NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

7. How many O2 are used in the respiration of two
Botany - Section A molecules of Tripalmitin?
1. With reference to factors affecting the rate of 1. 145
photosynthesis, which of the following statements is not 2. 102
correct? 3. 98
1. Light saturation for CO2-fixation occurs at 10% of full 4. 6
sunlight.
2. Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration by, up to, 8. The diagram given below belongs to -
0.05% can enhance the CO2-fixation rate
3. C3 plants respond to higher temperature with enhanced
photosynthesis, while C4 plants have a much lower
temperature optimum.
4. Tomato is a greenhouse crop, which can be grown in a
CO2-enriched atmosphere for a higher yield.

2. Transpiration is very important for plants because it

helps in
1. the absorption of water from soil 1. Dicot stem having conjoint and collateral vascular
2. the cooling of leaves at high temperature bundles
3. the movement of water and minerals absorbed by roots 2. Monocot stem having conjoint and collateral vascular
to various parts of the plant bundles
4. all of the above 3. Dicot root with polyarch condition
4. Monocot root with radial vascular bundles
3. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. Oxygen is released from water 9. Which of the following roots are respiratory roots
2. Photosynthesis is a single step reaction 1. Epiphytic Roots
3. Action spectrum of photosynthesis resembles roughly 2. Stilt Roots
the absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b. 3. Prop Roots
4. In plants glucose is stored as starch. 4. Pneumatophores

4. Which of the following is a continuous process? 10. Phyllotaxy is a

1. Cell growth (in terms of cytoplasmic increase) 1. Pattern of arrangement of leaves on the stem or branch
2. Cell differentiation 2. Pattern of arrangement of petals on the stem or branch
3. DNA duplication 3. Pattern of arrangement of sepals on the flower
4. Cell division 4. Pattern of arrangement of perianth on the flower

5. The furrow gradually deepens and ultimately joins in 11. The embryo does not have
the center dividing the cell cytoplasm into two. Here, the 1. Embryonal axis
cell is 2. Radicle
1. Animal cell 3. One or two cotyledons
2. Plant cell 4. Seed coat
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Only Root tip cells 12. The floral formula has which of the following symbols
to represent zygomorphic symmetry?
6. The first step of decarboxylation in cellular respiration 1. #
is 2. %
1. Conversion of PGAL to DHAP 3. K
2. Conversion of PGAL to PGA 4. C
3. Conversion of Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA
4. Conversion of BPGA to PGA 13. A non-proteinaceous enzyme is
1. lysozyme
2. ribozyme
3. ligase
4. deoxyribonuclease

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 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
14. Match the following in column I with those given 17. Which of the following statement is not true?
column II.
Column I Column II 1. Plasma membrane is selectively permeable
A. Synapsis aligns homologous 1. Anaphase 2. Polar molecules cannot pass through the polar lipid
chromosomes II bilayer
B. Synthesis of RNA and protein 2. Zygotene
C. Action of enzyme recombinase 3. G2 - phase 3. Neutral molecules pass the membranes through
D. Centromeres do not separate, diffusion
but chromatids move towards opposite 4. Anaphase I
poles 4. Active transport is exhibited with the expenditure of
ATP
5. Pachytene

A B C D
(1) 2 1 3 4 18. The M phase starts with
1. Nuclear division
(2) 2 3 5 4 2. Cytokinesis
(3) 1 2 5 4 3. Karyokinesis
(4) 2 3 4 5 4. Both 1 and 3

19. The reformation of nuclear envelope, nucleolus, Golgi

complex and ER occurs in
15. The following processes occur during photosynthesis
1. Prophase
(i) Reduction of carbon dioxide
2. Metaphase
(ii) The splitting of water
3. Anaphase
(iii) The synthesis of glucose
4. Telophase
(iv) Release of oxygen
(v) Formation of ATP
20. C4 plants are …….as efficient as C3 plants in term of
Which one of the following combinations is correct for the
light phase? making sugar and lose only ….. of the water in
1. i, ii and iii comparison.
2. iii, iv and v
3. i, iii and iv 1. Half, double
4. ii, iv and v 2. Twice, half
3. One fourth, one third
16. Study the figure and find out an incorrect statement. 4. Twice, one third

21. How many ATPs are net gained till the completion of
Krebs’ cycle during breakdown of one molecule of
Glucose?

1. 4 ATPs in Glycolysis and 1 GTP in Krebs’ Cycle

2. 4 ATPs in Glycolysis and 2 GTP in Krebs’ Cycle

3. 2 ATPs in Glycolysis and 2 GTP in Krebs’ Cycle

4. 2 ATPs in Glycolysis and 1 GTP in Krebs’ Cycle

1. Contains laminarin or mannitol as reserve food.

2. Life-cycle is diplontic.
3. Union of gamete may take place in water or within the
oogonium.
4. Gametes bear two apically inserted flagella.

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 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
22. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. imbibition 26. Bark includes a variety of tissue types like

1. Special type of diffusion 1. Phellem, secondary xylem, and secondary phloem

2. Depends on affinity between adsorbant and adsorbate 2. Periderm and all kinds of secondary tissues

3. Responsible for emergence of seedlings 3. Phellogen, secondary phloem, phellem, and secondary
cortex
4. Occurs against concentration gradient
4. Phelloderm, secondary phloem, and primary xylem

23. Small protein attached to the outer surface of inner

mitochondrial membrane and acting as a mobile e 27. The classification given by Bentham and Hooker is:-
−

carrier is
1. Artificial
1. Cytochrome a 3
2. Natural
2. Cytochrome c 1
3. Phylogenetic
3. Cytochrome a
4. Numerical
4. Cytochrome c

28. Turgidity of guard cells during the opening of stomata

24. Mark the incorrect option w.r.t. abscisic acid is maintained by the help of

1. Increases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of 1. Sodium

stresses
2. Magnesium
2. It induces flowering in some long day plants
3. Potassium
3. It plays an important role in seed development and
maturation 4. Calcium

4. In most situations, it acts as an antagonist to

gibberellins
29. In the dicot root, the vascular cambium originates
from :

25. A collection of species, which bears a close 1. Tissue located below the phloem bundles, a portion of
resemblance to one another in the morphological pericycle tissue, above the protoxylem.
characters of the floral parts is known as :-
2. Cortical region
1. Class
3. Parenchyma between endodermis and pericycle
2. Genus
4. Intrafascicular and interfascicular tissue in a ring
3. Division

4. Variety

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 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
30. Study the reaction given below 34. Lichens are mutually beneficial associations between
Enzyme

CO2 + H2 O ⇄ H2 CO3 1. Autotrophic and heterotrophic members

In absence of any enzyme this reaction is very slow, with 2. Two autotrophic partners
200 molecules of H2CO3 formed in one hour. In presence
of an enzyme, the reaction speeds up dramatically with 3. Two heterotrophic partners
about 600,000 molecules formed every second. Name the
4. Fungi and roots of higher plants
enzyme which has accelerated the reaction by about 10
million times:

1. Ribozyme 35. Gemmae are present in:

2. Carbonic anhydrase
1. Some Gymnosperms
3. Catalase 2. Some Liverworts
4. Peroxidase 3. Mosses

4. Pteridophytes
31. The protozoans that cause malaria in humans are :

1. Radiolarians

2. Dinoflagellates
Botany - Section B
36. Complex II has the following components except
3. Chrysophytes 1. FAD
2. Fe-S centres
4. Sporozoans 3. Succinate Dehydrogenase
4. Cytochrome C1

37. Asparagus comes under which category?

32. The non-cellular organisms, that are characterized by
having inert crystalline structure outside the living cell, 1. Colchicine
[Link] discovered by J. Pasteur.
[Link] obligate intercellular parasites. 2. Vegetables
[Link] genetic material as either RNA or DNA.
[Link] cellular organisms. 3. Ornaments

33. Absence of sex organs, general absence of asexual 4. Medicine

spores and plasmogamy by means of somatogamy are
features of

1. Ascomycetes 38. Which of the following is true about chromatophores

2. Deuteromycetes 1. its’s a plasma membrane infolding

3. Basidiomycetes 2. site of photosynthesis

4. Phycpmycetes 3. contain pigments

4. All of the above

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 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
39. Bivalent chromosomes clearly appear as tetrads 44. Phloem in gymnosperms lacks:
during:
1. Both sieve tubes and companion cells
1. Zygotene
2. Albuminous cells and sieve cells
2. Pachytene
3. Sieve tubes only
3. Diplotene
4. Companion cells only
4. Diakinesis

45. Inhibitory substances in dormant seeds cannot be

40. removed by subjecting seeds to:
Simultaneous splitting of the centromeres of each
chromosomes occurs in 1. Gibberellic acid
1. Anaphase I
2. Nitrate
2. Anaphase II
3. Ascorbic acid
3. Metaphase
4. Chilling conditions
4. Prophase II

46. Match the following :

41. Which of the following plants are grown in green (a) Aquaporin (i) Amide
house by exploiting the fact that higher CO2 leads to more (b) Asparagine (ii) Polysaccharide
productivity? (c) Abscisic acid (iii) Polypeptide
1. Tomatoes
2. Papaya (d) Chitin (iv) Carotenoids
3. Cycas
4. Pomegranate Select the correct option :

42. Which one of the following is a case of wrong (a) (b) (c) (d)
matching? (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
1. Root pressure - observable at night and early morning (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
2. Pressure potential - usually negative (4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
3. Symplast - plasmodesmata

4. Loading of sugars at source - active transport 47. Mode of nutrition in euglenoids is:

1. Photosynthetic

43. Photosynthetic active radiation (PAR) has the 2. Heterotrophic

following range of wavelength
1. 400-700 nm 3. Chemosynthetic

2. 450-920 nm 4. Both 1 & 2

3. 340-450 nm

4. 500-600 nm

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 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
48. A place used for storing, preservation, and exhibition
of Zoology - Section A
both plants and animals is called 51. Which among the following is incorrect regarding the
vision of cockroach?
1. Museum
1. Compound eyes are located at dorsal surface of head.
2. Botanical garden
2. They have nocturnal type of vision.
3. Herbarium
3. Each eye consists of 3000 malpighian tubules.
4. Flora
4. Their vision is known as mosaic vision with more
sensitivity but less resolution.
49. Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?

1. Red algae 52. Succus entericus is

2. Blue-green algae 1. Secretion of goblet cells+ secretion of mucosal brush
border cells of intestine
3. Green algae
2. Secretion of intestinal goblet cells
4. Brown algae
3. Secretion of brush border intestinal cells

4. Secretion of pancreatic exocrine portion

50. Match Column-I with Column- II.
Column I Column II
(a)
Nitrococcus 53. Which of the following is not a part of urine
(i) Denitrification formation?
(b)
(ii) Conversion of ammonia to nitrite
Rhizobium
(iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate [Link] Filtration
(c)
(iv) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to
Thiobacillus
ammonia [Link]
(d)
Nitrobactèr
[Link]
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. [Link] current mechanism
(a) (b) (c) (d)

1. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

54. GFR is regulated by
2. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
1. JGA
3. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
2. ADH
4. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
3. OT

4. HGP

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 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
55. Which of the following substances are not reabsorbed 59. Which of the following situations would result in the
by active means of transport? greatest degree of O saturation for haemoglobin,
2

assuming PO remains constant-

2

1. Glucose
1. Increased H levels, decreased temperature.
+

2. Amino Acids
2. Increased CO levels, increased acidity.
2
3. Nitrogenous waste
3. Decreased CO levels, decreased acidity.
2

4. Na+
4. Increased CO levels, increased temperature.
2

56. Pelvic girdle is made up of

60. Match the items given in Column I with those in
1. Two coxal bones Column II and select the correct option given below:
Column I Column II
2. Two sacral bones
a. Tricuspid
i. Between left atrium and left ventricle
3. Two Femur bones valve
b. Bicuspid ii. Between right ventricle and
4. Two glenoid cavity valve pulmonary artery
c. Semilunar iii. Between right atrium and right
valve ventricle
57. Which of the following is seen in Gout?
a b c
1. Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid (1) iii i ii
crystals
(2) i iii ii
2. Inflammation of bones due to accumulation of uric acid (3) i ii iii
crystals (4) ii i iii
3. Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of calcium

4. Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of estrogens 61. Which of the following is not a part of broad
classification of tissues in animals?

1. Epithelial tissue
58. Which of the following helps in the regulation of the
respiratory rhythm? 2. Muscular tissue

1. Respiratory rhythm centre 3. Vascular tissue

2. Pneumotaxic centre 4. Connective tissue

3. Aortic arch and carotid artery receptors

4. All of the above

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 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
62. The number of correct statements amongst the given 64. A __________is obtained when percentage saturation
statements is: of Hb with O2 is plotted against the pO2.

I. Amino acids are substitute methanes. 1. J shaped curve

II. The R group in serine is hydroxyl-methyl. 2. Sigmoid Curve
III. Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms including the 3. Exponential curve
carboxyl carbon.
4. None of these
IV. Glycerol is trihydroxypropane.

V. Lecithin is a phospholipid.
65. Consider the following statements:
1. 2
I. Somatic neural system relays impulses from CNS to
2. 3 skeletal muscles.
3. 4 II. Autonomic neural system transmits impulses from
CNS to involuntary organs and smooth muscles
4. 5
III. Unmyelinated nerve fibres are commonly found in
spinal and cranial nerves
63. Study the given diagram and choose the correct
Which of the above statements are true?
statements :
1. I and II only

2. I and III only

3. II and III only

4. I,II and III

66. A canal called as the cerebral aqueduct passes through

the:

1. Diencephalon

2. Mid brain

I. A is involved in the absorption of fatty acids 3. 3rd ventricle

II. B is a crypts 4. 4th ventricle

1. Only I

2. Only II 67. A hormone that is antagonist to the parathyroid

hormone is secreted from :
3. Both I and II 1. Thyroid
2. Adrenal cortex
4. Neither I nor II 3. Hypothalamus
4. Parathyroid itself

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 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
68. Which of the following hormone is known as 72. In which of the chromosomes two equal arms are
emergency hormone present

1. Adrenaline 1. sub-metacentric chromosome

2. Nor-adrenaline 2. metacentric chromosome

3. Catecholamines 3. acrocentric chromosome

4. All of these 4. telocentric chromosome

69. Which of the following inhibits gastric secretion? 73. Irregular thickening of arterial walls and narrowing of
their lumen due to deposition of plaque is
1. Gastrin
1. Atherosclerosis
2. Secretin
2. Arterisclerosis
3. Cholecystokinin
3. Varicose vein
4. Gastric inhibitory peptide
4. Rete mirabilla

70. Which of the following is an incorrect statement

74. Which amongst the following actions cannot be
1. Hormones bind to specific proteins located in the target classified as simple reflex actions?
tissues only.
1. Dancing
2. Receptors for hormones can only be present on the cell
membrane 2. Knee jerk

3. Each receptor is specific to one hormone only 3. Blinking

4. Nuclear receptors are intracellular receptors 4. Coughing

71. Which of the following is true about estrogen 75. Which of the following increases when there is
depolarisation of a nerve fibre?
1. responsible for high pitch of voice
1. Diffusion of sodium ions into the neuron
2. regulates female sexual behaviour
2. Diffusion of sodium ions out of the neuron
3. regulates growth of female secondary sex organs
3. Diffusion of potassium ions into the neuron
4. All of the above
4. Both 1 & 3

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 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
76. Which of the following bone/s is/are not a part of the 80. The life span of the erythrocytes in humans is about
axial skeleton?
1. 120 days
1. Skull bones
2. 150 days
2. Bones of vertebral column
3. 190 days
3. Bones of sternum and ribs
4. 180 days
4. Bones of pectoral and pelvic girdles

81. Many elements are found in living organisms either

77. Stinging capsules (nematocysts) are found in free or in the form of compounds. One of the following is
not found in living organisms.
1. Wasp and Physalia
1. Silicon
2. Adamsia and Scorpion
2. Magnesium
3. Sea pen and Sea fan
3. Iron
4. Meandrina and Tapeworm
4. Sodium

78. Vertebral column is formed in place of

82. Match the organism in Column-I with its excretory
1. Dorsal nerve cord structure in Column-II
Column-I Column-II
2. Ventral nerve cord
(a) Cockroach (p) Nephridia
3. Outgrowth of cranium (b) Earthworm (q) Proboscis gland
(c) Balanoglossus (r) Kidney
4. Notochord
(d) Clarias (s) Malpighian tubules

(a (b) (c) (d)

79. Which of the following structure of protein is
(1) (s) (p) (q) (r)
absolutely necessary for the many biological activites of
proteins (2) (s) (p) (r) (q)
(3) (q) (p) (r) (s)
1. Primary
(4) (s) (q) (r) (p)
2. Secondary

3. Tertiary
83. Epithelium responsible for providing protection
4. Quaternary against mechanical and chemical stresses is absent in
1. Pancreatic ducts
2. Ducts of salivary glands
3. Buccal cavity
4. Tubular parts of nephron

84. Gross calorific value of protein is:-

1. 5.65 k cal/g
2. 4.0 k cal/g
3. 4.1 k cal/g
4. 9.1 k cal / g

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 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
85. Different types of cones possess their own 88. Cell theory which was earlier proposed by Schleiden
characteristic photopigment that respond to specific and Schwann, failed to explain
wavelength of light. Upon equal stimulation of the cones,
the sensation of light produced is of which colour ? 1. how new cells are formed
1. Black
2. White 2. how cells die
3. Green
4. Orange 3. how cell division takes place

4. how a plant cell is different from an animal cell

Zoology - Section B
86. The hepatic portal system is
89. Find the wrong match:
1. Between digestive tract and hypothalamus
1. Churning movement- stomach
2. Between digestive tract and liver
2. Chyme- stomach
3. Between liver and hypothalamus
3. Bolus- mouth
4. Between liver and pituitary
4. Stomach- storage of food for 2 to 3 hrs

87. A, B, C, D and E in the following figure are,

respectively, 90. Which of the following is true for inspiration
1. thoracic chamber volume increases

2. Diaphragm contracts

3. pulmonary volume increases

4. All of these

91. The network of peritubular capillaries is formed by

1. Efferent Arteriole
2. Afferent Arteriole
3. Efferent Arteries
4. Afferent Arteries

1. Labium, mandible, hypopharynx, maxilla, labrum 92. The calcium ions released in sarcoplasm will bind to

2. Labrum, hypopharynx, maxilla, mandible, labium 1. Tropomyosin

2. Troponin
3. Labrum, mandible, hypopharynx, maxilla, labium 3. Actin
4. Meromyosin
4. Labium, maxilla, hypopharynx, labium, mandible

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 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
93. Visceral nervous system 97. A man has tumor in thyroid gland which adversely
affects the body physiology. This is because of
1. is a part of PNS
1. hyperthyroidism
2. is made up of Nerves, Fibres, Ganglia and Plexuses
2. hypothyroidism
3. transmits information from CNS to the viscera and
viscera to CNS 3. Both 1 and 2

4. All of the above 4. None of the above

94. _____ acts on ____ of nephron and helps in 98. Which of the following is true about Inclusion bodies
reabsorption of water and electrolytes.
1. membraneless
1. ADH, PCT
2. present freely in cytoplasm
2. ADH, DCT
3. store phosphate,glycogen
3. ADH, Loop of Henle
4. All of the above
4. None of these

99. The structure given below is of

95. In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with
flagellated cells called:
1. oscula

2. choanocytes

3. mesenchymal cells

4. ostia

1. A purine base
96. The point where optic nerve leaves and the retinal
blood vessels enter is 2. Adenosine

1. A point left to and slightly down the posterior pole of 3. Adenylic acid
the eyeball
4. A pyrimidine base
2. A point medial to and slightly above the posterior pole
of eye ball

3. A point right to and slightly above the posterior pole of 100. What is true for open circulatory system ?
eyeball 1. Cells and tissues are directly bathed in blood
2. Capillaries are present
4. A point medial to and slightly down the posterior pole 3. Blood is circulated only through a series of vessels of
of the eyeball varying diameter
4. Present in earthworm

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 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
104. The correct stability order for the following species
Chemistry - Section A is:
101. In which one of the following species the central
atom has the type of hybridization which is not the same
as that present in the other three ?

1. SF 4

2. I −

2−
3. SbCl 5

4. PCl 5

102. According to the MO theory, which of the following 1. II>IV>I>III

lists ranks the nitrogen species in terms of increasing bond
order? 2. II>I>III>IV

1. N −

2
< N2 < N
2
2−
3. II>I>IV>III

2. N 2−
< N
−
< N2
4. I>III>II>IV
2 2

3. N 2 < N
2−

2
< N
−

105. Paper chromatography is an example of

4. N −

2
< N
2−

2
< N2

1. Partition chromatography

2. Thin layer chromatography

103. Which of the following reaction in neither oxidation
nor reduction ? 3. Column chromatography

4. Adsorption chromatography
1. CrO 2−

4
→ Cr 2O
2−

2. Cr → CrCl3
106. Green chemists reduce risk by-
3. Na → Na+
1. Reducing the hazard inherent in a chemical product or
4. 2S 2O
3
2−
→ S 4O
2−

6
process

2. Minimizing the use of all chemicals

3. Inventing technologies that will clean up toxic sites

4. Developing recycled products

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 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
107. The correct statements among I to III regarding 111. Consider the following chemical reaction.
group 13 element oxides are, (1)RedhotFetube, 873 K

(I) Boron trioxide is acidic. CH ≡ CH −−−−−−−−−−−−−→ Product

(2) CO, HCl, AlCl3
(II) Oxides of aluminium and gallium are amphoteric.
(III) Oxides of indium and thallium are basic.
1. (I) and (II) only The number of sp2 hybridized carbon atom(s) present in
2. (I) and (III) only the product is -
3. (II) and (III) only
1. 6
4. (I), (II) and (III) only
2. 7
108. The molar solubility of Al(OH)3 in 0.2 M NaOH
solution is- 3. 8

Given that, solubility product of Al(OH)3= 2.4 × 10–24 4. 5

1. 3 × 10–22
2. 3 × 10–19
3. 12 × 10–21 112. The radius of the second Bohr orbit for hydrogen
atom is –
4. 12 × 10–22
(Planck's Const. h = 6.6262 × 10–34 Js; mass of electron =
9.1091 × 10–31 kg; charge of electron e = 1.60210 ×10–19
109. In which one of the following equilibria, Kp ≠ KC ? C; permittivity of vaccum ∈0 = 8.854185 ×10–12 kg–1m–
3A2)
1. 2N O(g) ⇌ N2 (g) + O2 (g)

1. 0.529 Å
2. 2C(s) + O 2 (g) ⇌ 2CO(g)

2. 2.12 Å
3. 2H I (g) ⇌ H2 (g) + I2 (g)

3. 1.65 Å
4. N O 2
(g) + SO2 (g) ⇌ N O(g) + SO3 (g)
4. 7.76 Å

110. Dichromate ion is treated with base, the oxidation

number of Cr in the product formed is- 113. pka of a weak acid (HA) and pkb of a weak base
(BOH) are 3.2 and 3.4, respectively. The pH of their salt
1. +6 (AB) solution is-

2. +4 1. 7.0

3. +5 2. 1.0

4. +2 3. 7.2

4. 6.9

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 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
114. Both lithium and magnesium display several similar 118. Among the following statements about water, the
properties due to the diagonal relationship; however, the FALSE statement is-
one which is incorrect, is-
1. Water is oxidized to oxygen during photosynthesis
1. Both form nitrides
2. Water can act both as an acid and as a base
2. Nitrates of both Li and Mg yield NO2 and O2 on
heating 3. There is extensive intramolecular hydrogen bonding in
the condensed phase
3. Both form basic carbonates
4. Ice formed by heavy water sinks in normal water
4. Both form soluble bicarbonates

119. The best description of the change that occurs when

115. The amount of water in litres must be added to 1 litre Na2O(s) are dissolved in water is-
of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to create an
aqueous solution with pH of 2, is- 1. Oxide ion accepts a shared pair of electrons

1. 2.0 L 2. Oxide ion donates a pair of electrons

2. 9.0 L 3. Oxidation number of oxygen increases

3. 0.1 L 4. Oxidation number of sodium decreases

4. 0.9 L

120. The IUPAC name of the following compound is

116. A gas absorbs a photos of 355 nm and emits at two

wavelengths. If one of the emissions is at 680 nm, the
other is at:

1. 1035 nm

2. 325 nm

3. 743 nm
1. 4-Bromo-3-cynaophenol
4. 518 nm
2. 2-Bromo-5-hydroxybenzonitrile

3. 2-Cyano-4-hydroxybromobenzene
117. 'a' and 'b' are van der Waals' constants for gases. 4. 6-Bromo-3-hydroxybenzonitrile
Chlorine is more easily liquefied than ethane because:

1. a and b for Cl2 > a and b for C2H6

2. and b for Cl2 < a and b for C2H6

3. a for Cl2 < a for C2H6 but b for Cl2 > b for C2H6

4. a for Cl2 > a for C2H6 but b for Cl2 < b for C2H6

Page: 15
 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
121. The order of stability of the following carbanion is 124. The increasing order of stability of the following free
radicals is:

1.
˙ ˙ ˙ ˙
(CH3 ) CH < (CH3 ) C < (C6 H5 ) CH < (C6 H5 ) C
2 3 2 3

2.
1. I>II>III>IV ˙ ˙ ˙ ˙
(C6 H5 ) C < (C6 H5 ) CH < (CH3 ) C < (CH3 ) CH
3 2 3 2

2. I>III>II>IV
3.
3. IV>III>II>I ˙ ˙ ˙ ˙
(C6 H5 ) CH < (C6 H5 ) C < (CH3 ) C < (CH3 ) CH
2 3 3 2

4. III>IV>I>II 4.
˙ ˙ ˙ ˙
(CHI3 ) CH < (CH3 ) C < (C6 H5 ) C < (C6 H5 ) CH
2 3 3 2

122. The decreasing order of nucleophilicity among the

give nucleophiles is-
125. To neutralize completely 20 mL of 0.1M aqueous
solution of phosphorus acid (H P O ), the volume of
3 3

0.1M aqueous KOH solution required is:

1. 10 mL
(A)
(B) CH 3
−
O 2. 20 mL
(C) CN −

3. 40 mL

4. 60 mL

(D) 126. The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and carbon

monoxide are -393.5 and -283 kJ mol-1 respectively. The
1. (C), (B), (A), (D) enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide per mole is:
2. (B), (C), (A), (D) 1. 110.5 kJ
3. (D), (C), (B), (A) 2. 676.5 kJ
4. (A), (B), (C), (D) 3. -676.5 kJ

4. -110.5 kJ
123. The molecules/ions do not contain unpaired electrons
among the following is-
127. (ΔH − ΔU ) for the formation of carbon
1. O 2−

2 monoxide (CO) from its elements at 298 K is :

2. B2 (R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1)

3. N 2
+
1. -1238.78 J mol-1

4. O2 2. 1238.78 J mol-1

3. -2477.57 mol-1

4. 2477.57 mol-1 Page: 16

 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
128. The number of π-bonds in the formula given below, 133.
NC—CH=CH—CN are:
1. 5
2. 4
3. 3 Product B is-
4. 2

129. Number of atoms in 560g of Fe (atomic mass 56 g

mol-1 ) is-

1. Twice that of 70 g N

2. Half that of 20 g H 1.
3. Both 1 and 2

4. None of the above 2.

130. According to the periodic law of elements, the 3.

variation in properties of elements is related to their :

1. Atomic masses
4.
2. Nuclear mass

3. Atomic numbers 134.

4. Nuclear neutron-proton number ratio

131. The internal energy change when a system goes from

state A to B is 40 k J/mol . If the system goes from A to B
by a reversible path and returns to state A by an irrversible Major product of the
path , what would be the net change in internal energy ? reaction is :
1. 2,4- dinitrophenol
1. 40 kJ 2. 3,4-dinitrophenol
3. 2,4,6-trinitrophenol
2. >40kJ 4. 3,4,5-trinitrophenol
3. < 40 kJ
135. The correct IUPAC name of the given compound is-
4. zero

132. The correct sequence of increasing order of viscosity

among the following is -

1. Hexane < Water = Glycerine

2. Hexane > Water < Glycerine 1. 3,5,6-Trimethyloctane
3. Hexane < Water > Glycerine 2. 1,2,3,6-Tetramethylheptane
4. Hexane < Water < Glycerine. 3. 3,4,6-Trimethyloctane
4. None of the above

Page: 17
 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
140. In an estimation of bomine by Carius method, 1.6g of
Chemistry - Section B an organic compound gave 1.88g of AgBr. The mass
136. B.O.D is- percentage of bromine in the compound is -

(1) The amount of O utilized by organisms in the water

2 [Atomic mass, Ag=108, Br=80 g mol −1
]

(2) The amount of O2 utilized by microorganisms for 1. 50 %

decomposition
2. 55.5%
(3) The total amount of O present in water
2

3. 60 %
(4) All of the above
4. 70 %

137. Which of the following cannot act both as Bronsted

acid and as Bronsted base? 141. The standard Gibbs energy change at 300 K for the
reaction 2A ⇌ B + C is 2494.2 J. At a given time, the
1. H CO −
composition of the reaction mixture is
3

[A]=
1

2
, [B]= 2 and [C]= . The reaction proceeds
1

2
2. NH 3
in the:
3. HCl [R=8.314 J/K/mol]
4. H SO −

4 1. Forward direction because Q > K C

2. Reverse direction because Q > K C

138. Main axis of a diatomic molecule is z, molecular 3. Forward direction because Q < K C

orbtial px and py overlaps to form, which of the following

4. Reverse direction because Q < K
orbital : - C

1. π molecular orbtial
2. σ molecular orbital 142. If 10−4 dm3 of water is introduced into a 1.0 dm3
3. δ molecular orbtial
4. No bond will form flask at 300 K. The total number of moles of water are in
the vapour phase (equilibrium is established)is-
139. The one that is not suitable for the removal of
(Given: Vapour pressure of H2O at 300 K is 3170 pa; R =
permanent hardness of water is :
0.0821 atm L K−1 mol−1 )
1. Treatment with sodium carbonate
2. Calgon's method 1. 1.26 x 10−3 mol
3. Clark's method
4. Ion-exchange method 2. 5.56 x 10−3 mol

3. 1.53 x10−2 mol

4. 4346 x 10-2 mol

Page: 18
 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
143. For a particular reversible reaction at temperature T, 147. A hydrocarbon of molecular formula C6H10 reacts
∆H and ∆S were found to be both +ve. If Te is the with sodamide and the same on ozonolysis
temperature at equilibrium, the reaction would be followed by hydrogen peroxide oxidation gives two
spontaneous when molecules of carboxylic acids, one being
optically active. Then, the hydrocarbon maybe
1. T = Te
1. 1-Hexyne
2. Te > T
2. 3-Hexyne
3. T > Te
3. 3-Methyl-1-pentyne
4. Te is 5 times T 4. 3,3-Dimethyl-1-butyne

144. Metamers of ethyl propionate are- 148. The ion has the highest value of ionic radius among
the following is-
1. C4H9COOH and HCOOC4H9
1. Li+
2. C4H9COOH and CH3COOC3H7
2. B3+
3. CH3COOCH3 and CH3COOC3H7
3. O2-
4. CH3COOC3H7 and C3H7COOCH3
4. F-

145. (Me)2SiCl2 on hydrolysis, followed by condensation

polymerization yields- 149. In the reaction,

1. (Me) 2
Si(OH)2
(i)N aN H2 /N H3 (l)

CH3 − C ≡ C − H −−−−−−−−−−−→ (A)

2. (Me) 2 Si =O CH3 −CH2 −CH2 −Br

−−−−−−−−−−−−−→ (B);

(1)CH3 − C ≡ C − CH 2 − CH2 − CH3

3. (2)CH3 − CH = CH2

(3)CH3 − CH2 − C ≡ C − CH2 − CH3

4. Me 2
SiCl(OH)

(4)CH3 − CH = C = CH − CH2 − CH3

150. The ground state magnetic property of B2 and C2

146. Lattice energy of an ionic compound depends upon: molecules will be :
1. B2 paramagnetic and C2 diamagnetic
1. Charge on the ion and size of the ion
2. B2 diamagnetic and C2 paramagnetic
2. Packing of ions only 3. Both are diamagnetic
4. Both are paramagnetic
3. Size of the ion only

4. Charge on the ion only

Page: 19
 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
157. A particle of mass m is at rest at the origin at time t =
Physics - Section A 0. It is subjected to a force F (t) =F e 0
−bt
in the x-
151. The velocity of a particle depends upon the time t direction. Its speed v(t) is depicted by which of the
according to the equation: following curves?
c
v=√ab+bt+
d+t

The physical quantities which are represented by a,b,c and

d are in the following order:
1. distance, distance, acceleration, time
2. distance acceleration, distance, time
3. acceleration, distance, distance, time
4. none of the above 1.
152. A body is dropped from a height of 100 m. At what
height the velocity of the body will be equal to one-half of
the velocity when it hits the ground?
1. 25 m
2. 55 m
3. 65 m
4. 75 m 2.

153. If the time of flight of a projectile is doubled, what

happens to the maximum height attained?
1. Halved
2. Remains unchanged
3. Doubled
4. Becomes four times
3.
154. A projectile with a linear momentum p makes an
angle θ with the horizontal. The change in momentum of
the projectile on return to the ground state will be:
1. 2p
2. 2p cos θ
3. 2p sin θ
4. 2p tan θ
4.
155. A projectile moves from the ground such that its
horizontal displacement is x = kt and vertical
displacement is y=kt (1−αt), where k and α are
constants and t is time. Find out the total time of flight (T)
and maximum height attained (ymax):
k
1. T =α, y
max
=
2α

2k
2. T = 1
α
, ymax = α

k
3. T = 1

α
, ymax =
6α
k
4. T = 1

α
, y
max
=
4α

156. A rope of length 8 m and linear density 0.5 kg/m is

lying lengthwise on a horizontal smooth floor. It is pulled
by a force of 12 N. The tension at the mid-point would be:
1. 12 N
2. 8 N
3. 6 N
4. 4 N

Page: 20
 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
158. A mass M of 100 kg is suspended with the use of 162. A cricket mat of mass 50 kg is rolled loosely in the
strings A, B and C as shown in the figure, where W is the form of a cylinder of radiys 2 m. Now, again it is rolled
vertical wall and R is a rigid horizontal rod. The tension in tightly so that the radius becomes th of original value;
3

the string B is: 4

then the ratio of moment of inertia of mat in the two cases

is:
1. 1:3
2. 4:3
3. 16:9
4. 3:5

163. A thin rod of length L and mass M is held vertically

with one end on the floor and is allowed to fall. Find the
velocity of the other end when it hits the floor, assuming
that the end on the floor does not slip:
3g
1. √ L

1. 100 g N 2. √3gL

2. zero L
3. √
3. 100√2 g N
3g

100 g
4. g N 4. √ 3L
√2

159. How many 2.5 kg bricks can a man carry up a 164. Four 2 kg masses are connected by 1/4 m spokes to
staircase 3.6 m high in one hour if he works at the average an axle as in figure given below. A force F of 24 N acts on
rate of 9.8 watts? a lever 1/2 m long to produce an angular acceleration α.
1. 800 The magnitude of α (in rad/sec2) is:
2. 200
3. 600
4. 400

160. Two identical 5 kg blocks are moving with the same

speed of 2 m/s towards each other along a frictionless
horizontal surface. Two blocks collide, stick together and
come to rest. Consider the two blocks as a system. The
work done by external and internal forces are respectively:
1. 0,0
1. 2
2. 0, 20 J
2. 12
3. 0, -20 J
3. 6
4. 20 J, -20 J
4. 3
161. If the potential energy of a gas molecule is
M N
U= −
r
, M and N being positive constants, then the
6
r
12

potential energy at equilibrium must be:

1. zero
2. M2/4N
3. N2/4M
4. MN2/4

Page: 21
 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
165. A disc is rolling (without slipping) on a frictionless 169. Kepler's second law is based on:
surface. C is its center and Q and P are two points 1. Newton's first law
equidistant from C. Let VP, VQ and VC be the magnitudes 2. Newton's second law
of veloc ities of points P, Q and C respectively, then: 3. Special theory of relativity
4. Conservation of angular momentum

170. Elastic modulus for an elastic material compared to

relatively inelastic material is:
1. Less
2. Equal
3. More
4. Can't say

171. A ball of mass m and radius r is released in a viscous

1. VQ > VC > VP liquid. The value of its terminal velocity is proportional
2. VQ < VC < VP to:
3. VQ = VP, V =
1
VP
1. 1/ r only
C
2
2. m/r
4. VQ < VC > VP
3. (m/r)1/2
4. m only
166. Three identical square plates rotate about the axes
shown in the figure in such a way that their kinetic 172. A 10 cm long wire is placed horizontally on the
energies are equal. Each of the rotation axes passes surface of the water and is gently pulled up with a force
through the centre of the square. Then the ratio of angular
of 2 × 10 N . To keep the wire in equilibrium, the
−2

speeds ω : ω : ω is:
surface tension of water (in Nm-1) is: [Assume weight of
1 2 3

wire is negligible]
1. 0.1
2. 0.2
3. 0.001
4. 0.002

173. At what speed, the velocity head of water is equal to

pressure head of 40 cm of Hg?
1. [Link] 1. 10.32 m/s
2. √2 : √2 : 1 2. 2.8 m/s
3. 1 : √2 : 1 3. 5.6 m/s
4. 1 : 2 : √2 4. 8.4 m/s

167. A solid sphere rolls down two different inclined 174. If the pressure and temperature of an ideal gas is
planes of the same height but of different inclinations: doubled and volume is halved, the number of molecules of
1. in both cases, the speeds and time of descent will be the gas:
same 1. remains constant
2. the speeds will be same but time of descent will be 2. becomes half
different 3. becomes two times
3. the speeds will be different but time of descent will be 4. becomes four times
same
4. speeds and time of descent both will be different 175. The coefficient of cubical expansion of water is -ve
between 0oC and:
168. A satellite with kinetic energy E is revolving round 1. 4oC
the earth in a circular orbit. The minimum additional o
kinetic energy required for it to escape into outer space is: 2. 10 C
1. 2E 3. 15.5oC
2. E/√2 4. 100oC
3. E/2
4. E

Page: 22
 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
176. An experiment takes 10 min for an electric kettle to 181. The displacement-time equation of a particle
heat a certain quantity of water from 0oC to 100oC. If it executing SHM is: x=A sin(ωt+ϕ). At time t = 0, the
takes 54 min to convert this water at 100oC into steam, position of the particle is x = A/2 and it is moving along
then latent heat of steam is: negative X-direction. Then, the angle ϕ can be:
π

1. 80 cal/gm 1. 6

2. 540 cal/kg 2.
π

3
3. 540 cal/gm
4. 80 cal/kg 3. 2π

3
5π
4. 6
177. The P-V diagram of 2 g of helium gas for a certain
process A → B is shown in the figure. What is the heat 182. Starting from the origin, a body oscillates simple
given to the gas during the process A→B? harmonically with a period of 2s. After what time will its
kinetic energy be 75% of the total energy?
1. 1/12 sec
2. 1/6 sec
3 1/4 sec
4. 1/3 sec

183. If a spring balance having frequency f is taken on the

moon (having g' =g/6), it will have a frequency of:
1. 6f
2. f /√6
1. 4 P0V0 3. √6f
2. 6 P0V0 4. f
3. 4.5 P0V0
184. The wave described by y=0.25 sin(10πx+2πt),
4. 2 P0V0
where x and y are in meters and t in seconds, is a wave
traveling along the:
178. In the adiabatic compression, the decrease in volume
is associated with:
1. +ve X-direction with frequency 1 Hz and wavelength
1. increase in temperature and decrease in pressure
λ=0.2 m
2. decrease in temperature and increase in pressure
2. -ve X-direction with amplitude 0.25 m and wavelength
3. decrease in temperature and decrease in pressure
λ=0.2 m
4. increase in temperature and increase in pressure
3. -ve X-direction with frequency 2 Hz
4. +ve X-direction with frequency π Hz and wavelength
179. A gas is heated at constant pressure. The fraction of
λ=0.2 m
heat supplied used for external work is:
1. 1

185. Two tuning forks of frequencies n and n produce n

γ
1 2
2. (1− 1
) beats per second. If n2 and n are known, n1 may be given
γ

by:
3. γ−1 n2
1. +nn 2
4. (1− 1

γ
2
)
2. n2n
3. n ± n
2
180. For an ideal monoatomic gas, the universal gas 4. −n
n2

2
constant R is n times the molar heat capacity at constant n

pressure Cp. Here n is:

1. 0.67
2. 1.4
Physics - Section B
186. The least count of a stopwatch is 0.1 sec. The time of
3. 0.4
20 oscillations of the pendulum is found to be 20 sec. The
4. 1.67
percentage error in the time period is:
1. 0.25 %
2. 0.5 %
3. 0.75 %
4. 1.0 %
Page: 23
 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
187. The location of a particle is changed. What can we 192. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls down a
say about the displacement and distance covered by the smooth inclined plane. The speed of its centre of mass
particle? when it reaches the bottom is: (h is the height of inclined
1. Both cannot be zero plane)
2. One of the two may be zero 1. √2gh
3. Both must be zero
4. If one is positive, the other is negative, and vice-versa 2. √ 4

3
gh

188. A particle is moving along a circular path with a 3. √ 3

4
gh

uniform speed. Through what angle does its angular 4. √4g/h

velocity change when it completes half of the circular
path?
193. What is the weight of a body at a distance 2r from the
1. 0o centre of the earth if the magnitude of the gravitational
2. 45o potential energy of the body at a distance r from the centre
3. 180o of the earth is U?
4. 360o
U
1. 2r
U
2.
189. A car is moving along a circular path of radius 500 m 3r

U
with a speed of 30 m/s. If at some instant, its speed 3. 4r

increases at the rate of 2 m/s2, then at that instant the 4. Ur

magnitude of resultant acceleration will be:
1. 4.7 m/s2 194. The Bulk modulus of a perfectly rigid body is equal
to:
2. 3.8 m/s2 1. zero
3. 3 m/s2 2. unity
4. 2.7 m/s2 3. infinity
4. may have any finite non-zero value
190. The block of mass M moving on the frictionless
horizontal surface collides with the spring of spring 195. An air bubble of radius r in water is at depth h below
constant k and compresses it by length L. The momentum the water surface at some instant. If P is atmospheric
of the block after collision may be: pressure, d and T are density and surface tension of water
1
1. √M kL respectively, the pressure inside the bubble will be:
2
3
1. P + hdg - (4T/r)
2. 2
√M kL
2. P + hdg + (2T/r)
3.
5
√M kL 3. P + hdg - (2T/r)
2
4. P + hdg + (4T/r)
4. 2√M kL
196. On any planet, the presence of atmosphere implies:
191. A man of mass m climbs a rope of length L (where v = root mean square velocity of molecules and
rms
suspended below a balloon of mass M. The balloon is
ve = escape velocity)
stationary with respect to the ground. If the man begins to
→ 1. vrms < ve
climb up the rope at velocity v (relative to rope), in
rel
2. vrms > ve
what direction and with what speed (relative to ground)
will the balloon move? 3. vrms = ve
→ →
m
4. vrms = 0
1. V = M
v rel

→
2. V =−
m →
v rel
197. Which of the following statements is true for a
M
thermometer?
→
3. V =−
m →
v rel
1. Coefficient of cubical expansion of liquid must be
(m+M )
greater than that of bulb material
→
4. V =+
m →
v rel
2. Coefficient of cubical expansion of liquid may be equal
(m+M ) to that of bulb material
3. Coefficient of cubical expansion of liquid must be less
than that of bulb material
4. None of the above
Page: 24
 NEET Level Test (03-Apr) Part Syllabus - XIth Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
198. In the case of forced vibration, the resonance wave
becomes very sharp when the:
1. quality factor is small
2. dampening force is small
3. restoring force is small
4. applied periodic force is small

199. A particle on the trough of a wave at any instant will

come to the mean position after a time: (T = time period)
1. T/2
2. T/4
3. T
4. 2T

200. The equation of a wave on a string of linear mass

density 0.04 kg m-1 is given by:
t x
y=0.02 (m) sin[2π ( − )] . The tension
0.04(s) 0.50(m)

in the string is:

1. 4.0 N
2. 12.5 N
3. 0.5 N
4. 6.25 N

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