Foundation

Biology II

WORKBOOK
(CHAPTER 2- CHAPTER 8)

1
 CHAPTER 2
GENE TECHNOLOGY

2.1 Gene/ DNA technology

• Definition: method/ technique for sequencing and manipulating DNA.

• Purpose: To analyse gene expression.
2.2 Gene/ DNA cloning

• A process to produce multiple copies of a gene or segments of DNA.

• Purpose:
a. To make many copies (amplify) of a specific gene.
b. To produce a protein product.
2.3 Recombinant DNA

• DNA molecules formed when segments of DNA from 2 different sources (often different
species) are combined in vitro (in test tube).

Host cell

DNA
DNA Fragment/
ligase Gene of
Tools in interest
recombinant
DNA
technology

Restriction
Vector
enzyme

2.4 Gene/ DNA library

• A collection of cloned DNA.

• 2 types:
a. Genomic library- DNA fragments representing the entire genome of an organism.
b. Complementary DNA (cDNA) library- contains only coding regions of DNA
fragments that synthesize from mRNA.
2.5 Application of recombinant DNA technology

• Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). • Medicine areas – Vaccines, gene

• Transgenic organism. therapy, diagnostics, therapeutics,
• DNA Finger printing. forensic investigation

2
PART A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Choose one answer for each question.

1. Which of the following tools in recombinant DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its
function?

A. Plasmid→carry foreign DNA fragment into a host cell.

B. Restriction enzymes →joins DNA fragment with vector.
C. Foreign DNA fragment→ DNA that contain gene of interest.
D. Host cell→ accept and allow the reproduction of cloning vectors.

2. A small double-stranded circular DNA found in bacterial cells is called

A. plasmid.
B. enzyme.
C. phasmid.
D. ribosome.

3. A molecule of cDNA is synthesized from

A. DNA.
B. tRNA.
C. rRNA.
D. mRNA.

4. Gene library can be described as

A. a group of known DNA sequences.

B. a collection of books about recombinant DNA technology.
C. bacteria with plasmids containing a collection of cloned DNA.
D. a compilation of the amino acid sequences of protein coding genes.

5. Why Taq polymerase is necessary for polymerase chain reaction (PCR) to occur?

A. To ensure that process will be more accurate and very specific.

B. To make sure that double strands DNA are joined by hydrogen bond.
C. Need an enzyme that is resistant to high temperature during extension step.
D. DNA polymerase cannot copy a strand of DNA without a short sequence of RNA
nucleotides.

6. Which of the following DNA sequence can be recognized as restriction site?

A. GGTT
CCAA
B. GGCC
CCGG
C. ATGC
TACG
D. TTTT
AAAA

3
7. How many molecules of DNA can be obtained from one DNA molecule after four cycles of
PCR?

A. 4
B. 16
C. 32
D. 256

8. Which of the statement is incorrect for gel electrophoresis?

A. Gel made of agarose or polyacrylamide.

B. Separation of DNA fragments based on size.
C. Larger fragments move faster but smaller one move slower.
D. Negatively-charged DNA migrates towards the positive pole.

9. In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragment will be migrated to positive pole because

A. the presence of ribose sugar in DNA polymers.

B. the amount of nitrogenous base in DNA fragment.
C. negatively charged on the nitrogenous bases of DNA polymers.
D. DNA is negatively charged due to all the phosphate groups in the backbone.

10. Which of the following is (are) application of recombinant DNA technology?

I. Gene therapy
II. Physical therapy
III. Production of insulin
IV. Production of vaccines

A. I and II.
B. I and III.
C. I, II and III.
D. I, III and IV.

4
PART B: STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1
Figure 1 shows a part of the process in recombinant DNA technology.

Figure 1
a) Identify X.
(1 mark)

b) Name two (2) enzymes that probably been used in Figure 1.

(2 marks)

c) Explain how X is transformed to Y.

(2 marks)

d) State two (2) characteristics of bacterial plasmid that acts as a vector.

(2 marks)

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e) Suggest one (1) organism that can be used as a host cell for reproduction of recombinant
DNA.
(1 mark)

f) The following sequence is the restriction site for an enzyme called Eco R1. Complete the
table to show the cleavage products.
(2 marks)

Cleavage site Cleavage product

5’ - GAATTC- 3’
3’ - CTTAAG- 5’

QUESTION 2
a) Discuss the formation of cDNA.
(3 marks)

b) State two (2) differences between genomic library and complementary DNA.
(2 marks)

Genomic library Complementary DNA Library

6
c) DNA fingerprinting is a technique to distinguish different individuals using their DNA
samples and commonly use in solving crimes. Figure 2 shows the result of DNA
fingerprinting of samples from crime scene and three suspects.

Crime Suspect Suspect Suspect

scene 1 2 3

Figure 2

i. Name one example of biological materials that can be used as sample in this
technique.
(1 mark)

ii. Based on the DNA fingerprinting pattern in Figure 2, which suspect present in the
crime scene.
(1 mark)

iii. Explain how you decide which suspect in (ii).

(2 marks)

7
QUESTION 3
a) Figure 3 shows the steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR).

Figure 3

i. Based on Figure 3, identify step 1 and step 3.

(2 marks)

ii. State the significance of step 2 in PCR.

(1 mark)

iii. What are the advantages of using PCR?

(2 marks)

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b) Table 1 shows different DNA samples.

Sample Number of nucleotide base pair

A 120
B 200
C 50
Table 1

i. Sketch and label the pattern of DNA fragments band in Figure 4, by using the
information in Table 1.
(3 marks)

Cathode

A B C

Anode

Figure 4

ii. How do you determine the position of bands for the DNA fragment?
(1 mark)

iii. Name one type of gel that commonly used in gel electrophoresis.
(1 mark)

9
 CHAPTER 3
HOMEOSTASIS

Concept
1.Homeostasis Concept

A physiological processes where organisms maintain constant & balanced physical

and chemical factors within their internal environment.

Importance
Organism will less dependent on the external environment, lives in a wider range of
habitats and can adjust its metabolic rate according to its requirements.

Mechanism
Require a sensor to detect any stimulus,control centre that defines changes and
effectors that execute the corrective actions.

Negative Feedback
Positive Feedback 2. Types of
Example: Regulation of blood glucose
Example: Labour Process Mechanism level, body temperature and
osmoregulation

2 a) Regulation of Blood 2 b) Regulation of body 2 c) Osmoregulation in

Glucose Level temperature Human

- alpha (α) cells and beta (β) -Endothermic animals -Kidney is the excretory organ
cells of pancreas produces generate heat by metabolism of vertebrates that function
glucagon and insulin while Ectotherms gain most of both for excretion and
respectively. their heat from external osmoregulation.
sources.
-Insulin reduces blood -Nephron as the simplest unit
glucose level by promoting the -Organisms exchange heat by of kidney to process the blood
cellular uptake of glucose, four physical processes such filtrate through filtration,
inhibiting glycogenolysis and as conduction, convection, reabsorption, secretion and
promoting fat storage. radiation, and evaporation. excretion.

-Glucagon increases blood -Six general adaptations help -The Two-Solute Model
glucose levels by stimulating animals thermoregulate: Concentrating Urine in the
glycogenolysis and Mammalian Kidney.
- insulation
stimulating breakdown of fat
- circulatory adaptations -Loop of Henle is a part of
and protein into glucose.
- cooling by evaporative heat countercurrent system which
loss use energy to actively
- behavioural responses transport NaCl to maintain a
- adjusting metabolic heat high salt concentration in the
production and interior of the kidney
physiological thermostats. together with vasa recta.

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PART A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Choose one answer for each question.

1. Sweating on a hot day is an example of ____________ as cooling mechanism of the body.

A. radiation
B. convection
C. conduction
D. evaporation

2. Heat transfer from arteries carrying warm blood to veins conveying cooler blood is an
example of

A. evaporative cooling.
B. metabolic heat production.
C. nonshivering thermogenesis.
D. countercurrent heat exchanger.

3. Which of the statement is not correct to represent thermoregulation adaptation of animals?

A. Dog pants and loses heat from the nostril and mouth.
B. Fish undergo counter current exchange of oxygen in the gills.
C. Aquatic mammals such as penguins are insulated by a thick layer of blubber.
D. Honeybees survive in cold environment by clustering and shivering in the hives.

4. Why is blood pressure high in glomerulus?

A. Arterioles are low-resistance vessels.

B. Afferent arterioles are small in diameter than efferent arterioles.
C. Afferent arterioles have similar diameter with efferent arterioles.
D. Afferent arterioles are large in diameter than efferent arterioles.

5. Which of the process below is least selective in the nephron?

A. Filtration. C. Reabsorption.
B. Secretion. D. Active transport of salt.

6. Choose the correct companion between the tubular secretion and reabsorption.

Tubular secretion Tubular reabsorption

A Removes solute from the filtrate to Removes additional waste from blood to
blood. filtrate.
B Water is secreted into the filtrate by Sodium ion is reabsorbed by active
osmosis. transport only.
C Removes additional waste from blood Return useful solute from the filtrate to
to filtrate. blood.
D Proximal tubule acts as tubule for Loop of Henle is responsible for further
secretion. reabsorption of water and sodium ion.

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7. Kidney can produce hyperosmotic urine because of the following factors except

A. able to function with limited water intake.

B. the osmolarity differences are "multiplied" as the fluid goes deeper into the medulla.
C. the interstitial fluid surrounding the tubules is very hypoosmotic down to the medulla
region.
D. water is reabsorbed along the descending loop of Henle and collecting tubule into the
interstitial fluid and return to the capillaries called the vasa recta.

8. The two-solute model is used to concentrate urine in mammalian kidney. The solutes
involve are

A. urea and NaCl.

B. glucose and NaCl.
C. water and hydrogen ion.
D. potassium and sodium ion.

9. If osmolarity increases after heavy exercise, _____________ secretion is stimulated,

which ____________water reabsorption and reduces water excretion.

A. ADH, increases
B. ADH, decreases
C. aldosterone, increases
D. aldosterone, decreases

10. As blood volume __________, renin from Juxtaglomerulus Apparatus (JGA) will be
released to convert angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. Angiotensin I is converted into
angiotensin II which ____________ the arterioles and increases blood pressure to
stimulate adrenal gland to release _____________.

A. increases, constricts, ADH

B. increases, dilates, aldosterone
C. decreases, dilates, aldosterone
D. decreases, constricts, aldosterone

12
PART B: STRUCTURED QUESTIONS

QUESTION 1

a) American alligator (Alligator mississippiensis) is an ectothermic animal which inhabit the

southeast part of United States. Complete the table with the mechanism of heat exchange
experienced by this animal according to the given scenario.
(2 marks)

Scenario Mechanism of heat exchange

1 They bask in the sun on the banks of water
bodies to warm themselves.
2 On hot summer days they are basking with their
mouths open to avoid overheating.

b) Differentiate ectothermic and endothermic animal in regulating body temperature.

(2 marks)

Ectotherm Endotherm

c) Circulatory adaptation is one of the strategies for animal to regulate the heat loss and gain.

i. Goose has counter current heat exchangers where warm and cold blood flow in
opposite direction. Explain how the system could minimize the heat loss when the
animal is standing in cold water.
(3 marks)

ii. Elephant has large and thin ears. Explain how this characteristic may be beneficial in
regulating its body temperature.
(1 mark)

iii. Shivering is an example of thermogenesis in endotherms. It is useful to cope with

body heat loss by the movement of muscle. However, some mammals undergo
different process such as non-shivering thermogenesis. Explain.
(2 marks)

13
QUESTION 2

Glucose tolerance test is a blood test that measures the body’s response to sugar. Blood
glucose concentrations are measured after drinking a glucose drink. The participants also are
not allowed to eat or drink for 8 hours before the test. Figure 1 shows the results for two
participants, A and B.

Participant A

Participant B

Figure 1

a) Diabetes is a disease in which the body’s ability to produce or respond to insulin hormone
is impaired. Based on the result in Figure 1, determine which participant has diabetes
and explain your answer.
(2 marks)

b) Give one reason why participants are not allowed to eat or drink for 8 hours before the
test.
(1 mark)

c) Explain why diabetic patients always feel fatigue even though there are excess glucose
in their body.
(2 marks)

14
d) Figure 2 shows structure of a renal corpuscle.

Figure 2
i. State the function of D.
(1 mark)

ii. Molecule B cannot pass through the wall of glomerulus, but it is possible for molecule
C. Suggest one (1) example of molecule B and C.
(2 mark)

iii. Based on your answer in d) ii what is the structure responsible for the movement of
molecules and solutes from capillary into structure D?
(2 marks)

15
QUESTION 3

Figure 3 shows structure of a nephron.

Figure 3

a) Structure K helps to regulate blood pH. Explain.

(3 marks)

b) The osmolarity of filtrate at the elbow of the loop of Henle is the highest and similar to the
osmolarity in interstitial fluid. Explain how vasa recta and loop of Henle function to create
the same osmolarity.
(4 marks)

c) Structure J is under control of hormonal regulation that constantly regulates and balances
the amount of water in the blood.

i. Identify the hormone.

(1 mark)

ii. Explain the role played by hormone in c (i) when the solute concentrations of the
blood rise above the set point.
(2 marks)

16
 CHAPTER 4
REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

4.1 Reproduction
Types of Reproduction

Asexual Reproduction Sexual Reproduction

• One parent. • Male & female
• No fertilization. parents.
• No variation. • Fertilization occurs.
• Example: • Variation.
➢ Budding. • Types:
➢ Fission. ➢ External
➢ Fragmentation. fertilization.
➢ Parthenogenesis. ➢ Internal
fertilization.
➢ Hermaphroditism.

4.2 Three Strategies for Embryonic and Fetal Development

Oviparity Ovoviviparity Viviparity

Primitive Advanced
• Egg develops outside • Egg develops inside the • Young develops within
the mother’s body and mother’s body and young mother’s body and
young obtain food from obtain food from egg yolk obtain food via placenta.
egg yolk. until hatch. • Examples – mammals.
• Examples - Birds, most • Examples – Some bony and
reptiles. cartilaginous fishes and
reptiles.

4.3 Reproduction in Vertebrates

• Vertebrates comprise a diverse collection of animal species. The major groups of

vertebrates include:
i) Fishes.
ii) Amphibians.
iii) Reptiles.
iv) Birds.
v) Mammals - can be divided into 3 categories:
✓ Monotremes – egg laying mammals (examples: platypus and spiny anteaters).
✓ Marsupials – pouched mammals (examples: kangaroos and Tasmanian
devils).
✓ Eutherians – placental mammals (example: whales, elephants).

17
4.4 Human Reproductive System
Human Reproductive System

Male Reproductive System Female Reproductive System

• Formed by: • Formed by:

i) Testes in scrotum. i) Ovaries.
ii) Epididymis. ii) Oviducts.
iii) Vas deferens. iii) Uterus.
iv) Glands (seminal vesicles, iv) Vagina.
prostate gland, bulbourethral
glands).
v) Penis.

• Hormonal Control of • Hormonal Control of Oogenesis

Spermatogenesis i) GnRH.
i) GnRH. ii) FSH.
ii) FSH. iii) LH.
iii) LH. iv) Progesterone.
iv) Inhibin. v) Estrogen.
v) Testosterone.

4.5 Pregnancy and Human Development

✓ Important events in embryonic development:
• Cleavage (zygote to blastula).
• Gastrulation (blastula to three layered gastrula).
• Organogenesis (organ formation).

✓ Stages of fetal development can be divided into three periods called trimesters.

Second Third
First trimester
trimester trimester
- Period of
- Growth and - Rapid fetal
organogenesis
development. growth.

✓ Three stages of parturition

Placental
Dilation Expulsion
delivery

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PART A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Choose one answer for each question.

1. Which of the following is true about asexual reproduction?

A. Fertilization occurs.
B. Slowest way of reproducing.
C. It puts animals at an evolutionary disadvantage in terms of variation.
D. It involves the exchange of genetic material between two individuals.

2. How do Hydra sp. reproduce?

A. Budding.
B. Binary fission.
C. Parthenogenesis.
D. Fragmentation/Regeneration.

3. What is hermaphroditism?

A. Involves only one parent.

B. Not capable of self-fertilization.
C. The body breaks into several pieces.
D. The presence of both male and female reproductive organs in an organism.

4. External fertilization occurs in the

I Frog
II Snake
III Salmon

A. I and II.
B. I and III.
C. II and III.
D. I, II and III.

5. The eggs are produced inside the body and then give birth to live young, this is called
______________reproduction.

A. oviparous
B. viviparous
C. protogynous
D. ovoviviparous

6. _________________are mammals that lay eggs.

A. Eutherians
B. Marsupials
C. Monotremes
D. Tasmanian devils

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7. Which of the following represents the correct order of spermatozoa pass through male
reproductive system during ejaculation?

A. Testis → vas deferens → epididymis → urethra.

B. Testis → epididymis → vas deferens → urethra.
C. Vas deferens → epididymis → prostate gland → urethra.
D. Vas deferens → bulbourethral gland → prostate gland → urethra.

8. Choose the correct statements.

I LH stimulates pituitary gland to produce testosterone.

II FSH acts on the Sertoli cells to stimulate sperm production.
III Inhibin acts on the anterior pituitary gland to reduce FSH secretion.
IV Testosterone is responsible in the development of male reproductive tissue.

A. II and III.
B. I, III and IV.
C. II, III and IV.
D. I, II, III and IV.

9. Which of the following does not belong to the female reproductive system?

A. Cervix.
B. Uterus.
C. Ovaries.
D. Epididymis.

10. Epithelial inner lining of digestive, respiratory and reproductive systems arise from which
primary germ layer?

A. Epiblast.
B. Ectoderm.
C. Endoderm.
D. Mesoderm.

20
PART B: STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
Question 1
Figure 1 represents the female reproductive system.

D
A

Figure 1

a) Identify A, B, and C.
(3 marks)

b) What would happen if B is blocked for some reason?

(2 marks)

c) The pH value of C is in a range of 3.8 to 4.5. Give two (2) importance of this pH to
reproductive system.
(2 marks)

d) State two (2) functions of D.

(2 marks)

e) Identify the structure where secondary oocytes develop?

(1 mark)

21
Question 2
a) Draw a labelled diagram to illustrate the differences between spermatogenesis and
oogenesis.
(6 marks)

b) Figure 2 shows the menstrual cycle and the main hormonal profiles of FSH, LH, estrogen
and progesterone.
(4 marks)

Figure 2
Briefly explain how these 4 hormones interact in menstrual cycle.

22
Question 3
a) Complete the following table.
(4 marks)

Stage Time period Events

Cleavage

Morula

Blastocyst

Gastrula

b) Explain the roles of placenta in the development of embryo.

(3 marks)

c) Which stage of parturition ends with the delivery of the baby.

(1 mark)

d) State one (1) activity of a mother that can disrupt fetal development and explain how this
activity might affect the development of her fetus.
(2 marks)

23
 CHAPTER 5
HORMONAL AND NERVOUS COMMUNICATION

Hypothalamus

Pituitary

Pineal

Thyroid/Parathyroid
Organs/Glands
Thymus

Pancrease

Adrenal

Endocrine System
Testes/Ovaries

Name/Functions
Protein
Hormones
Classes Amine

Steroid

Lipid-soluble hormone
Mechanism of action
Water-soluble hormone

24
 sensory neuron
Structure of Neuron

Types of neuron motor neuron

interneuron

sensor
Nervous system

Neural signaling integration

effector

along axon

Transmission of impulse

across synapse
Comparison between nervous system and endocrine system

25
PART A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Choose one answer for each question.

1. A water-soluble hormone

A. cannot produce cAMP.

B. is produced inside testes.
C. can pass through plasma membrane of a cell.
D. attached to receptor protein on plasma membrane of a cell.

2. Choose the correct statement regarding pituitary gland.

A. Anterior pituitary is developed from nerve cells.

B. All hormones secreted by anterior pituitary are protein.
C. Neurosecretory cell in pituitary will secrete FSH and LH.
D. Pituitary gland secretes oxytocin, prolactin and epinephrine.

3. Arrange events in mechanism of action for lipid hormones correctly.

I. Specific gene is activated.

II. Hormone binds to receptor in cytoplasm.
III. Hormone-receptor complex enter nucleus.
IV. Hormone passes through plasma membrane.

A. II, III, I and IV C. IV, II, III and I

B. II, III, IV and I D. IV, III, II and I

4. Which of the following gland-hormone pairing is not correct?

Gland Hormone
A. Posterior pituitary ADH
B. Pancreas Insulin
C. Anterior pituitary Oxytocin
D. Thyroid Thyroxine

5. Identify the type of neuron shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1
A. Interneuron. C. Sensory neuron.
B. Motor neuron. D. Oligodendrocyte.

26
6. The function of sodium-potassium pump in nervous system is to

A. generate action potential when neuron is stimulated.

B. provide more potassium ion in the plasma membrane.
C. maintain proper concentration gradient of sodium across the neuron.
D. allow sodium ion to diffuse into plasma membrane during depolarization.

7. Which ion channel involves in depolarization at post-synaptic dendrite?

A. Ligand-gated sodium.
B. Voltage-gated sodium.
C. Ligand-gated potassium.
D. Voltage-gated potassium.

8. What happens during saltatory conduction of impulse?

A. Sodium ion is transported out through myelin sheath.

B. Action potential is generated at axon that in contact with extracellular fluid.
C. Myelin sheath forces sodium and potassium ion to move faster along the axon.
D. Distance between nodes of Ranvier does not affect the speed of impulse
transmission.

9. An action potential is

A. faded a few millimetres away from its point of origin.

B. always achieved after graded potential is produced.
C. achieved due to the opening of ligand-gated sodium channel.
D. inward flow of sodium ions followed by outward flow of potassium ions.

10. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) is a neurotransmitter found in inhibitory interneuron of

central nervous system. A drug called Benzodiazepines can bind to GABA receptors on
post-synaptic neuron to increase its effectiveness. Choose the correct effect of the drug
towards the body.

I. Sodium channel will open.

II. Chloride channel will open.
III. Depolarization occurs, and action potential is generated.
IV. Hyperpolarization occurs causing relaxation of skeletal muscle.

A. I only.
B. II only.
C. I and III.
D. II and IV.

27
PART B: STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1
Figure 2 shows a diagram of human endocrine glands, organs and the structure of hormone
cortisol.

Figure 2
a) Name gland J, K, organ L and N.
(4 marks)
Gland J:
Gland K:
Organ L:
Organ N:

b) State two (2) functions of organ N.

(2 marks)

c) Identify which structure secretes hormone cortisol.

(1 mark)

d) What is the class of hormone cortisol?

(1 mark)

28
e) Give two (2) differences between steroid hormone action and peptide hormone action
mechanism.
(2 marks)

Steroid hormone action (lipophilic) Peptide hormone action (hydrophilic)

QUESTION 2
Figure 3 shows a cross section of an ovary.

Structure Y

Structure Z

Figure 3
a) Structure Z is developed after ovulation and maintained during early stage of pregnancy.
Name and give one (1) function of structure Z.
(2 marks)
Name:
Function:

b) Identify one (1) hormone that develops structure Y.

(1 mark

29
c) What is the class of hormone in (b)?
(1 mark)

d) Describe the mechanism of action for hormone secreted by structure Y.

(4 marks)

e) Why structure Z degenerate if no fertilization occurs?

(2 marks)

QUESTION 3
Figure 4 shows structure of a neuron.

H I

Figure 4
a) Name structure G and I.
(2 mark)
Structure G:
Structure I:

b) State one (1) function of H.

(1 mark)

30
c) Complete the table below that describes the neuron in Figure 4.
(3 marks)

Type of neuron
Function of the
neuron

Location where the

neuron can be found

d) Describe the transmission of impulse along an axon.

(4 marks)

31
 CHAPTER 6
CIRCULATORY SYSTEM

6.1 Circulatory System Pathway

32
6.2 Open & Closed Circulatory System

Open Circulatory System Closed Circulatory System

Blood (hemolymph) is pumped into open Blood is contained within blood vessels.
body cavity (hemocoel). - Arteries move blood away from the
- Blood reenters heart through heart.
openings (ostia) - Veins move blood toward the heart
Does not required much energy to operate Energetically costly to operate but allows
but can sustain high levels of activity. higher levels of activity.

6.3 Single & Double Circulation

• Blood flows only once throught the heart in a

complete cycle.
• Heart only pumps deoxygenated blood.
Single Circulation
• Blood is oxygenated in gills.
• Less efficient, as gill capillaries reduce blood flow.
• Found in fishes.

• Blood flows in two circuit; pulmonary and systemic.

• Heart pumps both oxygenated and deoxygenated
Double blood.
Circulation • Blood is oxygenated in lungs.
• More efficient as blood flows in higher pressure.
• Found in amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals.

6.4 Cardiac Output

33
PART A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Choose one answer for each question.

1. Lymph node is a

A. dead- ended lymphatic capillary.

B. pathogen that destroys helper T cells.
C. type of immune cell that found in lymph.
D. capsule that is filled which B cells and T cells.

2. Which organ is the site for maturation of T-cells?

A. Liver.
B. Spleen.
C. Thymus.
D. Bone marrow.

3. How many percent of cellular elements can be found in blood?

A. 15%.
B. 45%.
C. 55%.
D. 100%.

4. The heartbeat begins with the depolarization of the

A. bundle of His.
B. Purkinje fibers.
C. sinoatrial node.
D. atrioventricular node.

5. The innermost tissue layer of arteries is composed of

A. elastic fibers.
B. endothelium.
C. smooth muscle.
D. connective tissue.

6. Interstitial fluid is derived from fluid that is forced out of the

A. veins.
B. arteries.
C. venule end of capillaries.
D. arteriole end of capillaries.

34
7. Fluid is driven through the lymphatic system by

A. contraction of the lymph nodes.

B. pressure created by pumping of heart.
C. a contraction of the walls of lymph vein.
D. squeezing of the lymphatic vessel by the body muscles.

8. Which of the following is not true for ventricular systole?

A. Ventricle relaxes.
B. Ventricular contract.
C. Semilunar valve open.
D. Atrioventricular valve closed.

9. If someone has a stroke volume of 75 ml and a heart rate of 80 beat/minute, cardiac output
would be

A. 6.0 L/min.
B. 60 ml/min.
C. 0.60 L/min.
D. 6.00 ml/min.

10. Spleen is a lymphatic organ that

A. filters the blood.

B. destroys bacteria & other foreign agents.
C. helps protect the respiratory system from infection.
D. Is the location of where immature lymphocytes differentiate into T lymphocytes.

35
PART B: STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1
a) Complete the table below to describe events in the cardiac cycle.

(6 marks)
Phase 1 Phase 2 Phase 3
Atrium systole,
Venticular diastole

Blood retuning from the Ventricular contraction pump

large vein flow into the blood into the large arteries
atria

AV valve open

SV valve closed SV valve open

b) Figure 1 shows an ECG.

P T

Q
S

Figure 1
Explain what happens during QRS.
(4 marks)

c) What is the advantage of arterial wall being thick, strong and elastic?
(3 marks)

36
QUESTION 2
a) What is the advantage of smooth muscle forming the walls of arteries and arterioles?
(2 marks)

b) Why veins do not require thick wall?

(1 mark)

c) Why blood velocity is reduced as it moves from arteries capillaries?

(1 mark)

QUESTION 3
a) Figure 2 shows tunics (layers) of blood vessels.

Figure 2

i. Name tunics A, B and C.

(3 marks)

37
 ii. Explain the roles of the smooth muscles and elastic fibers which form the tunics.
(4 marks)

b) Why veins have thinner walls compared to arteries?

(2 marks)

c) Describe differences between the right and the left duct lymphatic ducts.
(2 marks)

d) Describe the function of tonsils as lymphatic organs.

(2 marks)

38
 CHAPTER 7
IMMUNE SYSTEM

Immune system is the body’s defense against pathogens and certain toxins
through a series of steps called the immune response.

Innate immune
Adaptive immune response
response

Humoral Cell-mediated
Internal immune immune
External defenses response response
barriers
- Phagocytic - Involves B - Involves
- Skin cells cells and cytotoxic T
- Mucous helper T cells cells and
- Antimicrobial
membranes helper T cells
proteins - B cells secrete
- Secretions antibodies that - Cytotoxic T
- Natural killer
from skin and interact with cells secrete
cells
mucus antigen to pore-
membranes - Inflammatory destroy the performing
response pathogen proteins that
destroy
infected cells

39
PART A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Choose one answer for each question.

1. External defenses against invasion of pathogen include the followings except

A. skin.
B. cilia.
C. tears.
D. inflammation.

2. Which statement describes neutrophils and macrophages correctly?

Neutrophils Macrophages
A. Present antigens to lymphocytes. Destroy infected or cancerous cells.
B. Engulf invading microbes. Engulf invading microbes and
present antigens to lymphocytes.
C. Release histamine in inflammatory Produce antibodies to destroy
response. pathogens.
D. Provide future immunity against invasion Stimulate immune response by
by the same antigen. activating B cells and cytotoxic T
cells.

3. An antigen is a glycoprotein that

A. identifies the body’s own cells.

B. triggers an adaptive immune response.
C. stimulates lymphocyte cell division during the immune response.
D. is produced by B cells to help the immune system destroy the pathogens.

4. Choose the correct statement about major histocompatibility complex (MHC).

A. Consists of two pairs of peptide chains.

B. Divides into clones of effector cells and memory cells.
C. Synthesized in the liver and circulate in the blood plasma.
D. A protein that binds to antigen fragments and display them on the host cell surface.

5. Which of the following statements describes humoral immune response?

I Selected B cell multiply rapidly.

II Plasma cells release antibodies into the blood.
III Memory cells confer immunity to pathogens never encountered before.
IV Effector cells release proteins that form pores on the surface of infected cells.

A. I only. C. II and IV.

B. I and II. D. I, III and IV.

40
6. Choose the statement that is not true about the concept of self and non-self.

A. Self-antigen is found on the host cell and triggers an immune response.

B. The immune system can distinguish self from non-self based on the MHC.
C. Activated cytotoxic T cells can differentiate self-antigen from non-self antigen.
D. Class II MHC found on B cells helps the immune system to distinguish self from non-
self.

7. Which of the following statements are true about secondary immune response?

I The level of antibody declines rapidly.

II The responding cells are memory cells.
III The response is faster than the primary immune response.
IV The response peaks about 2-7 days upon subsequent exposure to the same antigen.

A. I and II. C. I, II and III.

B. II and IV. D. II, III and IV.

8. Anna is a 3-year-old girl with following symptoms

• Pneumonia
• Persistent bacterial infection
• Lack of functional T lymphocytes

Based on the symptoms, Anna most probably suffers from

A. hay fever.
B. cystinuria.
C. rheumatoid arthritis.
D. severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID).

9. An autoimmune disease is

A. an immune reaction to harmless substances.

B. a disorder where the immune system attacks the body’s own cells.
C. an immune system disorder that leads to frequent and recurrent infections.
D. a result of genetic or developmental defect in the production of immune cells.

10. Which of the following are tuberculosis prevention methods?

I BCG vaccination.
II Precautions such as cough etiquette.
III Use germicidal ultraviolet lamps to kill airborne bacteria.

A. I and II. C. I and III.

B. II and III. D. I, II and III.

41
PART B: STRUCTURED QUESTIONS

QUESTION 1

Figure 1 shows the structure of a mucus membrane that lines the respiratory tract.

Goblet cell

Figure 1

a) Name the type of immune response in Figure 1.

(1 mark)

b) Name P.
(1 mark)

c) State the function of P.

(1 mark)

d) Explain how mucus membrane that lines the respiratory tract differ from the membrane
lining of the urinary tract in female in fighting against disease.
(4 marks)

e) Skin is another example for this type of immune response. List three (3) features of skin
that protect our body from invading pathogens.
(3 marks)

42
QUESTION 2

Figure 2 represents part of a cell-mediated immune response in human.

Antigen

Dendritic cell engulfs the antigen

Helper T cell is stimulated

Memory helper T cells Cytotoxic T cell is stimulated

Memory cytotoxic T cells Activated cytotoxic T cells

Lysis of infected cells

Figure 2

a) Describe how cytotoxic T cell is activated.

(3 marks)

b) What happen to memory helper T cells upon subsequent exposure to the same antigen?
(1 mark)

c) Memory helper T cells also stimulate other cells upon subsequent exposure to the same
antigen.

i. Name the cell.

(1 mark)

ii. What happen to the cell in (i) after it is being stimulated?

(2 marks)

iii. State the type of immune response which involves the cell in c (i).
(1 mark)

43
 iv. Give two (2) importance of the immune response in c (iii).
(2 marks)

QUESTION 3

Figure 3 shows the presence of Class II MHC on the surface of a B cell.

Figure 3

a) Name R.
(1 mark)

b) Give function of R.
(1 mark)

c) After B cell is activated, protein molecules will be secreted which will destroy antigen.

i. Name the molecule.

(1 mark)

ii. State three (3) mechanisms that describe how molecule in c) i destroy antigen.
(3 marks)

44
d) Give the importance of MHC molecules.
(1 mark)

e) Most cancer cells have altered MHC proteins. Give the consequence of the altered MHC
proteins on the cancer cells.
(3 marks)

45
 CHAPTER 8
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

8.1 Various respiratory surfaces in animals

RESPIRATORY SURFACES ACT AS RESPIRATORY ORGAN

Outer surface Skin Gills Trachea Lungs

Entire cell Animals are Specialized External chitin The organ has
surface of small respiratory organs reinforced internal sacs
unicellular sized/flat. This of fishes and many tubes named lined with moist
organisms is to provide a other aquatic trachea, which epithelium.
high ratio of invertebrates. branches
respiratory Its gills are efficient throughout the
surface to as it must deal with body.
body volume, water that has less
allowing for concentration of
sufficient gas oxygen compared
exchange for to the oxygen that
the whole in the air.
body. The skin
requires damp
water/moist
places to
facilitate the
diffusion of
gases.

Example: Example: Example: Example: Example:

Amoeba Earthworm Fish, marine worm, Insects Human, frog, bird
crayfish, sea star,
axolotl

8.2 Structures and function of human respiratory system

• Human use negative pressure breathing to pull air into the lung. The act of pulling the
air requires will changes the condition of pressures in the lung. This is according to
Boyle’s Law, when the volume of a given quantity of gas increases, its pressure
decreases.

• These are the following structures that are part of the human respiratory system.
➢ Nostrils & nasal cavities: Entrance of air. The air is filtered, moistened and brought
to body temperature.
➢ Pharynx: Pathway of air and food.

46
 ➢ Larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles: Pathway of air.
➢ Alveoli: site of gas exchange.

8.3 Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve

• It is an S-shaped curve
that shows the
relationship between the
percentage of oxygen
saturation in the
haemoglobin at different
partial pressure value in
the bloodstream.

• If more oxygen release

from haemoglobin, the
dissociation curve moves
towards to the right. This
is known as Bohr shift.

8.4 Control of breathing by chemoreceptors.

Decreased breathing rate

Increased arterial PCO2

Plasma CO2 Low blood pH

Cerebrospinal fluid Chemoreceptors in aortic

and carotid bodies
Chemoreceptors (in
medulla oblongata)

Sensory neurons
Respiratory center (in
medulla oblongata)

Spinal cord motor Respiratory muscles

neurons

Increased breathing rate

47
8.5 Effect of smoking- Lung Cancer
• Lung cancer is known as lung carcinoma. It is characterized by uncontrolled cell growth
in tissues of the lung. If the cancer grows in the airways, it may obstruct airflow, causing
breathing difficulties. The obstruction can lead to accumulation of secretions behind
the blockage. Tumours in the top of the lung, may invade the local part of
the sympathetic nervous system leading to dropping of the eyelid.

• The tobacco cigarette smoke consists of microscopic carbon particles bearing dozens
of cancer-causing substances which lead to lung cancer. People who smoke cigarettes
are 15 to 30 times more likely to get lung cancer or die from lung cancer than people
who do not smoke.

• Treatment available for lung cancer:

i. Surgery: Removal of all or as much as possible of the tumour.
ii. Chemotherapy: Intravenous medicine to kill the cancer.
iii. Radiotherapy: High dose radiation designed to kill the cancer, given in a focused
and shielded beam designed to only affect the tumour.

48
PART A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Choose one answer for each question.

1. Which of the following is not true about the efficiency of gas exchange?

A. Respiratory surfaces must be thin for fast gas exchange.

B. Respiratory surfaces must be thick for fast gas exchange.
C. The path of diffusion is short for efficiency gas exchange.
D. Respiratory surfaces for exchange of gases between their cells and the respiratory
medium must be large and moist.

2. The pleural membrane ________________that encloses the lung.

A. contains liquid
B. forms a continuous sac
C. is a muscular floor of the thoracic cavity
D. gives rise to millions of tiny bronchioles

3. Dalton’s law of partial pressure stated that

A. when the volume of a given quantity of gas increases, its pressure decreases.
B. in a mixture of gases, the total pressure of the mixture is the sum of the pressures of
the individual gasses.
C. the diffusion process in respiration is active, driven only by the differences in O2 and
CO2 concentration on both sides of the membrane.
D. the diffusion process in respiration is passive, driven only by the differences in O2 and
CO2 concentration on both sides of the membrane.

4. The flow of air to the human respiratory would be

A. Nostrils -> Nasal cavity-> Pharynx -> Larynx -> Trachea -> Bronchi -> Bronchioles ->
Alveolus -> Blood circulation -> Tissue cells.
B. Nostrils -> Nasal cavity-> Larynx -> Pharynx -> Trachea -> Bronchi -> Bronchioles ->
Alveolus -> Blood circulation -> Tissue cells.
C. Nostrils -> Nasal cavity-> Pharynx -> Trachea -> Larynx -> Bronchi -> Bronchioles ->
Alveolus -> Tissue cells -> Blood circulation.
D. Nostrils -> Nasal cavity-> Pharynx -> Larynx -> Trachea -> Bronchi -> Bronchioles ->
Alveolus -> Blood circulation -> Tissue cells.

5. Below is formula for the Fick’s Law of diffusion.

R= D X A ∆p
d

Which of the following represents the distance across which diffusion takes place?
A. R
B. d
C. ∆p
D. A

49
6. Which of the following is true about peripheral chemoreceptors?

A. It only has sensitivity towards H+.

B. It does not have sensitivity towards H+
C. It consists if aortic bodies and carotid bodies.
D. It consists if aortic bodies and central chemoreceptors.

7. Which of the following best describes haemoglobin?

I. High affinity to oxygen.

II. High affinity to carbon dioxide.
III. In each haem group has an atom of magnesium.
IV. It is a protein with organic compounds called the haem group.

A. I only. C. I, II and IV.

B. II and III. D. I, II, III and IV.

8. How many percent of CO2 is transported in the form of bicarbonate ion?

A. 8%. C. 72%.
B. 20%. D. 100%.

9. This animal uses skin as a gas exchange organ, and it can breathe well in moist place.
The animal would be

A. bee. C. human
B. worm. D. amoeba.

10. Insects possess unique respiratory system known as __________ system.

A. skin
B. trachea
C. crosscurrent flow
D. countercurrent exchange

50
PART B: STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1
a) Figure 1 shows structure of a human lung. The lungs are organs occupying the thoracic
cavity.

Figure 1

i. Draw a line and label the following structures in the Figure 1.

(2 marks)
B – Bronchiole
C – Trachea

ii. State features of the alveoli that allow efficient gas exchange.
(3 marks)

iii. Explain why when the wall of the right lung side of thorax is punctured, the right lung
is deflated?
(2 marks)

b) Describe the fate of the air as it enters the nostril and flow through the nostril cavity.
(3 marks)

51
QUESTION 2
a) Answer the following questions regarding the transportation of CO2 from body tissues to
the lungs in human.

i. What is the name of the enzyme involved in the formation of carbonic acid?
(1 mark)

ii. In order to form carbaminohemoglobin, which part of the hemoglobin CO2 binds to?
(1 mark)

iii. Most HCO3- are carried in the bloodstream to the lungs. What happens as they
reached the lungs?
(2 marks)

b) Tobacco cigarette smoking harms nearly every organ in the body. It causes diseases and
reduces the health of smoker and to non-smokers.

i. List 3 chemicals that can be found in tobacco cigarette.

(3 marks)

ii. If a person inhaled smokes, describes effects that occur to the respiratory system.

(2 marks)

c) In oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, what causes Bohr shift to move towards the right?
(2 marks)

52
QUESTION 3

a) Respiratory surfaces of a frog involve skin and lung.

i. State and explain the type of breathing for a frog which allows air to enter its lung.
(3 marks)

ii. State the type of respiration which allows exchange of gases through their moist skin.
(1 mark)

b) Give reasons why birds evolved a two-cycle breathing process.

(2 marks)

c) Use the following statement below to describe the efficiency of fish gills in efficient gas
exchange.

‘As the low oxygenated blood enters the lamella, it travels in the direction opposite to
the water’

(4 marks)

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54