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An Imprint of Springer Publishing

CLINICAL
NEUROPHYSIOLOGY
BOARD REVIEW
Q&A
Second Edition

PUNEET K. GUPTA
PRADEEP N. MODUR
SRIKANTH MUPPIDI
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to Your Book!

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Clinical Neurophysiology Board
Review Q&A

Second Edition

Puneet K. Gupta, MD, MSE, FACNS


Epileptologist and Neurohospitalist
Neurology Consultants of Dallas, P.A.
Director, Neurodiagnostics and Epilepsy
Medical City Dallas
Adjunct Assistant Professor
Department of Neurology and Neurotherapeutics
University of Texas Southwestern Medical Center
Dallas, Texas

Pradeep N. Modur, MD, MS


Director
Ascension Comprehensive Epilepsy Program
Professor
Department of Neurology
Dell Medical School at the University of Texas at Austin
Austin, Texas

Srikanth Muppidi, MD
Clinical Associate Professor
Neuromuscular Section
Department of Neurology and Neurological Sciences
Stanford School of Medicine
Stanford, California

An Imprint of Springer Publishing


Copyright © 2021 Springer Publishing Company, LLC
Demos Medical Publishing is an imprint of Springer Publishing Company.
All rights reserved.
First Springer Publishing edition 2015.

No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted in any form or by any
means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording, or otherwise, without the prior permission of Springer
Publishing Company, LLC, or authorization through payment of the appropriate fees to the Copyright Clearance
Center, Inc., 222 Rosewood Drive, Danvers, MA 01923, 978-750-8400, fax 978-646-8600, [email protected] or on the
Web at www.copyright.com.

Springer Publishing Company, LLC


11 West 42nd Street, New York, NY 10036
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connect.springerpub.com/

Acquisitions Editor: Beth Barry


Compositor: diacriTech

ISBN: 9780826181879
ebook ISBN: 9780826181886
DOI: 10.1891/9780826181886

20 21 22 23/ 5 4 3 2 1

Medicine is an ever-changing science. Research and clinical experience are continually expanding our knowledge, in
particular our understanding of proper treatment and drug therapy. The authors, editors, and publisher have made
every effort to ensure that all information in this book is in accordance with the state of knowledge at the time of
production of the book. Nevertheless, the authors, editors, and publisher are not responsible for any errors or omis-
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Printed in the United States of America.


To our children—Nayan and Sonali; Sara, Maya, and Ross; and
Medha—who are old enough to now understand the sacrifices we make for our
patients’ well-being. Their innocent and unrelenting inquisitiveness regarding the
purpose of Board Review books is a true inspiration to revise and make this edition
more meaningful. We are ever grateful to our children for their unconditional love,
inspiration, and encouragement.
Contents

Preface   ix
Acknowledgments   xi

Chapter 1: Anatomy and Physiology   1


Questions  1
Answers  12
Chapter 2: Electronics and Instrumentation   23
Questions  23
Answers  37
Chapter 3: Nerve Conduction Studies and Electromyography   49
Questions  49
Answers  131
Chapter 4: Electroencephalography   167
Questions  167
Answers  236
Chapter 5: Evoked Potentials and Intraoperative Monitoring   281
Questions  281
Answers  311
Chapter 6: Polysomnography and Other Sleep Studies   335
Questions  335
Answers  352
Chapter 7: Advanced Topics   361
Questions  361
Answers  381

vii
viiiCONTENTS

Chapter 8: Ethics and Safety   395


Questions  395
Answers  402
Chapter 9: Pearls for Passing   407
Abbreviations  433
Bibliography  439
Index  443
Preface

Five years have passed since publishing the first edition of Clinical Neurophysiology Board
Review Q&A. This revision has provided us with an opportunity to include updates and
advancements in neurodiagnostics that have occurred during this time. For example, inva-
sive EEG monitoring has seen an increase in the use of stereo-EEG (SEEG), allowing for better
assessment of the epileptic network for presurgical evaluations in a minimally invasive way;
quantitative EEG (QEEG) has helped to expand the use and meaning of prolonged bedside
critical care monitoring; and there is an increasing use of imaging for neuromuscular disor-
ders (e.g., ultrasound for compressive neuropathies).
The objective of this second edition is the same as the first edition, which is to help solidify
concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and, more importantly, provide the confidence to not
only pass but also to perform well in various testing environments, from attending rounds to
board examinations. Although this text was initially aimed for physicians, we were happy to
hear positive reviews from technologists who stated that it helped them pass their respective
boards as well. The digital platform has also been a great resource to many readers, and we
hope that it continues to be so.
In this second edition, we continued to strive to make this resource more valuable. We
revised and added a fifth answer choice to all (more than 800) the questions to better mimic
the testing environment. In addition, more than 80 new questions and answers have been
added to further expand the breadth and depth of knowledge.
We continue to be determined to make this book as comprehensive, user-friendly, and
error-free as possible. We hope the book continues to help you reach your goals.
Good luck! As always, we welcome constructive feedback to help with future editions.

Puneet K. Gupta, MD, MSE, FACNS


Pradeep N. Modur, MD, MS
Srikanth Muppidi, MD

ix
Acknowledgments

We would like to express our gratitude to the many people who continue to support us
through this project:
To our editors and publishers—Beth Barry, Jaclyn Shultz, and Demos Medical Publishing—
whose guidance and accountability helped us to complete this revision in a timely manner.
To our spouses—Paula, Lisa, and Kavitha—whose love and tolerance of our shenanigans
knows no bounds.
To our children—Nayan and Sonali; Sara, Maya, and Ross; and Medha—who love to ques-
tion everything in life but for our love of them.
To our teachers, mentors, and colleagues—past and current—for providing us the
education.
To our patients—past, current, and future—for providing the motivation.

Puneet K. Gupta, MD, MSE, FACNS


Pradeep N. Modur, MD, MS
Srikanth Muppidi, MD

xi
1
Anatomy and Physiology
QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is an example of a near-field potential?


A. P100
B. Wave I recorded at Cz
C. P13/14 recorded at the scalp
D. N34
E. P31

2. Which of the following results in a slower nerve conduction velocity?


A. Larger nerve diameter
B. Smaller nerve fiber diameter
C. Shorter nerve length
D. Low transmembrane capacitance
E. High transmembrane resistance

3. The membrane permeability of which of the following ions contributes the most during depo-
larization, repolarization, and in maintaining the resting membrane potential, respectively?
A. Calcium; chloride; potassium
B. Sodium; potassium; chloride
C. Sodium; potassium; potassium
D. Sodium; chloride; potassium
E. Calcium; potassium; chloride

4. Which of the following determines the flow of ions across a channel?


A. Chemical gradient
B. Electrical gradient
C. Membrane conductance
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C

ANSWERS TO THIS SECTION CAN BE FOUND ON PAGE 12 1


2 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY: Questions

5. In addition to voltage-gating, what is the other main gating mechanism for the neuronal
ion channels?
A. Light-gating
B. Temperature-gating
C. Ligand-gating
D. Mechanosensitivity
E. Intracellular second messenger gating

6. Which of the following types of nerve fibers within a given nerve contribute to the con-
duction velocity measured with nerve conduction studies?
A. Fastest conducting nerve fibers
B. Slowest conducting nerve fibers
C. Unmyelinated fibers
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C

7. All of the following statements regarding the neuronal potentials are true except:
A. Intracellular potential of a neuron is about −60 mV
B. Action potentials contribute to the generation of the extracellular field potentials
C. Postsynaptic potentials contribute to the generation of the extracellular field potentials
D. There is net influx of cations into the neuron with an excitatory postsynaptic potential
E. There is net outflow of cations from the nerve cell with an inhibitory postsynaptic
potential

8. Which of the following is likely during repetitive nerve stimulation in a patient with
myasthenia gravis?
A. Decrease in limb temperature increases compound muscle action potential (CMAP)
decrement
B. Decrease in limb temperature decreases CMAP decrement
C. Increase in limb temperature increases CMAP decrement
D. Increase in limb temperature decreases CMAP decrement
E. Limb temperature has no effect on CMAP decrement

9. Which of the following muscles is innervated by the peroneal nerve above the level of the
fibular head?
A. Semimembranous
B. Semitendinosus
C. Long head of biceps femoris
D. Short head of biceps femoris
E. None of the above

10. All of the following statements about the generation of EEG waveforms are true except:
A. A negative field potential develops at the surface with activation of a superficial excit-
atory synapse
B. A positive field potential develops at the surface with activation of a deep inhibitory
synapse
C. Excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) in the upper dendrites of the neurons sum-
mate to produce depolarization
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY: Questions 3

D. Postsynaptic potentials contribute to the generation of the EEG waveforms


E. Thalamocortical feedback loops modulate the amplitude of EEG waveforms

11. Which of the following ions has a higher concentration inside the cell than outside?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Chloride
E. C and D

12. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the effect of limb temperature on
nerve conduction velocity and latency?
A. Conduction velocity increases and latency increases with drop in temperature
B. Conduction velocity decreases and latency increases with drop in temperature
C. Conduction velocity increases and latency decreases with drop in temperature
D. Conduction velocity decreases and latency decreases with drop in temperature
E. Effect of temperature can be ignored as long as the limb is rewarmed to at least 29°C

13. Abductor pollicis brevis is innervated by the median nerve. The motor fibers for this
innervation come from which of the following roots?
A. C6, C7, C8
B. C7, C8
C. C5, C6, C7
D. C8
E. C8, T1

14. Which of the following is most readily recorded as EEG activity with scalp electrodes?
A. Excitatory activity in the sulcal cortex
B. Excitatory activity in the apical dendrites in cortical layer 2
C. Inhibitory activity in the soma in cortical layer 5
D. B and C
E. A, B, and C

15. Which of the following defines the absolute refractory period?


A. Inactivation of the sodium (Na)+ channels
B. Activation of the sodium (Na)+ channels
C. Activation of the potassium (K)+ channels
D. Inactivation of the chloride (Cl)− channels
E. Activation of the calcium (Ca)+ channels

16. While performing the tibial H reflex, the H wave amplitude decreases with increasing
stimulus intensity because:
A. At higher stimulus intensity, Ia afferent fibers are inhibited
B. At higher stimulus intensity, Ia afferent fibers are excessively activated
C. At higher stimulus intensity, there is increased collision between antidromic motor
stimulus and orthodromic H reflex potentials
D. At higher stimulus intensity, the M response suppresses H waves
E. At higher stimulus intensity, there is synergy between antidromic motor stimulus and
orthodromic H reflex potentials
4 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY: Questions

17. Which of the following statements best describes the paroxysmal depolarization shifts
(PDSs)?
A. They refer to fluctuations of postsynaptic potentials
B. They are characterized by rapid depolarization–repolarization sequences lasting less
than 40 ms
C. They correlate with surface negative direct current (DC) fluctuations at the beginning
of a seizure
D. They reflect the resting activity of the normal hippocampal neurons
E. They reflect the resting activity of the normal cortical pyramidal neurons

18. Which of the following fibers have the slowest conduction velocity?
A. Aa
B. Ab
C. Ag
D. Ad
E. C

19. Which of the following receptor types exerts its effects through the calcium (Ca++) ions?
A. Alpha-amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazolepropionic acid (AMPA)
B. Kainic acid (KA)
C. N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA)
D. Glycine
E. All of the above

20. Which of the following statements is true about the myelinated nerves?
A. Sodium and potassium channels are evenly distributed in the myelinated nerves
B. Increased potassium conductance leads to repolarization in myelinated nerves
C. Myelin reduces membrane capacitance
D. Myelin reduces transmembrane resistance
E. Myelin promotes fast conduction uniformly along the nerve fibers

21. Which of the following statements is true regarding the transmission of action potentials
along myelinated nerves?
A. Transmission is enhanced by increasing the internodal transmembrane capacitance
B. Transmission may fail if the internodal distance is too great
C. Transmission may fail if the internodal myelin thickness is increased
D. Transmission relies on opening of potassium channels in the internodal membrane
E. Transmission is enhanced by decreasing the internodal transmembrane resistance

22. Which of the following is true regarding the sodium–potassium pump?


A. It helps to neutralize the membrane potential
B. It enhances transport of sodium and potassium ions along their concentration gradients
C. It actively transports two sodium ions out of the cell and one potassium ion into
the cell
D. It allows for secondary active transporters to function via the use of the sodium gradient
E. Its function is to remove net negative charge from the intracellular space
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY: Questions 5

23. Which of the following is true regarding volume conductors?


A. They have conductivity but no capacitative properties
B. Different body regions have the same volume conduction
C. Volume conductor models have no effect on source analysis for magnetoencephalog-
raphy (MEG)
D. Volume conduction is mainly based on conductivity in EEG
E. The morphology of motor unit potentials seen during needle electromyography
(EMG) is independent of volume conduction

24. How does the compound muscle action potential morphology change as the recording
electrode is moved farther away from the generator?
A. Latency remains the same
B. Amplitude increases
C. Rise time becomes sharper
D. Polarity tends to become positive
E. There is no change in morphology

25. Abnormal somatosensory evoked potential can be expected after damage to which of the
following structures?
A. Spinothalamic tract
B. Tractus gracilis
C. Superior olivary nucleus
D. Lateral lemniscus
E. Medial geniculate body

26. All of the following statements regarding the neuronal membrane potential are true
except:
A. It is dependent on the differential ionic concentrations across the membrane
B. It is dependent on the permeability of ions across the membrane
C. It is calculated using the Hodgkin–Huxley model
D. It is calculated using the Goldman equation
E. It is close to the Nernst potential for chloride (Cl) ions

27. Which of the following nerve pairs originates directly from the cervical nerve roots?
A. Suprascapular and dorsal scapular nerves
B. Long thoracic and dorsal scapular nerves
C. Suprascapular and subscapular nerves
D. Subscapular and thoracodorsal nerves
E. Long thoracic and thoracodorsal nerves

28. Which of the following is the generator of physiological theta waves?


A. White matter
B. Suprachiasmatic nucleus
C. Hippocampus
D. Thalamic pacemaker cells
E. Temporal neocortex
6 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY: Questions

29. Safety factor at the neuromuscular junction refers to which of the following?
A. Separation of acetylcholine into primary, secondary, and tertiary presynaptic quanta
B. Amplitude of end-plate potential above the threshold value needed to generate muscle
fiber action potential
C. Amplitude of end-plate potential below the threshold value needed to generate
muscle fiber action potential
D. Minimum amplitude of the nerve action potential needed to open presynaptic
calcium channels
E. The minimum number of acetylcholine receptors needed to generate the muscle fiber
action potential

30. Which of the following statements is true regarding the interface between the EEG elec-
trode and the electrolyte paste?
A. It acts as an electrical double layer that impedes current flow
B. It is potentially unstable, causing “pop” artifacts with new electrodes
C. It acts as a half-cell potential that remains stable despite movement of the electrode
D. It prevents development of electrical polarization
E. It becomes highly polarized when a silver–silver chloride interface is used

31. Which of the following waveform morphologies is likely to be seen when there is no
volume conduction?
A. Symmetric monophasic negative potential
B. Asymmetric monophasic negative potential
C. Biphasic potential with an initial positive peak
D. Biphasic potential with a trailing positive peak
E. Triphasic potential with both initial and trailing positive peaks

32. Which thalamic nucleus helps in synchronization of EEG?


A. Reticular nucleus
B. Anterior nucleus
C. Pulvinar
D. Medial geniculate nucleus
E. Centromedian nucleus

33. Stimulation of the median nerve at the wrist with recording from the scalp to obtain
somatosensory evoked potential causes activation in all of the following structures except:
A. Medial and lateral cords of brachial plexus
B. Nucleus cuneatus
C. Lateral lemniscus
D. Medial lemniscus
E. Ventral posterolateral nucleus of thalamus

34. Alpha rhythm is:


A. Restricted to the visual cortex
B. Can be seen in visual, somatosensory, and temporal cortices
C. Neither facilitatory nor inhibitory during attentional processes
D. Generated in the thalamus
E. Generated by the pyramidal neurons in layer VI of the visual cortex
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY: Questions 7

35. Which of the following potentials is considered a standing wave?


A. The motor response seen when stimulating the peroneal nerve above the knee
B. The popliteal fossa potential seen with tibial nerve stimulation at the ankle
C. The sensory response in standard bipolar digit sensory nerve conduction
D. The P37 potential seen when stimulating the posterior tibial nerve
E. The P9 potential seen when stimulating the median nerve

36. Which of the following statements is true about a synapse generating excitatory postsyn-
aptic potentials (EPSPs)?
A. There is inward flow of negative ions into the cell
B. There is a current source at the synapse
C. There is a current sink at the synapse
D. A positive potential is recorded by an electrode in the extracellular space at the
synapse
E. A negative potential is recorded by an electrode in the extracellular space away from
the synapse

37. Which of the following is primarily responsible for the rising phase of the action potential?
A. Gap junctions
B. Voltage-gated sodium channels
C. Voltage-gated potassium channels
D. Voltage-gated calcium channels
E. Sodium–potassium pump

38. Magnetoencephalography (MEG) is a measure of the magnetic fields generated by:


A. Tangential current dipoles
B. Radial current dipoles
C. Tangential and radial current dipoles
D. Cortical current dipoles on the convexity of gyri
E. Summated volume currents

39. Which of the following statements best describes the EEG signal?
A. The action potential contributes to the signal because the spike amplitude decays
rapidly
B. The action potential contributes to the signal because the spike duration is long
(3–4 ms)
C. Postsynaptic potentials are likely to contribute to the signal because they have longer
durations (10–250 ms)
D. The signal recorded at the cortex tends to be of longer duration than the signal recorded
simultaneously at the scalp
E. The signal is unaffected by the characteristics of the moving dipole

40. Delta waves are characterized by all of the following except:


A. They arise from interplay between transient calcium currents and rectifier sodium and
potassium currents in the thalamus
B. They disappear in the cat thalamocortical neurons after decortication
C. They are synchronized by direct intracortical linkages
D. They are synchronized by cortico-thalamo-cortical projections
E. They are synchronized by networks of gap junctions
8 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY: Questions

41. Which of the following is true regarding the relative difference between the intracellular
and extracellular potentials across the membrane?
A. Intracellular polarity is negative during maximal sodium influx
B. Extracellular polarity is more positive during hyperpolarization
C. Intracellular polarity is positive during the resting state
D. Extracellular polarity is negative during the resting state
E. The intracellular and extracellular potentials are isoelectric during the resting state

42. What is the most caudal point where the auditory information is represented bilaterally?
A. Cochlear nucleus
B. Rostral medulla
C. Superior olivary nucleus
D. Inferior colliculus
E. Medial geniculate body

43. Which of the following is not a determinant of ion flow?


A. Concentration gradient
B. Channel conductance
C. Electrical potential
D. Transmembrane resistance
E. Selective permeability

44. All of the following statements about theta activity in the EEG are true except:
A. It is prominently seen in the CA1 hippocampal neurons
B. It is more prominent during spatial navigation tasks
C. It is more frequent during memory processing
D. It is modulated by supramammillary nucleus of the hypothalamus
E. It is felt to be caused by the GABA-mediated inhibitory postsynaptic potentials

45. Which of the following statements is true regarding the chloride ion?
A. Its concentration is similar in both extracellular and intracellular compartments
B. Its equilibrium potential is much lower than the resting membrane potential
C. It is passively transported across the cell membrane
D. It contributes as much as potassium to the resting membrane potential
E. It contributes to excitatory postsynaptic potentials

46. Which of the following muscles is supplied by the accessory peroneal nerve?
A. Peroneus brevis
B. Peroneus tertius
C. Tibialis anterior
D. Tibialis posterior
E. Extensor digitorum brevis

47. Which of the following statements is true regarding glial cells?


A. Their intracellular potential is close to that of sodium (Na) ions
B. They generate postsynaptic potentials
C. They generate small action potentials
D. They depolarize in response to an increase in extracellular potassium concentration
E. They generally dampen extracellular field potentials
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY: Questions 9

48. Which of the following statements is true regarding the voltage-gated sodium channels?
A. They are insensitive to changes in membrane potential
B. They alternate between the resting and active states
C. They close due to changes in calcium conductance
D. They function in a feedforward manner to promote sodium influx
E. They are responsible for the rising phase of the action potential

49. Paroxysmal depolarization shift (PDS) refers to:


A. The rising phase of the action potential
B. A period of time when neurons are hyperpolarized
C. A phenomena that helps to disrupt seizure propagation
D. A wave of cortical depolarization, leading to synchronized neuronal spiking
E. Occurrence of successive action potentials without intervening refractory periods

50. The resting membrane potential of a neuron is typically:


A. –90 mV
B. –70 mV
C. 0
D. +55 mV
E. +70 mV

51. Which of the following statements is true regarding the waveform potential recorded by
an electrode located near the site of depolarization/repolarization sequence in a nerve
situated inside a volume conductor?
A. The site of depolarization acts as a current source
B. The current lines fan away from the site of depolarization
C. The recorded waveform potential is asymmetric
D. The recorded waveform potential is usually monophasic and negative
E. The waveform duration remains the same regardless of the distance between the
electrode and the site of depolarization

52. Which of the following statements is true regarding fast beta–gamma rhythms?
A. They are generated in the subcortical nuclei
B. Gamma oscillations reflect spatial synchronization of cortical areas for information
processing
C. They are mainly associated with decreased levels of alertness
D. There is an increase in beta activity before movement with an increase in gamma
activity after movement
E. They are associated with activity in the pyramidal cells

53. Which of the following statements best describes the EEG activity during sleep?
A. K-complexes become irregular and less frequent with deepening of sleep
B. Spindles are generated by the dorsal nucleus of the thalamus
C. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)ergic neurons underlie generation of sleep
spindles
D. Sleep spindles facilitate transmission of afferent stimuli to the cortex
E. Increased brainstem cholinergic activity underlies the bursting feature of the
spindles
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