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Cambridge International Examinations

Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

CHEMISTRY 0620/23
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2018

45 minutes
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*8762427084*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
A copy of the Periodic Table is printed on page 16.
Electronic calculators may be used.

The syllabus is approved for use in England, Wales and Northern Ireland as a Cambridge International Level 1/Level 2 Certificate.

This document consists of 14 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB18 06_0620_23/3RP
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1 Ammonia gas is reacted with hydrogen chloride gas using the apparatus shown.

Solid ammonium chloride is produced.

long glass tube solid ammonium chloride

cotton wool soaked cotton wool soaked

in ammonia solution in hydrogen chloride
solution

Which statement explains why the solid ammonium chloride is formed nearer to the
hydrogen chloride?

A Ammonia solution is a base and hydrogen chloride solution is an acid.

B Ammonia molecules diffuse more slowly than hydrogen chloride molecules.
C Hydrogen chloride has a greater molecular mass than ammonia.
D Hydrogen chloride moves by Brownian motion.

2 Paper chromatography is done in the same way with three different mixtures of dyes. Each
mixture contains at least one of the dyes W, X, Y and Z.

The Rf values of the dyes in the three mixtures are shown.

Rf values from Rf values from Rf values from

dye
mixture 1 mixture 2 mixture 3

W 0.15 0.15 0.15

X 0.00 0.00 0.00
Y 0.50 0.50 0.50
Z 0.00 0.91 0.91

Which conclusion is correct?

A Dye W is nearest the solvent front and is present only in mixture 1 and mixture 3.
B Dye X has travelled furthest up the chromatography paper.
C Dye Y is the only dye present in all three mixtures.
D Dye Z is nearest the solvent front and is found in only two of the mixtures.

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3 Solid R reacted with dilute sulfuric acid.

The initial temperature of the dilute sulfuric acid and the final temperature of the solution are
shown.

25 25

20 20

15 15

10 10

initial temperature final temperature

of the dilute of the solution (°C)
sulfuric acid (°C)

What was the change in temperature in °C?

A –6 B –4 C 4 D 6

4 The ‘lead’ in a pencil is made of a mixture of graphite and clay.

‘lead’

When the percentage of graphite is increased, the pencil slides across the paper more easily.

Which statement explains this observation?

A Graphite has a high melting point.

B Graphite is a form of carbon.
C Graphite is a lubricant.
D Graphite is a non-metal.

5 Iron has an atomic number of 26. It occurs as the isotopes 54Fe, 56Fe, 57Fe and 58Fe.

Which statement explains why these isotopes have the same chemical properties?

A They have similar mass numbers.

B They have the same number of electrons in their outer shells.
C They have the same number of neutrons in their nuclei.
D They have the same number of protons in their nuclei.

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6 How many silicon atoms are bonded to each oxygen atom in a crystal of silicon(IV) oxide?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

7 Which substance is not a macromolecule?

A diamond
B graphite

C silicon(IV) oxide
D sulfur

8 An experiment was done to determine the formula of a hydrocarbon, CxHy.

10 cm3 of the gaseous hydrocarbon, CxHy, was burned in an excess of oxygen to form 20 cm3 of
carbon dioxide and 30 cm3 of water vapour.

What is CxHy?

A CH4 B C2H4 C C2H6 D C3H8

9 4.00 g of solid sodium hydroxide is added to water to make a solution with a concentration of
0.200 mol / dm3.

What is the volume of water used?

A 0.5 cm3 B 20 cm3 C 500 cm3 D 2000 cm3

10 Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using copper electrodes.

Which statement is correct?

A Oxygen gas is produced at the positive electrode.

B The blue colour of the solution gradually fades.
C The concentration of copper ions in the solution stays the same.
D The mass of the negative electrode decreases.

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11 Dilute sulfuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes.

What are the ionic half-equations for the reactions that take place at each electrode?

positive electrode negative electrode

A 2H+ + 2e– → H2 4OH– → 2H2O + O2 + 4e–

B 2H+ + 2e– → H2 4OH– + 4H+ → 4H2O
C 4OH– → 2H2O + O2 + 4e– 2H+ + 2e– → H2
D 4OH– + 4H+ → 4H2O 2H+ + 2e– → H2

12 Information about two reactions is given.

• The neutralisation reaction between citric acid and sodium hydrogencarbonate is endothermic.

• The displacement reaction between magnesium and carbon dioxide is exothermic.

Which statements about the two reactions are correct?

1 The energy of the products formed in the neutralisation reaction is greater than the
energy of the reactants.

2 The energy of magnesium and carbon dioxide is greater than the energy of
magnesium oxide and carbon.

3 In an exothermic reaction, the energy required to break the bonds is greater than the
energy released when the new bonds are formed.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

13 Ethene reacts with hydrogen. The equation is shown.

CH2=CH2 + H2 → C2H6

The bond energies are shown in the table. The reaction is exothermic.

bond energy
bond
in kJ / mol

C–C +350
C=C +610
C–H +410
H–H +436

What is the energy change for the reaction?

A –560 kJ / mol B –124 kJ / mol C +486 kJ / mol D +5496 kJ / mol

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14 Which row describes the effects of increasing both concentration and temperature on the
collisions between reacting particles?

increasing concentration increasing temperature

A more collisions per second only more collisions per second only
B more collisions per second and more more collisions per second only
collisions with sufficient energy to react
C more collisions per second only more collisions per second and more
collisions with sufficient energy to react
D more collisions per second and more more collisions per second and more
collisions with sufficient energy to react collisions with sufficient energy to react

15 In the Contact process, sulfur dioxide is converted into sulfur trioxide in a reversible reaction.

2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)

The forward reaction is exothermic.

Which conditions give the highest yield of sulfur trioxide at equilibrium?

pressure
temperature
/ atmospheres

A 0.5 high
B 0.5 low
C 1.5 high
D 1.5 low

16 The equation for a redox reaction is shown.

2Fe3+ + Zn → 2Fe2+ + Zn2+

Which statements are correct?

1 Fe3+ is reduced to form Fe2+.

2 Zn oxidises the Fe3+ ions.
3 Fe3+ is an oxidising agent.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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17 Which statement about oxides is correct?

A A solution of magnesium oxide has a pH less than pH 7.

B A solution of sulfur dioxide has a pH greater than pH 7.
C Magnesium oxide reacts with nitric acid to make a salt.
D Sulfur dioxide reacts with hydrochloric acid to make a salt.

18 The equation represents an equilibrium in aqueous ammonia.

NH3(aq) + H2O(l) NH4+(aq) + OH–(aq)

How does aqueous ammonia behave in this reaction?

A as a strong acid
B as a strong base
C as a weak acid
D as a weak base

19 An excess of aqueous sodium sulfate was added to aqueous barium chloride and the mixture
was filtered.

Which row shows the identity of the residue and the substances present in the filtrate?

residue substances in filtrate

A barium sulfate barium chloride and sodium chloride

B barium sulfate sodium chloride and sodium sulfate
C sodium chloride barium chloride and sodium sulfate
D sodium chloride barium sulfate and sodium sulfate

20 Which methods are suitable for preparing both zinc sulfate and copper(II) sulfate?

1 reacting the metal oxide with warm dilute aqueous sulfuric acid
2 reacting the metal with dilute aqueous sulfuric acid
3 reacting the metal carbonate with dilute aqueous sulfuric acid

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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21 Which element is classified as a non-metal in the Periodic Table?

A calcium
B chlorine
C chromium
D copper

22 Part of the Periodic Table is shown.

Element Q has a low boiling point, low density and does not conduct electricity.

Which element is Q?

A
B

C D

23 Which row describes a typical transition element?

density melting point boiling point colour of

in g / cm3 in °C in °C oxide

A 0.97 98 883 white

B 2.64 769 1382 white
C 3.10 –7 59 yellow
D 8.96 1085 2562 red

24 Which diagram represents a solid alloy?

A B C D

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25 The ionic equations for four reactions are shown.

Z + X2+ → Z2+ + X

Z + 2W+ → Z2+ + 2W

X + 2W+ → X2+ + 2W

Y + Z2+ → Y2+ + Z

What is the order of reactivity of the four metals, W, X, Y and Z?

most least
reactive reactive

A W X Z Y
B X W Y Z
C Y Z X W
D Z W X Y

26 Which equation represents the first stage in the extraction of zinc from zinc blende?

A 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2

B ZnS + H2O → ZnO + H2S

C ZnO + CO → Zn + CO2

D ZnO + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2O

27 Which statement explains why aluminium is used to manufacture aircraft?

A It has a low density.

B It is a good conductor of electricity.
C It is a good conductor of heat.
D It is ductile.

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28 Dry air is passed over hot copper until all the oxygen has reacted.

dry air copper

heat

The volume of gas at the end of the reaction is 120 cm3.

What is the starting volume of dry air?

A 132 cm3 B 152 cm3 C 180 cm3 D 570 cm3

29 A steel bicycle which had been left outdoors for several months was starting to rust.

What would not reduce the rate of corrosion?

A Remove the rust and paint the bicycle.

B Remove the rust and store the bicycle in a dry shed.
C Remove the rust and wipe the bicycle with a clean, damp cloth.
D Remove the rust and wipe the bicycle with an oily cloth.

30 Which statements about water are correct?

1 Household water contains dissolved salts.

2 Water for household use is filtered to remove soluble impurities.
3 Water is treated with chlorine to kill bacteria.
4 Water is used in industry for cooling.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1, 3 and 4 only
D 2, 3 and 4 only

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31 Ammonia is manufactured by reacting hydrogen with nitrogen in the Haber process.

Which row describes the sources of hydrogen and nitrogen and the conditions used in the
manufacture of ammonia in the Haber process?

source of source of temperature of pressure of

hydrogen nitrogen reaction / °C reaction / atm

A air natural gas 250 2

B air natural gas 250 200
C natural gas air 450 2
D natural gas air 450 200

32 Which statements about the carbon cycle are correct?

1 Carbon dioxide is added to the atmosphere by respiration.

2 Carbon dioxide is added to the atmosphere by combustion of coal.
3 Carbon dioxide is removed from the atmosphere by photosynthesis.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

33 Element Z forms an oxide, ZO2. Three uses of ZO2 are listed.

● bleaching agent

● killing bacteria

● manufacturing an important acid

What is Z?

A carbon
B lead
C nitrogen
D sulfur

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34 Limestone is an important material with many uses.

Limestone is heated to produce ......1...... and carbon dioxide.

This reaction is called ......2...... .

Which words correctly complete gaps 1 and 2?

1 2

A lime neutralisation
B lime thermal decomposition
C slaked lime neutralisation
D slaked lime thermal decomposition

35 What is not the correct use of the fraction named?

name of fraction use

A fuel oil making waxes

B gas oil fuel in diesel engines
C kerosene jet fuel
D naphtha making chemicals

36 Methane, ethane and propane belong to a family of hydrocarbons called alkanes.

What is the general formula of an alkane?

A CnH2n B CnH2n+1 C CnH2n–1 D CnH2n+2

37 Which substances can be obtained by cracking hydrocarbons?

A ethanol and ethene

B ethanol and hydrogen
C ethene and hydrogen
D ethene and poly(ethene)

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38 Which row describes an advantage and a disadvantage of making ethanol by fermentation?

advantage disadvantage

A uses a renewable resource occurs at a slow rate

B needs a high temperature produces impure ethanol as a product
C produces pure ethanol as a product needs a high temperature
D occurs at a slow rate uses a non-renewable resource

39 Which esters have the molecular formula C5H10O2?

1 ethyl propanoate
2 propyl ethanoate
3 butyl methanoate
4 methyl butanoate

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 2 only
D 3 and 4 only

40 A polymer linkage contains carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and oxygen atoms.

Which row about the polymer is correct?

type of
formed by
polymer

A polyamide addition polymerisation

B polyamide condensation polymerisation
C polyester addition polymerisation
D polyester condensation polymerisation

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publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2018 0620/23/M/J/18

 The Periodic Table of Elements
Group

© UCLES 2018
I II III IV V VI VII VIII
1 2

H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54

Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
16

85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86

0620/23/M/J/18
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Fl Lv
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium flerovium livermorium
– – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –
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The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).