Physics Punjab Textbook Board Class-09

Chapter
03 Dynamics
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Newton’s First Law is also known as the law of:
a. Acceleration b. Inertia
c. Momentum d. Force
2. Which of the following quantities is a vector?
a. Speed b. Distance
c. Acceleration d. Work
3. A force of 10 N is applied to a mass of 2 kg. The acceleration produced is:
a. 20 m/s² b. 5 m/s²
c. 0.2 m/s² d. 12 m/s²
4. The unit of force in the SI system is:
a. Dyne b. Newton
c. Pascal d. Watt
5. Which of the following is an example of a non-contact force?
a. Friction b. Tension
c. Gravitational force d. Normal force
6. Momentum is defined as:
a. Force × time b. Mass × velocity
c. Mass × acceleration d. Velocity / time
7. A car accelerates from rest to 20 m/s in 10 seconds. What is the acceleration?
a. 2 m/s² b. 0.5 m/s²
c. 5 m/s² d. 10 m/s²
8. The rate of change of momentum is equal to:
a. Acceleration b. Mass
c. Force d. Velocity

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9. What is the force required to stop a 4 kg object moving at 8 m/s in 2 seconds?

a. 32 N b. 16 N
c. 4 N d. 8 N
10. In uniform circular motion, the acceleration is directed:
a. Tangential to the path b. In the direction of motion
c. Perpendicular to the plane of motion
d. Toward the center
11. A net force acts on a body. Which of the following will always occur?
a. The body remains at rest
b. The body moves with constant velocity
c. The body accelerates d. The body maintains momentum
12. Action and reaction forces:
a. Act on the same object b. Are unequal in magnitude
c. Act on different objects d. Act in the same direction
13. A 5 kg object is moving with a velocity of 3 m/s. Its momentum is:
a. 15 kg·m/s b. 1.5 kg·m/s
c. 8 kg·m/s d. 10 kg·m/s
14. The relationship between impulse and momentum is:
a. Impulse = Force × velocity b. Impulse = Change in velocity
c. Impulse = Change in momentum d. Impulse = Mass × force
15. A constant force acts on an object. What happens to the object's velocity?
a. It stays the same b. It increases linearly
c. It increases exponentially d. It decreases
16. What is the SI unit of force?
a. Kilogram b. Dyne
c. Newton d. Pascal

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17. Which physical quantity is defined as the product of mass and acceleration?
a. Momentum b. Force
c. Power d. Energy
18. A force is a:
a. Scalar quantity b. Vector quantity
c. Unitless quantity d. Constant for all bodies
19. Which of the following forces is contact in nature?
a. Magnetic force b. Gravitational force
c. Frictional force d. Electrostatic force
20. Which law states that force is equal to the rate of change of momentum?
a. Newton’s First Law b. Newton’s Second Law
c. Newton’s Third Law d. Law of Gravitation
21. Which of the following is not a fundamental force in nature?
a. Gravitational force b. Strong nuclear force
c. Electromagnetic force d. Frictional force
22. When two forces of equal magnitude act in opposite directions, the net force
is:
a. Doubled b. Zero
c. Half d. Infinite
23. A force can change which of the following?
a. Shape of an object b. Speed of an object
c. Direction of motion d. All of the above
24. The force that opposes the motion of a body is:
a. Tension b. Friction
c. Normal force d. Applied force

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25. What is the direction of the normal force acting on a body resting on a
surface?
a. Along the surface b. Vertically downward
c. Perpendicular to the surface, upward
d. Same as the weight
26. The gravitational force between two bodies depends on:
a. Their volumes b. Their charges
c. Their masses and distance d. Their densities
27. Which of the following forces is always attractive in nature?
a. Magnetic force b. Gravitational force
c. Electrostatic force d. Frictional force
28. If an object has zero net force acting on it, the object is:
a. Accelerating b. At rest
c. In uniform motion or at rest d. Moving in a circle
29. Which of the following best defines a net (resultant) force?
a. The total number of forces acting b. The sum of magnitudes of forces
c. The vector sum of all forces
d. The difference between the largest and smallest force
30. Which of these is not a property of force?
a. It has direction b. It causes acceleration
c. It has mass d. It can deform objects
31. How many fundamental forces are there in nature?
a. 2 b. 3
c. 4 d. 5
32. Which of the following is the weakest fundamental force?
a. Electromagnetic force b. Strong nuclear force
c. Weak nuclear force d. Gravitational force

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33. Which force is responsible for holding protons and neutrons together in the
nucleus?
a. Weak nuclear force b. Electromagnetic force
c. Gravitational force d. Strong nuclear force
34. The electromagnetic force acts between:
a. Only charged particles b. Only neutral particles
c. Any particles with mass d. Only electrons
35. Which force is responsible for radioactive beta decay?
a. Electromagnetic force b. Gravitational force
c. Weak nuclear force d. Strong nuclear force
36. Which of the following forces has infinite range?
a. Gravitational and electromagnetic b. Strong and weak nuclear
c. Only strong nuclear d. Only weak nuclear
37. Which force acts between two neutrons?
a. Electromagnetic b. Gravitational
c. Strong nuclear d. Both B and C
38. Which fundamental force has the shortest range?
a. Electromagnetic b. Gravitational
c. Weak nuclear d. Strong nuclear
39. Which force is attractive for like charges?
a. Gravitational force b. Electromagnetic force
c. Weak force d. None
40. What particle mediates the electromagnetic force?
a. Gluon b. W and Z bosons
c. Graviton d. Photon
41. Which particles mediate the weak nuclear force?
a. W and Z bosons b. Gravitons
c. Photons d. Gluons

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42. The strong nuclear force is mediated by:

a. W bosons b. Gluons
c. Photons d. Gravitons
43. Which force binds electrons to the nucleus?
a. Strong nuclear force b. Weak nuclear force
c. Gravitational force d. Electromagnetic force
44. Which force dominates at the atomic and subatomic level but not at
macroscopic scales?
a. Gravitational force b. Electromagnetic force
c. Strong nuclear force d. Weak nuclear force
45. Which of the following forces can be either attractive or repulsive?
a. Gravitational b. Electromagnetic
c. Strong nuclear d. Weak nuclear
46. A free-body diagram represents:
a. All external forces acting on the object
b. All the internal and external forces on a system
c. Only internal forces on the object d. All forces acting in the universe
47. Which of the following is not typically shown in a free-body diagram?
a. Weight b. Normal force
c. Acceleration d. Tension
48. The weight of an object always acts:
a. Horizontally b. Opposite to normal force
c. Vertically downward d. Perpendicular to velocity
49. Which force acts perpendicular to a surface supporting an object?
a. Tension b. Friction
c. Normal force d. Weight

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50. Which force resists the motion of an object sliding across a surface?
a. Normal force b. Tension
c. Friction d. Gravity
51. In a free-body diagram, tension in a string is shown:
a. Away from the object along the string
b. Perpendicular to the string
c. Toward the object d. Vertically upward only
52. A book rests on a horizontal table. Which pair of forces is correctly shown in
the FBD?
a. Weight and normal force b. Weight and friction
c. Friction and tension d. Tension and normal force
53. In an inclined plane FBD, the weight is typically resolved into:
a. Tension and friction b. Normal and frictional forces
c. Horizontal and vertical components
d. Parallel and perpendicular to the incline
54. In a free-body diagram, arrows represent:
a. Force direction and magnitude b. Displacement
c. Mass d. Acceleration
55. If an object is suspended by a rope, the forces in the FBD are:
a. Weight and friction b. Weight and normal force
c. Tension and weight d. Tension and friction
56. For an object sliding down a ramp, the frictional force in the FBD acts:
a. Perpendicular to the ramp b. In the direction of motion
c. Vertically upward d. Up the ramp, opposite to motion
57. An object is pulled to the right with force F, and there's friction. In the FBD,
which forces appear horizontally?
a. Only force F b. Force F and friction
c. Force F and weight d. Force F and normal force

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58. What is the net force shown in an FBD when all forces are balanced?
a. Zero b. Maximum
c. Equal to weight d. Cannot be determined
59. An elevator is accelerating upward. The FBD of a person inside includes:
a. Only normal force b. Normal force > weight
c. Weight > normal force d. No normal force
60. When drawing an FBD of a system, internal forces between objects:
a. Must be included b. Must be ignored
c. Are the only important ones d. Are always zero
61. Newton's First Law is also known as the law of:
a. Gravitation b. Acceleration
c. Inertia d. Motion
62. A body will continue in its state of rest or motion unless:
a. It becomes heavier b. Friction acts
c. A net external force acts on it d. It reaches terminal velocity
63. Which of the following is the correct form of Newton's Second Law?
a. F = mv b. F = ma
c. F = m/a d. F = m^2a
64. A heavier object requires more force to accelerate because:
a. It has more volume b. It has more density
c. It has more inertia d. It has more charge
65. Newton’s Third Law states:
a. Force equals mass times acceleration
b. Objects in motion remain in motion
c. Every action has an equal and opposite reaction
d. Energy is conserved in all interactions

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66. A gun recoils when fired. This is an example of:

a. Newton’s First Law b. Newton’s Second Law
c. Newton’s Third Law d. Law of conservation of energy
67. In the absence of an external force, a moving object:
a. Stops b. Slows down
c. Speeds up d. Moves with constant velocity
68. A ball is dropped from a height. The force responsible for its acceleration is:
a. Friction b. Tension
c. Normal force d. Gravity
69. According to Newton’s Second Law, acceleration is:
a. Directly proportional to force b. Inversely proportional to mass
c. Both A and B d. Constant for all bodies
70. A person jumps from a boat to a dock. The boat moves backward due to:
a. Inertia b. Gravity
c. Newton’s Second Law d. Newton’s Third Law
71. If no net force is acting on an object, it will:
a. Accelerate
b. Stay at rest or move with constant velocity
c. Fall d. Rotate
72. When a bat hits a ball, the ball exerts a force on the bat that is:
a. Greater b. Less
c. Equal d. Zero
73. A net force acting on a mass causes:
a. Inertia b. Rest
c. Constant speed d. Acceleration
74. What is the net force on an object moving with constant velocity?
a. Positive b. Negative
c. Zero d. Equal to its mass

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75. If two unequal masses are acted on by equal forces, the one with lesser mass
will have:
a. Greater acceleration b. Lesser acceleration
c. Same acceleration d. Zero acceleration
76. The law of inertia is also known as:
a. Newton's Second Law b. Newton's Third Law
c. Newton's First Law d. Law of Gravitation
77. Inertia is the tendency of a body to:
a. Accelerate on its own
b. Resist a change in its state of motion
c. Come to rest automatically d. Gain energy when moving
78. Which physical quantity is a measure of inertia?
a. Force b. Velocity
c. Mass d. Volume
79. An object in motion will continue in motion with constant velocity unless:
a. Gravity acts on it b. Friction is present
c. A net external force acts on it d. It reaches a high speed
80. A passenger lurches forward when a bus stops suddenly. This is due to:
a. Acceleration b. Reaction force
c. Inertia d. Friction
81. In space, an object once thrown will:
a. Stop after some time b. Change direction
c. Keep moving at constant speed d. Fall to Earth
82. Which of the following has the most inertia?
a. A small rubber ball b. A bowling ball
c. A feather d. A balloon

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83. Which scenario best illustrates the law of inertia?

a. A ball falling from a height b. A person pulling a cart
c. A coin staying on a card when the card is quickly pulled away
d. A stretched rubber band returning to shape
84. Inertia of rest refers to:
a. Resistance to stop moving b. Tendency to stay at rest
c. Ability to gain velocity d. Resistance to acceleration
85. Inertia of motion means:
a. Object remains stationary b. Object resists stopping
c. Object resists rotation d. Object loses mass
86. Which of these demonstrates inertia of direction?
a. A ball rolling in a straight line
b. A car turning and passengers leaning outward
c. A falling apple d. A bullet fired from a gun
87. Inertia depends on:
a. Speed of the object b. Force applied
c. Mass of the object d. Shape of the object
88. A book remains at rest on a table because:
a. No force is acting on it b. Friction holds it
c. Inertia keeps it at rest d. The table pulls it
89. If no net force acts on a moving object:
a. It will slow down b. It will accelerate
c. It will stop
d. It will continue with constant velocity
90. Inertia is a property of:
a. Energy b. Acceleration
c. Force d. Matter

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91. Newton’s laws are not valid for:

a. Slow-moving objects b. Very small particles like electrons
c. Objects at rest d. Macroscopic bodies
92. Newton’s laws fail when:
a. Speeds are close to the speed of light
b. Objects are moving on Earth
c. A ball is dropped d. A car is accelerating
93. Newton's laws are based on which frame of reference?
a. Rotating frame b. Inertial frame
c. Non-inertial frame d. Any frame of reference
94. In a rotating frame of reference, Newton's laws:
a. Are fully valid b. Are partially valid
c. Need modification d. Apply better
95. Which of the following theories replaced Newton’s laws at high speeds?
a. Quantum Mechanics b. Thermodynamics
c. General Relativity d. Special Relativity
96. Newton’s laws cannot explain the behavior of:
a. Falling objects b. Spinning tops
c. Subatomic particles d. Planets
97. The classical mechanics derived from Newton’s laws assumes:
a. Energy is not conserved b. Mass changes with speed
c. Space and time are absolute d. Particles behave like waves
98. Newton’s laws are not valid when dealing with:
a. Everyday motion b. High-speed particles
c. Airplane motion d. Projectile motion

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99. In non-inertial frames, Newton’s laws:

a. Are still valid without changes
b. Can be applied only with fictitious forces
c. Do not need any correction d. Explain all motions accurately
100. Newton’s laws are valid for:
a. A rocket accelerating in space b. A particle moving at 0.9c
c. A mass at rest on a table d. An electron in an atom
101. Quantum mechanics was developed because:
a. Newton’s laws couldn’t explain macroscopic motion
b. Newton’s laws failed for planetary motion
c. Newton’s laws failed at microscopic scales
d. Newton’s laws failed in equilibrium
102. Which of these assumptions in Newtonian mechanics is invalid in modern
physics?
a. Time is constant b. Force equals mass
c. Mass is constant d. Forces are real
103. When do Newton's laws give inaccurate results?
a. For objects at rest b. For moving trains
c. At very high velocities d. At low altitudes
104. What additional concept is needed when applying Newton’s laws to rotating
systems?
a. Inertial force b. Pseudo force
c. Magnetic force d. Electromotive force
105. Why can’t Newton’s laws explain the photoelectric effect?
a. It involves slow motion b. It’s a thermal process
c. It involves relativistic mass
d. It requires quantum understanding of light

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106. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

a. Weight b. Mass
c. Force d. Acceleration
107. The SI unit of mass is:
a. Newton b. Kilogram
c. Gram d. Dyne
108. The SI unit of weight is:
a. Kilogram b. Gram
c. Newton d. Pound
109. Weight is defined as:
a. The volume of a body
b. The gravitational force acting on a body
c. Mass per unit volume d. The inertia of an object
110. If the mass of a body is 10 kg, what is its weight on Earth? (Take g = 9.8 m/s2)
a. 10 N b. 98 N
c. 9.8 N d. 100 N
111. Which of the following quantities remains the same everywhere in the
universe?
a. Weight b. Gravitational force
c. Mass d. Weightlessness
112. A body weighs less on the Moon because:
a. There is no air b. It has less mass
c. Gravity is weaker d. Moon is farther from the Sun
113. The mass of an object can be measured using:
a. Spring balance b. Thermometer
c. Beam balance d. Speedometer

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114. Weightlessness in a satellite orbiting Earth occurs because:

a. There's no mass b. There's no gravity
c. The satellite is falling freely d. The satellite is at rest
115. Which instrument is used to measure weight?
a. Barometer b. Beam balance
c. Spring balance d. Hydrometer
116. A body has a mass of 60 kg on Earth. Its weight on the Moon is:
a. 60 N b. 10 N
c. 360 N d. 98 N
117. When a body is taken to a higher altitude, its:
a. Mass increases b. Weight increases
c. Mass remains the same, weight decreases
d. Both mass and weight decrease
118. Which of the following affects an object's weight but not its mass?
a. Volume b. Temperature
c. Gravitational field strength d. Time
119.
a. b.
c. d.
120. Two bodies have the same weight on Earth. On the Moon:
a. Their masses will change b. Their weights will be different
c. Same weight as on Earth d. Their masses will be different
121. A mechanical balance works on the principle of:
a. Hooke’s law b. Equal arm torque
c. Magnetic deflection d. Gravitational acceleration
122. Which of the following is more accurate for small mass measurements?
a. Spring balance b. Beam balance
c. Electronic balance d. Pan balance

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123. The main component of a mechanical (beam) balance is:

a. Load cell b. Sensor
c. Pivot and pans d. Digital display
124. An electronic balance uses which component to detect weight?
a. Fulcrum b. Strain gauge/load cell
c. Spring d. Mercury column
125. Mechanical balances are less preferred in labs today because:
a. They are more accurate b. They are digital
c. They require manual operation and are slower
d. They don’t need power supply
126. Which of the following is true about electronic balances?
a. They are analog devices b. They do not need calibration
c. They measure weight based on gravity
d. They convert force into electrical signal
127. Which balance gives direct digital readings of mass?
a. Beam balance b. Lever balance
c. Electronic balance d. Spring balance
128. Which factor can affect the accuracy of an electronic balance?
a. Humidity b. Vibration
c. Air currents d. All of the above
129. Before using a digital balance, it must be:
a. Tilted b. Greased
c. Tared or zeroed d. Rotated
130. The least count of an electronic balance is typically:
a. 100 g b. 0.1 g or less
c. 10 g d. 1 kg

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131. Which of these balances uses electromechanical sensors?

a. Triple-beam balance b. Analytical balance
c. Pan balance d. Equal-arm balance
132. Mechanical balances are suitable when:
a. High precision is needed b. Electrical power is not available
c. Rapid measurements are needed d. Masses are less than 1 gram
133. One major advantage of mechanical balances over electronic balances is:
a. Higher accuracy b. Digital display
c. Less cost & no power requirement d. Automatic calibration
134. The main source of error in a mechanical balance is:
a. Electrical surge b. Sensor misreading
c. Air friction or improper leveling d. Software glitch
135. Electronic balances are commonly used in labs because they:
a. Don’t require calibration b. Are accurate, fast, and easy to use
c. Use manual effort d. durable than mechanical ones
136. Friction is a:
a. Contact force b. Non-contact force
c. Magnetic force d. Electrostatic force
137. The direction of the frictional force is always:
a. In the direction of motion
b. Opposite to the direction of motion
c. Perpendicular to motion d. Downward
138. Which of the following surfaces will produce the most friction?
a. Polished wood b. Ice
c. Sandpaper d. Steel
139. Static friction is the force:
a. Acting when object is moving b. Required to start motion
c. Acting at zero velocity d. Equal to sliding friction

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140. Which type of friction is generally the greatest?

a. Static b. Sliding
c. Rolling d. Fluid
141. Which of the following reduces friction?
a. Oil b. Water
c. Heat d. Pressure
142. Friction depends on:
a. Surface area
b. Nature of surfaces and normal force
c. Speed of motion only d. Mass only
143. The coefficient of friction has:
a. Units of newton b. Units of m/s
c. No unit d. Units of joule
144.
a. b.
c. d.
145. Rolling friction is:
a. Greater than static friction b. Greater than sliding friction
c. Less than sliding friction d. Equal to sliding friction
146. Which type of friction acts when tires roll on a road?
a. Static b. Sliding
c. Rolling d. Fluid
147. Which of the following is used to increase friction?
a. Lubricant b. Polishing
c. Adding oil d. Treading tires
148. Which device uses fluid friction to function properly?
a. Ball bearing b. Clutch
c. Brake pad d. Shock absorber

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149. If normal force doubles, frictional force:

a. Halves b. Doubles
c. Triples d. Stays the same
150. When an object just starts sliding, the applied force equals:
a. Static friction b. Rolling friction
c. Zero d. Weight
151. The frictional force on a moving object is known as:
a. Rolling friction b. Static friction
c. Kinetic friction d. Inertial friction
152. Ball bearings are used to:
a. Increase friction b. Reduce rolling friction
c. Convert rolling to sliding d. Increase weight
153. Fluid friction depends on:
a. Color of liquid b. Type of container
c. Shape and speed of the object d. Surface roughness only
154. Why does friction produce heat?
a. Due to chemical reaction b. Due to gravitational pull
c. Due to conversion of mechanical energy
d. Because of magnetism
155. In which situation is friction useful?
a. Ice skating b. Walking
c. Sliding on floor d. Sledding downhill
156. Momentum is defined as:
a. Mass × acceleration b. Force × time
c. Mass × velocity d. Velocity ÷ time
157. The SI unit of momentum is:
a. kg·m/s b. N
c. m/s² d. kg·m²/s

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158. Impulse is equal to:

a. Change in momentum b. Force × velocity
c. Force × acceleration d. Mass × velocity
159. If a force acts for a longer time on an object, the change in momentum will be:
a. Larger b. Smaller
c. Zero d. Constant
160. When a ball bounces off a wall with the same speed but opposite direction,
the change in momentum is:
a. Zero b. Twice the initial momentum
c. Half the initial momentum d. Equal to the initial momentum
161. The law of conservation of momentum states that in an isolated system:
a. Total momentum increases b. Total momentum decreases
c. Total momentum remains constant d. Momentum is zero
162. Which quantity is vector?
a. Impulse b. Time
c. Force d. Both A and C
163. A large impulse can be achieved by:
a. Applying a small force for a short time
b. Applying a large force for a short time
c. Applying a small force for a long time
d. Both B and C
164. Which of the following is true during a perfectly inelastic collision?
a. Momentum is not conserved b. Kinetic energy is conserved
c. Objects stick together after collision
d. Impulse is zero
165. The unit of impulse in SI is:
a. Newton b. Newton-second
c. Joule d. Watt

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166. The change in momentum of a body is directly proportional to:

a. Force applied b. Time duration of force
c. Both force and time d. Velocity only
167. A force of 10 N acts on a 2 kg object for 3 seconds. What is the change in
momentum?
a. 5 Ns b. 30 Ns
c. 15 Ns d. 6 Ns
168. In a collision, a small force applied for a long time results in:
a. Same impulse as large force applied briefly
b. No change in momentum
c. Smaller impulse d. Zero impulse
169. The momentum of a body is zero when:
a. Mass is zero b. Velocity is zero
c. Both mass and velocity are zero d. Force is zero
170. The principle of conservation of momentum states that in an isolated system,
the total momentum:
a. Increases b. Decreases
c. Remains constant d. Becomes zero
171. Conservation of momentum is valid only if:
a. External forces are present b. No external force acts
c. Kinetic energy is conserved d. Velocity is zero
172. Two bodies collide in an isolated system. After collision, the total momentum:
a. Increases b. Decreases
c. Remains the same d. Becomes zero
173. In a perfectly inelastic collision, the conservation of momentum means:
a. Kinetic energy is conserved b. Momentum is lost
c. Objects stick together and momentum is conserved
d. Velocity of objects remains unchanged

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174. Two ice skaters push off each other. Which law explains their motion?
a. Newton’s first law b. Conservation of momentum
c. Law of inertia d. Hooke’s law
175. In a collision, if the total momentum before collision is zero, the total
momentum after collision will be:
a. Zero b. Equal to mass
c. Equal to velocity d. Non-zero
176. The total momentum of two particles moving towards each other will be zero
if:
a. They have the same mass and velocity magnitude
b. They move in the same direction
c. They have different masses d. One particle is at rest
177. The conservation of momentum is a consequence of:
a. Newton’s first law b. Newton’s second law
c. Newton’s third law d. Law of gravitation
178. If two objects collide elastically, conservation of momentum implies:
a. Kinetic energy conserved only b. Momentum conserved only
c. Both momentum and kinetic energy conserved
d. Neither conserved
179. Which quantity is conserved in all types of collisions?
a. Momentum b. Kinetic energy
c. Potential energy d. Thermal energy
180. When a gun recoils after firing a bullet, conservation of momentum explains:
a. Gun moves forward b. Gun remains still
c. Gun moves backward with momentum equal and opposite to bullet
d. Gun breaks

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