AP BIOLOGY Scoring Guide

UNIT 8 MCQ

1. Belding’s ground squirrels (Spermophilus beldingi) live in closely related groups. When they feed in the open,
certain individuals (guard squirrels) watch for predators instead of feeding. The guard squirrels give an alarm call
when a predator is sighted, allowing the rest of the group to run to safety. Researchers have noted that, because the
alarm call draws attention to the guard, the guard is more likely to be caught by the predator and therefore has a
lower survival rate in comparison with the other squirrels.

Which of the following best explains the behavior of the guard squirrels?
The behavior of the guard squirrels increases the survival of close relatives that share the genes of the
(A)
guard squirrels.
The guard squirrels confuse the predator, lowering the predator’s success rate because the predator
(B)
cannot tell which squirrel is producing the sound.
Guard squirrels typically have recessive alleles, and by sacrificing themselves, they lessen the chance
(C)
that recessive alleles will get passed on.
Guard squirrels are typically females who have already reproduced, so they are no longer needed by the
(D)
group.

2.

Figure I shows the growth of an algal species in a flask of sterilized pond water. If phosphate is added as indicated,
the growth curve changes as shown in Figure II.

Which of the following is the best prediction of the algal growth if nitrate is added instead of phosphate?

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UNIT 8 MCQ

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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UNIT 8 MCQ

In the American Southwest, annually emerging cicadas are dependent upon the cottonwood trees in the floodplain. Adult
male cicadas perch in the cottonwood trees and chirp to attract females. Females lay their eggs in the branches of the
cottonwoods, and, upon hatching, the cicada nymphs drop to the ground, burrow into the soil, feed on the tree roots, and
later emerge as adults. Other organisms in the floodplain community prey on the cicadas, as shown in the food web.

Figure 1. Food web in floodplain community

Human activity has caused a decrease in the amount of flooding and an increase in the incidence of wildfires in the
floodplain. In an investigation into the recent changes in the floodplain ecosystem, researchers monitored the soil
temperature, amount of cottonwood ground coverage (i.e., area of the ground that is shaded by leaves), and cicada
emergence for a period from mid-June until late July. The results of the investigation are represented in Figure 2 and
Figure 3.

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UNIT 8 MCQ

To assess the impact of wildfires on soil temperature and cicada emergence, the researchers compared mean emergence
dates for two natural sites where portions had been affected by wildfire. In addition, cicada emergence was monitored at
an experimental site where the soil temperature was experimentally maintained. The data are shown in the table.

MEAN CICADA EMERGENCE DATES AT SITES AFFECTED BY WILDFIRES OR WITH EXPERIMENTALLY

CONTROLLED SOIL TEMPERATURE

3. Which of the following statements best predicts the effect of increased cottonwood growth on the food web?
Increased cottonwood growth will lead to an increase in the number of primary consumers, resulting in
(A)
more competition between kestrels and sparrows for food.
Increased cottonwood growth will decrease the habitat available for lizards, resulting in a decline in the
(B)
number of kestrels.
Increased cottonwood growth will provide more resources for cicadas, resulting in an increase in the
(C)
kestrel population.
Increased cottonwood growth will lead to a large accumulation of dead wood that serves as fuel for
(D)
wildfires, resulting in the collapse of the food web.

4. Based upon the data, which of the following best describes the effect on the timing of cicada emergence if the
cottonwood ground cover decreases from 50 percent to 25 percent?

(A) Cicadas will emerge approximately 10 days earlier.

(B) Cicadas will emerge approximately 2 days earlier.
(C) Cicadas will emerge approximately 10 days later.
(D) Cicadas will emerge approximately 2 days later.

5. Based on the data, which of the following describes the most likely relationship between wildfires, soil temperature,
and the timing of cicada emergence in the same year?
Wildfires caused a reduction in ground cover, which in turn caused increased soil temperatures leading
(A)
to earlier emergence of cicadas.
Wildfires caused an increase in ground cover, which in turn caused increased soil temperatures delaying
(B)
the emergence of cicadas.
Wildfires caused an increase in growth of new plants, which in turn caused a decrease in soil
(C)
temperatures which led to earlier emergence of cicadas.
Wildfires caused a decrease in ground cover, which in turn caused a decrease in soil temperatures
(D)
leading to later emergence of cicadas.

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UNIT 8 MCQ

6. Yellow-billed cuckoos typically hatch in midJuly. Emerging cicadas are a primary food source for nesting cuckoos.
Which of the following best predicts the effect of wildfires on yellow-billed cuckoo populations?
The yellow-billed cuckoo population will decline because the decreased ground cover will allow lizards
(A)
to prey on cuckoo nests.
The yellow-billed cuckoo population will decline because the cicadas will emerge before the hatching
(B)
season begins.
The yellow-billed cuckoo population will grow because the adults will more easily see and eat the
(C)
cicada nymphs.
The yellow-billed cuckoo population will remain unchanged because cuckoos do not nest in areas
(D)
affected by wildfires.

7. The data from the temperature-controlled experimental plots can best be used to support which of the following
conclusions about cicada development?
(A) Adult cicadas lay more eggs when the soil is warmer than when the soil is cooler.
(B) Adult cicadas mate more frequently when the soil is warmer than when the soil is cooler.
(C) Cicada nymphs grow larger in warmer soil than in cooler soil.
(D) Cicada nymphs mature to adults faster in warmer soil than in cooler soil.

8.

The California grunion (Leuresthes tenuis) is a small marine fish that lives in shallow waters near the ocean shore.
Grunions swim as far onto the beach as possible to mate and lay their eggs (spawn).

A researcher proposes that the spawning behavior takes place when the nighttime tides are highest during the
month. Which of the following pieces of evidence would best support the researcher’s claim?

(A) Grunion spawning occurs every two weeks during the spawning season.
(B) Grunion spawning occurs when nighttime illumination levels are the lowest.
(C) High tide occurs one time per lunar cycle.
(D) The light intensity of the moon varies within the lunar cycle.

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UNIT 8 MCQ

9. High concentrations of cadmium in the water negatively affect steelhead trout. In a river community, steelhead trout
are part of the trophic structure shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1. The trophic structure of a river community

Which of the following is the most likely immediate effect of an increase in runoff containing cadmium on the
trophic structure of the river community?
(A) The population of Cladophora will decrease, resulting in an increase in the trout population.
(B) There will be a large decrease in the trout population, resulting in an increase in damselfly nymphs.
Increased stream volume will provide more area for the trout to reproduce, causing a large increase in
(C)
the population of algae.
(D) The population of trout will decrease because the population of damselfly nymphs will decline.

10. Which of the following communities is likely to be most stable?

(A) One where a keystone predator has been removed
(B) One with uniformly spaced vegetation
(C) One with high species diversity
(D) One that lacks decomposers

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UNIT 8 MCQ

The brown anole (Anolis sagrei) is a species of lizard native to Cuba that has been introduced into the southeastern United
States. The range of brown anoles in the United States has been expanding, and they are now competing with native green
anoles (Anolis carolinensis). Some of the characteristics of the green and brown anoles are shown in Table 1.

TABLE 1. CHARACTERISTICS OF TWO ANOLE SPECIES

Limb Length Toe Pad Size

Anole Species Body Length Relative to Relative to Cold Tolerance
Body Length Body Length
A. sagrei
Long Intermediate
(brown anole)
A. carolinensis
Short Very large
(green anole)

A cladogram showing the relationships between some anole species is shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1. Cladogram of some anole species

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UNIT 8 MCQ

11. In anoles, small toe pads are better for gripping irregular surfaces such as the forest floor, and large toe pads are
better for gripping smooth surfaces such as leaves. Based on the data in Table 1, if brown anoles are introduced into
a forest where green anoles currently live, which of the following predictions about the two species is most likely?
Brown anoles will occupy a different area of the forest from green anoles which will minimize
(A)
competition.
(B) Brown anoles will mostly prey on flying insects, and green anoles will prey on worms and grubs.
Brown anoles and green anoles will evolve to have the same size toe pads because they share the same
(C)
niche.
(D) Green anoles are better adapted to the forest habitat and will chase away the introduced brown anoles.

12. Different species of bumblebee compete for flower nectar in their ecosystem. While the flowers vary in the length
of their petals, bumblebees vary in the length of a mouth part called a proboscis. Bumblebees demonstrate a
preference for flowers that correspond to the length of their proboscis. Species with proboscises of similar length
tend to occupy different areas. Species that live in the same area tend to have proboscises of different lengths.

Which of the following best explains the relationship between the different bumblebee species living in the same
area?
(A) The bumblebees have undergone allopatric speciation due to geographic isolation.
(B) The bumblebees have undergone niche partitioning due to competition.
(C) The bumblebees have a mutualistic relationship with other bumblebee species due to natural selection.
(D) The bumblebees have a commensalistic relationship due to the variety of niches that are available.

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UNIT 8 MCQ

Certain reef-building corals contain photosynthetic, symbiotic algae that have the ability to make
dimethylsulphoniopropionate ( ), a chemical involved in the marine sulfur cycle. is released into the
surrounding water, where it is converted to the gas dimethyl sulfide ( ) by microorganisms and enters the
atmosphere. Once in the atmosphere, it triggers the formation of sulfate aerosols, which induce cloud formation and block
sunlight from heating up the water.

The symbiotic algae produce when they are stressed by a high water temperature. If water temperature is too
high, corals will expel the symbiotic algae that produce . Researchers measured the amount of produced
by juvenile and adult coral and their symbionts under normal and thermally stressed conditions. The data are shown in the
graphs in Figure 1.

Figure 1: concentration in juvenile and adult corals and their symbionts in normal and thermally-stressed
conditions. Error bars represent .

The researchers also measured the density of the symbiont as well as the photosynthetic yield in adult corals at the two
temperatures. Photosynthetic yield is an index measure of energy output compared to sunlight energy input in which
larger photosynthetic yield values represent photosynthetic organisms producing more energy.

Figure 2: Variation in symbiont density and photosynthetic yield in adult corals grown in normal and thermally-stressed
conditions. Error bars represent .

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UNIT 8 MCQ

13. Which of the following best describes the effect of temperature on corals’ ability to produce as shown in
Figure 1?
(A) Both juvenile and adult corals produce less at than at .
(B) Both juvenile and adult corals produce less at than at .
(C) The amount of produced over time increases at in juveniles only.
(D) The amount of produced over time increases at in adults only.

14. Which of the following best describes the difference between the total amount of produced by adults
compared to juveniles at the start of the trial?
(A) Adult corals produced times more than juveniles produced.
(B) Adult corals produced times less than juveniles produced.
(C) Adult corals produced times more than juveniles produced.
(D) Adult corals produced times less than juveniles produced.

15. In addition to the effect of temperature on produced by corals and their symbionts, which of the following
relationships is also being considered in this experiment?
(A) Effect of varying light levels and coral species
(B) Effect of additional produced by symbionts and the corals' age
(C) Effect of age and varying light levels
(D) Effect of coral species and additional produced by symbionts

16. Which of the following best explains the result of adult corals being exposed to elevated temperatures for extended
periods?
(A) They are able to obtain more energy from their symbionts because the algae are receiving more light.
They are able to obtain more energy from their symbionts because the efficiency increases slightly over
(B)
time.
(C) They are able to obtain less energy from their symbionts because the algae have been expelled.
They are able to obtain less energy from their symbionts because more is being produced at
(D)
lower temperatures.

17. A massive increase in the growth of a specific species of algae resulted in record-breaking levels of a potentially
dangerous toxin being released into the water. A researcher hypothesizes that the unusual growth of this algal
species was caused by an increase in water temperature. The researcher designs an experiment to test the
hypothesis.

Which of the following is the dependent variable in the researcher’s experiment?

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UNIT 8 MCQ

(A) The growth of the algae

(B) The temperature of the water
(C) The concentration of toxin in the water
(D) The different species of algae growing in the water

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UNIT 8 MCQ

High levels of certain plant nutrients in runoff can lead to rapid growth of algae (an algal bloom) in aquatic ecosystems.
These algal blooms are generally followed by algal death and decomposition, which consumes large amounts of dissolved
oxygen in the water and results in oxygen levels insufficient to support aerobic respiration. This process is known as
eutrophication. The amount of algae present in a body of water can be estimated from the amount of chlorophyll a in a
sample of the water. A researcher studying eutrophication collected samples at different times of the year in a freshwater
ecosystem. The samples were analyzed for total nitrogen and chlorophyll a concentration (Figure 1) as well as total
phosphorus and chlorophyll a concentration (Figure 2).

Figure 1. Amount of chlorophyll a in relation to the amount of total nitrogen

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UNIT 8 MCQ

Figure 2. Amount of chlorophyll a in relation to the amount of total phosphorous

18. Which of the following investigations would enable researchers to test the claim that an increased concentration of
algae has a negative effect on the number of aquatic invertebrates in the ecosystem?
Examining the contents of the digestive tracts of aquatic invertebrates and looking for the presence of
(A)
algae
(B) Examining the growth rate of algae in the absence of aquatic invertebrates
(C) Counting the number of aquatic invertebrates at different concentrations of chlorophyll a in the water
Counting the number of aquatic invertebrates at different concentrations of nitrogen and phosphorus in
(D)
the water

19. Many fish species, such as fathead minnows, release a pheromone when their skin cells are damaged. Researchers
placed pike, a predator of fathead minnows, in a choice chamber and released the minnow pheromone at one end of
the chamber. The researchers observed that the pike oriented themselves toward the end of the chamber where the
pheromone was released.

Which of the following questions will best guide a follow-up investigation about the role of pheromones in locating
prey?
(A) How do pike determine that the fathead minnow pheromone is present in the water?
(B) Why do pike prey on fathead minnows?
(C) Do pike have natural predators in the environment?
(D) Do pike release pheromones that are detected by fathead minnows?

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UNIT 8 MCQ

20.

The food web represented above does not include bacteria and fungi. Which of the following best describes a
consequence of having no bacteria and fungi in the food web?

(A) Grasses will have no direct access to chemical components recycled from dead organisms.
(B) Rabbits will have no direct access to energy absorbed from secondary consumers.
(C) Shrews will have no direct access to matter transferred from tertiary consumers.
(D) Hawks will have no direct access to nitrogen acquired from the atmosphere.

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UNIT 8 MCQ

21. The following is a food web for a meadow habitat that occupies 25.6 km2. The primary producers’ biomass is
uniformly distributed throughout the habitat and totals 1,500 kg/km2.

Developers have approved a project that will permanently reduce the primary producers’ biomass by 50 percent and
remove all rabbits and deer.

Which of the following is the most likely result at the completion of the project?
(A) The biomass of coyotes will be 6 kg, and the biomass of hawks will be 0.5 kg.
(B) The biomass of coyotes will be dramatically reduced.
(C) The coyotes will switch prey preferences and outcompete the hawks.
(D) There will be 50 percent fewer voles and 90 percent fewer hawks.

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UNIT 8 MCQ

22.

Which of the following changes to the environment will most likely lead to more energy entering the meadow
community represented above?
(A) Increasing the number of nesting sites for hawks and owls
(B) Removing squirrels from the area
(C) Increasing the light available to the plants
(D) Applying a chemical pesticide that is specific for spiders

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UNIT 8 MCQ

Researchers investigated the habitat preferences of two species of garter snakes, Thamnophis sirtalis and Thamnophis
atratus. To create a choice chamber, the researchers built a meshed enclosure and positioned one end of the enclosure at
the edge of a small pond. Zone I of the enclosure was located in the water, whereas zone IV of the enclosure was located
2–3 meters away from the water, as represented in the figure below. Snakes inside the enclosure were able to move freely
between zones.

In a series of experiments, the researchers introduced a single snake into zone IV of the enclosure at 7:00 A.M. The
researchers recorded the location of the snake at six time points throughout the day. In a related experiment, the
researchers introduced two snakes, one of each species, into the enclosure at the same time and observed the location of
each of the two snakes at the same six time points as before. The researchers repeated both the one-snake and two-snake
experiments using different individual snakes of each species. The results are presented in the table.

23. Based on the data in the table, which of the following best describes the habitat preference of T. atratus when
introduced alone inside the meshed enclosure?

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UNIT 8 MCQ

(A) T. atratus exhibited equal preferences for all four zones.

(B) T. atratus exhibited a preference for the zones in or near water.
(C) T. atratus exhibited a preference for the zones most distant from the water.
(D) T. atratus exhibited a preference to remain within the zone in which it was initially introduced.

24. Based on the data in the table, which of the following best predicts the results of a study in which natural
populations of T. atratus and T. sirtalis are observed together in an environment that includes a freshwater pond?
(A) Neither T. atratus nor T. sirtalis will be observed near the water.
(B) T. atratus will be observed near the water whether or not T. sirtalis is present.
(C) T. sirtalis will be observed near the water whether or not T. atratus is present.
(D) T. atratus and T. sirtalis will be observed together near the water.

25. Which of the following additions to the experimental design will best help test whether the observed habitat
preferences were the result of competition between species?

(A) Placing two individuals from the same population together inside the enclosure
(B) Introducing different types of plants into the enclosure together with the snakes
(C) Doubling the number of repetitions for the experimental treatment with T. atratus alone
(D) Repeating the investigation with an enclosure that is twice as long as the original

26. The researchers discovered that both species of garter snakes feed almost exclusively on amphibians found in or
near the pond. Based on the results of the investigation, which of the following is most likely to occur if the
amphibians become a limited source of food?
(A) Individuals of T. atratus will no longer prefer to be near the water.
(B) T. sirtalis will shift its food preference to herbivory.
(C) The reproduction rate of T. sirtalis will increase.
(D) The population size of T. atratus will decrease.

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UNIT 8 MCQ

A student placed 20 tobacco seeds of the same species on moist paper towels in each of two petri dishes. Dish A was
wrapped completely in an opaque cover to exclude all light. Dish B was not wrapped. The dishes were placed equidistant
from a light source set to a cycle of 14 hours of light and 10 hours of dark. All other conditions were the same for both
dishes. The dishes were examined after 7 days and the opaque cover was permanently removed from dish A. Both dishes
were returned to the light and examined again at 14 days. The following data were obtained.

27. The most probable cause for the difference in mean stem length between plants in dish A and plants in dish B is
which of the following?
(A) Shortening of cells in the stem in response to the lack of light
(B) Elongation of seedlings in response to the lack of light
(C) Enhancement of stem elongation by light
(D) Genetic differences between the seeds

28. The area covered by tropical rain forest is reduced by millions of hectares per year due to agriculture and logging.
Which of the following best describes a likely result of tropical rain forest deforestation?
Populations of plants and animals will decrease as more rain forest disappears, leading to a decrease in
(A)
biodiversity.
(B) An increase of soil moisture will lead to a rapid increase in new vegetation coverage.
An increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide will lead to higher levels of ultraviolet radiation reaching the
(C)
surface of Earth.
(D) More oxygen will be available to other organisms as plant numbers decrease.

29. Hydrangea macrophylla is a species of plant with blue or pink flowers. Flower color in Hydrangea macrophylla
plants is thought to be determined primarily by soil conditions rather than by inherited differences. Which of the
following will provide the most direct evidence that flower color in Hydrangea macrophylla is due primarily to soil
conditions?

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UNIT 8 MCQ

Comparing DNA sequence information for Hydrangea macrophylla to DNA sequence information for a
(A)
different species of flowering plant
Performing a genetic cross between a pink-flowered plant and a blue-flowered plant and then
(B)
determining the ratio of phenotypes in the offspring
Growing cuttings from the same Hydrangea macrophylla plant under controlled conditions that vary
(C)
only with regard to soil pH
Analyzing fossilized remains of an ancestral species that grew in geographic areas similar to the habitats
(D)
of modern Hydrangea macrophylla

30. Wolves, once native to Yellowstone National Park, were hunted to the point of complete extinction in the park. As a
result, the elk population in the park flourished, putting extra demands on the carrying capacity of the park. Many
other species, such as certain trees and beavers, were negatively affected by the increase in elk.

Years later, wolves were reintroduced into the park. While the elk population decreased after the wolves returned,
the beaver and songbird populations began to increase as did the populations of various plant species.

Which of the following best explains how wolves are a keystone species in this ecosystem?
Wolves help balance the population sizes of other species, allowing more species to thrive in the
(A)
wolves’ presence than in their absence.
Wolves prey on certain species, increasing competition among other species, which results in a decrease
(B)
in biodiversity in the ecosystem.
Wolves are not affected by factors that typically limit the population size; therefore their population can
(C)
grow exponentially, increasing the demand on the parks’ resources.
Wolves prey on other species without having any natural predators themselves; therefore their presence
(D)
significantly decreases many populations within the community.

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UNIT 8 MCQ

31.

Figure 1. Key physiological points in the human sleep-wake cycle

The human sleep-wake cycle is regulated by melatonin. The synthesis of melatonin is regulated by light exposure
(Figure 1). The human body typically develops a sleep-wake rhythm that does not respond quickly to change.

Long-term exposure to extended periods of bright light after sunset is most likely to affect a person in which of the
following ways?
(A) Melatonin synthesis will be increased, and the entire sleep-wake cycle will be shifted by several hours.
(B) Melatonin synthesis will be increased, and the person will quickly fall asleep.
(C) Melatonin synthesis will be inhibited, and the person will have difficulty sleeping.
(D) Melatonin synthesis will be inhibited, and the person will quickly fall asleep.

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UNIT 8 MCQ

In an investigation of interspecies competition, researchers grew the unicellular protozoan Paramecium aurelia in a 5 mL
culture and Paramecium caudatum in a separate 5 mL culture. P. aurelia and P. caudatum were grown together in a third
5 mL culture. Each day a small sample of each culture was removed so the total number of individuals could be estimated,
and the remainder of the population was transferred to fresh growth medium. The experimental results are represented in
the graphs below.

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UNIT 8 MCQ

32. Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the results of the experiment?

(A) Neither population grows as large when cultured together as each does when cultured separately.
(B) P. caudatum prefers different food when cultured with P. aurelia than when cultured separately.
Competition for mates increases when the species are cultured together compared with when they are
(C)
cultured separately.
Individuals of the species P. caudatum are smaller when cultured together with P. aurelia than when
(D)
cultured separately.

33. The difference in carrying capacity between the two species when cultured separately is closest to which of the
following values?
(A) 0 individuals per 5.0 mL
(B) 60 individuals per 5.0 mL
(C) 150 individuals per 5.0 mL
(D) 350 individuals per 5.0 mL

34. Which of the following statements best justifies the use of the experimental results in an investigation of
interspecies competition?
When two populations use different sources of energy, one of the populations will thrive in a shared
(A)
environment and the other will become extinct.
When two populations use the same sources of energy, resource availability in a shared environment
(B)
limits the growth of both populations.
Because the change in entropy of a system containing two different species is always positive,
(C)
populations typically grow faster in shared environments.
Because the free energy of a system containing two different species is always negative, populations that
(D)
utilize similar resources cannot coexist in nature.

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UNIT 8 MCQ

35. If the mixed populations were cultured for an additional 25 days, which of the following predictions would be
consistent with the data?
(A) Both populations would stabilize at a small size.
(B) Both populations would stabilize at a large size.
(C) Both populations would be eliminated from the culture.
One population would stabilize at a large size, and the other population would be eliminated from the
(D)
culture.

36. Based on the experimental results, which of the following statements best describes the relationship of the two
populations that were studied in the investigation?
The populations have a parasitic relationship in which one species requires the presence of the other to
(A)
reproduce.
The populations have a symbiotic relationship in which both species require the presence of the other to
(B)
reproduce.
The populations have a competitive relationship in which each species limits the ability of the other to
(C)
reproduce.
The populations have a predator/prey relationship in which one species positively influences the ability
(D)
of the other to reproduce.

37. Mosquitoes are frequently a target of insect control strategies because of their ability to spread disease. One strategy
is to introduce guppies, a type of freshwater fish, into areas where mosquitoes are a problem. Guppies can consume
large numbers of mosquito larvae, which cuts down on the number of mosquitoes living to adulthood.

Researchers assessing the effectiveness of the guppy solution are concerned that the introduction of guppies might
cause more problems than it is fixing. Guppies are hardy, tolerant of a wide range of environmental conditions, and
fast-reproducing.

Which of the following predicts the most likely ecological problem that would occur if guppies are introduced into
new areas to control the mosquito population?
The guppies might have no natural predators, which will result in a dramatic increase in the guppy
(A)
population and an increase in competition for other native species.
(B) The guppy population will likely evolve to consume another food source instead of the mosquito larvae.
(C) The larvae will evolve a mechanism that will enable them to avoid predation from the guppies.
Predators in the area will consume the guppies, requiring the addition of more guppies on a regular
(D)
basis.

38. Which of the following observations best represents a mutualistic relationship?

(A) Some bacteria and fungi obtain their nutrients by enzymatically digesting larger organisms.
(B) Chloroplasts in green algae provide sugars for use in cellular metabolism.
(C) Hermit crabs utilize empty sea snail shells to protect themselves from predators.
(D) Flowers produce nectar that bees gather to make honey, and in the process the bees pollinate the flowers.

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UNIT 8 MCQ

A student is investigating photosynthesis in plants. The student planted grass seeds in a tray with three sections and grew
the grass under artificial lights for days (Figure 1). After days, the student collected all of the grass from section
and recorded its mass (Table 1). The student then placed a clear cover over section and placed an aluminum foil cover
over section (Figure 2). The student then placed the tray back under the artificial lights for seven additional days. On
day , the student collected and measured the mass of the grass from sections and (Table 1).

TABLE 1. MASS OF GRASS GROWN IN EACH SECTION

Section Day Mass was Measured Mass ( )

14 5.1
21 9.6
21 4.2

39. Based on the data, which of the following is the best approximation of the rate of growth per week in section
from day to day ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

40. Which of the following best explains the observed difference in mass between the grass in section after days
and the grass in section after days?

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UNIT 8 MCQ

(A) The grass in section required more energy for metabolic processes than the grass in section .
(B) The grass in section performed more photosynthesis than the grass in section .
(C) Only the grass in section used energy from the seed for growth and development.
(D) Mass lost by cell respiration in section was not replaced by photosynthesis.

41. Based on the data, which of the following is the most likely effect of a period of increased volcanic activity that
significantly decreases the amount of sunlight reaching a particular ecosystem for several years?
There will be a decrease in the population sizes of most species and a decrease in the number of trophic
(A)
levels.
The population sizes of plant species will stay the same, but the average biomass of individual plants
(B)
will increase.
There will be an increase in the population sizes of omnivores because they can eat other animals
(C)
instead of the plants.
The biodiversity of the ecosystem will increase as new niches arise and become occupied by new
(D)
species.

42. Which of the following is an appropriate null hypothesis for the student’s experiment?
(A) The absence of light negatively affects the mass of the grass.
(B) An increase in light promotes grass growth.
(C) A change in light intensity changes the rate of grass growth.
(D) The presence of light has no effect on the mass of the grass.

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43.

Figure 1. Change in the population size of sea lions over time. Error bars represent .

Which of the following best estimates the population size of the sea lions in 2000 based on the data shown in Figure
1?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

44. Prairie dogs are small mammals that live in large colonies in burrows in the ground. Prairie dogs that are near their
own relatives when a predator approaches are much more likely to issue a warning bark than those that are near
unrelated prairie dogs. The prairie dogs that hear a warning bark are more likely to hide in their burrows than to
remain above ground. However, the prairie dog that gives the warning bark is putting itself at increased risk of
being identified and killed by the predator.

Which of the following presents the most likely evolutionary explanation for the behaviors described?
The warning bark changes the behavior of the related prairie dogs nearby, allowing the prairie dog’s
(A)
family to have increased survival and reproductive success.
The barking prairie dog chooses to warn other prairie dogs, leading to more prairie dogs living above
(B)
ground.
The barking prairie dog is alerting unrelated prairie dogs to the predator, so it is not giving any
(C)
advantage to its own relatives.
The failure of the individual to bark when surrounded by unrelated prairie dogs ensures survival of the
(D)
individual.

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45. The graph below shows a model of population changes over time in a predator and its prey.

Which of the following data would be most helpful in predicting possible disruptions to the relationship between the
predator and its prey?
(A) Time of day, because as days become shorter, nighttime hunting increases
(B) Average birth weight of predators, because heavier offspring will begin hunting at younger ages
(C) Numbers of additional predator species, because additional predators will increase competition for prey
(D) Prey metabolic rates, because predators are less successful against prey with higher metabolic rates

46. Scientists studying a wild population of mantled howler monkeys found the average birth rate to be and the
average death rate to be . At the start of the study, the population consisted of monkeys.

Assuming no immigration or emigration, which of the following best describes the change in population size that
will occur over the next year?
(A) The population size will decrease because a population of is too small to sustain itself.
(B) The population will decrease because more monkeys are dying each year than are being born.
The population will increase exponentially because it is so small that there are likely few competitors
(C)
and abundant resources.
(D) The population will increase because more monkeys are being born each year than are dying.

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UNIT 8 MCQ

To investigate the influence of predation risk on ray behavior, a student observed and counted the large marine animals
swimming in a shallow, nearshore section of a coral reef ecosystem. The time of each observation was recorded relative to
the time of high tide. The student noted that at low tide, when the water level is low, many of the large animals are forced
out of the study area and into the deeper waters of the outer reef. During high tides, when the water level is high, the large
animals are able to reenter the study area.

Over a three-day period, the student observed a total of 604 individual rays belonging to three species: cowtail rays, giant
shovelnose rays, and black stingrays. For each ray that was sighted, its body length was estimated and its status as either
alone (ungrouped) or found with other rays (grouped) was noted. Occasionally, rays were observed sifting through the
sandy substrate of the study area to capture food items such as molluscs and crustaceans. In one instance, an injured ray
with bite marks that were likely sustained in a shark attack was sighted. In addition to the rays, the student observed
lemon sharks (n = 46) and blacktip reef sharks (n = 39). The results of the study are presented in the figures below.

Figure 1. Comparison of mean body lengths of the grouped and ungrouped rays that were observed in a nearshore section
of a coral reef ecosystem. Error bars represent 2SEx̄

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Figure 2. Mean numbers of rays per group in the study area at different stages of the tide cycle. High tide occurs at T = 0
hours.

Figure 3. Relative proportions of rays in groups at different stages of the tide cycle for each of the three different
populations. High tide occurs at T = 0 hours.

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UNIT 8 MCQ

Figure 4. Mean numbers of lemon sharks and blacktip reef sharks in the study area at different stages of the tide cycle.
High tide occurs at T = 0 hours.

47. Which of the following scientific claims about the survival strategies used by organisms in a coral reef ecosystem is
best supported by the data presented in Figure 1?

(A) Smaller members of a vulnerable population are more likely to act collectively.
(B) Smaller members of a vulnerable population are more likely to rely on defensive coloration.
(C) Larger members of a vulnerable population are more likely to exhibit aggression.
(D) Larger members of a vulnerable population are more likely to behave altruistically.

48. Based on the data presented in Figure 2, which of the following behavioral patterns do rays in a coral reef
ecosystem typically exhibit three hours before high tide?
(A) Group learning
(B) Mate selection
(C) Solitary foraging
(D) Social interaction

49. Which of the following scientific claims about interacting populations of giant shovelnose rays and blacktip reef
sharks is best supported by the results shown in Figures 3 and 4?
(A) Some parasitic species cause significant changes in the behavior of their hosts.
(B) Some invasive species outcompete native species for limited resources.
(C) Some migratory species transmit infectious diseases to resident populations.
(D) Some prey species form protective groups in the presence of predators.

50. Which of the following best justifies the use of the study area to investigate how one species influences the behavior
of another?

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(A) Black stingrays were present in the study area in the presence and absence of blacktip reef sharks.
(B) Giant shovelnose rays and cowtail rays spent long periods of time at rest while inside the study area.
Natural barriers in the study area prevented lemon sharks from competing with blacktip reef sharks for
(C)
limited resources.
Cowtail rays in the study area formed groups at some stages of the tide cycle but remained alone at other
(D)
stages.

51. Based on the results of the study, which of the following is the most likely connection between behavior and
evolutionary fitness in a nearshore coral reef environment?
Rays that search for food alone at low tide typically grow to larger sizes than do rays that search for food
(A)
in groups.
Rays that join groups during rising tides are reproductively more successful than are rays that do not join
(B)
groups.
Rays that swim far from shore at high tide often encounter a greater variety of species than do rays that
(C)
remain near the shore.
Rays that roam across large distances during falling tides become stronger swimmers than do rays that
(D)
spend more time at rest.

An experiment to measure the rate of respiration in crickets and mice at 10oC and 25oC was performed using a
respirometer, an apparatus that measures changes in gas volume. Respiration was measured in mL of O2 consumed per
gram of organism over several five-minute trials and the following data were obtained.

52. According to the data, the crickets at 25oC have greater oxygen consumption per gram of tissue than do the crickets
at 10oC. This trend in oxygen consumption is the opposite of that in the mice. The difference in trends in oxygen
consumption among crickets and mice is due to their
(A) relative size
(B) mode of nutrition
(C) mode of internal temperature regulation
(D) mode of ATP production

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UNIT 8 MCQ

Sea otters are native to the western coast of North America. Between 1750 and 1850, hunting had reduced the population
from hundreds of thousands to only one thousand individuals. In the early 1900s, a small population of sea otters was
discovered in Elkhorn Slough, an estuary in central California near a large human population center. The otters were then
protected by the international fur seal treaty, which banned sea otter hunting. The sea otter population has rebounded to
nearly three thousand individuals today.

Otters live in kelp forests and eelgrass beds and feed on crabs and shellfish (Figure 1). Most herbivores in the habitat eat
algae that grows on the eelgrass and not the eelgrass itself. If there is too much algae, the eelgrass does not receive enough
light for photosynthesis. As the otter population has increased, the eelgrass habitat has increased.

Figure 1. Partial food chain in eelgrass habitats

Recently, however, scientists have noticed the presence of two nonnative, predatory invertebrate species that may be
colonizing the Elkhorn Slough, which would have been too cold for them three decades ago. Scientists have also observed
that otters in the area are experiencing increased mortality because of an increase in harmful algal blooms, which occur as
a result of nutrient pollution. The harmful algae are ingested by shellfish, which the otters eat.

53. Based on the information provided in the passage, which of the following best describes the effect of harmful algal
blooms on otter populations?

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(A) They are a density-dependent factor that increases otter mortality in larger populations.
(B) They are a density-dependent factor that reduces otter numbers at lower population sizes.
(C) They are a density-independent factor that negatively affects the otter population regardless of its size.
(D) They are a density-independent factor that increases otter mortality in only larger populations.

54. As otters were removed during the hunting years, there was a large decrease in the catches of fish species from the
eelgrass habitats. Which of the following best explains why this decrease happened?
Otters are a keystone species, so their disappearance from the area affected the population size of one
(A)
other species.
Otters are a keystone species, so their disappearance from the area resulted in the collapse of an entire
(B)
community.
Otters have mutualistic relationships with many other species, so their disappearance from the area
(C)
affected the population size of another species.
Otters have mutualistic relationships with many other species, so their disappearance from the area
(D)
resulted in the collapse of an entire ecosystem.

55. Climate change could affect the ecosystem of the Elkhorn Slough in many ways. From the information provided,
which of the following predictions about the direct, local effects of climate change is most likely?
(A) Ocean warming will favor population growth of nonnative species as their habitats shift northward.
Ocean warming will decrease eelgrass habitat area as a result of increased herbivory by nonnative
(B)
species.
Harmful algal blooms will decrease otter populations as a result of increased mortality of otter prey
(C)
species.
(D) Harmful algal blooms will decrease the availability of nutrients for eelgrass and other algae species.

56. Based on the information, an increase in the sea slug population would most likely be directly related to which of
the following?
(A) An increase in the eelgrass population
(B) The introduction of nonnative invertebrates
(C) A decrease in algae availability
(D) A decrease in the crab population

57. Which of the following statements most directly supports the claim that different species of organisms use different
metabolic strategies to meet their energy requirements for growth, reproduction, and homeostasis?
During cold periods pond-dwelling animals can increase the number of unsaturated fatty acids in their
(A)
cell membranes while some plants make antifreeze proteins to prevent ice crystal formation in tissues.
(B) Bacteria lack introns while many eukaryotic genes contain many of these intervening sequences.
Carnivores have more teeth that are specialized for ripping food while herbivores have more teeth that
(C)
are specialized for grinding food.
(D) Plants generally use starch molecules for storage while animals use glycogen and fats for storage.

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58.

One model of a sustainable fisheries practice is for individual fish to be removed from a natural population at a rate
equal to the highest possible growth rate of an ideal population. The graph above represents a population of bluefin
tuna living along the Atlantic coast. At which labeled point in the graph is the population growth rate the highest?
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV

59. Pitcher plants are carnivorous plants that grow in areas where the soil contains low levels of key nutrients such as
nitrogen. To obtain these nutrients, most pitcher plants capture prey using traps containing a digestive fluid. The
captured prey are then broken down and digested, and the pitcher plant absorbs the nutrients.

The traps of one species of pitcher plant, Nepenthes hemsleyana, do not contain digestive fluid. Instead they provide
a suitable place for woolly bats (Kerivoula hardwickii) to sleep. The feces from the bat are released into the trap
where nutrients in the feces are absorbed and provide the plant with the nitrogen it needs.

Which of the following best describes the relationship between the pitcher plant and the woolly bat?
(A) The relationship is an example of parasitism because the bat is harmed while the plant benefits.
(B) The relationship is an example of mutualism because both the plant and the bat benefit.
(C) The relationship is an example of commensalism because the plant benefits but the bat is unaffected.
(D) The relationship is an example of commensalism because the plant is unaffected while the bat benefits.

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60.

Testosterone oxido-reductase is a liver enzyme that regulates testosterone levels in alligators. One study compared
testosterone oxido-reductase activity between male and female alligators from Lake Woodruff, a relatively pristine
environment, and from Lake Apopka, an area that has suffered severe contamination. The graph above depicts the
findings of that study.

The data in the graph best support which of the following claims?
(A) Environmental contamination elevates total testosterone oxido-reductase activity in females.
(B) Environmental contamination reduces total testosterone oxido-reductase activity in females.
(C) Environmental contamination elevates total testosterone oxido-reductase activity in males.
(D) Environmental contamination reduces total testosterone oxido-reductase activity in males.

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UNIT 8 MCQ

61.

The graph above represents the proportions of hatchlings of certain types of reptiles that are male at different egg
incubation temperatures. Which of the following claims is best supported by the data?

(A) The expression of sex-determination genes in certain reptiles is influenced by temperature.

(B) Green turtle eggs do not hatch at temperatures above 35°C.
(C) In reptiles, sex determination is influenced by the sex ratio of the existing population.
(D) Incubating lizard eggs at constant low temperatures produces a large proportion of males.

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62.

The diagram above shows the progression of ecological events after a fire in a particular ecosystem. Based on the
diagram, which of the following best explains why the oak trees are later replaced by other trees?
Eventually the other trees grow taller than the oak trees and form a dense canopy that shades the
(A)
understory.
(B) Oak trees alter the pH of the soil, making the forest better suited for shrubs and other trees.
(C) Roots of shrubs proliferate in the soil of the forest and prevent the oak trees from obtaining water.
(D) Oak trees succumb to environmental pollutants more readily than do either the shrubs or the other trees.

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