XIII PT - 02 NEET 2026

Date: TARGET: NEET XIII (2026)

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 720
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
 General instructions.
 Use a blue or black pen for filling the OMR. A pencil or any other coloured ink is not
allowed.
 Write your name and other identifying information at the appropriate place only.
 Manage your time e ectively and allocate su icient time for each section.
 Any form of cheating or academic dishonesty will result in immediate disqualification.
 Raise your hand and ask the invigilator silently if you have any doubts or clarifications
during examination.
 Do not leave the examination hall until the invigilator has collected all the answer
sheets.
 Paper instructions.
 This question paper consists of 180 Objective type of questions. There are 45
questions in each PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY, BOTANY & ZOOLGY subject, respectively.

 Each question has four options, (1), (2), (3) & (4). Only one of
these options is correct.
 Marking Scheme:
 Positive : +4 if only correct option is chosen.
 Zero : 0 if none of the answers are chosen
i.e. question is unanswered.
 Negative : -1 in all other cases.

NAME: ……………………………………………………….. DAK ROLL NO.: ……………..………………………….

Dakshana Foundation
Head O ice: Dakshana Valley, Kadus Village, Pune 412 404, Maharashtra, India
Website: [Link] | E-mail: academics@[Link] | Mobile: +91.77987.86405
 PHYSICS
1 A ball starts moving eastward with speed 35 6 The speed at the maximum height of a
m/s. An acceleration of 10 m/s2 is acting on it projectile is half of its initial speed of
in westward direction. What is distance travelled projection (u). The horizontal range of the
by particle in 4th second of its motion? projectile is
(1) Zero (2) 1.25 m (3) 2.5 m (4) 5 m √ √
(1) (2) (3) (4)
√ √
2 Given graph (for a projectile motion) shows
variation of vertical velocity (y-component of 7 A drunkard is walking along a straight road. He
velocity) with time. Then the maximum height takes 5 steps forward and 3 steps backward,
of projectile is [g = 10 m/s2] followed by 5 steps forward and 3 steps
backward and so on. Each step is one meter
long and takes one second. There is a pit on
the road 13 meters away from the starting
point. The drunkard will fall into the pit after :
(1) 29 s (2) 21 s (3) 37 s (4) 31 s
8 Position vector of a particle is given as

(1) 10 m (2) 20 m
Magnitude of acceleration at t = 1 sec is :-
(3) 5 m (4) Data is insu icient
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2
3 A particle is thrown with speed 'u' at an angle (3) √2 m/s2 (4) √5 m/s2
of projection ' θ ' with horizontal as shown in 9 A particle moving with uniform acceleration
figure. travels 24 m and 64 m in the first two
Choose the correct statement. consecutive intervals of 4 sec each. Its initial
velocity is :-
(1) 1 m/sec (2) 10 m/sec
(3) 5 m/sec (4) 2 m/sec
10 A body is falling from height 'h'. It takes t
seconds to reach the ground. Calculate the
time taken by it to cover the first h/16 height
(1) Average velocity during O to D is ucosθ (1) t/ √2 (2) t/2 (3) t/4 (4) t/8
(2) Average velocity between A and C is ucosθ
(3) Vertical components of velocities at A and 11 Graph between square of velocity (v) of a
C are pair of opposite vectors 5particle and distance moved is shown in
(4) All of these figure. The acceleration of the particle is :-

4 A projectile is projected with a speed 30 m/s

at an angle 30° with the vertical. The speed of
the projectile when its direction of motion
makes an angle 30° with the horizontal is
(1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s
(3) 10√3 m/s (4) 20√3 m/s (1) 100 m/s2 (2) -50 m/s2
(3) 200 m/s2 (4) -500 m/s2
5 Acceleration of a particle moving in a straight 12 Two stones are projected with the same speed
line is varying with time t as a = (6t2 + 4t + 2) but making di erent angles with the
m/s2. If initial velocity of particle is 5 m/s, then horizontal. Their ranges are equal. If the angle
the velocity at time t = 1 s is of projection of one is π/3 and its maximum
(1) 6 m/s (2) 11 m/s (3) 5 m/s (4) Zero
height is h1, then the maximum height of the
other will be
(1) 3h1 (2) 2h1 (3) h1/2 (4) h1/3
13 An aeroplane is flying in a horizontal direction 17 A particle starts from rest, with acceleration a.
with a velocity of 360 km hr–1 and at a height of The acceleration of this particle as function of
1960 m. When it is vertically above the point P time t is given by the equation a = pt where p is
on the ground a bomb is dropped from the constant, then the displacement of the
aeroplane which strikes the ground at a point particle in the time interval t = 0 to t = t1 will
Q. What will be the time taken by the be:-
bomb to hit the ground :- (1) pt31 (2) pt21
(1) 10 s (2)10√2 s (3) 20 s (4)20√2 s
14 Acceleration-time graph of a body is shown. (3) pt21 (4) pt31
The corresponding velocity-time graph of the
same body is :- 18 A body is projected with KE, E so as to have
the maximum range. What will be its potential
energy at the highest point ?
(1) E (2) 3E/4 (3) E/2 (4) Zero

19 A body starts from rest and with a uniform

acceleration of 10 m/s2 for 5 seconds during
the next 10 seconds it moves with uniform
velocity the total distance travelled by the
body is :-
(1) 100 m (2) 125 m (3) 500 m (4) 625 m
(1) (2)
20 A ball is dropped into a well in which the water
level is at a depth h below the top. If the speed
of sound be c, then the time after which the
splash is heard will be given by :-

(3) (1) h + (2) h −

(4) (3) h + (4) h −
15 Four bodies A, B, C and D are projected with
equal velocities having angles of projection 21 The graph shows the variation of v2 v/s x. The
15°, 30°, 45° and 60° with the horizontal magnitude of maximum acceleration is :-
respectively.
the body having the shortest range is :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
16 A man walks on a equilateral triangle along
path ABC with constant speed then the ratio
of average speed and magnitude of average
velocity for A to C :-

(1) Zero (2) 6 m/s2 (3)12m/s2 (4) 8 m/s2

22 The point from where a ball is projected is
taken as the origin of the co-ordinate axes.
The x and y components of its displacement
are given by x = 6t and y = 8t – 5t . What is the
velocity of projection ?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 6 ms-1 (2) 8 ms-1 (3)10 ms-1 (4)14 ms-1
(3) 1/2 (4) None of these
23 A helicopter is flying horizontally at 8m/s at an 28
altitude 180m when a package of emergency
Equation of projectile is y = − . What
√ √
medical supplies is ejected horizontally are projection angle from horizontal and
backward with a speed of 12 m/s relative to horizontal range respectively ?
the helicopter. Ignoring air resistance what is (1) 30°, 27 m (2) 60°, 9 m
horizontal distance between the package and (3) 30°, 9 m (4) 60°, 27 m
the helicopter when the package hits the 29
ground ? If where b and c are positive
(1) 120 m (2) 24 m (3) 36 m (4) 72 m constants. At what time velocity vector makes
45° angle with x and y axis.
24 Two particles A and B, move with constant
velocities v⃗1 and v⃗2 . At the initial moment their (1) (2) (3) (4)
position vectors are r⃗1 and r⃗ 2 respectively. The 30 Velocity of a particle at any time t is given by v
condition for particle A and B for their collision = 2t(3-t) m/sec. At what time its velocity is
is :- maximum ?
(1) r⃗1 – r⃗2 = v⃗1-v⃗2 (2) r⃗1 . v⃗1 = r⃗2 . v⃗2 (1) 2 sec (2) 3 sec (3)2/3sec (4)3/2sec
(3) r⃗1 x v⃗1 = r⃗2 х v⃗2 (4) r12 = v21
31 An object is dropped from rest, Its v-t graph is:
25 A ball is dropped from the top of tower of 100
m height. Simultaneously another ball is
thrown upward with a speed of 50 m/s. After
what time do they cross each other ?
(1) 1 second (2) 2 second
(1) (2)
(3) 3 second (4) 4 second
26 a-t graph of a particle is shown. The respective
v-t graph of particle is :-

(3) (4)
32 A particle moves along a straight line such
that at time t its displacement from a fixed
point O on the line is (3t2–2). The velocity of
(1) (2) particle, when t = 2 sec is :-
(1) 8 m/s (2) 4 m/s (3) 12 m/s (4) 0

33 Velocity-time graph corresponding to

displacement-time graph shown in figure is :

(3) (4)

(1) (2)
27 A body is fired at an angle α with horizontal
with 9. velocity v0. If it remains in air for 6
seconds, then maximum height reached by
body will be :-
(1) 10 m (2) 30 m (3) 40 m (4) 45 m (4)
(3)
34 An auto travelling along a straight line increases its 41 Velocity time graph of a moving particle is
speed from 30 m/s to 50 m/s in a distance of 180 shown in figure, choose correct statement –
m. If acceleration is constant, how much time
elapses while auto moves this distance :-
(1) 6 sec (2) 4.5 sec (3) 3.6 sec (4) 7 sec
35 Two particles A and B are projected
simultaneously as shown in figure. Find θ if
they collide after 2 seconds :-

(1) 37° (2) 45° (3) 53° (4) 60°

(1) Particle change its direction of motion at
36 x-t relation of a particle moving along x-axis is some point.
x = a – bt + ct2, where a,b,c are positive (2) Accleration of particle remain zero.
constant. v-t graph of particle is :- (3) The distance travelled by the particle is
zero.
(4) Initial velocity and final velocity of the
particle are same.

(1) (2) 42 A particle covers first one third distances with

speed v1 and remaining distance with speed v2
then its average speed is :

(1) (2)

(3) (4) Zero

(4) (3)
37 A body's position changes with time according
to equation x α t then its motion will be : 43 A particle move from A to B with speed v1 and
(1) Uniform motion then from B to A with speed v2 then its average
(2) Uniformly accelerated velocity is :
(3) Rest (1)
(4) Non-uniformly accelerated motion
(2)

38 A body is projected from ground with velocity (4) Zero

(3)
(6i + 8j) m/s then maximum height is :
(1) 64 m (2) 3.2 m (3) 4.8 m (4) 6.4 m
44 A body is thrown upwards. It returns to ground
39 A passenger is travelling in an open car moving
describing parabolic path. Which of the
with speed 30 m/s throws a ball in forward
direction. Initial velocity of ball relative to car following remains constant –
(1) Kinetic energy
is 20 m/s at 60° with horizontal. Then angle of
(2) Speed of ball
projection of from horizontal as seen by an
(3) Vertical component of velocity of ball
observer on ground will be :- (4) Horizontal component of velocity of ball
√ √
(1) tan (2) tan 45 A particle goes from A to B with speed 40
(3) tan √3 (4) tan 4√3 km/hr and B to C with speed 60 km/hr. If AB =
40 Projectile motion is a : 6BC then find average speed between A and C
(1) Uniform motion ?
(2) Uniformly accelerated motion (1) 48 km/hr (2) 42 km/hr
(3) Both (1) & (2) (3) 56 km/hr (4) 36 km/hr
(4) None
 CHEMISTRY
46 What is the % by mass of oxygen in glucose ? 57 For any H-like system, the ratio of velocities of
(1) 5.33 (2) 53.33 (3) 1.33 (4) 18.33 I, II & III orbit i.e. V1 : V2 : V3 will be :-
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 1/2 : 1/3
47 What volume of O2(g) is required to burn 1 L (3) 3 : 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 : 1
of propane gas completely ?
(1) 5 L (2) 10 L (3) 7 L (4) 6 L 58 Discovery of the nucleus of an atom was due to
the experiment carried out by
48 What amount of CaCO3 is required to obtained (1) Bohr (2) Mosley
11g of CO2. If sample of CaCO3 is 50% pure :- (3) Rutherford (4) Thomson
(1) 100 g (2) 30 g (3) 50 g (4) 75 g
59 The angular momentum of an electron in a
49 Amount of water produced by the combustion given stationary state can be expressed as
of 32 g of methane is :-
mevr = n . Based on this expression an
(1) 36 g (2) 18 g (3) 72 g (4) 9 g
electron can move only in those orbits for
50 For Reaction: N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3, If 1 kg N2 reacts which its angular momentum is
with 2 kg of H2 then limiting reagent will be - (1) equal to n (2) Integral multiple of
(1) N2 (2) H2
(3) NH3 (4) None of these
(3) Multiple of n
(4) equal to only.
51 4g C and 4g O2 are reacted to produce CO2.
Maximum moles of CO2 produced are :- 60 Velocity of electron in 2nd orbit of Be3+ will be :-
(1) 8 mol (2) 1/8 mol (2) 4.36 m/s
(1) 4.36 × 106 m/s
(3) 4 mol (4) 1/4 mol
(3) 2.18 × 10 m/s
6
(4) 9.8 × 10–4 m/s

52 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a 61 Select the correct priority for citation as
closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess principal group :-
and how much :-
(At. wt. Mg = 24; O = 16)
(1) Mg, 0.44g (2) O2, 0.28g (1)
(3) Mg, 0.16 g (4) O2, 0.16 g

53 Which has the maximum molecules ?

(2)
(1) 0.1 mol NH3 (2) 4g C6H6
(3) 1g CH4 (4) 1.12L N2 at NTP

(3)
54 Number of atoms in the following samples of
substances is the largest in:
(1) 127.0 g of iodine (2) 48.0 g of magnesium
(3) 71.0 g of chlorine (4) 4.0 g of hydrogen (4)
62 Which of the following is 1° alcohol?
55 Wavelength of electromagnetic wave having (2)
frequency 3 × 1018 sec-1 is :-
(1) 1Å (2) 10-9 m (3) 10-11 m (4) 10-10 Å

56 The energy of second Bohr's orbit in H-atom is

(1)
–328 kJ mol–1, hence the energy of fourth (3) (4)
Bohr's orbit would be ?
(1) –82.25 kJ mol-1 (2) –41 kJ mol-1
(3) –1312 kJ mol-1 (4) –164 kJ mol-1
63 IUPAC name of CH3-C-O-COCH3 is :- 71 Which of the following functional group is
|| always taken as a substituent in IUPAC
O nomenclature :-
(1) Methyl ethanoate (2) Aceto ethanoate (1) -NH2 (2) -CHO (3) -CN (4) -NO2
(3) Ethanoyl ethanoate (4) Ethanoic anhydride
72 Prop - 2 - en - 1 - ol is :-
64 (1) HO – CH2 –CH=CH2
(2) CH3 – CH = CH – OH
The IUPAC name of
(1) 4-Oxo-2-pentanol
(2) 4-Hydroxy-2-pentanone (3)
(3) Pentane-4-ol-2-one (4) CH2 = CH – O – CH3
(4) Pentane-2-one-4-ol 73 The IUPAC name of the compound is :-
65 Minimum number of carbon atoms that must
be present in alkyne to show chain and position
isomerism, respectively is :- (1) 4–Amino-2–methoxy–1–amino–2–butene
(1) 5,5 (2) 6,4 (3) 5,4 (4) 4,5 (2) 4–Amino–3–methoxybut–2–en–1–amide
66 (3) 2–Methoxy–1,4–diamino–2–butenal
(4) 1–Amino–2–methoxy–3–amino propene
74
Relation between (A) and (B) is :
(1) Chain isomers
(2) Positional isomers
(3) Functional Group Isomers (1) Position isomer
(4) Metamers (2) Functional group isomer
(3) Chain isomer
67 Ethoxy ethane and 1-Methoxy propane are - (4) Metamer
(1) Chain isomers (2) Position isomers
75 The correct IUPAC name of the compound
(3) Metamers (4) Homologue
(C2H5)3 N is :-
(1) Ethyltriamine
68 IUPAC name of propargyl alcohol is :-
(2) N,N,N-Triethyl amine
(1) Prop–1–yn–3–ol (2) Prop–2–yn–1–ol
(3) N,N-Diethyl ethanamine
(3) Prop–2–en–1–ol (4) Prop–1–en–3–ol
(4) Hexanamine

69 IUPAC name for the following compound is :- 76 Which of the following has largest radius :-
(1) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2
(2) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p1
(1) Phenyl cyanide (3) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p5
(2) Cyclohexane nitrile (4) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p5
(3) Cyclohexane carbonitrile
(4) Cyclohexyl cyanide 77 If the ionic radii of K⊕ and FΘ are nearly the
same 1.54 then the atomic radii of K and F
70 The IUPAC name of compound is :- respectively are:-
(1) 1.34 Å, 1.34 Å (2) 1.80 Å, 1.08 Å
(3) 1.54 Å, 0.72 Å (4) 1.96 Å, 1.96 Å

(1) 3,4 – Dimethyl – 2 – buten – 4 – oℓ 78 The incorrect order of ionic radius is :-

(2) 1,2 – Dimethyl – 2 – buten – 1 – oℓ (1) Na+ > Mg+2 > Al+3
(3) 3 – Methyl pent – 3 – en – 2 – oℓ (2) K+ > Sc+3 > V+5 > Mn+7
(4) 2, 3 – Dimethyl – 3 – penten – 1 – oℓ (3) V+2 > V+3 > V+4 > V+5
(4) O–2 > Rb+ > Sr+2 > Cs+
79 Match the following :- Code: P Q R S
(1) (n-2)f14(n-1)d4 ns2 (a) Noble gas (1) 1 1,2 1,2 3,4
(2) Ga (b) Halogen (2) 1,2 2,4 2,4 2,3
(3) Ar (c) Transition element (3) 1,2 2 2,4 2,3
(4) Cl (d) Eka aluminium (4) 2,3 2 2,4 2,3
(1) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b (2) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
85 Match the species with their respective ionic
(3) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a (4) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
size.
80 Among O, O+, O2+ and O2-, the species having Column-I Column-II
most positive and most negative value of Δ Heg (P) Mg2+ (1) 1.19 Å
are, respectively (Q) O2- (2) 0.72 Å
(1) O+ and O (2) O2+ and O2- (R) Na+ (3) 1.16 Å
(3) O and O2- (4) O2- and O2+ (S) F- (4) 1.26 Å
Code: P Q R S
(1) 3 1 2 4
81 For electronic configuration
(2) 2 4 1 3
ns2 (n - 2) f 1-14 (n - 1)d0-1, if n = 7, then the
(3) 2 4 3 1
element belongs to
(4) 4 2 3 1
(1) Lanthanoids
(2) Actinoids
86 Choose the incorrect order for acidic strength.
(3) Inner transition elements
(1) CO2 < CO (2) SO2 < SO3
(4) Both (B) and (C)
(3) HClO2 > HOCl (4) SiO2 > CO2
82 The valence shell of the element X contains 2
electrons in 5s subshell. Below that shell, 87 Which of the following processes is
element X has a partially filled 4d subshell, endothermic?
then what type of element is X? (1) S → S- (2) S- → S2-
(1) Alkali metal (2) Alkaline earth metal (3) Na → Na-
(4) P → P-
(3) Chalcogen (4) None of these
83 Match the elements with their corresponding 88 Which of the following processes is
IE1. exothermic?
Column-I Column-II (1) N- → N (2) N → N+ (3) N → N- (4) N+ → N2+
(P) N (1) +800
(Q) O (2) +900 89 The successive ionization energies (IE) for an
(R) Be (3) +1300 element A are as follows
(S) B (4) +1400
Code: P Q R S If the IE1 and IE3 values are 27 kJ mol-1 and
(1) 2 3 1 4 51 kJ mol-1 respectively, then the value of IE2 is
(2) 1 2 3 4 ___________ kJ mol-1.
(3) 4 3 2 1 (1) 21 (2) 33 (3) 59 (4) 63
(4) 1 4 2 3
90 The smallest size cation and anion that can
exist are respectively
84 Match the elements of given atomic number (1) H+ and H- (2) H+ and F-
with their properties (3) Li+ and F- (4) Li+ and H-
Column-I Column-II
(P) (11) (1) IE is maximum
(Q) (19) (2) Ze = 2.2 (on last
electron)
(R) (37) (3) Size largest
(S) (55) (4) Position is next to Kr
 BOTANY

91 The ripening of fruits can be accelerated by 99 Select the odd one out w.r.t. developmental
(1) Reducing the supply of water to plant when heterophylly.
fruits are maturing (1) Cotton (2) Coriander
(2) Increasing the supply of nitrogen (3) Larkspur (4) Buttercup
(3) Warming up the surroundings artificially 100 The ‘bakanae’ (foolish seedling) disease of rice
(4) Using ethephon seedlings led to the discovery of which of the
following plant growth regulators?
92 In plants, oxygen is utilised in (1) ABA (2) GA (3) IAA (4) NAA
(1) Providing medium for enzymatic activities
(2) Releasing metabolic energy essential for
101 All of the following are functional applications
growth
of ethylene, except
(3) The processes such as photosynthesis (1) It is used to initiate flowering and synchronising
(4) Maintaining constant temperature fruit set in pineapples
(2) It hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes and apples
93 Which of the following is not true w.r.t. growth (3) It promotes female flowers in cucumbers
in organisms ? (4) It is used to speed up the malting process in
(1) It is fundamental and conspicuous brewing industry
(2) It involves expense of energy
102 Cytokinins
(3) It is permanent increase in size
(1) Cause fruits like apple to elongate and
(4) It is accompanied by anabolic processes
improve its shape
only
(2) Lead to early seed production in conifers
(3) Promote bolting in beet, cabbages and
94 Apical dominance means
many plants with rosette habit
(1) Suppression of growth of apical bud by
(4) Help to produce new leaves and
axillary buds
chloroplasts in leaves
(2) Suppression of growth of axillary bud by
presence of apical bud 103 In the equation of arithmetic growth Lt = L0 + rt,
(3) Stimulation of growth of apical bud by ‘r’ represents
removal of axillary buds (1) Final size
(4) Inhibition of growth of axillary buds by (2) Length at time zero
removal of apical bud (3) Elongation per unit time
95 Which phytohormone would we use if we are (4) Length at time t
asked to delay the ripening of fruits so as to 104 Auxin was first isolated from
extend the period for marketing ? (1) Autoclaved herring sperm DNA
(1) Gibberellin (2) Cytokinin (2) Human urine
(3) Ethylene (4) IBA (3) Coconut milk
(4) Coleoptile tips of canary grass
96 2, 4-dichlorophenoxy acetic acid is used to
(1) Kill the broad leaved weeds 105 In plants, relative growth can be represented
(2) Promote flowering in pineapple and mango as
(3) Overcome apical dominance (1) Total growth per unit time
(4) Promote sprouting of storage organs (2) Gross growth in whole life of organism
97 __‘A’__decreases the sensitivity of roots to (3) x 100
gravity. Here ‘A’ most likely is
(1) Cytokinin (2) Ethylene (4)
(3) Auxin (4) Abscisic acid
98 Which of the following plant growth regulators 106 Abscisic acid is also called
helps in hedge formation in tea plants? (1) Anti-ageing hormone (2) Growth hormone
(1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin (3) Ripening hormone (4) Stress hormone
(3) Gibberellin (4) Ethylene
107 Select the odd one out w.r.t. the cells of 115 Cytokinins
maturation zone. a. Stimulate lateral shoot growth
(1) They attain maximal size in terms of wall b. Help in mobilization of nutrients
thickening c. Inhibit cell division
(2) They undergo protoplasmic modifications d. Delay senescence
(3) They undergo active cell division (1) Only a (2) Only a and b
(4) They attain functional specialisation (3) Only a, b and d (4) All a, b, c and d

108 Which of the following is correctly matched 116 Hormones which are essential in tissue culture
pair ? for promoting root and shoot development
(1) GA3 – Increases size of apple fruit respectively in callus are
(2) IAA – Synthetic auxin (1) Auxin and ABA (2) GA and Ethylene
(3) Cytokinin and ABA (4) Auxin and Cytokinin
(3) Dormin – Helps in the breaking of seeds
dormancy 117 Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(4) Kinetin – Occurs naturally in plants (1) Ethylene breaks the dormancy of seed
(2) Gibberellins increase the length of stem
109 Development is the sum of two processes that
(3) Abscisic acid generally promotes growth
are
(1) Growth and di erentiation (4) Cytokinin counteracts apical dominance
(2) Di erentiation and de erentiation 118 By the application of which plant hormone,
(3) Di erentiation and redi erentiation stem elongation can be induced in “rossette
(4) Cell division and senescence plants”?
110 Which of the following conversion is not (1) Auxin (2) Gibberellin
development? (3) Cytokinin (4) Ethylene
(1) Leaf initiation to leaf expansion
(2) Appearance of chloroplasts in cells when
119 Who has discovered and confirmed that
exposed to sunlight release of a volatile substance from ripened
(3) Conversion of turgid cells to flaccid cells oranges hastened the ripening of unripe
(4) Juvenile phase to reproductive phase banana kept with it ?
(1) F. Skoog (2) F.W. Went
111 Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. plant
(3) Cousins (4) E. Kurosawa
growth and development
(1) After dedi erentiation, the dedi erentiated 120 Match the following phytohormones with their
cells do not divide further composition and select the correct option.
(2) After di erentiation, the mature cells can Pphtohormones Composition
become meristematic again a. ABA (i) Terpenes
b. Auxin (ii) Derivative of carotenoid
(3) Parallel line technique conforms that root
c. Gibberellins (iii) Adenine derivatives
elongates most, immediate behind the apex
d. Kinetin (iv) Indole compounds
(4) Growth is influenced by gravity too
a b c d
112 Initial surface area of a leaf is 20 cm2. After 5 (1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
days surface area of that leaf increases to 30 (2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
cm2. Find the absolute growth rate of the leaf (3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(1) 30 cm2 / day (2) 2 cm2 / day (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) 20 cm / day
2
(4) 10 cm2 / day
121 Which phytohormone is also known as stress
113 Find odd one w.r.t. heterophylly. hormone?
(1) Cotton (2) Larkspur (1) Auxin (2) Gibberellins
(3) Coriander (4) China rose (3) Ethylene (4) ABA
114 Plants follow different pathways in response to
environment or phases of life to form different 122 Which of the following expressions is correct
kinds of structures. This ability is called w.r.t. exponential growth ?
(1) Elasticity (2) Plasticity (1) W1 = W0 ert (2) W1 = W0 + ert
(3) Flexibility (4) Polymorphism (3) Lt = L0 + rt (4) Lt = L0 – ert
123 Read the given statements and choose the
130 Which among the following is not the
correct option regarding plant growth.
characteristic of cells in meristematic phase of
A. Increased vacuolation, cell enlargement and new
growth ?
cell wall deposition are characteristics of cells in
elongation phase. (1) Rich in protoplasm
B. Cells of maturation zone attain maximal size in (2) Increase vacuolation
terms of wall thickening and protoplasmic (3) Possess large conspicuous nucleus
modifications. (4) Abundant plasmodesmatal connections
(1) Only statement A is incorrect
(2) Only statement B is incorrect
131 Abscission of leaves, fruits and flowers is
(3) Both statements are correct
promoted by
(4) Both statements are incorrect
(a) Cytokinins (b) Ethylene
124 Which of the following PGRs is known as fruit (c) Gibberellins (d) Abscisic acid
ripening hormone ? Choose the correct one(s) :
(1) ABA (2) Auxins (1) (d) only (2) (b) and (c)
(3) Ethylene (4) Cytokinin (3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (b) and (d)
125 Which of the following is correct w.r.t. auxins? 132 Ethylene can be used in all, except
(1) First discovered by Charles Darwin and his son
(1) To promote senescence
Francis Darwin in rice seedlings
(2) Term auxin is derived from Greek word ‘auxein’
(2) Thinning of fruits
which means to grow (3) To increase yield of cucumber
(3) They promote shoot growth in callus (4) To induce seed and tuber dormancy
(4) They counteract apical dominance
133 Read the following statements and select the
126 In the given figure, A & B respectively are
correct option.
A. IAA is a natural auxin
B. Ethylene is a gaseous hormone
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
A B
(1) Exponential phase Lag phase 134 Complete the statement by choosing correct
(2) Lag phase Stationary phase option.
(3) Stationary phase Lag phase A. __(i)__ stimulates root formation on stem
(4) Lag phase Exponential phase cuttings.
B. __(ii)__ promotes development of
127 Auxins and cytokinins act antagonistically w.r.t. adventitious roots, lateral roots and growth of
(1) Apical dominance root hairs.
(2) Cell division (i) (ii)
(3) Inducing abscission of younger leaves
(1) Auxin Ethylene
(4) Delaying senescence
(2) Ethylene Cytokinin
128 Which of the following plant growth regulators is (3) Auxin Cytokinin
mainly involved in growth inhibiting activities ?
(1) Auxins (2) Cytokinins (4) Cytokinin Gibberellin
(3) Gibberellins (4) Abscisic acid
129 Read and identify statements as True (T) or False (F) 135 Select incorrectly matched pair.
and select the correct option. (1) Ethylene – H.H. Cousins
A. Auxins induce parthenocarpy in tomatoes. (2) Gibberellins – E. Kurosawa
B. Gibberellins are used as weedicide. (3) Cytokinins – F. Skoog
A B (4) Abscisic acid – F.W. Went
(1) T T
(2) T F
(3) F T
(4) F F
 ZOOLOGY
136 Medullary chemosensitive area is more 142 Rib cage comprises ribs attached ventrally to
sensitive to fluctuations in concentration of the __X__ and dorsally to the __Y__ Choose the
a. CO2 b. H+ c. O2 d. CO option that fills up the blanks correctly.
X Y
(1) a, b, c & d (2) a & b only
(1) Vertebral column Sternum
(3) a, b & c only (4) d only (2) lntercostal muscles Diaphragm
(3) Sternum Vertebral column
137 The oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curves for (4) Diaphragm Backbone
foetal and maternal haemoglobin are ___ in
shape and the P50 value of ___ is lower. Select 143 Trachea in man is a straight tube which divides
the option which fills both the blanks at the level of
correctly. (1) 5th thoracic vertebra
(1) Sigmoid, foetal-Hb (2) 7th thoracic vertebra
(2) Sigmoid, maternal-Hb (3) 12th thoracic vertebra
(3) Hyperbolic, foetal-Hb (4) 5th cervical vertebra
(4) Hyperbolic, maternal-Hb 144 Average breathing rate of a normal healthy
138 In case of decrease in carbon dioxide human adult is
(1) 12-16 times per minute
concentration of blood, the Hb-O2 saturation
(2) 500 ml per minute
curve will shift towards (3) 70-72 times per minute
(1) Right side (4) 2500-3000 ml per minute
(2) Left side
145 Receptors associated with aortic arch and
(3) No change in the position of saturation
carotid artery primarily recognise changes in
curve (1) pO2 and pCO2 levels of CSF
(4) First right and then left (2) pCO2 and pH levels of blood
(3) pH and pO2 levels of CSF
139 Higher number of RBCs in the blood of a
(4) pO2 and pCO2 levels of blood
mountain dweller in comparison to a person
residing in plains can be explained by 146 Among the following which is not an
(1) Lack of pollutants in higher mountainous occupational respiratory disorder?
regions (1) Asthma (2) Silicosis
(2) Less pO2 in atmospheric air in mountains (3) Asbestosis (4) Pneumoconiosis
requiring more RBCs to supply the required 147 During normal respiration, every 4000 ml of
amount of O2 to tissues deoxygenated blood delivers approximately __
(3) Better nutrition intake by mountain dwellers ml of CO2 to the alveoli. Select the option
(4) Enhanced erythropoiesis in mountain which fills the blank correctly.
dwellers due to high exposure to UV rays (1) 4 (2) 160 (3) 50 (4) 30
148 CO poisoning in humans is fatal because CO
140 Choose the correct option representing partial
(1) Has less a inity for haemoglobin than O2
pressure of carbon dioxide in pulmonary artery
(2) Damages lungs directly
and systemic veins?
(3) A ects the nervous system exclusively
(1) 95 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg
(4) Competes for the site of oxygen binding on
(2) 40 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg haemoglobin and reduces oxygen delivery to
(3) 40 mm Hg, 95 mm Hg the tissues
(4) 45 mm Hg, 45 mm Hg
149 In normal breathing, contraction of which of
141 The "blue baby" syndrome is caused due to the following muscles does not occur?
formation of (1) Abdominal muscles
(1) Haemoglobin with iron in ferrous form (2) Diaphragm
(2) Methaemoglobin (3) External intercostal muscles
(3) Carbaminohemoglobin (4) Phrenic muscles
(4) Oxyhaemoglobin
150 The additional volume of air, a person can 157 The respiratory disorder characterized by
inspire by a forcible inspiration is destruction of the walls of the alveoli producing
(1) TV (2) IRV (3) ERV (4) RV abnormally large air spaces that remain filled
with air during exhalation is called
151 The total volume of air accommodated in the (1) Asthma (2) Asbestosis
lungs at the end of a forced inspiration is (3) Emphysema (4) Pneumonia
(1) VC (2) EC (3) IC (4) TLC
158 Complete the analogy.
152 Select the incorrect match. Aquatic Molluscs : Gills :: Earthworm : __X__
Choose the correct option for X.
(1) Outer pleura - Parietal pleura
(1) Trachea (2) Moist cuticle
(2) Inner pleura - Visceral pleura
(3) Book lungs (4) Book gills
(3) Outer pericardium - Parietal pericardium
(4) Pleural fluid - Increases friction on the lung
159 Choose the incorrect match.
surface.
(1) Respiratory rhythm centre - Medulla
153 When we breathe, our lungs do not collapse oblongata
between breaths and some amount of air (2) Pneumotaxic centre - Pons
always remain in lungs because (3) Aortic bodies - Chemoreceptors
(1) Pressure within lungs is higher than (4) Carotid bodies - Thermoreceptors
atmospheric pressure
(2) Positive intrapleural pressure pushes in the 160 Di iculty in breathing, causing wheezing due to
lung wall inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles is
(3) Negative intra pleural pressure pulls at the seen in
lung wall (1) Asthma (2) Emphysema
(4) Pressure within lungs is lower than (3) Fibrosis (4) Silicosis
atmospheric pressure 161 Every 100 ml of deo xygenated blood delivers
approximately_ ml of CO2 to the alveoli under
154 Read statements A and B and choose the
normal physiological condition.
correct option.
Choose the option which fills the blank
Statement A: The partial pressure of CO2 in
correctly.
oxygenated blood is less than in actively
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 5
metabolising tissues.
Statement B: Gases like 02 and CO2 are 162 Factor not favourable for formation of
exchanged in our body by simple di usion, oxyhaemoglobin is
based on partial pressure gradient. (1) High pO2
(1) Both statements are incorrect (2) Low pCO2
(2) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect (3) Lesser H+ concentration
(4) High temperature
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct 163 Functional residual capacity can be
represented by
155 Maximum amount of CO2 is transported in (1) ERV+ RV (2) IRV+ TV
blood as (3) VC + RV (4) TV+ ERV
(1) Dissolved in plasma
(2) Carboxyhaemoglobin 164 During inspiration,
(3) Carbaminohaemoglobin (1) Diaphragm contracts to increase thoracic
(4) Bicarbonate ions volume
156 All of the following stimuli can stimulate (2) Diaphragm relaxes to decrease thoracic
respiration through chemoreceptor volume
mechanism except (3) No change in position of diaphragm or
(1) Increase in acidity thoracic volume is seen
(2) Increase in arterial pCO2
(4) Ribs and sternum remain in their original
(3) Decrease in pH
(4) Decrease in H+ concentration position
165 CO is more toxic than CO2 because it : 172 In the haemoglobin-O2 dissociation curves the
(1) Damages lungs shift of the curve towards the right could be
(2) It destryos haemoglobin caused by
(3) A ects the nervous system (1) Increased pH
(4) reduces the oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin
(2) Carbon monoxide (CO)
166 Volume of air remaining in the lungs even after (3) Strenous exercise
forcible expiration is (4) Foetal haemoglobin
(1) 500 ml (2) 3000 - 3500 ml 173 Which of the following is the most common
(3) 1100 -1200 ml (4) 2000 -2500 ml symptom of silicosis?
167 Which of the following statement is incorrect (1) Inflammation of bronchi
w.r.t. transport of carbon dioxide in blood? (2) Increase in thickening of mucus in lungs
(1) About 20-25 percent of carbon dioxide is carried (3) Fibrosis of upper part of lungs
by haemoglobin in the form of (4) Collapsing of alveoli
carbaminohaemoglobin 174 What will be the e ect of increased level of 2, 3
(2) 70 percent of CO2 is carried in a dissolved
DPG at oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve?
status through plasma
(1) No e ect (2) Right sided shift
(3) As the blood picks up carbon dioxide from tissue,
(3) Left sided shift (4) Becomes hyperbolic
HCO3 - accumulates inside RCBs of which some
move out into the blood plasma and in exchange 175 Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin will
chloride ions move from plasma into RBCs shift to right of normal curve if
(4) The greatest percentage of carbon dioxide is (1) Temperature decreases
transported in blood plasma as bicarbonate ions (2) CO2 decreases
168 When oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve (3) pH decreases
gets shifted towards the right side, it reflects (4) BPG is low
the following features, except 176 Which structure is not related with respiration
(1) Decreased a inity of haemoglobin for oxygen in frog?
(2) Facilitates dissociation of oxygen (1) Lungs (2) Skin
(3) Decrease in P50 Value
(3) Buccal cavity (4) Diaphragm
(4) Less percentage saturation of haemoglobin
177 Which of the following factors does not occur
169 Tidal volume + Inspiratory reserve volume + in alveoli and is favourable for dissociation of
residual volume + Expiratory reserve volume is oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin?
(1) Inspiratory capacity A. High pO2
(2) Vital capacity B. Low pCO2
(3) Total lung capacity C. Less H+ concentration and low
(4) Functional residual capacity temperature
170 If pulmonary volumes/capacities of a person D. High temperature
are as given below (1) A only (2) A & B only
Vital capacity = 4600 ml (3) A, B & C (4) D only
Total capacity = 6000 ml 178 Di iculty in breathing causing wheezing is due to
Tidal volume = 400 ml (1) Emphysema (2) Asthma
Expiratory capacity = 1300 ml (3) Tuberculosis (4) Atelectasis
Find the functional residual capacity (FRC) of
the person 179 Incomplete cartilaginous rings are not present
(1) 1800 ml (2) 2300 ml around
(3) 3300 ml (4) 900 ml (1) Trachea (2) Primary bronchi
(3) Secondary bronchi (4) Respiratory bronchioles
171 Pneumotaxic centre located dorsally in upper
pons control the rate and pattern of respiration. 180 How much carbon dioxide is delivered by 5 L of
When it sends a strong signal to inspiratory deoxygenated blood to the alveoli?
area which of the following will not occur? (1) 200 ml (2) 400 ml
(1) Increase in rate of respiration (3) 100 ml (4) 300 ml
(2) Partial filling of lungs
(3) Decrease in inspiration time
(4) Increase in expiration time
Space for Rough Work