QUESTION PAPER -2025

CET PGIMS ROHTAK FOR NURSING PARAMEDICAL & BPT

Mock test: 05 MM: 180

NO NEGATIVE MARKING TIME: 3 Hrs

Physics (1-60)

1. A physical quantity X is defined by the equation E = t²X - a sin(bt), where E is energy,

'a' is work, and 't' is time. What are the dimensions of X/b?

(A) M L² T⁻²

(B) M L² T⁻³

(C) M L T⁻²

(D) M⁰ L⁰ T

2. The velocity-time graph of a particle moving in a straight line is shown. What is the
ratio of the distance covered by the particle to its displacement in the first 6 seconds?

(A) 1:1

(B) 2:1

(C) 3:2

(D) 5:3

3. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on a rough horizontal surface (μₖ = 0.2). It is projected

with an initial velocity of 10 m/s. Using the work-energy theorem, find the distance it
travels before coming to rest. (Take g = 10 m/s²)

(A) 10 m

(B) 20 m

(C) 25 m

(D) 50 m
4. A particle of mass 'm' is projected with a velocity 'v' making an angle of 45° with the
horizontal. When the particle is at its maximum height, the magnitude of its angular
momentum about the point of projection is:

(A) Zero

(B) mv³/(4√2 g)

(C) mv³/(2√2 g)

(D) mv²/(2g)

5. A system consists of two particles of masses m₁ and m₂. If the kinetic energy of the
system is zero, what can be said about the linear momentum of the system?

(A) It must be zero.

(B) It must be non-zero.

(C) It may be zero or non-zero.

(D) It is equal to (m₁ + m₂)v_cm.

6. A solid sphere, a disc, and a ring of the same mass and radius are allowed to roll
down a frictionless inclined plane from the same height. Which one will reach the
bottom first?

(A) Solid sphere

(B) Disc

(C) Ring

(D) All will reach at the same time

7. The escape velocity from the Earth's surface is v_e. What is the escape velocity from
a planet whose radius is four times that of Earth and whose mean density is the same as
that of Earth?

(A) v_e

(B) 2v_e

(C) 4v_e

(D) 16v_e
8. A satellite is orbiting the Earth in a circular orbit of radius R. Its total energy is E. What
is its angular momentum in terms of E, its mass m, Earth's mass M, and gravitational
constant G?

(A) √(2mER²)

(B) m√(2GM/E)

(C) -GMm²R/(2E)

(D) -GMm²/(2ER)

9. A steel wire of length 1 m and cross-sectional area 10⁻⁶ m² is fixed at one end. A load
of 1 kg is hung from the other end. If the wire is now cooled by 20°C, what is the net
change in its length? (Given: Y_steel = 2×10¹¹ N/m², α_steel = 1.2×10⁻⁵ /°C, g = 10 m/s²)

(A) Elongation of 0.19×10⁻⁴ m

(B) Contraction of 0.19×10⁻⁴ m

(C) Elongation of 2.9×10⁻⁴ m

(D) Contraction of 2.9×10⁻⁴ m

10. A beam of length 'l', breadth 'b', and depth 'd' is loaded at the center by a weight W.
The sag produced is δ. If the breadth and depth are interchanged, the new sag produced
will be:

(A) δ(d/b)²

(B) δ(b/d)²

(C) δ(d/b)³

(D) δ(b/d)³

11. An air bubble of radius 'r' is formed inside water. The excess pressure inside the
bubble is P. If another bubble of radius '2r' is formed, the excess pressure will be:

(A) P

(B) 2P

(C) P/2
 (D) P/4

12. The Reynolds number for a fluid flow in a pipe is 800. If the diameter of the pipe and
the viscosity of the fluid are both doubled, the new Reynolds number will be:

(A) 200

(B) 400

(C) 800

(D) 1600

13. A black body at 227°C radiates heat at a rate of 7 cal cm⁻² s⁻¹. At a temperature of
727°C, the rate of heat radiated in the same units will be:

(A) 50

(B) 60

(C) 80

(D) 112

14. The specific heat of a gas at constant pressure (C_p) is greater than its specific heat
at constant volume (C_v) because:

(A) More work is done by the gas at constant volume.

(B) Work is done by the gas in expanding at constant pressure.

(C) The gas is more compressible at constant pressure.

(D) The pressure of the gas is higher at constant pressure.

15. A Carnot engine has an efficiency of 50% when its sink is at 27°C. What should be
the change in the temperature of the source to make its efficiency 60%?

(A) Increase by 100 K

(B) Increase by 150 K

(C) Decrease by 100 K

(D) Decrease by 150 K

16. A mixture contains 1 mole of helium (monoatomic) and 2 moles of oxygen (diatomic)
at temperature T. The total internal energy of the mixture is:

(A) 3 RT

(B) 6.5 RT

(C) 11.5 RT

(D) 13 RT

17. The mean free path of molecules of a gas is inversely proportional to:

(A) Temperature

(B) Pressure

(C) Volume

(D) Mass of the gas molecules

18. The potential energy of a particle in SHM is given by U = 2.5 cos(2ωt) J. What is the
total mechanical energy of the particle?

(A) 2.5 J

(B) 5 J

(C) 1.25 J

(D) Cannot be determined

19. A particle is subjected to two simple harmonic motions along the x-axis, x₁ = A
sin(ωt) and x₂ = A cos(ωt). The resultant motion is:

(A) SHM with amplitude A

(B) SHM with amplitude 2A

(C) SHM with amplitude √2 A

(D) Not an SHM

20. A pendulum is oscillating with a time period T. If the point of suspension is moved
vertically upwards with an acceleration of g/2, the new time period will be:

(A) T√(2/3)

(B) T√(3/2)

(C) 2T/3

(D) 3T/2

21. A transverse wave is described by the equation y(x,t) = 0.5 sin(2π(t/4 - x/40)), where x
and y are in meters and t is in seconds. The wave velocity is:

(A) 5 m/s

(B) 10 m/s

(C) 20 m/s

(D) 40 m/s

22. Two sitar strings A and B playing the note 'Ga' are slightly out of tune and produce
beats of frequency 6 Hz. The tension in string B is slightly lowered and the beat
frequency is found to increase to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original
frequency of B was:

(A) 524 Hz

(B) 536 Hz

(C) 523 Hz

(D) 537 Hz

23. A train is moving towards a stationary observer with speed 34 m/s. The train sounds
a whistle and its frequency registered by the observer is f₁. If the train's speed is reduced
to 17 m/s, the frequency registered is f₂. If the speed of sound is 340 m/s, then the ratio
f₁/f₂ is:

(A) 18/19

(B) 1/2

(C) 2
 (D) 19/18

24. A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency f_open. When one of the
ends is closed, its fundamental frequency becomes f_closed. The ratio f_open /
f_closed is:

(A) 1:2

(B) 2:1

(C) 1:1

(D) 4:1

25. The ratio of the speed of sound in a monoatomic gas to that in a diatomic gas at the
same temperature, assuming both have the same molar mass, is:

(A) √(3/5)

(B) √(5/3)

(C) √(21/25)

(D) √(25/21)

26. A spring of force constant 'k' is cut into three equal parts. What is the force constant
of each part?

(A) k

(B) k/3

(C) 3k

(D) k/√3

27. A body of mass 2 kg is attached to a spring and performs SHM. The potential energy
of the body varies with position 'x' as shown in the graph. The time period of oscillation
is:

(A) π/5 s

(B) 2π/5 s

(C) π/10 s
 (D) 4π/5 s

28. The distance covered by a particle undergoing SHM in one time period is (amplitude
= A):

(A) 4A

(B) 2A

(C) A

(D) Zero

29. A man weighing 60 kg stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is moving upwards
with a uniform speed of 10 m/s. The reading on the scale will be:

(A) 60 kg

(B) 120 kg

(C) Zero

(D) 30 kg

30. A bomb of mass 30 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of masses 18 kg and 12 kg.
The velocity of the 18 kg mass is 6 m/s. The kinetic energy of the other mass is:

(A) 324 J

(B) 486 J

(C) 524 J

(D) 256 J

31. Two point charges +4q and +q are placed 30 cm apart. At what point on the line
joining them is the electric field zero?

(A) 15 cm from +4q

(B) 20 cm from +4q

(C) 7.5 cm from +q

(D) 5 cm from +q
32. A hollow conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge +Q. The work done in
moving a charge 'q' from the center to the surface of the sphere is:

(A) Zero

(B) kQq/R

(C) kQq/R²

(D) kQq/(2R)

33. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery. Once it is charged, the battery is
disconnected. Then a dielectric slab is inserted between the plates. Which of the
following quantities remains constant?

(A) Potential difference

(B) Electric field

(C) Stored energy

(D) Charge on the plates

34. Three capacitors of capacitances 1 µF, 2 µF, and 3 µF are connected in series. A
potential difference of 11 V is applied across the combination. The potential difference
across the plates of the 1 µF capacitor is:

(A) 1 V

(B) 3 V

(C) 5 V

(D) 6 V

35. The resistance of a wire is 'R' ohms. If it is stretched to double its original length, its
new resistance will be:

(A) R/2

(B) 2R

(C) 4R

(D) R/4
36. In a Wheatstone bridge, if the battery and galvanometer are interchanged, then the
deflection in the galvanometer will:

(A) Change in the previous direction

(B) Not change

(C) Change in the opposite direction

(D) Become zero

37. A proton and an alpha particle enter a uniform magnetic field with the same velocity,
perpendicular to the field. The ratio of the radii of their circular paths (r_p / r_α) will be:

(A) 1:2

(B) 2:1

(C) 1:1

(D) 1:4

38. A long solenoid has 1000 turns per meter and carries a current of 1 A. It has a soft
iron core of relative permeability μ_r = 1000. The magnetic field inside the core is:

(A) 0.4π T

(B) 4π T

(C) 0.004π T

(D) 40π T

39. The magnetic susceptibility of a material is -0.005. This material is:

(A) Paramagnetic

(B) Diamagnetic

(C) Ferromagnetic

(D) Non-magnetic
40. At a certain place, the horizontal component of Earth's magnetic field is √3 times
the vertical component. The angle of dip at this place is:

(A) 30°

(B) 45°

(C) 60°

(D) 90°

41. A circular coil of radius 10 cm and 100 turns is rotated at an angular speed of 50
rad/s in a uniform magnetic field of 0.05 T. The maximum induced emf in the coil is:

(A) 25π V

(B) 50π V

(C) 2.5π V

(D) 0.25π V

42. A transformer is used to light a 100 W, 110 V lamp from a 220 V mains. If the main
current is 0.5 A, the efficiency of the transformer is:

(A) 80%

(B) 85%

(C) 91%

(D) 95%

43. In a series LCR circuit, the voltage across the inductor and capacitor are 40 V and 10
V respectively. If the resistance is 40 Ω, the total impedance of the circuit is:

(A) 30 Ω

(B) 40 Ω

(C) 50 Ω

(D) 70 Ω
44. The quality factor (Q-factor) of a series LCR circuit with L = 2.0 H, C = 32 µF and R =
10 Ω is:

(A) 15

(B) 20

(C) 25

(D) 30

45. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave is given by E = 50 sin(ωt - kx) N/C. The
energy contained in a cylinder of cross-section 10 cm² and length 50 cm along the x-axis
is: (Given ε₀ = 8.85×10⁻¹² C²/Nm²)

(A) 5.5×10⁻¹² J

(B) 1.1×10⁻¹¹ J

(C) 2.2×10⁻¹¹ J

(D) 4.4×10⁻¹² J

46. Which of the following has the minimum wavelength?

(A) X-rays

(B) Ultraviolet rays

(C) Gamma rays

(D) Cosmic rays

47. A biconvex lens has a focal length of 10 cm. It is cut into two identical halves along a
plane perpendicular to the principal axis. The focal length of each half will be:

(A) 10 cm

(B) 20 cm

(C) 5 cm

(D) 15 cm
48. In a compound microscope, the magnifying power is 30. The focal length of the
eyepiece is 5 cm, and the image is formed at the near point (25 cm). The magnification
of the objective lens is:

(A) 5

(B) 6

(C) 7.5

(D) 10

49. In a Young's double-slit experiment, the fringe width is β. If the entire setup is
immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.25, the new fringe width will be:

(A) β

(B) 1.25β

(C) β/1.25

(D) β/(1.25)²

50. In a single slit diffraction experiment, the width of the slit is made double the original
width. How does this affect the size and intensity of the central diffraction band?

(A) Size reduces to half; intensity becomes 4 times.

(B) Size becomes double; intensity becomes half.

(C) Size reduces to half; intensity becomes double.

(D) Size becomes double; intensity becomes 4 times.

51. The work function of a metal is 2.1 eV. Which of the following wavelengths of light
will NOT cause photoelectric emission from the metal? (h = 6.6×10⁻³⁴ Js, c = 3×10⁸ m/s,
1 eV = 1.6×10⁻¹⁹ J)

(A) 400 nm

(B) 500 nm

(C) 550 nm

(D) 600 nm
52. An electron and a proton are accelerated through the same potential difference. The
ratio of their de Broglie wavelengths (λ_e / λ_p) is:

(A) 1

(B) m_p / m_e

(C) m_e / m_p

(D) √(m_p / m_e)

53. The ratio of the longest wavelength in the Lyman series to the shortest wavelength in
the Balmer series of a hydrogen atom is:

(A) 4/3

(B) 9/5

(C) 5/9

(D) 3/4

54. The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of a hydrogen atom is -3.4 eV.
What is its potential energy in this state?

(A) +3.4 eV

(B) -3.4 eV

(C) +6.8 eV

(D) -6.8 eV

55. A radioactive nucleus decays as follows: A → A₁ (α) → A₂ (β⁻) → A₃ (α) → A₄ (γ). If the
atomic number and mass number of A are Z and A respectively, what are these numbers
for A₄?

(A) Z-3, A-8

(B) Z-4, A-8

(C) Z-5, A-8

(D) Z-3, A-4

56. The binding energy per nucleon for a nucleus with A=56 is 8.8 MeV, and for a nucleus
with A=238, it is 7.6 MeV. If a nucleus with A=238 fissions into two nuclei with A=119
each, and the binding energy per nucleon for A=119 is 8.5 MeV, the energy released is
approximately:

(A) 200 MeV

(B) 214 MeV

(C) 180 MeV

(D) 240 MeV

57. In a common-emitter transistor amplifier, the current gain is 70. If the emitter
current is 7.1 mA, the base current is:

(A) 0.1 mA

(B) 0.7 mA

(C) 0.01 mA

(D) 0.5 mA

58. The conductivity of a semiconductor increases with rise in temperature because:

(A) The number of free electrons as well as holes increases

(B) The number of holes decreases while that of free electrons increases

(C) The number of free electrons decreases while that of holes increases

(D) Mobility of charge carriers increases

59. For amplitude modulation, the modulation index is 0.5 and the carrier wave
amplitude is 10 V. The amplitude of the sidebands is:

(A) 2.5 V

(B) 5 V

(C) 1.25 V

(D) 10 V
60. A TV transmitting antenna is 81 m tall. How much service area can it cover if the
receiving antenna is at the ground level? (Radius of Earth = 6.4×10⁶ m)

(A) 3258 km²

(B) 4800 km²

(C) 1629 km²

(D) 6516 km²

**Chemistry (61-120)**

61. A gaseous mixture contains CH₄ and C₂H₆ in a 2:3 molar ratio. The mass of 2.24 L of
this mixture at STP is:

(A) 2.68 g

(B) 3.08 g

(C) 4.20 g

(D) 1.96 g

62. The energy of an electron in the second orbit of a hydrogen atom is -E. What is the
energy of an electron in the third orbit of a He⁺ ion?

(A) -E

(B) -4E/9

(C) -E/9

(D) -16E/9

63. The first ionization enthalpies of Group 13 elements show a deviation from the
general trend. The correct order is:

(A) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl

(B) B > Tl > Ga > Al > In

(C) B > Ga > Al > Tl > In

(D) B > Al > Tl > In > Ga

64. According to Molecular Orbital Theory, which of the following species is
paramagnetic and has a bond order of 2.5?

(A) CN⁻

(B) NO

(C) O₂⁺

(D) N₂⁺

65. At a constant temperature, a gas occupies a volume of 200 mL at a pressure of 0.82

atm. When the pressure is changed to 1.0 atm, what will be the new volume of the gas?

(A) 164 mL

(B) 244 mL

(C) 100 mL

(D) 200 mL

66. For the reaction, 2A(g) + B(g) → 2C(g), the standard enthalpy of reaction (ΔH°) is -10.5
kJ and the standard entropy of reaction (ΔS°) is -44.1 J/K. The reaction will be
spontaneous at:

(A) Temperatures above 238 K

(B) Temperatures below 238 K

(C) All temperatures

(D) No temperature

67. The solubility product (K_sp) of CaF₂ is 3.2×10⁻¹¹. What is the molar solubility of
CaF₂ in its saturated solution?

(A) 2.0×10⁻⁴ M

(B) 3.2×10⁻¹¹ M

(C) 5.6×10⁻⁶ M

(D) 4.0×10⁻⁴ M
68. In which of the following reactions does hydrogen peroxide act as a reducing agent?

(A) 2Fe²⁺ + 2H⁺ + H₂O₂ → 2Fe³⁺ + 2H₂O

(B) Mn²⁺ + H₂O₂ → Mn⁴⁺ + 2OH⁻

(C) PbS + 4H₂O₂ → PbSO₄ + 4H₂O

(D) HOCl + H₂O₂ → H₃O⁺ + Cl⁻ + O₂

69. Which of the following hydrides is best described as an electron-deficient hydride?

(A) CH₄

(B) NH₃

(C) B₂H₆

(D) NaH

70. Beryllium shows a diagonal relationship with Aluminium. Which of the following
similarities is incorrect?

(A) Both Be and Al form covalent halides.

(B) Both BeO and Al₂O₃ are amphoteric.

(C) Both Be and Al are readily attacked by acids.

(D) Both Be and Al form polymeric hydrides.

71. Due to the inert pair effect, the most stable oxidation state for Thallium (Tl) is:

(A) +1

(B) +2

(C) +3

(D) +4

72. Which of the following is the most stable carbocation?

(A) (CH₃)₃C⁺

(B) C₆H₅CH₂⁺
 (C) (CH₃)₂CH⁺

(D) CH₃CH₂⁺

73. An alkene on reductive ozonolysis gives two molecules of ethanal. The alkene is:

(A) Ethene

(B) Propene

(C) But-1-ene

(D) But-2-ene

74. Which of the following is a major component of acid rain?

(A) CH₄

(B) H₂SO₄

(C) O₃

(D) CFCs

75. A 0.01 m aqueous solution of K₃[Fe(CN)₆] freezes at -0.062 °C. What is the apparent
percentage of dissociation? (K_f for water = 1.86 K kg mol⁻¹)

(A) 78%

(B) 87%

(C) 100%

(D) 67%

76. The standard reduction potential for Cu²⁺/Cu is +0.34 V. Calculate the reduction
potential at pH = 14 for the above couple. (K_sp of Cu(OH)₂ is 1.0×10⁻¹⁹).

(A) -0.22 V

(B) +0.22 V

(C) -0.44 V

(D) +0.44 V
77. For a reaction, the rate becomes four times when the concentration of reactant A is
doubled. The order of the reaction with respect to A is:

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 3

78. Which of the following is an example of a shape-selective catalyst?

(A) Finely divided Iron in Haber's process

(B) Vanadium pentoxide in the Contact process

(C) Zeolites

(D) Nickel in catalytic hydrogenation

79. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is finally obtained by the
reduction of cuprous oxide with:

(A) Copper(I) sulphide

(B) Sulphur dioxide

(C) Iron(II) sulphide

(D) Carbon monoxide

80. The structure of hypophosphorous acid (H₃PO₂) contains:

(A) One P-OH bond and two P-H bonds

(B) Two P-OH bonds and one P-H bond

(C) Three P-OH bonds

(D) No P-H bonds

81. The calculated spin-only magnetic moment of Cr²⁺ ion is:

(A) 3.87 BM
 (B) 4.90 BM

(C) 5.92 BM

(D) 2.84 BM

82. The complex [Co(en)₂Cl₂]⁺ can exhibit which two types of isomerism?

(A) Linkage and Geometrical

(B) Geometrical and Optical

(C) Coordination and Ionization

(D) Linkage and Ionization

83. Which of the following alkyl halides will undergo an SN1 reaction most readily?

(A) CH₃CH₂Br

(B) (CH₃)₂CHBr

(C) (CH₃)₃CBr

(D) CH₃Br

84. The reaction of phenol with bromine in a non-polar solvent like CS₂ at low
temperature gives:

(A) 2,4,6-Tribromophenol

(B) A mixture of o-bromophenol and p-bromophenol

(C) m-Bromophenol

(D) No reaction

85. Which of the following reagents is used to distinguish between propanal and
propanone?

(A) Tollens' reagent

(B) Phenylhydrazine

(C) Sodium bisulphite

(D) Grignard reagent

86. The correct order of decreasing basic strength of the following amines in the
gaseous phase is:

(A) (C₂H₅)₃N > (C₂H₅)₂NH > C₂H₅NH₂ > NH₃

(B) (C₂H₅)₂NH > (C₂H₅)₃N > C₂H₅NH₂ > NH₃

(C) C₂H₅NH₂ > (C₂H₅)₂NH > (C₂H₅)₃N > NH₃

(D) NH₃ > C₂H₅NH₂ > (C₂H₅)₂NH > (C₂H₅)₃N

87. Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?

(A) Glucose

(B) Maltose

(C) Lactose

(D) Sucrose

88. Ranitidine (Zantac) is an example of which class of drug?

(A) Antihistamine

(B) Analgesic

(C) Antibiotic

(D) Antiseptic

89. An organic compound contains 49.3% carbon, 6.84% hydrogen, and its vapour
density is 73. The molecular formula of the compound is:

(A) C₃H₅O₂

(B) C₆H₁₀O₄

(C) C₄H₁₀O₂

(D) C₅H₁₀O₃

90. The number of radial nodes for a 4d orbital is:

(A) 0
 (B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 3

91. Which of the following statements about the periodic trends of elements is
incorrect?

(A) The first ionization enthalpy of Be is higher than that of B.

(B) The electron gain enthalpy of F is more negative than that of Cl.

(C) The ionic radius of O²⁻ is greater than that of F⁻.

(D) The metallic character increases down a group.

92. The hybridization of the central atom and the shape of the I₃⁻ ion are respectively:

(A) sp³d, Trigonal bipyramidal

(B) sp³d, Linear

(C) sp³, Tetrahedral

(D) sp², Trigonal planar

93. A 4:1 molar mixture of He and CH₄ is contained in a vessel at 20 bar pressure. Due to
a hole in the vessel, the gas mixture leaks out. The composition of the mixture effusing
out initially is:

(A) 1:1

(B) 2:1

(C) 4:1

(D) 8:1

94. The bond dissociation enthalpies of H₂(g), Cl₂(g) and HCl(g) are 434, 242 and 431 kJ
mol⁻¹ respectively. The enthalpy of formation of HCl(g) is:

(A) -91.5 kJ mol⁻¹

(B) +91.5 kJ mol⁻¹

 (C) -245 kJ mol⁻¹

(D) +245 kJ mol⁻¹

95. For the equilibrium 2NOCl(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Cl₂(g), the value of the equilibrium
constant K_c is 3.75×10⁻⁶ at 1069 K. The value of K_p for the reaction at this
temperature is:

(A) 3.29×10⁻⁴

(B) 3.75×10⁻⁶

(C) 4.25×10⁻⁸

(D) 3.29×10⁻²

96. The oxidation number of sulphur in peroxomonosulphuric acid (H₂SO₅, Caro's acid)
is:

(A) +8

(B) +7

(C) +6

(D) +4

97. The property of dihydrogen which makes it useful as a fuel is:

(A) Its high heat of combustion

(B) Its gaseous nature

(C) Its low ignition temperature

(D) Its ability to form hydrides

98. Which of the following is the primary reason for the anomalous behaviour of
lithium?

(A) Its high electronegativity

(B) Its high ionization enthalpy

(C) Its exceptionally small size and high polarizing power

 (D) Its diagonal relationship with magnesium

99. Which statement about carbon monoxide is incorrect?

(A) It is a colourless, odourless gas.

(B) It is a powerful reducing agent.

(C) It forms a complex with haemoglobin which is less stable than the oxygen-
haemoglobin complex.

(D) It has one sigma and two pi bonds between C and O.

100. The correct order of acidity among the following is:

(A) CH≡CH > CH₃-C≡CH > CH₂=CH₂ > CH₃-CH₃

(B) CH≡CH > CH₂=CH₂ > CH₃-C≡CH > CH₃-CH₃

(C) CH₃-CH₃ > CH₂=CH₂ > CH₃-C≡CH > CH≡CH

(D) CH₂=CH₂ > CH₃-CH₃ > CH≡CH > CH₃-C≡CH

101. The major product of the reaction of 2-phenylpropene with HBr is:

(A) 1-Bromo-2-phenylpropane

(B) 2-Bromo-2-phenylpropane

(C) 1,2-Dibromo-2-phenylpropane

(D) 3-Bromo-2-phenylpropene

102. An aqueous solution of 2% non-volatile solute exerts a pressure of 1.004 bar at the
normal boiling point of the solvent. What is the molar mass of the solute?

(A) 41.35 g/mol

(B) 50.25 g/mol

(C) 35.8 g/mol

(D) 45.1 g/mol

103. A galvanic cell is constructed with Zn/Zn²⁺ (0.1 M) and Fe/Fe²⁺ (0.01 M) half-cells.
The emf of the cell is: (Given: E°_Zn²⁺/Zn = -0.76 V; E°_Fe²⁺/Fe = -0.44 V)

(A) 0.2905 V

(B) 0.32 V

(C) 0.3495 V

(D) -0.32 V

104. The rate constant of a reaction is 1.5×10⁻³ s⁻¹ at 25 °C and 2.5×10⁻³ s⁻¹ at 45 °C.
The activation energy (E_a) for the reaction is: (R = 8.314 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)

(A) 15.2 kJ/mol

(B) 22.8 kJ/mol

(C) 19.6 kJ/mol

(D) 25.1 kJ/mol

105. Which of the following forms a multimolecular colloid?

(A) Starch

(B) Sulphur sol

(C) Soap solution

(D) Protein

106. In the Hall-Héroult process for the extraction of aluminium, the electrolyte is a
molten mixture of:

(A) Alumina and cryolite

(B) Alumina and bauxite

(C) Bauxite and cryolite

(D) Alumina, cryolite, and fluorspar

107. The correct order of decreasing bond angle in the hydrides of Group 15 is:

(A) NH₃ > PH₃ > AsH₃ > SbH₃

 (B) SbH₃ > AsH₃ > PH₃ > NH₃

(C) NH₃ > SbH₃ > AsH₃ > PH₃

(D) PH₃ > NH₃ > AsH₃ > SbH₃

108. The lanthanoid contraction is responsible for the fact that:

(A) Zr and Y have about the same radius.

(B) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation states.

(C) Zr and Hf have about the same radius.

(D) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state.

109. Which of the following complexes is homoleptic?

(A) [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺

(B) [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻

(C) [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]

(D) [Co(en)₂Cl₂]⁺

110. The conversion of chlorobenzene to phenol by reacting with NaOH at 623 K and
300 atm pressure is an example of:

(A) Electrophilic substitution

(B) Nucleophilic substitution

(C) Free radical substitution

(D) Elimination reaction

111. The Williamson synthesis for preparing dimethyl ether involves the reaction of:

(A) Sodium methoxide and methyl chloride

(B) Methanol and methyl chloride

(C) Two molecules of methanol with conc. H₂SO₄

(D) Methanol and sodium metal

112. The reaction of benzaldehyde with concentrated NaOH solution gives:

(A) Benzyl alcohol and sodium benzoate

(B) Sodium benzoate and benzene

(C) Benzyl alcohol and sodium formate

(D) Toluene and sodium benzoate

113. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is used for the preparation of:

(A) Primary aromatic amines

(B) Secondary aliphatic amines

(C) Primary aliphatic amines

(D) Tertiary amines

114. The deficiency of which vitamin causes scurvy?

(A) Vitamin A

(B) Vitamin B₆

(C) Vitamin C

(D) Vitamin K

115. Which of the following is used as an artificial sweetener and is stable at cooking
temperature?

(A) Aspartame

(B) Saccharin

(C) Sucralose

(D) Alitame

116. Which of the following molecules has zero dipole moment despite having polar
bonds?

(A) NH₃
 (B) H₂O

(C) BCl₃

(D) SO₂

117. The pH of a 0.01 M solution of a monobasic acid is 4. The dissociation constant

(K_a) of the acid is:

(A) 1×10⁻²

(B) 1×10⁻⁴

(C) 1×10⁻⁶

(D) 1×10⁻⁸

118. Which of the following is the correct order of reactivity towards electrophilic
substitution?

(A) Phenol > Benzene > Chlorobenzene > Benzoic acid

(B) Phenol > Chlorobenzene > Benzene > Benzoic acid

(C) Benzoic acid > Chlorobenzene > Benzene > Phenol

(D) Benzene > Phenol > Chlorobenzene > Benzoic acid

119. The general electronic configuration of the actinoids is:

(A) [Rn] 5f¹⁻¹⁴ 6d⁰⁻¹ 7s²

(B) [Xe] 4f¹⁻¹⁴ 5d⁰⁻¹ 6s²

(C) 5f⁰⁻¹ 6d¹⁻¹⁴ 7s²

(D) [Xe] 4f⁰⁻¹ 5d¹⁻¹⁴ 6s²

120. According to Crystal Field Theory, for a d⁴ ion in an octahedral field, the electronic
configuration will be t₂g³ e_g¹ if:

(A) The pairing energy (P) is greater than the crystal field splitting energy (Δ_o).

(B) The pairing energy (P) is less than the crystal field splitting energy (Δ_o).

(C) The pairing energy (P) is equal to the crystal field splitting energy (Δ_o).
 (D) The ligand is a strong field ligand.

**Biology (121-180)**

121. In the context of the five-kingdom classification, which of the following kingdoms is
characterized by the most extensive metabolic diversity?

(1) Monera

(2) Protista

(3) Fungi

(4) Plantae

122. The endosperm of a gymnosperm is a haploid tissue, whereas the endosperm of an

angiosperm is triploid. This difference is because in gymnosperms:

(1) It is formed before fertilization from the female gametophyte.

(2) It is formed after fertilization by the fusion of two polar nuclei and one male
gamete.

(3) It is a nutritive tissue that degenerates before seed formation.

(4) Double fertilization is a common phenomenon.

123. In pteridophytes, the development of a zygote into a young embryo takes place
within the female gametophyte. This event is considered a precursor to:

(1) The haplo-diplontic life cycle

(2) The seed habit

(3) The development of vascular tissues

(4) The evolution of heterospory

124. Which of the following is a correct match between a phylum, its characteristic
feature, and an example?

(1) Platyhelminthes - Bilateral symmetry, Acoelomate - Taenia

(2) Annelida - Pseudocoelomate, Metamerism - Pheretima

 (3) Arthropoda - Closed circulatory system, Jointed appendages - Limulus

(4) Mollusca - Radially symmetrical, Calcareous shell - Pila

125. A flower is described as actinomorphic, hypogynous, with three united sepals,

three united petals, six stamens in two whorls, and a tricarpellary, syncarpous, superior
ovary with axile placentation. This flower likely belongs to the family:

(1) Solanaceae

(2) Fabaceae

(3) Liliaceae

(4) Poaceae

126. The Casparian strip of the root endodermis is a water-impermeable layer that plays
a crucial role in regulating water and mineral uptake. This strip is made of:

(1) Lignin

(2) Pectin

(3) Suberin

(4) Cutin

127. The type of vision in a cockroach, which involves receiving several images of an
object with the help of multiple ommatidia, is known as:

(1) Binocular vision

(2) Monocular vision

(3) Mosaic vision

(4) Nocturnal vision

128. The 'powerhouse of the cell', the mitochondrion, is a semi-autonomous organelle.

It is considered semi-autonomous because it possesses:

(1) Its own DNA, RNA, and protein synthesis machinery.

(2) A double membrane and cristae.

 (3) Enzymes for the Krebs cycle and electron transport.

(4) The ability to divide by fission independently of nuclear division.

129. In the Watson-Crick model of DNA, the two polynucleotide strands are held
together by hydrogen bonds. If a DNA molecule has 20% adenine, what will be the
percentage of guanine?

(1) 20%

(2) 30%

(3) 40%

(4) 50%

130. During the pachytene stage of meiosis I, the exchange of genetic material between
non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes occurs. This process is known as:

(1) Synapsis

(2) Crossing over

(3) Terminalisation

(4) Disjunction

131. The opening and closing of stomata are primarily regulated by the turgor pressure
of the guard cells. This change in turgor is mediated by the movement of which ion?

(1) Calcium (Ca²⁺)

(2) Magnesium (Mg²⁺)

(3) Potassium (K⁺)

(4) Sodium (Na⁺)

132. The enzyme nitrogenase, which is crucial for biological nitrogen fixation, is highly
sensitive to molecular oxygen. To protect this enzyme, leguminous root nodules contain
an oxygen scavenger called:

(1) Cytochrome

(2) Leghaemoglobin
 (3) Ferredoxin

(4) Plastocyanin

133. In C4 plants, the initial fixation of CO2 occurs in the mesophyll cells, forming a 4-
carbon acid. This acid is then transported to the bundle sheath cells for the Calvin
cycle. The primary CO2 acceptor in the mesophyll cells is:

(1) Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP)

(2) Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)

(3) Oxaloacetic acid (OAA)

(4) Malic acid

134. The complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose in aerobic respiration yields a
net gain of ATP. The final electron acceptor in the electron transport system (ETS) is:

(1) NAD⁺

(2) FAD

(3) Cytochrome c

(4) Oxygen

135. The 'bolting' of cabbage plants, which is the premature flowering induced by cold
treatment, can be stimulated by the application of which plant growth regulator?

(1) Auxin

(2) Gibberellin

(3) Cytokinin

(4) Ethylene

136. The digestion of fats is facilitated by the process of emulsification, which breaks
down large fat globules into smaller micelles. This process is carried out by:

(1) Lipase

(2) Trypsin
 (3) Bile salts

(4) Amylase

137. A significant portion of carbon dioxide is transported in the blood from the tissues
to the lungs in the form of bicarbonate ions. This conversion of CO2 to bicarbonate is
catalyzed by an enzyme present in RBCs called:

(1) Carboxypeptidase

(2) Carbonic anhydrase

(3) Aldolase

(4) Dehydrogenase

138. The sino-atrial node (SAN) is called the 'pacemaker' of the heart because it:

(1) Is located in the right atrium.

(2) Can generate the maximum number of action potentials and is autoexcitable.

(3) Is made of specialized cardiac musculature.

(4) Transmits the action potential to the AVN.

139. The reabsorption of glucose from the glomerular filtrate in the nephron is a highly
efficient process. It occurs primarily in the:

(1) Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)

(2) Loop of Henle

(3) Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT)

(4) Collecting Duct

140. The sliding filament theory explains muscle contraction. During this process, the
myosin head binds to the active sites on the actin filament, forming a cross-bridge. This
binding is facilitated by the release of which ion from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

(1) Na⁺

(2) K⁺
 (3) Mg²⁺

(4) Ca²⁺

141. The transmission of a nerve impulse across a synapse involves the release of a
neurotransmitter. The junction between a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of a
muscle fibre is known as the:

(1) Synaptic cleft

(2) Neuromuscular junction

(3) Axon terminal

(4) Synaptic vesicle

142. Hormones produced by the adrenal medulla, such as adrenaline and

noradrenaline, are released in response to stress or emergency situations. These
hormones are collectively known as:

(1) Corticosteroids

(2) Catecholamines

(3) Gonadotropins

(4) Androgens

143. In flowering plants, the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of
another flower on a different plant is termed:

(1) Autogamy

(2) Geitonogamy

(3) Xenogamy

(4) Cleistogamy

144. Double fertilization is a unique event in angiosperms. It involves the fusion of one
male gamete with the egg cell and the other male gamete with the:

(1) Synergids

(2) Antipodal cells

 (3) Nucellus

(4) Central cell containing two polar nuclei

145. The development of seeds without fertilization, a form of asexual reproduction that
mimics sexual reproduction, is known as:

(1) Parthenocarpy

(2) Apomixis

(3) Polyembryony

(4) Somatic hybridization

146. In the human male reproductive system, the cells that provide nutrition to the
developing germ cells (spermatogonia) are the:

(1) Leydig cells

(2) Sertoli cells

(3) Interstitial cells

(4) Spermatids

147. The menstrual cycle in human females is regulated by hormones from the pituitary
and the ovary. The hormone responsible for the maintenance of the endometrium
during the luteal phase is:

(1) Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

(2) Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

(3) Estrogen

(4) Progesterone

148. Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic technique. However, its misuse for

determining the sex of the fetus, followed by female foeticide, is a major concern. The
procedure involves the analysis of:

(1) Maternal blood

(2) Amniotic fluid

 (3) Chorionic villi

(4) Fetal blood

149. In Mendel's dihybrid cross, the F2 generation showed a phenotypic ratio of [Link].
This is explained by the Law of Independent Assortment, which states that:

(1) Alleles of a gene pair segregate from each other during gamete formation.

(2) When two pairs of traits are combined, the segregation of one pair is independent
of the other.

(3) One factor in a pair dominates the other.

(4) The F1 generation resembles both parents.

150. A woman with blood group O marries a man with blood group AB. What are the
possible blood groups of their offspring?

(1) O only

(2) A and B only

(3) A, B, and AB

(4) AB and O

151. A mutation that results in the change of a single base pair in DNA, leading to the
substitution of one amino acid for another, is known as a:

(1) Frameshift mutation

(2) Point mutation

(3) Chromosomal aberration

(4) Silent mutation

152. The process of removing introns and joining exons in a defined order from a primary
transcript (hnRNA) in eukaryotes is called:

(1) Capping

(2) Tailing
 (3) Splicing

(4) Transcription

153. The lac operon in E. coli is a classic example of gene regulation. In the absence of
an inducer (lactose), the repressor protein binds to the:

(1) Promoter region

(2) Operator region

(3) Structural genes

(4) Regulator gene

154. The forelimbs of a whale, a bat, a cheetah, and a human are examples of
homologous structures because they:

(1) Perform the same function but have different anatomical structures.

(2) Have a common ancestry and similar fundamental structure, but perform different
functions.

(3) Are remnants of structures that were functional in their ancestors.

(4) Have evolved independently to perform a similar function.

155. The founder effect is a specific case of genetic drift where a new population is
established by a small number of individuals from a larger population. This often results
in:

(1) An increase in genetic variation in the new population.

(2) A change in allele frequencies in the new population, which may differ from the
source population.

(3) The maintenance of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

(4) An increase in the rate of natural selection.

156. Cancer cells differ from normal cells in that they have lost the property of contact
inhibition. This loss leads to:

(1) The ability to metastasize.

 (2) Uncontrolled cell division and tumor formation.

(3) The ability to induce angiogenesis.

(4) Resistance to chemotherapy.

157. The 'Green Revolution' in India was primarily achieved through the development of
high-yielding and disease-resistant varieties of:

(1) Maize and Jowar

(2) Sugarcane and Potato

(3) Wheat and Rice

(4) Cotton and Jute

158. Biogas is a mixture of gases produced by the microbial activity of methanogens.

The primary component of biogas is:

(1) Methane

(2) Carbon dioxide

(3) Hydrogen sulfide

(4) Nitrogen

159. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a technique used to amplify a specific
segment of DNA. The process requires a thermostable DNA polymerase, which is
isolated from a bacterium such as:

(1) Escherichia coli

(2) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(3) Thermus aquaticus

(4) Bacillus thuringiensis

160. The Bt toxin, produced by the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis, is effective against
insect pests. The toxin exists as an inactive protoxin but is converted into its active form
in the insect's gut due to the:

(1) Acidic pH of the gut

 (2) Alkaline pH of the gut

(3) Presence of digestive enzymes

(4) High temperature in the gut

161. A population interaction where one species benefits and the other is neither
harmed nor benefited is known as:

(1) Mutualism

(2) Commensalism

(3) Amensalism

(4) Parasitism

162. The process of decomposition is crucial for nutrient cycling in an ecosystem. The
breakdown of detritus into smaller particles by organisms like earthworms is called:

(1) Leaching

(2) Catabolism

(3) Humification

(4) Fragmentation

163. The 'Evil Quartet' describes the four major causes of biodiversity loss. Which of the
following is considered the most important cause driving animals and plants to
extinction?

(1) Over-exploitation

(2) Alien species invasions

(3) Co-extinctions

(4) Habitat loss and fragmentation

164. The natural aging of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water, leading to increased
biological productivity, is known as:

(1) Biomagnification
 (2) Eutrophication

(3) Succession

(4) Stratification

165. The Montreal Protocol was signed to control the emission of substances that
cause depletion of the ozone layer. The primary substances targeted by this protocol
were:

(1) Greenhouse gases like CO₂ and methane

(2) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

(3) Oxides of nitrogen and sulfur

(4) Particulate matter

166. In the life cycle of a fern (a pteridophyte), the dominant, photosynthetic phase is
the:

(1) Haploid gametophyte (prothallus)

(2) Diploid sporophyte

(3) Haploid spore

(4) Diploid zygote

167. The cell wall of fungi is structurally different from that of plants. It is primarily
composed of:

(1) Cellulose

(2) Peptidoglycan

(3) Chitin and polysaccharides

(4) Hemicellulose

168. The water vascular system is a distinctive feature of the phylum Echinodermata. It
is primarily involved in:

(1) Digestion and excretion

 (2) Respiration and circulation

(3) Locomotion, capture of food, and respiration

(4) Reproduction and osmoregulation

169. In human females, the first meiotic division of the primary oocyte is completed:

(1) At the time of birth

(2) After puberty, just prior to ovulation

(3) After fertilization by a sperm

(4) During the fetal development stage

170. The technique of DNA fingerprinting is based on the high degree of polymorphism
in:

(1) Exons

(2) Introns

(3) Repetitive DNA sequences

(4) Promoter regions

171. The logistic growth model (Verhulst-Pearl) describes population growth in a habitat
with limited resources. The 'K' in the equation dN/dt = rN((K-N)/K) represents:

(1) Intrinsic rate of natural increase

(2) Population density

(3) Carrying capacity

(4) Time

172. The final stage of ecological succession, where the community is in near
equilibrium with the environment, is called the:

(1) Seral stage

(2) Pioneer community

(3) Climax community

 (4) Ecotone

173. The process of creating a 'recombinant DNA' molecule involves joining a gene of
interest to a vector. The enzyme used to join these DNA fragments is:

(1) Restriction endonuclease

(2) DNA polymerase

(3) DNA ligase

(4) Helicase

174. In a monohybrid cross, a test cross is performed to determine the genotype of an

F1 individual with a dominant phenotype. This involves crossing the F1 individual with a:

(1) Homozygous dominant parent

(2) Homozygous recessive parent

(3) Heterozygous individual

(4) Another F1 individual

175. The heart of a crocodile is different from that of other reptiles because it is:

(1) Two-chambered

(2) Three-chambered

(3) Incompletely four-chambered

(4) Completely four-chambered

176. The 'red tides' in the ocean, which can be toxic to marine life, are caused by the
rapid multiplication of:

(1) Diatoms

(2) Dinoflagellates

(3) Euglenoids

(4) Brown algae

177. The part of the human brain responsible for regulating body temperature, urge for
eating, and drinking is the:

(1) Cerebrum

(2) Cerebellum

(3) Medulla

(4) Hypothalamus

178. The phenomenon of a single gene product producing more than one phenotypic
effect is known as:

(1) Pleiotropy

(2) Co-dominance

(3) Incomplete dominance

(4) Polygenic inheritance

179. In the human excretory system, the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) plays a crucial
role in regulating blood pressure and filtration rate. It is formed by the cellular
modifications in the:

(1) PCT and afferent arteriole

(2) DCT and efferent arteriole

(3) DCT and afferent arteriole

(4) PCT and efferent arteriole

180. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in the Calvin cycle is a 3-carbon compound.
This compound is:

(1) Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP)

(2) 3-phosphoglyceric acid (3-PGA)

(3) Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)

(4) Oxaloacetic acid (OAA)

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