PHARMACOLOGY MCQs
1. Which of the following is TRUE about drug receptors?
A. A drug receptor is a carbohydrate structure
B. A drug receptor lacks a ligand-binding domain
C. A drug receptor may be an ion channel
D. A drug receptor lacks an effector domain
E. A drug receptor has both ligand-binding and effector domains
2. Processes that diminish drug receptor activity include all EXCEPT:
A. Deactivation
B. Dimination
C. Tardiness
D. Tachyphylaxis
E. Desensitization
3. Which statement about orally administered drugs is CORRECT?
A. They give 100% bioavailability
B. They require absorption to act
C. They are always better absorbed in the stomach
D. They never irritate the stomach
E. They are not affected by enterohepatic inactivation
4. From a single dose-response curve, which can be obtained?
A. Median effective dose (ED50)
B. Therapeutic index
C. Minimum effective concentration
D. Effective doses
E. Sub-threshold doses
5. Muscarinic agonists include which of the following?
A. Oxotremorine
B. Hyoscine
C. Carbachol
D. Pirenzepine
E. Methacholine
6. Which factor would enhance the absorption of alkaline drugs like protamine from the
stomach?
A. Concomitant administration of aspirin
B. High lipid solubility of ionized form
C. Increased gastric emptying
D. Prior use of antacid
E. Binding digestible food
7. Bethanechol belongs to which class of drugs?
A. Nicotinic blocker
B. beta-1 blocker
C. beta-2 blocker
D. Muscarinic agonist
E. Muscarinic antagonist
8. Which of the following are neuromuscular blocking drugs?
A. Tubocurarine
B. Suxamethonium
C. Gallamine
D. Vecuronium
E. Ecothiopate
9. Pilocarpine reduces intraocular pressure in glaucoma because it:
A. Activates nicotinic cholinoceptors
B. Blocks muscarinic cholinoceptors
C. Inhibits acetylcholinesterase
D. Is a beta-1 blocker
E. None of the above
10. Which drug is used to diagnose myasthenia gravis?
A. Atropine
B. Neostigmine
C. Bethanechol
D. Edrophonium
E. Pralidoxime
11. Which neurotransmitter interacts with guanethidine?
A. Acetylcholine
B. Adrenaline
C. Dopamine
D. Noradrenaline
E. Serotonin
12. Examples of anticholinesterases include:
A. Dyflos
B. Vecuronium
C. Apritinin
D. Pyridostigmine
E. Prazocin
13. Parasympatholytics include all EXCEPT:
A. Dicyclomine
B. Atropine
C. Cyclopentolate
D. Pilocarpine
E. Dopamine
14. Which drugs affect acetylcholine release or destruction?
A. 4-Aminopyridine
B. Neostigmine
C. Vesamicol
D. Botulinum toxin
E. Magnesium ion
15. Which statements about adrenoceptors are CORRECT?
A. Alpha receptors mediate excitatory effects of NA except in gut
B. beta-1, beta-2, beta-3 stimulate adenylate cyclase
C. Alpha-2 found mainly presynaptically
D. beta-1 found in heart and adipose tissue
E. Potency: adrenaline < noradrenaline
16. Clinical uses of adrenoceptor agonists include:
A. Heart failure
B. Abortion
C. Asthma
D. Hypoglycaemia
E. Anaphylaxis
17. Examples of adrenoceptor antagonists include:
A. Yohimbine
B. Atenolol
C. Salmeterol
D. Clenbuterol
E. Phenoxybenzamine
18. Which is a selective beta-2 adrenoceptor antagonist?
A. Butoxamine
B. Dibenamine
C. Salbutamol
D. Labetalol
E. Propranolol
19. Factors determining drug availability at site of action include:
A. Molecular size
B. Molecular shape
C. Partition coefficient
D. Ionization degree
E. Protein binding
20. Which is TRUE regarding zero-order kinetics?
A. Elimination is variable
B. Clearance decreases with concentration
C. Elimination is constant per unit time
D. Rate independent of drug concentration
E. Rate proportional to concentration
21. Which is TRUE about drug metabolism?
A. All drugs must be metabolized
B. Drugs may be excreted without metabolism
C. Exhaled air route only for volatile drugs
D. Elimination involves metabolism only
E. All are false
22. Drugs are eliminated via:
A. Saliva
B. Bile
C. Urine
D. Breast milk
E. Exhaled air
23. Drugs actively reabsorbed include:
A. Glucose
B. Penicillins
C. Fluorides
D. Salicylic acid
E. Halothane
24. Renal excretion mechanisms include all EXCEPT:
A. Osmosis
B. Glomerular filtration
C. Tubular secretion
D. Apoptosis
E. Reabsorption
25. Phase 2 metabolism reactions include:
A. Glucuronidation
B. Sulfation
C. Methylation
D. Acetylation
E. Oxidation
26. Phase 1 metabolism reactions include:
A. Hydroxylation
B. Dealkylation
C. Condensation
D. Deamination
E. Hydrolysis
27. Sites of drug metabolism include:
A. Pancreas
B. Lungs
C. Skin
D. Liver
E. Kidney
28. Which is TRUE of drug metabolism?
A. Phase 1 must come before phase 2
B. Drugs can be eliminated after phase 1
C. Only phase 2 leads to elimination
D. Metabolism always inactivates
E. Drugs can be eliminated without metabolism
29. Examples of prodrugs include:
A. Prednisone
B. Primaquine
C. Paracetamol
D. Proguanil
E. Methyldopa
30. Which are TRUE of beta-blockers?
A. All have same intrinsic activity
B. Cause postural hypotension
C. Differ in cardioselectivity
D. Increase oxygen demand
E. Cause erectile dysfunction
31. Second messengers involved in drug action include:
A. Cytoplasmic guanylyl cyclase
B. Nitric oxide
C. Adrenaline
D. Cyclic GMP
E. Nicotine
32. Which are TRUE or FALSE?
A. Nicotinic ACh receptor is ion-channel
B. GABA receptor is GPCR
C. Calcium release involved in striated muscle
D. Insulin is a receptor ligand
E. Acetylcholine is not a ligand
33. Receptor-mediated drug action involves:
A. Dopamine
B. Insulin
C. Codeine
D. Estrogen
E. Aspirin
34. Non-receptor mechanisms include:
A. Alcohol as antiseptic
B. Deferoxamine chelates iron
C. Bicarbonate for ulcers
D. Mannitol on kidney
E. Estrogen in uterus
35. A drug binding without activation is:
A. An agonist
B. An antagonist
C. A partial agonist
D. Has intrinsic activity between 0 and 1
E. Non-competitive antagonist
36. M1 receptors are mainly found in:
A. Heart
B. Salivary glands
C. Peripheral neurons
D. Gastric parietal cells
E. CNS
