Domain 4 Questions
Domain 4 Questions
1) Establish and maintain an organizational definition of, and severity hierarchy for, information security
incidents to allow accurate identification of and response to incidents.
Question # 669
The factor that is MOST likely to result in identification of security incidents is:
Answer: D
Ensuring that employees have the knowledge to recognize and report a suspected incident is most likely to result in
identification of security incidents.
Timely communication and reporting is only useful once identification of an incident has occurred.
Understanding how to establish severity levels is important, but not the essential element of ensuring that the
information security manager is aware of anomalous events that might signal an incident.
IDSs are useful for detecting IT-related incidents, but not useful in identifying other types of incidents such as
social engineering or physical intrusion.
Question # 670
A. standards.
B. impact.
C. policies.
D. risk.
Answer: B
The potential business impact as the result of a specific type of incident should be the primary basis for
determining severity criteria.
Standards and policies may define some requirements for severity levels, but are not the primary basis for
establishing them.
Risk associated with particular incidents may affectseverity levels, but only insofar as potential impact is concerned.
Organizational definition of severity hierarchy for accurate identification and response to incidents
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(TS-4.2) Establish and maintain an incident response plan to ensure an effective and timely response to
information security incidents.
Question # 671
Which of the following actions should be taken when an online trading company discovers a network attack in
progress?
Answer: C
Isolating the affected network segment will mitigate the immediate threat while allowing unaffected portions of the
business to continue processing.
Shutting off all network access points would create a denial of service that could result in loss of revenue.
Dumping event logs and enabling trace logging, while perhaps useful, would not mitigate the immediate threat posed by
the network attack.
Question # 672
A. documentation.
B. monitoring.
C. restoration.
D. containment.
Answer: D
The first priority in responding to a security incident is to contain it to limit the impact.
Documentation, monitoring and restoration are all important, but they should follow containment.
Question # 673
B. escalation criteria.
Answer: B
Escalation criteria, indicating the circumstances under which specific actions are to be undertaken, should be contained
within an incident response policy.
Telephone trees, press release templates and lists of critical backup files are too detailed to be included in a policy
document.
Question # 674
The BEST approach in managing a security incident involving a successful penetration should be to:
Answer: A
Since information security objectives should always be linked to the objectives of the business, it is imperative that
business processes be allowed to continue whenever possible.
Only when there is no alternative should these processes be interrupted.
Although it is important to allow the security team to assess the characteristics of an attack, this is subordinate to the
needs of the business.
Permitting an incident to continue may expose the organization to additional damage.
Evaluating the incident management process for deficiencies is valuable but it, too, is subordinate to allowing business
processes to continue.
Question # 675
A new e-mail virus that uses an attachment disguised as a picture file is spreading rapidly over the Internet.
Which of the following should be performed FIRST in response to this threat?
Answer: B
Until signature files can be updated, incoming e-mail containing picture file attachments should be blocked.
Quarantining picture files already stored on file servers is not effective since these files must be intercepted before they
are opened.
Quarantine of all mail servers or blocking all incoming mail is unnecessary overkill since only those e-mails containing
attached picture files are in question.
Question # 676
When a large organization discovers that it is the subject of a network probe, which of the following actions should be
taken?
Answer: C
In the case of a probe, the situation should be monitored and the affected network segment isolated.
Rebooting the router, powering down the demilitarized zone (DMZ) servers and enabling server trace routing
are not warranted.
Question # 677
Which of the following should be performed FIRST in the aftermath of a denial-of-service attack?
Answer: B (*)
An assessment should be conducted to determine whether any permanent damage occurred and the overall system
status.
It is not necessary at this point to rebuild any servers.
An impact analysis of the outage or isolating the demilitarized zone (DMZ) or screen subnet will not provide any
immediate benefit.
Question # 678
Which of the following actions should be taken when an information security manager discovers that a hacker is
footprinting the network perimeter?
Answer: B
Information security should check the intrusion detection system (IDS) logs and continue to monitor the situation.
It would be inappropriate to take any action beyond that.
In fact, updating the IDS could create a temporary exposure until the new version can be properly tuned.
Rebooting the router and enabling server trace routing would not be warranted.
Question # 679
A computer incident response team (CIRT) manual should PRIMARILY contain which of the following documents?
B. Severity criteria
Answer: B
Quickly ranking the severity criteria of an incident is a key element of incident response.
The other choices refer to documents that would not likely be included in a computer incident response team (CIRT)
manual.
Question # 680
When properly tested, which of the following would MOST effectively support an information security manager in
handling a security breach?
Answer: C
An incident response plan documents the step-by-step process to follow, as well as the related roles and responsibilities
pertaining to all parties involved in responding to an information security breach.
A business continuity plan or disaster recovery plan would be triggered during the execution of the incident response plan
in the case of a breach impacting the business continuity.
A vulnerability management plan is a procedure to address technical vulnerabilities and mitigate the risk through
configuration changes (patch management).
Question # 681
A web server in a financial institution that has been compromised using a super-user account has been isolated, and
proper forensic processes have been followed. The next step should be to:
Answer: D
The original media should be used since one can never be sure of all the changes a super-user may have made nor the
timelines in which these changes were made.
Rebuilding from the last known verified backup is incorrect since the verified backup may have been compromised by the
super-user at a different time.
Placing the web server in quarantine should have already occurred in the forensic process.
Shut down in an organized manner is out of sequence and no longer a problem.
The forensic process is already finished and evidence has already been acquired.
Question # 682
What is the FIRST action an information security manager should take when a company laptop is reported stolen?
Answer: C
Question # 683
Which of the following actions should take place immediately after a security breach is reported to an information
security manager?
B. Determine impact
Answer: A
Question # 684
The PRIORITY action to be taken when a server is infected with a virus is to:
Answer: A
The priority in this event is to minimize the effect of the virus infection and to prevent it from spreading by removing the
infected server(s) from the network.
After the network is secured from further infection, the damage assessment can be performed,
the virus database updated and any weaknesses sought.
Question # 685
Which of the following situations would be the MOST concern to a security manager?
B. The logon ID for a terminated systems analyst still exists on the system
C. The help desk has received numerous results of users receiving phishing e-mails
Answer: D (*)
The discovery of a Trojan installed on a system administrator's laptop is highly significant since this may mean that
privileged user accounts and passwords may have been compromised.
The other choices, although important, do not pose as immediate or as critical a threat.
Question # 686
A customer credit card database has been reported as being breached by hackers.
The FIRST step in dealing with this attack should be to:
C. start containment.
Answer: A
Asserting that the condition is a true security incident is the necessary first step in determining the correct response.
The containment stage would follow.
Notifying senior management and law enforcement could be part of the incident response process that takes place after
confirming an incident.
Question # 687
What is the BEST method for mitigating against network denial of service (DoS) attacks?
Answer: B
Packet filtering techniques are the only ones which reduce network congestion caused by a network denial of service
(DoS) attack.
Patching servers, in general, will not affect network traffic.
Implementing network address translation and load balancing would not be as effective in mitigating most
network DoS attacks.
Question # 688
Answer: A
Diverting incoming traffic corrects the situation and, therefore, is a corrective control.
Choice B, Filtering network traffic is a preventive control.
Choices C and D are detective controls.
Question # 689
An organization has been experiencing a number of network-based security attacks that all appear to originate
internally. The BEST course of action is to:
Answer: D
Installing an intrusion detection system (IDS) will allow the information security manager to better pinpoint the source of
the attack so that countermeasures may then be taken.
An IDS is not limited to detection of attacks originating externally.
Proper placement of agents on the internal network can be effectively used to detect an internally based attack.
Requiring the use of strong passwords will not be sufficiently effective against a network-based attack.
Assigning IP addresses would not be effective since these can be spoofed.
Implementing centralized logging software will not necessarily provide information on the source of the attack.
Question # 690
Answer: C
The best source of information is the firewall manufacturer since the manufacturer may have a patch to fix the
vulnerability or a workaround solution.
Ensuring that all OS patches are up-to-date is a best practice, in general, but will not necessarily address the reported
vulnerability.
Blocking inbound traffic may not be practical or effective from a business perspective.
Commissioning a penetration test will take too much time and will not necessarily provide a solution for corrective
actions.
Question # 691
Which of the following has the highest priority when defining an emergency response plan?
A. Critical data
B. Critical infrastructure
C. Safety of personnel
D. Vital records
Answer: C
The safety of an organization's employees should be the most important consideration given human safety laws.
Human safety is considered first in any process or management practice. All of the other choices are secondary.
Question # 692
Three employees reported the theft or loss of their laptops while on business trips. The FIRST course of action for the
security manager is to:
C. instruct the erring employees to pay a penalty for the lost laptops.
D. recommend that management report the incident to the police and file for insurance.
Answer: A
The first step when addressing theft or loss is to determine what was actually lost and the appropriate response.
Choice B may occur after the impact is assessed. Choices C and D depend upon company policy.
Question # 693
Answer: D
Appropriate people need to be notified; however, one must first validate the incident.
Containing the effects of the incident would be completed after validating the incident.
Developing response strategies for systematic attacks should have already been developed prior to the occurrence of an
incident.
Question # 694
An organization has verified that its customer information was recently exposed.
Which of the following is the FIRST step a security manager should take in this situation?
Answer: B
Question # 695
Answer: D
Question # 696
What task should be performed once a security incident has been verified?
Answer: B (***)
Identifying the incident means verifying whether an incident has occurred and finding out more details about the
incident.
Once an incident has been confirmed (identified), the incident management team should limit further exposure.
Determining the root cause takes place after the incident has been contained.
Performing a vulnerability assessment takes place after the root cause of an incident has been determined, in order to
find new vulnerabilities.
Question # 697
An information security manager believes that a network file server was compromised by a hacker.
Which of the following should be the FIRST action taken?
Answer: C
The incident response process will determine the appropriate course of action.
If the data have been corrupted by a hacker, the backup may also be corrupted.
Shutting down the server is likely to destroy any forensic evidence that may exist and may be required by the
investigation.
Shutting down the network is a drastic action, especially if the hacker is no longer active on the network.
Question # 698
B. gather evidence.
Answer: C
The primary role of incident response is to detect, respond to and contain incidents so that impact to business operations
is minimized.
Choice A is a responsibility of incident response teams, but not the primary objective.
Choices B and D are activities that an incident response team may conduct, depending on circumstances, but neither is a
primary objective.
Question # 699
An employee's computer has been infected with a new virus. What should be the FIRST action?
Answer: D
The first action should be containing the risk, i.e., disconnecting the computer so that it will not infect other computers
on the network.
The virus may start infecting other computers while the virus scan is running.
Only when the impact to the IT environment is significant should it be reported to senior management.
A case of virus infection does not warrant the action. Formatting the hard disk is the last resort.
Question # 700
A. disaster recovery.
B. incident response.
C. a forensic analysis.
Answer: B
Question # 701
Which of the following would present the GREATEST risk to information security?
A. Virus signature files updates are applied to all servers every day
Answer: D
Security incidents are configured to capture system events that are important from the security perspective;
they include incidents also captured in the security access logs and other monitoring tools.
Although, in some instances, they could wait for a few days before they are researched,
from the options given this would have the greatest risk to security.
Most often, they should be analyzed as soon as possible.
Virus signatures should be updated as often as they become available by the vendor,
while critical patches should be installed as soon as they are reviewed and tested, which could occur in 24 hours.
Question # 702
The BEST method for detecting and monitoring a hacker's activities without exposing information assets to
unnecessary risk is to utilize:
A. firewalls.
B. bastion hosts.
C. decoy files.
D. screened subnets.
Answer: C
Decoy files, often referred to as honeypots, are the best choice for diverting a hacker away from critical files and alerting
security of the hacker's presence.
Firewalls and bastion hosts attempt to keep the hacker out,
while screened subnets or demilitarized zones (DMZs) provide a middle ground between the trusted internal network
and the external untrusted Internet.
Question # 703
Answer: D
The most important function of an intrusion detection system (IDS) is to identify potential attacks on the network.
Identifying how the attack was launched is secondary.
It is not designed specifically to identify weaknesses in network security or to identify patterns of suspicious logon
attempts.
Question # 704
Which of the following is the BEST way to verify that all critical production servers are utilizing up-to-date virus
signature files?
A. Verify the date that signature files were last pushed out
C. Research the most recent signature file and compare to the console
Answer: D
The only accurate way to check the signature files is to look at a sample of servers.
The fact that an update was pushed out to a server does not guarantee that it was properly loaded onto that server.
Checking the vendor information to the management console would still not be indicative as to whether the file was
properly loaded on the server.
Personnel should never release a virus, no matter how benign.
Question # 705
Which of the following are the MOST important criteria when selecting virus protection software?
B. Ability to interface with intrusion detection system (IDS) software and firewalls
Answer: D
For the software to be effective, it must be easy to maintain and keep current.
Market share and annualized cost, links to the intrusion detection system (IDS) and automatic notifications are all
secondary in nature.
Question # 706
Which of the following is the MOST serious exposure of automatically updating virus signature files on every desktop
each Friday at 11:00 p.m. (23.00 hrs.)?
Answer: C
Updating virus signature files on a weekly basis carries the risk that the systems will be vulnerable to viruses released
during the week; far more frequent updating is essential. All other issues are secondary to this very serious exposure.
Question # 707
A. run continuously.
B. ignore anomalies.
Answer: A
If an intrusion detection system (IDS) does not run continuously the business remains vulnerable.
An IDS should detect, not ignore, anomalies.
An IDS should be flexible enough to cope with a changing environment.
Both host- and network-based IDSs are recommended for adequate detection.
Question # 708
Which of the following MOST effectively reduces false-positive alerts generated by a security information and event
management (SIEM) process?
Answer: A
Implementing an SIEM process helps ensure that incidents are correctly identified and handled appropriately.
Since an SIEM process depends on log analysis based on predefined rules, the most effective way to reduce false-positive
alerts is to develop use cases for known threats to identified critical systems.
The use cases would then be used to develop appropriate rules for the SIEM solution.
Although security monitoring requires traffic analysis, risk assessment, and quality logs,
only properly defined use cases can ensure that the rules are accurately defined and that events are properly identified,
thereby reducing false-positive alerts.
Question # 709
B. lessons learned.
C. hacker's identity.
D. areas affected.
Answer: B
Post-incident reviews are beneficial in determining ways to improve the response process through lessons learned from
the attack.
Evaluating the relevance of evidence, who launched the attack or what areas were affected are not the primary purposes
for such a meeting because these should have been already established during the response to the incident.
Question # 710
Isolation and containment measures for a compromised computer have been taken and information security
management is now investigating. What is the MOST appropriate next step?
D. Document current connections and open Transmission Control Protocol/User Datagram Protocol (TCP/UDP) ports
Answer: C
When investigating a security breach, it is important to preserve all traces of evidence left by the invader.
For this reason, it is imperative to preserve the memory contents of the machine in order to analyze them later.
The correct answer is choice C because a copy of the whole system's memory is obtained for future analysis by running
the appropriate tools.
This is also important from a legal perspective since an attorney may suggest that the system was changed during the
conduct of the investigation.
Running a computer forensics tool in the compromised machine will cause the creation of at least one process that may
overwrite evidence.
Rebooting the machine will delete the contents of the memory, erasing potential evidence.
Collecting information about current connections and open Transmission Control Protocol/User Datagram Protocol
(TCP/UDP) ports is correct, but doing so by using tools may also erase memory contents.
Question # 711
Why is “slack space” of value to an information security manager as part of an incident investigation?
Answer: A
“Slack space” is the unused space between where the file data end and the end of the cluster the data occupy.
Login information is not typically stored in the slack space.
Encryption for the slack space is no different from the rest of the file system.
The slack space is not a viable means of storage during an investigation.
Question # 712
Answer: C
The primary objective is to find any weakness in the current process and improve it. The other choices are all secondary.
Question # 713
Evidence from a compromised server has to be acquired for a forensic investigation. What would be the BEST source?
D. Backup servers
Answer: A
The bit-level copy image file ensures forensic quality evidence that is admissible in a court of law.
Choices B and D may not provide forensic quality data for investigative work,
while choice C alone may not provide enough evidence.
Question # 714
In the course of responding to an information security incident, the BEST way to treat evidence for possible legal action is
defined by:
A. international standards.
B. local regulations.
Answer: B
Legal follow-up will most likely be performed locally where the incident took place; therefore, it is critical that the
procedure of treating evidence is in compliance with local regulations.
In certain countries, there are strict regulations on what information can be collected.
When evidence collected is not in compliance with local regulations, it may not be admissible in court.
There are no common regulations to treat computer evidence that are accepted internationally.
Generally accepted best practices such as a common chain-of-custody concept may have different implementation in
different countries, and thus may not be a good assurance that evidence will be admissible.
Local regulations always take precedence over organizational security policies.
Question # 715
Answer: C
Taking an image copy of the media is a recommended practice to ensure legal admissibility.
All of the other choices are subsequent and may be supplementary.
Question # 716
D. ensure law enforcement personnel are present before the forensic analysis commences.
Answer: A
Without the initial assignment of forensic expertise, the required levels of evidence may not be preserved.
In choice B, the IT department is unlikely to have that level of expertise and should, thus, be prevented from taking action
Choice C may be a subsequent necessity that comes after choice A.
Choice D, notifying law enforcement, will likely occur after the forensic analysis has been completed.
Question # 717
To justify the establishment of an incident management team, an information security manager would find which of
the following to be the MOST effective?
Answer: D
Business benefits from incident impact reduction would be the most important goal for establishing an incident
management team.
The assessment of business impact of past incidents would need to be completed to articulate the benefits.
Having an independent review benefits the incident management process.
The need for constant improvement on the security level is a benefit to the organization.
Question # 718
A database was compromised by guessing the password for a shared administrative account and confidential customer
information was stolen.
The information security manager was able to detect this breach by analyzing which of the following?
C. Concurrent logons
D. Firewall logs
Answer: A
Since the password for the shared administrative account was obtained through guessing, it is probable that there were
multiple unsuccessful logon attempts before the correct password was deduced.
Searching the logs for invalid logon attempts could, therefore, lead to the discovery of this unauthorized activity.
Because the account is shared, reviewing the logs for concurrent logons would not reveal unauthorized activity since
concurrent usage is common in this situation.
Write access violations would not necessarily be observed since the information was merely copied and not altered.
Firewall logs would not necessarily contain information regarding logon attempts.
Question # 719
To determine how a security breach occurred on the corporate network, a security manager looks at the logs of
various devices. Which of the following BEST facilitates the correlation and review of these logs?
A. Database server
C. Time server
D. Proxy server
Answer: C
To accurately reconstruct the course of events, a time reference is needed and that is provided by the time server.
The other choices would not assist in the correlation and review of these logs.
Question # 720
If an organization considers taking legal action on a security incident, the information security manager should focus
PRIMARILY on:
Answer: B
The integrity of evidence should be kept, following the appropriate forensic techniques to obtain the evidence and a
chain of custody procedure to maintain the evidence (in order to be accepted in a court of law).
All other options are part of the investigative procedure, but they are not as important as preserving the integrity of the
evidence.
Question # 721
Which of the following is the MOST critical consideration when collecting and preserving admissible evidence during an
incident response?
B. Chain of custody
C. Separation of duties
D. Clock synchronization
Answer: B
Question # 722
In a forensic investigation, which of the following would be the MOST important factor?
D. Expertise of resources
Answer: D
The most important factor in a forensic investigation is the expertise of the resources participating in the project due to
the inherent complexity.
Operation of a robust incident management process and the identification of areas of responsibility should occur prior to
an investigation.
Involvement of law enforcement is dependent upon the nature of the investigation.
Question # 723
An unauthorized user gained access to a merchant's database server and customer credit card information.
Which of the following would be the FIRST step to preserve and protect the evidence of unauthorized intrusion
activities?
Answer: C
Isolating the server will prevent further intrusions and protect evidence of intrusion activities left in memory and on the
hard drive.
Some intrusion activities left in virtual memory may be lost if the system is shut down.
Duplicating the hard disk will only preserve the evidence on the hard disk, not the evidence in virtual memory, and will
not prevent further unauthorized access attempts.
Copying the database log file to a protected server will not provide sufficient evidence should the organization choose to
pursue legal recourse.
Question # 724
Which of the following would be MOST appropriate for collecting and preserving evidence?
Answer: C
When collecting evidence about a security incident, it is very important to follow appropriate forensic procedures to
handle electronic evidence by a method approved by local jurisdictions.
All other options will help when collecting or preserving data about the incident; however these data might not be
accepted as evidence in a court of law if they are not collected by a method approved by local jurisdictions.
Question # 725
Which of the following is the MOST important aspect of forensic investigations that will potentially involve legal
action?
B. Timely intervention
D. Chain of custody
Answer: D
Establishing the chain of custody is one of the most important steps in conducting forensic investigations since
it preserves the evidence in a manner that is admissible in court.
The independence of the investigator may be important, but is not the most important aspect.
Timely intervention is important for containing incidents, but not as important for forensic investigation.
Identifying the perpetrator is important, but maintaining the chain of custody is more important in order to have the
perpetrator convicted in court.
Question # 726
In the course of examining a computer system for forensic evidence, data on the suspect media were inadvertently
altered. Which of the following should have been the FIRST course of action in the investigative process?
B. Create a bit-by-bit image of the original media source onto new media.
D. Run an error-checking program on all logical drives to ensure that there are no disk errors.
Answer: B
The original hard drive or suspect media should never be used as the source for analysis.
The source or original media should be physically secured and only used as the master to create a bit-by-bit image.
The original should be stored using the appropriate procedures, depending on location.
The image created for forensic analysis should be used.
A backup does not preserve 100 percent of the data, such as erased or deleted files and data in slack space - which may
be critical to the investigative process.
Once data from the source are altered, they may no longer be admissible in court.
Continuing the investigation, documenting the date, time and data altered, are actions that may not be admissible in
legal proceedings.
The organization would need to know the details of collecting and preserving forensic evidence relevant to their
jurisdiction.
Question # 727
When electronically stored information is requested during a fraud investigation, which of the following should be the
FIRST priority?
Answer: B
Locating the data and preserving data integrity is the only correct answer because it represents the primary responsibility
of an investigator and is a complete and accurate statement of the first priority.
While assigning responsibility for acquiring the data is a step that should be taken, it is not the first step or the highest
priority.
Creating a forensically sound image may or may not be a necessary step, depending on the type of investigation,
but it would never be the first priority.
Issuing a litigation hold to all affected parties might be a necessary step early on in an investigation of certain types,
but not the first priority.
Question # 728
When creating a forensic image of a hard drive, which of the following should be the FIRST step?
Answer: B
The first step in any investigation requiring the creation of a forensic image should always be to maintain the chain of
custody.
Identifying a recognized forensics software tool to create the image is one of the important steps, but it should come
after several of the other options.
Connecting the hard drive to a write blocker is an important step, but it must be done after the chain of custody has been
established.
Generating a cryptographic hash of the hard drive contents is another important step, but one that comes after several of
the other options.
Question # 729
Answer: A
One of the first steps in an investigation is to create an image of the original hard drive.
A physical copy will copy the data, block by block, including any hidden data blocks and hidden partitions that can be
used to conceal evidence.
Encryption is not required.
Examining the hard drive is not good practice.
A logical copy will only copy the files and folders and may not copy the necessary data to properly examine the hard drive
for forensic evidence.
Question # 730
A forensic team was commissioned to perform an analysis of unrecognized processes running on a desktop PC.
The lead investigator advised the team against disconnecting the power in order to:
Answer: D
Disconnecting power from a system results in loss of data stored in volatile memory.
Those data could be vital for the investigation and for understanding the extent of the impact of the event.
Disconnecting power is not recommended where analysis of running processes or the content of volatile memory is
required.
The other choices do not address the capture of the data that exist in volatile memory.
Question # 731
When attempting data recovery of a specific file during forensic analysis, an investigator would be challenged the
MOST when:
Answer: C
When the actual file content on the disk is overwritten, it generally cannot be recovered without significant resources
and highly specialized tools, and frequently cannot be recovered at all.
Deleted files that have not been physically overwritten, partition tables and even drives that have been high-level
formatted can generally be retrieved using commonly available forensic tools.
Question # 732
The requirement for security incidents to be resolved quickly and for service to be restored is:
Answer: D
Problem management is focused on investigating and uncovering the root cause of incidents.
Quick restoration of service will often be in direct conflict with problem management,
particularly when restoring service compromises the evidence needed to complete an investigation.
Quick restoration of service can actually increase risk and would not be a sound basis for risk management activities.
Forensics training is concerned with the legally sound collection and preservation of evidence and does not directly relate
to rapid service restoration.
Question # 733
Which of the following would represent a violation of the chain of custody when a backup tape has been identified as
evidence in a fraud investigation? The tape was:
Answer: B
Since a number of individuals would have access to the tape library, and could have accessed and tampered with the
tape, the chain of custody could not be verified.
All other choices provide clear indication of who was in custody of the tape at all times.
Question # 734
Which of the following functions is responsible for determining the members of the enterprise's response teams?
A. Governance
B. Risk management
C. Compliance
D. Information security
Answer: D
The information security manager, or designated manager for incident response, should select the team members
required to ensure that all required disciplines are represented on the team.
The governance function will determine the strategy and policies that will set the scope and charter for incident
management and response capabilities.
While response is a component of managing risk, the basis for risk management is determined by governance and
strategy requirements.
Compliance would not be directly related to this activity, although this function may have representation on the incident
response team.
Question # 735
The main mail server of a financial institution has been compromised at the superuser level; the only way to ensure
the system is secure would be to:
Answer: C
Rebuilding the system from the original installation medium is the only way to ensure all security vulnerabilities and
potential stealth malicious programs have been destroyed.
Changing the root password of the system does not ensure the integrity of the mail server.
Implementing multifactor authentication is an aftermeasure and does not clear existing security threats.
Disconnecting the mail server from the network is an initial step, but does not guarantee security.
Question # 736
A password hacking tool was used to capture detailed bank account information and personal identification numbers
(PINs). Upon confirming the incident, the NEXT step is to:
B. start containment.
Answer: B
Once an incident has been confirmed, containment is the first priority of incident response, because it will generally
mitigate further impact.
Notifying law enforcement, making an image copy of the media and isolating the system should be performed after the
containment plan has been executed.
Question # 737
An employee has found a suspicious file on a server. The employee thinks the file is a virus and contacts the
information security manager. What is the FIRST step to take?
Answer: C
The first step in incident response is to identify whether an event is an actual threat.
Containment is the next step in the incident response cycle.
Deleting the file could be part of the containment process, but only after proper digital forensics have been performed so
it is safe to delete the file.
Reporting to management would be a later step in the incident handling cycle and will vary based on policy,
but it would not come before verification or general containment.
Question # 738
The systems administrator did not immediately notify the security officer about a malicious attack.
An information security manager could prevent this situation by:
Answer: A
Security incident response plans should be tested to find any deficiencies and improve existing processes.
Testing the intrusion detection system (IDS) is a good practice but would not have prevented this situation.
All personnel need to go through formal training to ensure that they understand the process, tools and methodology
involved in handling security incidents.
However, testing of the actual plans is more effective in ensuring the process works as intended.
Reviewing the response procedures is not enough; the security response plan needs to be tested on a regular basis.
Question # 739
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for an organization interacting with the media during a
disaster?
Answer: A
Proper messages need to be sent quickly through a specific identified person so that there are no rumors or statements
made that may damage reputation.
Choices B, C and D are not recommended until the message to be communicated is made clear and the spokesperson has
already spoken to the media.
Question # 740
During the security review of organizational servers it was found that a file server containing confidential human
resources (HR) data was accessible to all user IDs. As a FIRST step, the security manager should:
Answer: C
The data owner should be notified prior to any action being taken.
Copying sample files as evidence is not advisable since it breaches confidentiality requirements on the file.
Removing access privileges to the folder containing the data should be done by the data owner or by the security
manager in consultation with the data owner frequently the security manager would not have this right anyway;
regardless, this would be done only after formally reporting the incident.
Training the human resources (HR) team on properly controlling file permissions is the method to prevent such incidents
in the future, but should take place once the incident reporting and investigation activities are completed.
Question # 741
When a major vulnerability in the security of a critical web server is discovered, immediate notification should be
made to the:
Answer: A
In order to correct the vulnerabilities, the system owner needs to be notified quickly before an incident can take place.
Choice B is not correct because the incident has not taken place and notification could delay implementation of the fix.
Data owners would be notified only if the vulnerability could have compromised data.
The development team may be called upon by the system owner to resolve the vulnerability.
Question # 742
When a significant security breach occurs, what should be reported FIRST to senior management?
Answer: B
When reporting an incident to senior management, the initial information to be communicated should include an
explanation of what happened and how the breach was resolved.
A summary of security logs would be too technical to report to senior management.
An analysis of the impact of similar attacks and a business case for improving controls would be desirable; however, these
would be communicated later in the process.
Question # 743
When the computer incident response team (CIRT) finds clear evidence that a hacker has penetrated the corporate
network and modified customer information, an information security manager should FIRST notify:
Answer: C
The data owners should be notified first so they can take steps to determine the extent of the damage and coordinate a
plan for corrective action with the computer incident response team.
Other parties will be notified later as required by corporate policy and regulatory requirements.
Question # 744
Which of the following would a security manager establish to determine the target for restoration of normal
processing?
Answer: A
Recovery time objective (RTO) is the length of time from the moment of an interruption until the time the process must
be functioning at a service level sufficient to limit financial and operational impacts to an acceptable level.
Maximum tolerable outage (MTO) is the maximum time for which an organization can operate in a reduced mode.
Recovery point objectives (RPOs) relate to the age of the data required for recovery.
Services delivery objectives (SDOs) are the levels of service required in reduced mode.
Question # 745
Major security events with serious legal implications should be communicated to:
B. management after the incident has been verified and the severity determined.
D. only to human resources (HR) and the legal department for appropriate action.
Answer: B
Communication regarding security events, particularly ones that have legal implications, is a business decision that is the
responsibility of management.
There are few, if any, circumstances where the information security manager should contact external authorities directly.
It is also the decision of management to determine which stakeholders and external entities should be informed.
This process should be detailed in the enterprise's incident response communication plan.
Question # 746
After a significant security breach has occurred, what is the MOST important item to report to the chief information
officer (CIO)?
Answer: D
The actual impact to the organization and corrective actions taken would be the most important item to share with the
CIO.
A summary of security logs would be too technical to report to the CIO.
An analysis of the impact of similar attacks would be helpful, but is not the most important item to report.
A business case for implementing stronger controls would be helpful to report to management, but is not the most
important item to report, and would be subsequent to reporting impact and corrective actions.
Question # 747
In a large organization, effective management of security incidents will be MOST dependent on:
Answer: D
Timely communication and reporting is most likely to ensure that the information security manager receives the
information necessary to effectively manage a security incident.
Effective communication will also help ensure that the correct resources are engaged at the appropriate time.
Understanding severity levels is important, but on its own is not sufficient to ensure that the information security
manager is able to manage the incident effectively.
Intrusion detection is useful for detecting potential network security incidents, but without robust communication and
reporting processes, the tool is less effective.
Conducting awareness training so individuals can recognize potential incidents is important, but not effective unless the
information is communicated to the right people in a timely manner.
Question # 748
The PRIMARY purpose of involving third-party teams for carrying out post event reviews of information security
incidents is to:
A. enable independent and objective review of the root cause of the incidents.
C. identify lessons learned for further improving the information security management process.
Answer: A
It is always desirable to avoid the conflict of interest involved in having the information security team carry out the post
event review.
Obtaining support for enhancing the expertise of the third-party teams is one of the advantages, but is not the primary
driver.
Identifying lessons learned for further improving the information security management process is the general purpose of
carrying out the post event review.
Obtaining better buy-in for the information security program is not a valid reason for involving third-party teams.
Question # 749
Answer: A
The main purpose of a post incident review is to identify areas of improvement in the process.
Developing a process for continuous improvement is not true in every case.
Developing a business case for the security program budget and identifying new incident management tools may come
from the analysis of the incident, but are not the key objectives.
Question # 750
Which of the following is the BEST mechanism to determine the effectiveness of the incident response process?
Answer: D
Post event reviews are designed to identify gaps and shortcomings in the actual incident response process so that these
gaps may be improved over time.
The other choices will not provide the same level of feedback in improving the process.
Question # 751
The typical requirement for security incidents to be resolved quickly and service restored is:
Answer: B
Problem management is focused on investigating and uncovering the root cause of incidents, which will often be a
problem when restoring service compromises the evidence needed.
Quickly restoring service will not always be the best option such as in cases of criminal activity, which requires
preservation of evidence precluding use of the systems involved.
Managing risk goes beyond the quick restoration of services, e.g., if doing so increased some other risk disproportionately
Forensics is concerned with legally adequate collection and preservation of evidence, not with service continuity.
Question # 752
The PRIMARY reason for senior management review of information security incidents is to:
Answer: A
Although some corrective actions are being taken by the security team and the incident response team, management
review will ensure whether there are any other corrective actions that need to be taken.
Sometimes this will result in improvements to information security policies.
Management will not review information security incidents merely to demonstrate management commitment.
Management will not perform a review for fault finding such as examining the incidence response process for deficiencies
and the ability of the security team.
Question # 753
Which of the following is the MOST important area of focus when examining potential security compromise of a new
wireless network?
A. Signal strength
B. Number of administrators
C. Bandwidth
D. Encryption strength
Answer: B
The number of individuals with access to the network configuration presents a security risk.
Encryption strength is an area where wireless networks tend to fall short; however, the potential to compromise the
entire network is higher when an inappropriate number of people can alter the configuration.
Signal strength and network bandwidth are secondary issues.
Question # 754
Which of the following should be determined FIRST when establishing a business continuity program?
Answer: B
Prior to creating a detailed business continuity plan, it is important to determine the incremental daily cost of losing
different systems.
This will allow recovery time objectives to be determined which, in turn, affects the location and cost of offsite recovery
facilities, and the composition and mission of individual recovery teams.
Determining the cost to rebuild information processing facilities would not be the first thing to determine.
Question # 755
A company has a network of branch offices with local file/print and mail servers; each branch individually contracts a
hot site. Which of the following would be the GREATEST weakness in recovery capability?
Answer: D
Sharing a hot site facility is sometimes necessary in the case of a major disaster.
Also, first come, first served usually determines priority of access based on general industry practice.
Access to a hot site is not indefinite; the recovery plan should address a long-term outage.
In case of a disaster affecting a localized geographical area, the vendor's facility and capabilities could be insufficient for
all of its clients, which will all be competing for the same resource.
Preference will likely be given to the larger corporations, possibly delaying the recovery of a branch that will likely be
smaller than other clients based locally.
Question # 756
Answer: A
Unless backup media are available, all other preparations become meaningless.
Recovery site location and security are important, but would not prevent recovery in a disaster situation.
Having a secondary hot site is also important, but not as important as having backup media available.
Similarly, alternate data communication lines should be tested regularly and successfully but, again, this is not as critical.
Question # 757
Which of the following is the MOST important element to ensure the success of a disaster recovery test at a
vendor-provided hot site?
Answer: D
Question # 758
At the conclusion of a disaster recovery test, which of the following should ALWAYS be performed prior to leaving the
vendor's hot site facility?
Answer: A
For security and privacy reasons, all organizational data and software should be erased prior to departure.
Evaluations can occur back at the office after everyone is rested, and the overall results can be discussed and compared
objectively.
Question # 759
An organization with multiple data centers has designated one of its own facilities as the recovery site.
The MOST important concern is the:
Answer: B
If data centers are operating at or near capacity, it may prove difficult to recover critical operations at an alternate data
center.
Although line capacity is important from a mirroring perspective, this is secondary to having the necessary capacity to
restore critical systems.
By comparison, differences in logical and physical security and synchronization of system software releases are much
easier issues to overcome and are, therefore, of less concern.
Question # 760
Which of the following is MOST important in determining whether a disaster recovery test is successful?
Answer: C
To ensure that a disaster recovery test is successful, it is most important to determine whether all critical business
functions were successfully recovered and duplicated.
Although ensuring that only materials taken from offsite storage are used in the test is important, this is not as critical in
determining a test's success.
While full recovery of the processing infrastructure is a key recovery milestone, it does not ensure the success of a test.
Achieving the RTOs is another important milestone, but does not necessarily prove that the critical business functions can
be conducted, due to interdependencies with other applications and key elements such as data, staff, manual processes,
materials and accessories, etc.
Question # 761
Which of the following is MOST important when deciding whether to build an alternate facility or subscribe to a
third-party hot site?
B. Daily cost of losing critical systems and recovery time objectives (RTOs)
Answer: C
The complexity and business sensitivity of the processing infrastructure and operations largely determines the viability of
such an option;
the concern is whether the recovery site meets the operational and security needs of the organization.
The cost to build a redundant facility is not relevant since only a fraction of the total processing capacity is considered
critical at the time of the disaster and recurring contract costs would accrue over time.
Invocation costs are not a factor because they will be the same regardless.
The incremental daily cost of losing different systems and the recovery time objectives (RTOs) do not distinguish whether
a commercial facility is chosen.
Resulting criticality from the business impact analysis (BIA) will determine the scope and timeline of the recovery efforts,
regardless of the recovery location.
Question # 762
Which of the following terms and conditions represent a significant deficiency if included in a commercial hot site
contract?
Answer: B
Equipment provided “at time of disaster (ATOD), not on floor” means that the equipment is not available but will be
acquired by the commercial hot site provider on a best effort basis.
This leaves the customer at the mercy of the marketplace.
If equipment is not immediately available, the recovery will be delayed.
Many commercial providers do require sharing facilities in cases where there are multiple simultaneous declarations, and
that priority may be established on a first-come, first-served basis.
It is also common for the provider to substitute equivalent or better equipment, as they are frequently upgrading and
changing equipment.
Question # 763
Which of the following is the MOST important element to ensure the successful recovery of a business during a
disaster?
Answer: A
In a major disaster, staff can be injured or can be prevented from traveling to the hot site, so technical skills and business
knowledge can be lost.
It is therefore critical to maintain an updated copy of the detailed recovery plan at an offsite location.
Continuity of the business requires adequate network redundancy,
hot site infrastructure that is certified as compatible, and clear criteria for declaring a disaster.
Ideally, the business continuity program addresses all of these satisfactorily.
However, in a disaster situation, where all these elements are present, but without the detailed technical plan, business
recovery will be seriously impaired.
Question # 764
B. Recovery criteria
Answer: B
Recovery criteria, indicating the circumstances under which specific actions are undertaken, should be contained within a
business continuity policy.
Telephone trees, business impact assessments (BIAs) and listings of critical backup files are too detailed to include in a
policy document.
Question # 765
When an organization is using an automated tool to manage and house its business continuity plans, which of the
following is the PRIMARY concern?
Answer: A
If all of the plans exist only in electronic form, this presents a serious weakness if the electronic version is dependent on
restoration of the intranet or other systems that are no longer available.
Versioning control and tracking changes in personnel and plan assets is actually easier with an automated system.
Broken hyperlinks are a concern, but less serious than plan accessibility.
Question # 766
When performing a business impact analysis (BIA), which of the following should calculate the recovery time and cost
estimates?
D. IT management
Answer: C
Business process owners are in the best position to understand the true impact on the business that a system outage
would create.
The business continuity coordinator, IT management and even the information security manager will not be able to
provide that level of detailed knowledge.
Question # 767
Which of the following is MOST closely associated with a business continuity program?
Answer: D
Technical recovery plans, network redundancy and equipment needs are all associated with infrastructure disaster
recovery.
Only recovery time objectives (RTOs) directly relate to business continuity.
Question # 768
Which of the following application systems should have the shortest recovery time objective (RTO)?
A. Contractor payroll
B. Change management
Answer: C
In most businesses where an e-commerce site is in place, it would need to be restored in a matter of hours, if not
minutes.
Contractor payroll, change management and fixed assets would not require as rapid a recovery time.
Question # 769
Answer: D
A recovery strategy identifies the best way to recover a system in case of disaster and provides guidance based on
detailed recovery procedures that can be developed.
Different strategies should be developed and all alternatives presented to senior management.
Senior management should select the most appropriate strategy from the alternatives provided.
The selected strategy should be used for further development of the detailed business continuity plan.
The selection of strategy depends on criticality of the business process and applications supporting the processes.
It need not necessarily cover all applications.
All recovery strategies have associated costs, which include costs of preparing for disruptions and putting them to use in
the event of a disruption.
The latter can be insured against, but not the former.
The best recovery option need not be the least expensive.
Question # 770
Emergency actions are taken at the early stage of a disaster with the purpose of preventing injuries or loss of life and:
Answer: D
During an incident, emergency actions should minimize or eliminate casualties and damage to the business operation,
thus reducing business interruptions.
Determining the extent of property damage is not the consideration;
emergency actions should minimize, not determine, the extent of the damage.
Protecting/preserving environmental conditions may not be relevant.
Ensuring orderly plan activation is important but not as critical as reducing damage to the operation.
Question # 771
When designing the technical solution for a disaster recovery site, the PRIMARY factor that should be taken into
consideration is the:
C. recovery window.
Answer: C
The length of the recovery window is defined by business management and determines the acceptable time frame
between a disaster and the restoration of critical services/applications.
The technical implementation of the disaster recovery (DR) site will be based on this constraint,
especially the choice between a hot, warm or cold site.
The service delivery objective is supported during the alternate process mode until the normal situation is restored,
which is directly related to business needs.
The recovery time objective (RTO) is commonly agreed to be the time frame between a disaster and the return to normal
operations.
It is then longer than the interruption window and is very difficult to estimate in advance.
The time frame between the reduced operation mode at the end of the interruption window and the return to normal
operations depends on the magnitude of the disaster.
Technical disaster recovery solutions alone will not used for returning to normal operations.
Maximum tolerable outage (MTO) is the maximum time acceptable by a company operating in reduced mode before
experiencing losses. Theoretically, recovery time objectives (RTOs) equal the interruption window plus the maximum
tolerable outage. This will not be the primary factor for the choice of the technical disaster recovery solution.
Question # 772
In designing a backup strategy that will be consistent with a disaster recovery strategy, the PRIMARY factor to be taken
into account will be the:
D. interruption window.
Answer: B (*)
The recovery point objective (RPO) defines the maximum loss of data (in terms of time) acceptable by the business
(i.e., age of data to be restored).
It will directly determine the basic elements of the backup strategy -
frequency of the backups and what kind of backup is the most appropriate (disk-to-disk, on tape, mirroring).
The volume of data will be used to determine the capacity of the backup solution.
The recovery time objective (RTO) - the time between disaster and return to normal operation - will not have any impact
on the backup strategy.
The availability to restore backups in a time frame consistent with the interruption window will have to be checked and
will influence the strategy (e.g., full backup vs. incremental), but this will not be the primary factor.
Question # 773
Which of the following provides the BEST confirmation that the business continuity/disaster recovery plan objectives
have been achieved?
A. The recovery time objective (RTO) was not exceeded during testing
B. Objective testing of the business continuity/disaster recovery plan has been carried out consistently
C. The recovery point objective (RPO) was proved inadequate by disaster recovery plan testing
D. Information assets have been valued and assigned to owners per the business continuity plan/disaster recovery plan
Answer: A
Consistent achievement of recovery time objective (RTO) objectives during testing provides the most objective evidence
that business continuity/disaster recovery plan objectives have been achieved.
The successful testing of the business continuity/disaster recovery plan within the stated RTO objectives is the most
indicative evidence that the business needs are being met.
Objective testing of the business continuity/disaster recovery plan will not serve as a basis for evaluating the alignment of
the risk management process in business continuity/disaster recovery planning.
Mere valuation and assignment of information assets to owners (per the business continuity/disaster recovery plan) will
not serve as a basis for evaluating the alignment of the risk management process in business continuity/disaster recovery
planning.
Question # 774
An organization keeps backup tapes of its servers at a warm site. To ensure that the tapes are properly maintained and
usable during a system crash, the MOST appropriate measure the organization should perform is to:
A. use the test equipment in the warm site facility to read the tapes.
B. periodically retrieve the tapes from the warm site and test them.
Answer: B
A warm site is not fully equipped with the company's main systems; therefore, the tapes should be periodically tested
using the company's production systems.
Inspecting the facility and checking the tape inventory does not guarantee that the tapes are usable.
Question # 775
Which of the following processes is critical for deciding prioritization of actions in a business continuity plan?
B. Risk assessment
C. Vulnerability assessment
Answer: A (*****)
A business impact analysis (BIA) provides results, such as impact from a security incident and required response times.
The BIA is the most critical process for deciding which part of the information system/business process should be given
prioritization in case of a security incident.
Risk assessment is a very important process for the creation of a business continuity plan.
Risk assessment provides information on the likelihood of occurrence of security incidence and assists in the selection of
countermeasures, but not in the prioritization.
As in choice B, a vulnerability assessment provides information regarding the security weaknesses of the system,
supporting the risk analysis process.
Business process mapping facilitates the creation of the plan by providing mapping guidance on actions after the decision
on critical business processes has been made - translating business prioritization to IT prioritization.
Business process mapping does not help in making a decision, but in implementing a decision.
Question # 776
In addition to backup data, which of the following is the MOST important to store offsite in the event of a disaster?
Answer: B
Without a copy of the business continuity plan, recovery efforts would be severely hampered or may not be effective.
All other choices would not be as immediately critical as the business continuity plan itself.
The business continuity plan would contain a list of the emergency numbers of service providers.
Question # 777
The PRIMARY consideration when defining recovery time objectives (RTOs) for information assets is:
A. regulatory requirements.
B. business requirements.
C. financial value.
D. IT resource availability.
Answer: B
Question # 778
Which of the following would be a MAJOR consideration for an organization defining its business continuity plan (BCP)
or disaster recovery program (DRP)?
Answer: C
Question # 779
Which of the following recovery strategies has the GREATEST chance of failure?
A. Hot site
B. Redundant site
C. Reciprocal arrangement
D. Cold site
Answer: C (*****)
A reciprocal arrangement is an agreement that allows two organizations to back up each other during a disaster.
This approach sounds desirable, but has the greatest chance of failure due to problems in keeping agreements and plans
up to date.
A hot site is incorrect because it is a site kept fully equipped with processing capabilities and other services by the vendor.
A redundant site is incorrect because it is a site equipped and configured exactly like the primary site.
A cold site is incorrect because it is a building having a basic environment such as electrical wiring, air conditioning,
flooring, etc. and is ready to receive equipment in order to operate.
Question # 780
Recovery point objectives (RPOs) can be used to determine which of the following?
Answer: A
The RPO is determined based on the acceptable data loss in the case of disruption of operations.
It indicates the farthest point in time prior to the incident to which it is acceptable to recover the data.
RPO effectively quantifies the permissible amount of data loss in the case of interruption.
It also dictates the frequency of backups required for a given data set since the smaller the allowable gap in data, the
more frequent that backups must occur.
Question # 781
Which of the following disaster recovery testing techniques is the MOST cost-effective way to determine the
effectiveness of the plan?
A. Preparedness tests
B. Paper tests
Answer: A
Preparedness tests would involve simulation of the entire test in phases and help the team better understand and
prepare for the actual test scenario.
Choices B, C and D are not cost-effective ways to establish plan effectiveness.
Paper tests in a walk-through do not include simulation and so there is less learning and it is difficult to obtain evidence
that the team has understood the test plan.
Choice D is not recommended in most cases.
Choice C would require an approval from management, is not easy or practical to test in most scenarios and may itself
trigger a disaster.
Question # 782
The BEST time to determine who should be responsible for declaring a disaster is:
Answer: A
Roles and responsibilities for all involved in incident response should be established when the incident response plan is
established.
Determining roles and responsibilities during a disaster is not the best time to make such decisions, unless it is absolutely
necessary.
While testing the plan may drive some changes in roles based on test results, roles (including who declares the disaster)
should have been established before testing and plan approval.
Question # 783
Which of the following should be the FIRST action to take when a fire spreads throughout the building?
Answer: A
Safety of people always comes first; therefore, verifying access logs of personnel to the facility should be the first action
in order to ensure that all staff can be accounted for.
Calling the crisis management team together should be done after the initial emergency response (i.e., evacuation of
people).
Launching the DRP is not the first action. Launching the BCP is not the first action.
Question # 784
Which of the following tests gives the MOST assurance that a business continuity plan (BCP) works, without potentially
impacting business operations?
A. Checklist tests
B. Simulation tests
C. Walk-through tests
Answer: B
Business continuity coordinators come together to practice executing a plan based on a specific scenario.
This does not interrupt normal operations and provides the most assurance of the given nonintrusive methods.
With checklist tests, copies of the BCP are distributed to various persons for review.
In these tests, people do not exercise a plan.
In walk-through tests, representatives come together to go over the plan (one or more scenarios) and ensure the plan's
accuracy. The plan itself is not executed.
Full operational tests are the most intrusive to regular operations and business productivity.
The original site is actually shut down and processing is performed at another site, thus providing the most assurance, but
interrupting normal business productivity.
Question # 785
Observations made by staff during a disaster recovery test are PRIMARILY reviewed to:
Answer: B
After a test, results should be reviewed to ensure that lessons learned are applied.
It is not the aim of observation to identify people who have not followed the process.
Identifying equipment that is needed may be part of the lessons learned, but is not the sole reason for the review.
Review is conducted not only to maintain evidence, but to make improvements.
Question # 786
The PRIMARY selection criterion for an offsite media storage facility is:
A. that the primary and offsite facilities not be subject to the same environmental disasters.
B. that the offsite storage facility be in close proximity to the primary site.
Answer: A
Question # 787
The recovery time objective (RTO) is reached at which of the following milestones?
A. Disaster declaration
Answer: C (*)
The recovery time objective (RTO) is based on the amount of time required to restore a system;
disaster declaration occurs at the beginning of this period.
Recovery of the backups occurs shortly after the beginning of this period.
Return to business as usual processing occurs significantly later than the RTO.
RTO is an “objective,” and full restoration may or may not coincide with the RTO.
RTO can be the minimum acceptable operational level, far short of normal operations.
Question # 788
A. Disaster declaration
B. Before-image restoration
C. System restoration
D. After-image processing
Answer: B (***)
The recovery point objective (RPO) is the point in the processing flow at which system recovery should occur.
This is the predetermined state of the application processing and data used to restore the system and to continue the
processing flow.
Disaster declaration is independent of this processing checkpoint.
Restoration of the system can occur at a later date, as does the return to normal, after-image processing.
Question # 789
Who would be in the BEST position to determine the recovery point objective (RPO) for business applications?
D. Internal audit
Answer: B
The recovery point objective (RPO) is the processing checkpoint to which systems are recovered.
In addition to data owners, the chief operations officer (COO) is the most knowledgeable person to make this decision.
It would be inappropriate for the information security manager or an internal audit to determine the RPO because they
are not directly responsible for the data or the operation.
Question # 790
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for making a decision to establish an alternate site for disaster
recovery?
A. A business impact analysis (BIA), which identifies the requirements for continuous availability of critical business
processes
B. Adequate distance between the primary site and the alternate site so that the same disaster does not simultaneously
impact both sites
C. A benchmarking analysis of similarly situated enterprises in the same geographic region to demonstrate due
diligence
D. Differences between the regulatory requirements applicable at the primary site and those at the alternate site
Answer: A
The BIA will help determine the recovery time objective (RTO) and recovery point objective (RPO) for the enterprise.
This information will drive the decision on the appropriate level of protection for its assets.
Natural disasters and regulatory requirements are just two of many factors that an enterprise must consider when it
decides whether to pursue an alternate site for disaster recovery.
While a benchmark could provide useful information, the decision should be based on a BIA, which considers factors
specific to the enterprise.
Question # 791
During a business continuity plan (BCP) test, one department discovered that its new software application was not
going to be restored soon enough to meet the needs of the business. This situation can be avoided in the future by:
A. conducting a periodic and event-driven business impact analysis (BIA) to determine the needs of the business during
a recovery.
B. assigning new applications a higher degree of importance and scheduling them for recovery first.
C. developing a help-desk ticket process that allows departments to request recovery of software during a disaster.
Answer: A
A periodic BIA can help compensate for changes in the needs of the business for recovery during a disaster.
Choice B is an incorrect assumption regarding the automatic importance of a new program.
Choice C is not an appropriate recovery procedure because it allows individual business units to make unilateral decisions
without consideration of broader implications.
The risk assessment may not include the BIA.
Question # 792
Which of the following is the BEST indicator that operational risks are effectively managed in an enterprise?
Answer: A
A tested BCP/DRP is the best indicator that operational risks are managed effectively in the enterprise.
Reporting incidents by employees is an indicator, but not the best choice because it is dependent upon the knowledge of
the employees.
Extent of risk management education is not correct since this may not necessarily indicate that risks are effectively
managed in the enterprise.
A high level of risk management education would help, but would not necessarily mean that risks are managed effectively
Regular review of risks by senior management is not correct since this may not necessarily indicate that risks are
effectively managed in the enterprise.
Top management involvement would greatly help, but would not necessarily mean that risks are managed effectively.
Question # 793
The acceptability of a partial system recovery after a security incident is MOST likely to be based on the:
Answer: C (*****)
A prior determination of acceptable levels of operation in the event of an outage is the SDO.
The SDO may be set at less than normal operation levels, but sufficient to sustain essential business functions.
The ability to resume normal operations is situational and would not be a standard for acceptability.
While the MTO and the AIW, in addition to many other factors, are parts of an SDO, neither the MTO nor the AIW, by
itself, addresses the acceptability of a specific level of operational recovery.
Question # 794
Which of the following is the MOST effective method to ensure that a business continuity plan (BCP) meets an
organization's needs?
Answer: C
Cross-departmental testing of a plan with varied scenarios is most effective in determining the validity of a BCP.
Quarterly updates do not establish that a plan meets the organization's needs.
Face-to-face meetings and automated surveys are methods that could be used during testing,
but on their own are not sufficient.
Question # 795
When performing a business impact analysis (BIA), which of the following would be the MOST appropriate to calculate
the recovery time and cost estimates?
B. Information owners
Answer: B
Information owners are in the best position to understand the true business impact that a specific system outage would
create.
The other roles listed cannot provide that level of detailed knowledge unless they happen to be the owners of a particular
information set.
Question # 796
During the recovery process following a natural disaster, a server that hosts an important new customer-facing web
service was among the last systems restored, resulting in significant lost sales. Which of the following is the BEST
approach to prevent this from happening again?
C. Ensure that the sales department has representation on the recovery team.
Answer: A
The purpose of a BIA is to help stakeholders understand the impact of system downtime to key business processes.
This process will help to prioritize the sequence of recovery for primary and supporting systems to meet the most
important needs of the business first.
Better incident identification would not resolve the issue because incident response without a BIA to reference would not
address prioritization.
Representation of the sales department on the recovery team does not ensure that the appropriate systems will be
restored first, and could actually hinder the process.
The establishment of a warm site would ensure that there is a site for recovery purposes, but would not necessarily result
in systems being restored in the proper sequence.
Question # 797
Which of the following is the MOST significant risk of using reciprocal agreements for disaster recovery?
Answer: A
The use of reciprocal disaster recovery is based on the hope that both organizations will not suffer a disaster at the same
time - which is not always a safe assumption.
Inadequate contracts can be a risk, but generally a lesser one.
While incompatible cultures can create problems, this is less of a risk than the scenario of both enterprises being
impacted by a disaster simultaneously.
While one party may utilize the other's resources more frequently, this can be addressed by contractual provisions and is
not a major risk.
Question # 798
Answer: D
Proximity to the primary site, the scope of potential hazards, and their possible impact on the recovery site are important
considerations when selecting the location of a recovery site.
Proximity to hazards is not a primary consideration in the other choices.
Question # 799
When establishing recovery time objectives (RTOs) during a business impact analysis (BIA), it is important to take into
consideration that the result:
A. may be cyclical, depending on the nature of the business and the information involved.
B. may remain consistent throughout a planning cycle, to allow for definition of planned recovery requirements.
C. may be based on the ability of information technology (IT) to recover services, not on the business recovery
requirements.
Answer: A
Question # 800
An organization's chief information security officer (CISO) would like to ensure that operations are prioritized correctly
for recovery in case of a disaster. Which of the following would be the BEST to use?
D. A threat statement
Answer: A
Business impact assessments ensure that operations are prioritized correctly for recovery in case of a disaster.
The other choices on their own would not directly support prioritization of system recovery.