrons in copper = 8.5 × 1028 m–3.
(b) Draw a graph showing the variation of resistivity with temperature for the following :
(i) Nichrome (ii) Manganin
21. What do you mean by Bohr magneton. Derive an expression for it. Also write its value.
22. Obtain the resonant frequency r of a series LCR circuit with L = 2.0 H, C = 32 F and R = 10.
23. What is the Q-value of this circuit ?
24. Derive an expression for the average power in an LCR circuit.
25. Two long straight parallel current carrying conductors are kept ‘a’ distance apart in air. The direction of
current in box.
Read the para given below and answer the questions that follow :
26. All the known radiations from big famiy of em waves which stretch over a large range of wavelengths.
The order rays, x-rays, UV rays, visible light, infrared waves, microwaves and radiowaves in order of
increasing wavelength
(i) The correct option, if speeds of gamma rays, X-rays and microwave are Vg, Vx an Vm respectively
will be
(a) Vg > Vx > Vm (b) Vg < Vx < Vm
(c) Vg > Vx > Vm (d) Vg = Vx = Vm
(ii) The structure of solids is investigated using
(a) Cosmic rays (b) X-rays
(c) Gamma rays (d) Infrared radiation
(iii) Which rays are known as heat waves ?
(a) amma rays (b) radio waves
(c) infrared (d) X-rays
(iv) What is the use of rays lying beyond X-rays region in the em spectrum ?
(a) Used to kill microbes

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(b) Used to detect heat loss in the insulated systems

(c) Used in standard broadcast radio and teelvision
(d) Used in oncology, to kill cancerous cells
Read the para given below and answer the questions that follow :
The galvanometer cannot be used as an ammeter to measure the value of the current directly as it is a
very sensitive current in the circuit.
(i) How is a moving coil galvanometer convertd into an ammeter of desired range ?
(a) Connecting a shunt resistance in series.
(b) Connecting a shunt resistance in parallel.
(c) Connecting a large resistance in series.
(d) Connecting a large resistance in parallel
(ii) A moving coil galvanometer of resistance G gives a full-scale deflection for a current Ig. It is converted
into are
(a) S (b) S
(c) S (d) S
(iii) Which one will have the greatest resistance – a micro-ammeter, a milli-ammeter, an ammeter ?
(a) Micro-ammeter (b) Milli-ammeter
(c) Ammeter (d) All will have the same resistance
(iv) The resistance of an ideal ammeter is :
(a) Zero (b) Infinite
(c) 1 (d) Always negative
(a) Two cells of emf 1 and 2 and internal resistances r 1 and r2 respectively are connected in parallel.
Obtain exp
(i) resistance and (ii) emf of the combination
(b) Derive the microscopic form of Ohms law.
Or
(a) Srtate and prove wheat stone bridge principle.
(b) Determine the value of current (I1, I2, I3) in the fig. shown in Fig.

(a) Draw graphs showing the variations of inductive reactance and capacitive reactance with frequency
of apply.
(b) When an alternating voltage of 220 V is applied across a device X, a current of 0.25 A flows which
lags be
(i) Name the devices X and Y.
(ii) Calculate the current flowing in the circuit when the same voltage is applied across the series
combination of X.

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(a) Write the condition for resonance of a series LCR circuit. Hence, derive the expression for resonance
frequency.
(b) Plot a graph to show the variation of current with frequency of the ac source, explaining the nature
of its variable.
(a) State Biot savart law. Use it to derive an expression for the magnetic field at any point on the axis
of a circuit.
(b) Use Biot-Savart law to obtain an expression for the magnetic field at the centre of a coil bent in the
form.
Or
(a) Discuss the principle, construction and working of a moving coil galvanometer.
(b) Increasing the current sensitivity of a galvanometer may not necessarily increase its voltage sensitivity.
Explain, giving reason.

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APEEJAY SCHOOL, MAHAVIR MARG, JALANDHAR

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION, 2024-25
SUBJECT : PSYCHOLOGY
CLASS : XII
Time : 3 hrs. M.M. : 70

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Answers should be brief and to the point.
(iii) PART - A has 17 Learning Checks carrying 1 mark each. You are required to answer them as directed.
(iv) Questions 18 to 21 in PART - B are Very Short Answer type questions carrying 2 marks each. Answers
to each question should not exceed 30 words.
(v) Questions 22 to 24 in PART - C are Short Answer Type I questions carrying 3 marks each. Answers to
each question should not exceed 60 words.
(vi) Questions 25 to 30 in PART - D are Short Answer Type II questions carrying 4 marks each. Answers to
each question should not exceed 100 words.
(vii) Questions 31 and 32 in PART - E are Long Answer Type questions carrying 6 marks each. Answers to
each question should not exceed 200 words.

PART–A
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS. (1 Mk X 5 = 5 Mks)
1. Ashna is a hard working girl who shows dedication and perseverance. All her actions are intentional.
Such qualities focus on the ____ aspect of integrative intelligence.
(A) Entrepreneurship (B) Emotional abilities
(C) Cognitive ability (D) Social skills
2. Which psychologists taught individual psychology?
(A) Karen Horney (B) Erik Erickson
(C) Alfred Adler (D) Sigmund Freud
3. Personality is a combination of the ______ Gunas according to the Indian conception.
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) None
4. _____ proposed the concept of IQ.
(A) Jack Naglieri (B) Theodor Simon
(C) William Stern (D) Alfred Binet
5. The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) was developed by _____.
(A) Morgan and Murray (B) Hathaway and McKinley
(C) Hermann Rorschach and Cattell (D) None of the above
6. Which of the following personality types is described as loud, cold, or energetic? Not even
(A) Endomorph (B) Linguistics
(C) Mesomorph (D) Microlithics

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7. Anam has very good verbal reasoning skills and is very interested in reading. She is more likely to succeed
as a _____.
(A) Journalist (B) Farmer
(C) Engineer (D) Athlete
8. Physical, emotional and psychological fatigue states are known as :
(A) Resistance (B) Stress
(C) Burnout (D) Action
9. Who Reported Task-Oriented Stress Strategies?
(A) Lazarus and Folkman (B) Endler and Parker
(C) Both a and b. (D) None of these.
10. The Planning, Attention, Simultaneous, and Successive (PASS) model of intelligence is an alternative
way to study and measure intelligence. It was proposed by _____
(A) Das, Naglieri, and Kirby (B) Theodor Simon
(C) William Stern (D) Alfred Binet
11. Students believe that they will be able to complete their tasks effectively and achieve their goals. Here is
an example of
(A) Self Control (B) Self Concept
(C) Self-Worth (D) Self-Efficacy
12. The tendency of respondents to endorse items in a socially desirable manner is known as _____.
(A) Acquiescence (B) Halo effect
(C) Self-report (D) Social Desirability
13. Spearman says there are generative possibilities that humans use in adapting to different kinds of intellectual
tasks. This factor is called _____.
(A) Specific Factor (B) General Factor
(C) Multi Factor (D) None of the above.
14. GAS consists of her three phases : Alarm response, Resistance, and _____.
(A) Exhaustion (B) Aggression
(C) Sensation (D) None of the above.
15. When people try to make unreasonable feelings or behaviors seem reasonable and acceptable, it is known
as _____.
(A) Rationalization (B) Denial
(C) Reaction formation (D) Regression
16. Assertion (A) : Aptitude refers to an individual’s underlying potential for acquiring skills.
Reason (R) : Aptitude tests are used to predict what an individual will be able to do if given the proper
environment and training.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
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(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

17. Assertion (A) : Interview is a commonly used method to assess personality
Reason (R) : Diagnostic interviewing generally involves basic interviewing which seeks to go beyond the
replies given by the person.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
PART – B
18. Sana communicates her feelings and views clearly with confidence. She could say ‘no’ to request or state
and opinion without being self conscious. Which life skill is she using? Suggest two more life skills that
can help Sana meet the challenges of life successfully.
19. A Clinical Psychologist uses the Sentence Completion Test on his client to assess their Personality. How
is this test useful for this purpose?
20. How would you define stress as a pattern of responses?
21. Differentiate between Endomorph & Mesomorphs.
PART - C
22. Assessment is the first step in understanding a psychological attribute and refers to the measurement of
psychological attributes of individuals and their evaluation, often using multiple methods. Name any 3
such methods.
23. Amidst a wide range of events and conditions that generate stress, what are the three main sources of
Stress?
24. “An Intelligence test may be fully verbal, fully non-verbal or fully performance based or it may consist of
a mixture of items from each Category.” What are these 3 types of Intelligence tests based on Language.
PART - D
25. “The ability to adapt, to shape and select environment to accomplish one’s goals and those of one’s
society and culture is called Inteligence.” (Robert Sternberg) Name the theory associated with this statement
and the various types of Intelligence under it.
26. Type approaches attempts to comprehend human personality by examining certain broad patterns. Explain
the 4 Types of personality as given by Friedman & Rosenman and Morris.
27. Freud gave the Iceberg theory that symbolized the Human Mind as having three levels. Elaborate upon
them & name the level of mind responsible for repressed emotions & thoughts.
28. Name & briefly explain the 4 dimensions in which Stress effects our health.
29. Suggest any 3 Stress Management techniques that can help alleviate stress among individuals.
30. We all use different & complex sets of concrete responses to stressful situations or events that are intended
to resolve the problem and reduce stress. Name any three strategies aimed at coping with a stressful
situation.

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PART - E
31. You are a student of class 12th. You wish to score very high marks in your board examinations, so you
start planning for the same by attending classes regularly, taking notes, setting study targets, etc. Identify
explain the Theory of Intelligence which includes planning as an essential features.
OR
31. To what extent is our intelligence the result of Heredity (Nature) and Environment (Nurture). Discuss.
The most widely known & used story telling technique is the TAT. It was developed in 1935 by Morgan
and Murray who believed that the content of imagined stories would provide clues to the underline
dynamics of a subjects interpersonal relationships and self attitudes. TAT data are expected to reveal
the hierarchy of a person’s needs and the nature of his/her dominant emotions and conflicts. The TAT is
widely used projective test for the assessment of children and adults. It is designed to reveal and individual’s
perception of interpersonal relationships. 31 picture cards serve as stimuli for stories and descriptions
about relationships or social situations. Cards include specific subsets for boys, girls, men and women.
The test is useful as part of the comprehensive study of personality, and in the interpretation of behaviour
disorders, psychosomatic illnesses, neurosis and psychosis.
32. Read the passage given above and answer the questions that follow :
(A) In which year was TAT developed?
(B) How many cards are used in TAT?
(C) What information can be curated with the help of TAT Data?

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APEEJAY SCHOOL, MAHAVIR MARG, JALANDHAR

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION, 2024-25
SUBJECT : PAINTING (049)
CLASS : XII
Time : 1 hrs. M.M. : 30
General Instructions :
• Section A : Attempt all questions (each question will carry 1 mark)
• Section B : Attempt all questions (each question will carry 5 marks)
• Section C : Attempt all questions (each question will carry 6 marks)
SECTION–A
1. Select the right answer from the given options :
(A) PAHARI style was mainly influenced by
(i) Mughal style Rajasthani style (ii) Worldly style (sansarikaishwarye)
(iii) Inspired by Luxury (iv) Bengal school
(B) Which are the two main influences on Rajasthani miniature paintings ?
(i) Folk art and Mughal art (ii) Ottoman and Safavid
(iii) European and Mughal (iv) Pahari and Turkish
(C) Mughal art exhibits religious equality. Which of the following p ainting justifies the comment ?
(i) Krishna lifting mount Govardhana (ii) Birth of Salim
(iii) Falcon on a bird rest (iv) Radha
(D) Which ruler/patron wrote NAURASNAMA ?
(i) Hussain Nizam Shah (ii) Ibrahim 2th of Bijapur
(iii) Ali Adil Shah (iv) Abdullah Qutb Shah
(E) Specify the time period of the painting (HAZRAT NIZAMUDDIN AULIYA AND AMIR KHUSRO)
(i) 1210-15 AD (ii) 1750-70 AD
(iii) 1915-20 AD (iv) 680-90 AD
(F) At GULER ; many portraits of which king were executed in circa 1750 AD ?
(i) Raja Sawant Singh (ii) Raja Udai Singh
(iii) Raja Raj Singh (iv) Raja Govardhan Chand
(G) Which artist of the Mughal school was known as the [RAPHAEL OF THE EAST] ? To which
dynasty did he belong ?
(i) Mir Saiyad Ali; MAURYAN dynasty (ii) Bihzad; Timur dynasty
(iii) Timur, Pallava dynasty (iv) Khwaja Abdussamad, Timur dynasty
(H) What is Anwar-e-Sunaheli ?
(i) A book of paintings (ii) A painting
(iii) A monument (iv) A book of fables
SECTION–B
Answer for this question is expected in around 120 words : 5×2=10

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2. Around 1750 AD; Chaugan (polo) emerged as a recreational game in the royal families of daccan. In this
the skill of the player is also dependent on the tricks of horse riding. The participation of women in this
game presents the best evidence of women empowerment
(i) Identify the painting and write its title and the name of the painter.
(ii) Describe the compositional arrangement of the painting.
SECTION–C
(Long Answer Type Question)
Answer for this question is expected in around 200 words : 6×2=12
4. The marriage procession is accompanied and received by music, dance, gifts and fireworks. The artist
has created the glamour of the marriage procession with all its pomps and show
(i) Title of the painting and name of its painter.
(ii) Medium and sub school.
(iii) Theme (subject matter) and compositional arrangement of the painting.
5. Write an essay on Origin and Development of MUGHAL SCHOOL OF ART.

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