Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 26

SBI CLERK MAINS-2025

MODEL TEST - 26
GENERAL AWARENESS
1. The Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Unnat Gram Abhiyan (PM-JUGA), launched on 2

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October 2024, aims to transform tribal-majority villages across India through
improved infrastructure, livelihood, healthcare, and cultural preservation. What
is the total approved outlay and implementation period of this flagship scheme?
1) Rs.75,256 crore for 2024–28 2) Rs.79,156 crore for 2024–29
3) Rs.82,456 crore for 2024–30
ha
4) Rs.69,356 crore for 2024–28 5) Rs.85,106 crore for 2025–30
2. Among the new RBI digital payment initiatives, the “UPI Reserve Pay” feature

E
allows users to block and manage credit limits for specific merchant or UPI app
transactions, enhancing fund security and targeted usage. Under which event
was this feature launched?
d
1) Digital India Week 2025 2) National Payments Conference 2025
3) Global Fintech Festival 2025
ee

4) India Fintech Summit 20255) RBI Annual Monetary Policy Meet 2025
3. SBI’s flagship digital platform YONO reports about 10 million daily active users,
reflecting the bank’s “Digital First, Consumer First” strategy. What is the full
C
form of YONO in SBI’s digital ecosystem?
1) You One Need One 2) Your Own Need One
Sr

3) You Only New One 4) You Only Need One 5) You Own New One
4. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to give banks a 4-year glide path till
March 31, 2031, starting April 1, 2027, to transition from the ‘incurred loss’
framework to the ‘expected credit loss (ECL)’ framework. Which types of banks
will not be covered under the ECL norms?
1) All Scheduled Commercial Banks 2) SFBs, PBs, RRBs, and AIFIs
3) Private Sector Banks
C
4) Foreign Banks operating in India 5) Public Sector Banks (PSBs)
5. Which Indian university emerged as the top-ranked institution in the Times
Higher Education (THE) World University Rankings 2026, and in what rank band
was it placed?
1) Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay, 151-200 rank band
2) Indian Institute of Science (IIS3) Bangalore, 201-250 rank band
3) Banaras Hindu University (BHU), 301-350 rank band
4) University of Delhi, 251-300 rank band
5) Saveetha Institute of Medical and Technical Sciences, 351-400 rank band
6. The Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment organized the Dr. Ambedkar National
Merit Awards 2025 to honour meritorious Scheduled Caste (SC) and Scheduled
Tribe (ST) students of Class 10 and 12. What is the one-time cash award given to
the first-rank student under this scheme?
1) Rs.50,000 2) Rs.40,000 3) Rs.45,000 4) Rs.60,000 5) Rs.55,000

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7. Five additional states — Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and

Jammu & Kashmir — are set to implement multipurpose digital IDs for farmers
under a flagship government scheme to enhance agricultural data management
and targeted policy delivery. These unique digital IDs, linked dynamically to
state land records and Aadhaar, are officially known as:
1) Kisan Parichay Patra 2) Kisan Samman Card
3) Kisan Pehchaan Patra 4) Krishi Pehchan Card 5) Agri-ID Pass
8. The Maharatna status is granted to Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)
that meet specific financial and operational criteria. Which of the following
conditions is not a requirement for attaining Maharatna status?

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1) Net profit of over Rs.5,000 crore for three consecutive years
2) Average annual turnover of Rs.25,000 crore for the last three years
3) Average annual net worth of Rs.15,000 crore for the last three years
4) Compulsory government shareholding above 75%
5) The company must already have Navratna status and be listed on an Indian

9.
stock exchange
ha
Which team won the 2025-26 Duleep Trophy title after defeating South Zone at
the BCCI Centre of Excellence in Bengaluru?

10.

E
1) Central Zone 2) South Zone 3) North Zone 4) West Zone 5) East Zone
Which bank has been authorized by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as an Agency
d
Bank to collect GST payments, becoming the only wholly-owned subsidiary in
India to receive this approval from the RBI?
1) HSBC India 2) Standard Chartered Bank India
ee

3) Citibank India 4) DBS Bank India 5) Deutsche Bank India

11. The Labour Bureau’s revised CPI-AL/RL series, with base year 2019, aims to
better capture rural inflation by expanding coverage and updating the consumption
C
basket. Which of the following changes is incorrect regarding this new series?
1) Coverage now includes 34 states/UTs and 787 villages
Sr

2) Basket size expanded to 150–200 items from the earlier 65–106

3) Increased weight for protein-rich items such as meat and fish
4) Reduced share of food items in the overall weight
5) Removal of health-related expenditure from the index
12. According to the World Air Transport Statistics (WATS) 2024 released by the
International Air Transport Association (IATA), what is India’s rank in the global
C
aviation market based on the total number of air passengers handled?
1) 3rd 2) 4th 3) 5th 4) 6th 5) 7th
13. Priority Sector Lending is an important role given by the Reserve Bank of India to
the banks for providing a specified portion of the bank lending to few specific
sectors. Which of the following is not a category under Priority Sector Lending?
1) Social Infrastructure 2) Export
3) Renewable Energy 4) Housing 5) Business
14. Smriti Mandhana became the fastest Indian (male or female) to score an ODI
century during the third ODI against Australia at Arun Jaitley Stadium, New
Delhi. How many balls did she take to reach her century?
1) 45 2) 50 3) 52 4) 55 5) 60
15. According to the decadal economic performance report by the Comptroller and
Auditor General of India (CAG), 16 states earned more than they spent in FY
2023. Which state recorded the highest revenue surplus of Rs 37,000 crore?
1) Gujarat 2) Karnataka 3) Uttar Pradesh 4) Odisha 5) Jharkhand

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16. Under the revised RBI guidelines for FY26, what is the total Rupee-denominated
limit for FPI investment in corporate bonds during the second half of the fiscal
year (October 2025 – March 2026)?
1) Rs.7.50 trillion 2) Rs.8.22 trillion
3) Rs.8.50 trillion 4) Rs.8.80 trillion 5) Rs.9.10 trillion
17. Which organisation has been recognised by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as
the first Self-Regulatory Organisation (SRO) for the FinTech sector (SRO-FT) in
India, requiring a minimum net worth of Rs.2 crore?
1) FIMMDA 2) DLAI 3) PCI 4) IAMAI 5) FACE
18. According to the Global Peace Index (GPI) 2025 released by the Institute for

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Economics and Peace, what is India’s rank and peace score among 163 countries?
1) 110th rank with a score of 2.100 2) 112th rank with a score of 2.150
3) 115th rank with a score of 2.229
4) 117th rank with a score of 2.300 5) 120th rank with a score of 2.350
19. In 2025, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) introduced two key
ha
digital initiatives aimed at strengthening investor protection and ensuring secure
fund transfers during market transactions. Which of the following correctly names
these initiatives?

E
1) SecurePay UPI and SEBI Guard 2) Verified Investor UPI and SEBI Secure
3) Protected UPI IDs and Investor Verify
d
4) Trusted Pay Handles and Market Check
5) Validated UPI Handles and SEBI Check
20. India launched the first-of-its-kind “National Red List Assessment” initiative during
ee

the IUCN World Conservation Congress held at Abu Dhabi to fulfil commitments
under which global biodiversity frameworks?
1) The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna
C
and Flora (CITES) and the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
2) Paris Climate Agreement and Global Green Growth Initiative.
Sr

3) UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration and Global Biodiversity Vision 2050

4) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and Kunming-Montreal Global
Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF)
5) Ramsar Convention and UNFCCC Adaptation Framework
21. With reference to the “Code of Conduct and Discipline” under the SANKALP 2.0
framework for Microfinance Institutions (MFIs), consider the following statements:
C
I) No loan shall be sanctioned to a client who is in default of more than 60 days
with any lender and whose outstanding amount exceeds Rs.3,000.
II) The PAN card shall be used as the primary identification document for both
KYC and credit bureau reporting.
III) All microfinance clients must mandatorily submit their PAN card before loan
disbursement.
IV) An aspirational target of 30% PAN coverage across MFI borrowers has been
set for the financial year-end, on a best-effort basis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1) Only I and II 2) Only I, II, and IV 3) Only II and III
4) Only I and III 5) All I, II, III, and IV
22. As per the Reserve Bank of India (Settlement of Claims in respect of Deceased
Customers of Banks) Directions, 2025, banks must now settle claims on deceased
customers’ accounts and lockers within what maximum time frame?
1) 7 days 2) 10 days 3) 15 days 4) 20 days 5) 30 days

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23. Which Indian defence manufacturing firm has secured a $1.2 million (Rs.10.52
crore) export contract from Elbit Systems Land to supply a ship-mounted universal
rocket launcher mechanical and hydraulic kit?
1) Bharat Dynamics Limited 2) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
3) Larsen & Toubro Defence 4) Bharat Electronics Limited 5) NIBE Limited
24. The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) recently signed a five-year
umbrella agreement with which institution to enhance Aadhaar’s robustness
and security through data-driven innovations?
1) IIT Bombay 2) Indian Statistical Institute 3) IIM Bangalore
4) National Informatics Centre 5) IIIT Hyderabad

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25. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the credit growth and deposit
trends of private-sector banks in FY25 as per RBI data?
1) Private-sector banks recorded a credit growth of over 15% in FY25, maintaining
the previous years’ trend.
ha
2) The share of female borrowers in total individual credit decreased between
March 2020 and March 2025.
3) The share of savings deposits in total liabilities increased steadily over the
last two years.

E
4) Private-sector banks experienced the sharpest decline in credit growth, dropping
to 9.5% in March 2025.
d
5) Term deposits with interest rates below 7% rose to 72.7% in March 2025.
26. In August 2025, SAP Labs India inaugurated its new AI-focused Innovation Park
ee

in which of the following locations, aimed at supporting Digital India and Skill
India initiatives?
1) Devanahalli, Karnataka 2) Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh
C
3) Hyderabad, Telangana 4) GIFT City, Gujarat 5) Noida, Uttar Pradesh
27. Consider the following statements regarding SEBI’s recent regulatory changes
Sr

for InvITs and REITs (2025):

I) The minimum allotment lot size in the primary market for privately placed
InvITs has been reduced to Rs.25 lakh, aligning it with the secondary market.
II) Related parties of InvIT/REIT, sponsors, managers, and project managers are
considered ‘public’ only if they qualify as QIBs.
III) A holdco can now adjust negative distributable cash flow against inflows from
C
its SPVs, subject to appropriate disclosure to unitholders.
IV) SEBI has simplified the disclosure document format issued by portfolio
managers for better investor decision-making.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1) I and II only 2) I, III and IV only
3) II, III and IV only 4) I, II and IV only 5) I, II, III and IV
28. Under the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025, what is the maximum penalty
prescribed for a foreign national entering India without valid documents such as
a passport or visa?
1) 3 years' imprisonment or Rs.10 lakh fine or both
2) 5 years' imprisonment or Rs.5 lakh fine or both
3) 7 years' imprisonment and Rs.10 lakh fine
4) Immediate deportation with no legal penalty
5) Lifetime entry ban without monetary penalty

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29. To expand UPI’s global reach and enable Indian travellers to make seamless
digital payments abroad, NPCI International Payments Ltd (NIPL) has partnered
with which bank to launch QR code–based UPI payments across Qatar through
point-of-sale terminals?
1) Doha Bank 2) Qatar Islamic Bank
3) Qatar National Bank 4) Commercial Bank of Qatar 5) Mashreq Bank
30. The International Cricket Council (ICC) recently partnered with which tech giant
to enhance global visibility and fan engagement for women’s cricket?
1) Google 2) Microsoft 3) Apple 4) Amazon 5) Meta
31. In July 2025, the Union Cabinet approved a total outlay of Rs.6,520 crore for the

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Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY) for the 15th Finance Commission
cycle (2021–22 to 2025–26). How much of this amount was approved as additional
support during this period?
1) Rs.1,000 crore 2) Rs.1,920 crore
3) Rs.2,500 crore 4) Rs.3,000 crore 5) Rs.4,000 crore
32.
ha
In July 2025, India has recently partnered with which country to boost cooperation
in green steel and high-grade aluminium production under the Comprehensive
Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA)?

33.
1) Saudi Arabia
3) United Arab Emirates

E 2) Australia
4) Germany 5) Japan
According to the RBI’s July 2025 clarification on loans against pledged gold and
d
silver, what specific declaration must lenders obtain from the borrower to comply
with regulatory norms?
1) A declaration authorizing the lender to re-pledge the gold or silver to a third
ee

party.
2) A declaration confirming the borrower's intent to repay the loan within a
specified timeframe.
C
3) A declaration stating the historical purchase price of the gold or silver.
4) A declaration affirming that the borrower is the rightful owner of the pledged
Sr

gold or silver.
5) A declaration outlining the borrower’s complete financial assets and liabilities.
34. According to the Draft RBI (Securitisation of Stressed Assets) Directions, 2025,
what is the maximum percentage of total securitisation exposures that an
originator's retained exposure can have in a particular securitisation structure
or scheme?
C
1) 10% 2) 15% 3) 20% 4) 25% 5) 30%
35. In July 2025, India delivered 5 metric tonnes of life-saving medicines, including
antibiotics and anti-cancer drugs, to which country as part of its continued
humanitarian assistance?
1) Lebanon 2) Syria 3) Yemen 4) Afghanistan 5) Sudan
36. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs recently enhanced the investment
limit for NTPC Limited and its subsidiaries for renewable energy capacity
expansion. What is the new investment cap set for NTPC and its subsidiaries for
renewable energy projects?
1) Rs. 5,000 crore 2) Rs. 7,500 crore
3) Rs. 12,000 crore 4) Rs. 15,000 crore 5) Rs. 20,000 crore
37. According to the RBI’s recent guidelines, what is the maximum proportion of
surplus funds in a Special Rupee Vostro Account (SRVA) that foreign account
holders can invest in short-term central government securities with a residual
maturity of less than one year, including treasury bills?
1) 30% 2) 20% 3) 40% 4) 50% 5) 100%

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38. Indian-origin Amita Chaudhury has been appointed as Chair of the Board of the
UNEP FI Principles for Sustainable Insurance (PSI), becoming the first woman of
Indian origin to hold this global role. What is the headquarters location of UNEP
FI?
1) New York 2) Vienna 3) Nairobi 4) Paris 5) Geneva
39. Consider the following statements with reference to the RBI’s guidelines on
inoperative/dormant accounts and the Depositor Education and Awareness Fund
(DEAF):
I) savings/current account is classified as dormant if there are no customer-

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induced transactions for 24 consecutive months.
II) Balances lying in inoperative accounts for 20 years or more are transferred to
the DEAF, but claimants can later approach the bank to recover the funds.
III) Any customer-initiated transaction resets the inactivity period and prevents
the account from being classified as dormant/inoperative.
ha
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
1) I only 2) II only 3) III only 4) I and II only 5) None of those given as options
40.

E
The BBNJ Agreement under the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS),
also known as the High Seas Treaty, will officially come into force on 17 January
d
2026. What is the minimum number of ratifications required for it to enter into
force?
1) 50 ratifications 2) 55 ratifications
ee

3) 60 ratifications 4) 65 ratifications 5) 70 ratifications

41. In 2025, who was appointed as the Deputy Chief Information Officer (CIO) of the
C
Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE), marking a significant step in the exchange's efforts
to strengthen its technological infrastructure?
Sr

1) Ravi Varanasi 2) Viral Davda

3) Neeraj Kulshrestha 4) Sundeep Sikka 5) Ashishkumar Chauhan
42. Super Typhoon Ragasa, the most powerful storm of 2025, has caused widespread
devastation across Taiwan, Hong Kong, the Philippines, and southern China.
Which country contributed the name “Ragasa” for this typhoon?
1) Japan 2) Philippines 3) China 4) Taiwan 5) United States
C
43. The SBI Foundation has launched the “Platinum Jubilee Asha Scholarship 2025”.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding this initiative?
I) The scholarship aims to support 23,230 meritorious students from economically
weaker backgrounds.
II) Financial assistance under this scheme ranges from Rs.15,000 to Rs.20 lakh
annually, depending on the course.
III) Eligible applicants must be Indian nationals with at least 75% marks or 7
CGPA in the previous academic year.
IV) The annual family income limit is Rs.3 lakh for school students and Rs.6 lakh
for college students, with some relaxation for SC/ST candidates.
V) The SBI Foundation has committed Rs.50 crore for this initiative in FY26.
1) I, II, III and IV only 2) I, III and V only
3) II, IV and V only 4) I, II, III, IV and V 5) I, II and IV only

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44. Consider the following statements regarding the Intermediate-Range Nuclear

Forces (INF) Treaty and Russia’s recent withdrawal announcement:
I) The INF Treaty, signed in 1987, prohibited the possession, testing, and
deployment of ground-launched ballistic and cruise missiles with ranges between
500 and 5,500 km.
II) The INF Treaty was a bilateral agreement including the US, Russia, China,
and other nuclear powers.
III) The United States had earlier withdrawn from the treaty in 2019, accusing
Russia of non-compliance, a claim that Moscow denied.
Which of the above statements are correct?

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1) I and II Only 2) II and III Only 3) I and III Only 4) I, II and III 5) III Only
45. In line with RBI’s directive on adopting the secure ‘.bank.in’ domain to enhance
cybersecurity and protect against digital frauds, which bank has become the first
public sector bank in India to migrate its corporate website to this domain?
1) State Bank of India 2) Punjab National Bank
3) Bank of Baroda
ha 4) Canara Bank 5) Union Bank of India
46. As per the Reserve Bank of India’s revised Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) framework

E
issued in April 2025, what is the correct treatment of a non-callable fixed deposit
(FD) that is contractually pledged as collateral for a loan or credit facility?
1) It must be excluded from the LCR computation as it cannot be liquidated early
d
2) It is assigned a 0% run-off rate, being unavailable to meet liquidity stress
situations
ee

3) It is to be treated as callable and subjected to run-off factors applicable to

callable deposits
4) It should be valued at 50% of its notional amount under Level 2B High-Quality
C
Liquid Assets (HQLA)
5) It qualifies as a Level 1 HQLA, receiving full recognition without haircut
Sr

47. At the 2025 World Speed Skating Championships in Beidaihe, China, who became
India’s first-ever speed skating world champion by winning the men’s 42 km
marathon, adding to his 1000 m gold (1:24.92) and 500 m bronze at the same
event?
1) Anandkumar Velkumar 2) Vikram Rajendra Ingale
3) Siddhant Rahul Kamble 4) Krish Sharma 5) Anish Ra
48. India’s first indigenously developed 1MW green hydrogen plant, commissioned
C
under the ‘Make in India’ initiative by the Deendayal Port Authority, was
inaugurated in August 2025 at which location?
1) Hazira Port, Gujarat 2) Jawaharlal Nehru Port, Maharashtra
3) Deendayal Port, Kandla, Gujarat
4) Cochin Port, Kerala 5) Chennai Port, Tamil Nadu
49. In July 2025, the State Bank of India (SBI) signed an MoU with the Land Ports
Authority of India (LPAI) to enhance financial services at border trade points.
What is the trade volume target set under this collaboration for 2030?
1) Rs.1 trillion 2) Rs.80,000 crore 3) Rs.2 trillion
4) Rs.3 trillion 5) Rs.50,000 crore
50. The World Health Organization (WHO) has validated which country as the first in
the world to achieve the Triple Elimination of Mother-to-Child Transmission
(EMTCT) of HIV, syphilis, and hepatitis B?
1) Sri Lanka 2) Thailand 3) Nepal 4) Indonesia 5) Maldives

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ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Direction (51-53): In each of the following questions, a sentence is divided into
four parts, A, B, C, and D, with one word in each part highlighted in bold. One of
these words is inappropriate or contextually incorrect in the sentence. Identify
the word that is contextually correct and opposite in meaning to the
inappropriate word. Choose the correct option corresponding to that word.
51. The mountain formed through (A)/the tectonic collision of the Indian Plate with
the (B)/Eurasian Plate ending around 50 million years ago,(C)/ which continues
to cause seismic activity and crustal deformation.(D)
1) A- conjugated 2) B- accident 3) C- starting

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4) D- abides 5) E- All the above
52. Kuttanad’s below-sea-level farming is made possible by polerization (A)/—a
scientific method of land misplacement that involves the construction (B)/ of
embankments to keep water out, supported (C)/ by a system of canals and pumps
to regulate water levels.(D)
1) A- unattainable
4) D- vent
ha 2) B- reclamation
5) E- All the above
3) C- destroyed

53. India is proud to announce that, as part (A)/of its Man and the Biosphere (MAB)

E
Program, UNESCO has designated (B)/ a minor area in Himachal Pradesh as the
(C)/nation’s first cold desert biosphere reserve. (D)
d
1) A- whole 2) B- published 3) C-
significant
4) D- darkness 5) E- All the above
ee

Direction (54-55): Which of the following alternatives among the five options
provides the MOST SIMILAR meaning(s) of the bolded word given in sentence?
54. I would not be culpable for dividing and restricting computer users, but it would
C
happen nonetheless.
A. Blameworthy B. Punishable C. Deter D. innocent
Sr

1) Only A 2) Only C 3) Both A and B 4) Both C and D

5) Both A and C
55. I don’t envisage I will take an executive role, but rather become a consultant on
merchandise and marketing.
A. foresee B. reflect C. consider D. image
1) Both A and C 2) Only A 3) Both B and D
4) Both C and D 5) Only B
C
Direction (56): In this question four sentences (A), (B), (C) and (D) have been
given in a sequence. You have to decide which of the given sentences can be
replaced by the sentence given in bold, both grammatically and without changing
the meaning of the paragraph.
56. A. At least 23 persons were killed as torrential rain lashed Darjeeling and other
northern parts of West Bengal on Saturday night and Sunday morning.
B. Landslides triggered by the rain at various places in Mirik and Darjeeling sub-
divisions led to the loss of lives.
C. Officials of the Gorkhaland Territorial Administration, the regional autonomous
body that administers the Darjeeling hills, said that 11 people were killed in
Mirik and 12 deaths were reported in Darjeeling.
D. Darjeeling, nestled in the foothills of the Himalayas, is famous for its
breathtaking views of Kanchenjunga and its world-renowned aromatic tea.
Sentence: Road connectivity to Mirik and Darjeeling was badly affected. (D)
1) None 2) A 3) C 4) D 5) B

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Directions(57-61): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), and
(E) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph. Then answer the
given question.
A. Recently, during IT raids at a shop in Hyderabad, it was revealed that
commission agents in Guntur and Visakhapatnam were selling large quantities
of gold biscuits.
B. Officials identified that, besides commission business, he has been involved
in real estate and gold trading for the past 30 years.
C. The Income Tax officials conducted a raid on a commission agent in the city.
D. Income Tax on commission agents in Guntur district continued on the second

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day on Wednesday.
E. The agent obtained a contract for supplying red gram in the past. It is alleged
that he had not paid income tax.
57. Which of the following will be THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
58.
2) B
ha
Which of the following will be SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 3) C 4) D 5) E
59. Which of the following will be FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

60.
1) A 2) B

E 3) C 4) D 5) E
Which of the following will be FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
d
61. Which of the following will be FIFTH (last) sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Directions (62-63): In each of these questions, a paragraph is given that has a
ee

blank in it. Out of the given options, only one fits in with the context of the
paragraph. Select that as answer.
62. This is a very serious and distressing incident. The deaths of 12 children in
C
Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan and the ban on the sale of Coldrif cough syrup in
Tamil Nadu are a warning message to everyone. ______________________________.
Sr

1) Such incidents show a lack of regulation, carefully supervised and a lack of

moral responsibility.
2) Children are our future; protecting their lives should be the top priority of
society.
3) The solution to this problem lies in the cooperation of the companies and the
people.
C
4) The health of the people, especially the safety of children, should come before
any profit
5) None of the above
63. On 30th June 2017, at the stroke of midnight, a ceremonial joint session was
held in Parliament to launch the country’s historic legislation, the GST. The
then President of India, Shri Pranab Mukherjee, called it a “tribute to the maturity
and wisdom of India’s democracy”. ____________________________.
1) As a result, in 2024-25, gross GST collections hit a record ‘22.08 lakh crore,
marking a yearon-year growth of 9.4 per cent.
2) He highlighted the long journey of GST and how it would transform our economy.
3) This demonstrates the government’s relentless, stable, and visionary economic
management
4) It is estimated that the new GST rates will boost domestic consumption by
nearly 2 lakh crore and provide fresh impetus to public expenditure while boosting
private investor confidence.
5) None of the above

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Direction (64-67): Which of the following pair of phrase(s) denoted by (A), (B) and
(C) given against the sentence can replace the phrases given in bold in the
sentence both grammatically and contextually without changing the meaning of
the sentence? Mark option accordingly.
64. His reckless action caused a terrible accident, leaving everyone around him in a
complete shock.
A. careless behaviour- utterly stunned
B. irresponsible act- completely astonished
C. unethical practices-merely disappointed
1) Only A and B 2) Only B and C 3) Only A and C

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4) Only A 5) Only C
65. The truck was loaded with fresh vegetables and was ready to be delivered to the
supermarket.
A. Packed with-be transported to B. Contained with- reached to
C. Filled with- dropped at
1) Only A and B
4) Only A
ha 2) Only B and C
5) Only C
3) Only A and C

66. Despite the tight schedule, he managed to submit all the required documents

E
so they can be given to the hiring manager without delay.
A. somehow handed over- stand to gain
d
B. succeeded in handling- could be presented
C. was able to turn in-might be provided
1) Only A and B 2) Only B and C 3) Only A and C
ee

4) Only A 5) Only C
67. The team should be ready to respond quickly if any unexpected situation occurs
during the event.
C
A. be prepared- sudden event
B. be alert- unanticipated scenario
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C. make preparation – unforeseen circumstances

1) Only A 2) All A,B and C 3) Both A and C
4) Only C 5) Both B and C
Direction (68-69): In this question, four words/ group of words denoted by (A),
(B), (C) and (D) are given below. Three sentences denoted by (I), (II) and (III). You
have to select the combination of words/ group of words (A), (B), (C) and (D) given
C
in the options, which if used in the middle of the sentences, can connect (I), (II)
and (III) in the sequence in which if used in middle of the sentences, can connect
(I), (II) and (III) in sequence in which the sentences are given, to form one
meaningful sentence, without adding or deleting any word in the given sentence,
and mark the option as your answer.
[Note- No words/group of words denoted by (A), (B), (C) and (D) is to be used more
than once while forming the sentence.]
68. (I) The city experienced severe flooding during the monsoon season.
(II) The local authorities acted quickly to evacuate residents, major casualties
were avoided.
(III) Many homes and businesses suffered extensive damage, requiring months of
recovery work.
A. as a result B. instead C. consequently D. nevertheless
1) Only A and D 2) Only B and C 3) Only A and C
4) Only B and D 5) Only C and D

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 26

69. (I) The marketing team focused on digital campaigns to reach younger audiences.
(II) The sales team relied on traditional methods like cold calling and print
advertising. They must coordinate their strategies.
(III) The company’s overall growth could slow down.
A. therefore B. in contrast C. Similarly D. Otherwise
1) Only A and C 2) Only B and C 3) Only B and D
4) Only A and D 5) Only A and B
70. (I) The city upgraded its public transportation system.
(II) Commuters could travel more efficiently and safely.
(III) Traffic congestion decreased, and pollution levels dropped.

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A. whereas B. so that C. as a result D. than
1) Only A and B 2) Only B and C 3) Only C and D
4) Only B and D 5) Only A and C
71. Read the passage carefully and fill in the blank given in the question. Choose the
set of words that can fill the blanks in the sequence as they are given in the
ha
option, based on the information given.
During a team project, Sarah noticed that one of her colleagues was struggling
to meet deadlines and seemed overwhelmed with tasks. Instead of ignoring the

E
issue, she offered to help by sharing part of the workload and suggesting ways to
organize tasks more efficiently. She also took the time to encourage her colleague
and provide constructive feedback. As a result, the project was completed on
d
time, and the team maintained a positive working environment. Describe Sarah’s
behavior in this situation and what it reveals about her as a team member. The
______________ situation highlighted Sarah’s skill of being _______________.
ee

1) demanding- thoughtful 2) routine- energetic

3) challenging, interpersonal- empathy 4) relaxing- thoughtful
5) none of the above
C
Directions (72-81): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
Sr

answering some of the questions.

I find that with increasing age, I am becoming more rigid in opinions, have
begun to develop pre-conceived notions, and I am turning more judgemental.
This often results in my interrupting people, or even using harsh words, if they
put forth a contradictory view point. It is surprising because experiences should
impart a certain maturity when dealing with people. I find many persons suffer
C
from the same malaise, unable to step back and reflect, and apologise if need be.
It is easier said than done. I was in a departmental store a few years back. The
young saleswoman approached us selling a newly launched hair product by a
leading brand. ________(B) on the shelves. She vouched for the superior quality,
insisting that we try it once. She was the more mature person as she replied to
my insensitive query about the affordability of such an expensive product by a
mere salesperson. The company had given samples to them before they could
make a sales pitch. That I was ashamed of my behaviour would be an
understatement. More recently, I was upset at the rudeness of a neighbour. I
berated (A) another gentleman, attributing behaviour of the rude person to the
group that both are part of. The mutual friend felt hurt at this unjustified blame
for the conduct of the discourteous person. Words were exchanged between us in
public that in the first place had no business to be uttered at all. In yet another
incident, I interrupted a young lady while she tried to explain her views on a
rather sensitive subject. She too told me that she is an individual in her own
rights, she has her own opinions, and it was not fair for me to equate her with a

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 26

group. We think that children would not remember harsh words or actions against
them. I have raised my hand only twice in my life, that too when the persons at
the receiving end were children. Both of them remember the incidents even
almost four decades later. I was extremely short tempered in the initial few
years of my professional life, and would often shout at subordinates. I know of
colleagues who would even throw files or documents back at the officer. I am not
sure if the throwers understood their folly , but I realized I could get a lot done
with just an encouraging and kind word. Everyone faces similar incidents. All of
us have people around us who are our moral compass. For me, those are my wife,
daughters, and a few friends. They make it a point to interrupt me in time. They
keep reminding me to pause and listen. They tell me time and again to be less

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impatient. Unfortunately, they too have to bear the brunt sometimes. I was a
much better listener till I quit my professional pursuits. I do not know if it is the
impatience of time constraint or my old age. It is likely that both are interrelated
and I am trying to do too much, too soon, in what I consider to be a limited time.
But these cannot be excuses for bad behaviour. Inability to listen to others, or to
ha
not be empathetic, is harmful to interpersonal relations. We cannot always be
right. In fact, there is no right or wrong in a conversation. There are only two
perspectives. Words spoken in the heat of the moment have a way of returning to

E
haunt. The hurts caused by harsh words, or even a harsh attitude may heal, but would
leave a scar. Life is too beautiful to be wasted on the trivial sentiment of ‘I am
always right.’
d
72. Which of the following best describes the behavioural tendency of the author as
portrayed in the passage?
1) He is highly empathetic and never judges others prematurely.
ee

2) He often forms preconceived notions and interrupts others during discussions.

3) He prefers to remain silent even when he disagrees with others’ viewpoints.
4) He consistently avoids conflict and apologizes immediately after arguments.
C
5) He believes in imposing his opinions without introspection.
73. Pick out the appropriate option in according to the narrator’s point of view.
1) That old age inevitably leads to harshness and impatience.
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2) That people should focus on proving themselves right in every conversation.

3) That empathy, listening, and understanding others’ perspectives are crucial
for healthy relationships.
4) That harsh words and actions are justified if one has more experience.
5) That people should completely stop expressing their opinions to avoid conflicts.
74. Which of the following words best describes the tone of the passage?
C
1) Humorous 2) Aggressive 3) Sarcastic 4) Indifferent 5) Reflective
75. Which of the following can be most logically inferred from the passage?
1) People rarely change their behaviour once they grow old.
2) Every conversation has a single correct viewpoint that must be defended.
3) Harsh words spoken in anger are quickly forgotten by others.
4) Unchecked impatience and rigidity can harm relationships and personal growth.
5) Interrupting people is a sign of strong communication skills.
76. In the passage given, a sentence is given in italics. Which of the following option
convey its meaning.
A. Scars from emotional wounds are stronger than those from physical injuries.
People easily forget harsh words once an apology is offered.
B. Harsh words may be forgiven, but their impact can leave a lasting emotional
mark.
C. It is better to use harsh words than to remain silent during disagreements.
1) Only C 2) Both A and B 3) Both B and C 4) Only B 5) Only C

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 26

77. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a reason the author gives
for his changing behaviour over time?
1) Increased rigidity in opinions with age
2) A sense of limited time after retirement
3) Influence of his family and friends
4) Desire to do too much in too little time
5) Frequent travel and exposure to new cultures
78. What important lesson did the author learn from his interactions and past
behaviour?
1) That shouting and being harsh is the best way to get work done.

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2) That people quickly forget any rude remarks made in anger.
3) That kindness, patience, and encouragement are more effective than anger or
judgment.
4) That it is necessary to always prove others wrong in a conversation.
5) That blaming groups for individual actions is justified.
79.
ha
Which of the words have the same meaning as the word mentioned in (A)?
1) revived 2) indorsed 3) approved 4) scolded 5) lauded
80. Select the appropriate phrase for the blank marked as (B) which can make the

E
given sentence contextually as well as grammatically correct.
A. carrying a lots of germs with it which may damage the hair follicles permanently
d
B. The melanin absorbed is creating a black spots on skin make the fair complexion
dark
C. It was much pricier than the most expensive item in the category available
ee

1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Both A and B 5) Both B and C

81. Which of these five words in the above passage is the most opposite to the word
‘prudence’?
C
1) realize 2) encourage 3) professional 4) insensitive 5) folly
Directions(82-85): In the given questions, find out the incorrect sentence in the
Sr

following given sentences of each question.

82. 1) Six patients were killing in a massive fire in an intensive care unit at the
trauma centre of Sawai Man Singh Government Hospital here late on Sunday
night.
2) Fire tenders rushed to the spot and broke a window on the opposite side to
start extinguishing the fire.
C
3) The fire was brought under control in about two hours.
4) The police could not enter the building immediately because of the smoke.
5) None of the above
83. 1) The death toll in the north Bengal floods, triggered by landslides following
heavy rain, increased to 28 with five more cases being reported on Monday from
Nagrakata block in Jalpaiguri district.
2) Around 500 tourists, who were stranded in the Darjeeling hills, were rescued
by the police and brought to Siliguri. Tourists trapped in the Dooars were also
brought to safety.
3) The worst-affected areas include Mirik, Sukhiapokhri, Jorebunglow, and
Nagrakata, where roads have been vanishing, bridges collapsed, and villages lie
buried under debris.
4) North Bengal has been flooded with water from Bhutan and Sikkim. There was
continuous rain of 300 mm in 12 hours.
5) None of the above

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 26

84. 1) In an ironic twist, a street play against stray dog menace turned nasty when
an artiste was bitten by a dog during the performance at Mayyil Kandankai in
Kannur, Kerala, on Sunday night.
2) Mistaking it for part of the act, the audience initially continued watching until
organisers rushed to Mr. Radhakrishnan’s aid.
3) Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister N. Chandrababu Naidu has instructed the
officials to devise a scheme to provide bank loans to students aspired to do graduate
and postgraduate courses in foreign countries at a nominal interest rate of 25
paise, without any cap on the number of beneficiaries.
4) The CJI and Justice Chandran made an initial exclamation of surprise, but

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quickly collected themselves to urge Mr. Singh to continue his mentioning.
5) None of the above
85. 1) In a shocking incident, an object resembling a sheaf of papers was flowed at a
Supreme Court Bench of Chief Justice of India and Justice K. Vinod Chandran
ha
on Monday by a person present in the courtroom.
2) After incessant social media outrage for almost two days thereafter, Chief
Justice Gavai had explained in open court that he believed in all faiths and “true
secularism”.

E
3) He further said that the Army is pursuing responsible and phased AI adoption,
d
focusing on areas that reduce risk to personnel and improve decision making,
while maintaining meaningful human control and strong ethical governance.
4) The Rs.1,100-crore package includes the inauguration of 109 projects
ee

constructed at a cost of over ?64 crore and the foundation-laying of 39 new

projects worth over Rs.159 crore. Similarly, ?802 crore is allocated exclusively
for irrigation.
C
5) None of the above
Direction (86-90): Read the following passage and fill in the blank with given
Sr

alternatives.
Parachutes are widely used to deliver people, cargo, and humanitarian aid.
However, conventional parachutes are often expensive to (1)________ and tend to
be fragile. Their complex structure also makes them difficult to (2)________,
requiring skilled labour and thereby limiting their rapid or cost-effective use.
Additionally, traditional parachutes frequently (3)________ from their intended
C
drop point, which can be a significant problem during critical operations like
disaster relief. In a recent study published in Nature, scientists sought inspiration
from kirigami, the Japanese art of intricately cutting paper to form elaborate
designs. They explored whether strategic kirigami cuts in thin circular sheets
could (4)________ an ordinary disc into a stable and efficient parachute. By
exploiting flow-induced reconfiguration — a natural phenomenon observed in
leaves and seeds — the researchers aimed to design parachutes that not only
decelerate descent but also land precisely near their target, regardless of the
initial (5)________ of release.
86. 1) fabricate 2) eliminate 3) rectify 4) instigate 5) transcend
87. 1) conceal 2) deteriorate 3) assemble 4) evaporate 5) ascertain
88. 1) accumulate 2) deviate 3) oscillate 4) integrate 5) substantiate
89. 1) devastate 2) eradicate 3) inhibit 4) metamorphose 5) knitting
90. 1) trajectory 2) dilemma 3) proximity 4) anomaly 5) nucleus

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 26

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Directions (91-95): Read the following information carefully and answer the
below given questions
Sindhu, Sadguna and Sanjana spend 20%, 25% and 15% of their monthly
salaries respectively on food and rent together. Each of them spends 1/4th of the
remaining amount on entertainment and saves the rest of the amount. Monthly
salary of Sindhu is Rs. 2000 more than that of Sanjana. Ratio between the monthly
salaries of Sadguna and Sanjana is 2:1 respectively. Sindhu saves Rs. 3000 per
month.

r’s
91. What is the sum of salaries of all three persons together?
1) 20000 2) 18000 3) 19500 4) 16000 5) 14000
92. If another person Saruyu spends 20% more amount than Sanjana on food and
rent together, then find the amount spent by Saruyu on food and rent.
1) 600 2) 540 3) 480 4) 320 5)280
93.
ha
What is the ratio of the amount spent on food and rent together by Sadguna and
Sanjana together to that by Sindhu alone?

94.
1) 39 : 20

E
2) 37 : 21 3) 41 : 27 4) 11 : 19 5) 21 : 20
Salary of another person Sharanya is equal to the sum of the salaries given
three persons together, Sharanya spends Rs.5600 per month and saves the rest
d
find the saves per month of Sharanya.
1) 10600 2) 9400 3) 8400 4) 7500 5) 6800
ee

95. What is the average amount spent by Sadguna and Sindhu on entertainment?
1) 898.5 2) 755.5 3) 800 4) 939.5 5) 1062.5
Direction(96-100): Read the following information carefully and answer the given
C
below question.
The pie chart shows total number of wine (whisky + Brandy) bottles sold by
Sr

five different wine marts.

Total Bottles = 6000

22% 15%
Baskara
C
Saritha
14%
Kanakadurga
Venkateshwara
24% Mahankali
25%

96. If selling price of one bottle of wine for Baskara and Venkateshwara are Rs.800
and Rs.600 respectively, then what is the difference between revenue of Baskara
and Venkateshwara? (in Rs.)
1) 125000 2) 132500 3) 136900 4) 144000 5) 132500
97. Total wine bottles sold by Saritha and Kanaka Durga together is what percent
more/less than total wine bottles sold by Baskara and Kanaka Durga together?
1) 25% 2) 15% 3) 10% 4) 5% 5) 2.5%

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 26

98. What is the central angle for wine bottles sold by Venkateshwara and Mahankali
together to total wine bottles sold by all wine shops together? (in degrees)
1) 165.6° 2) 189° 3) 129.6° 4) 144° 5) 115°
99. If Baskara, Saritha and Mahankali wine marts sell 540, 240 and 315 Whisky
wine bottles, then what is the average of Brandy wine bottles sold by Baskara,
Saritha and Mahankali?
1) 829 2) 751 3) 702 4) 655 5) 540
100. Find the ratio between whisky bottles to Brandy bottles in Baskara wine mart,
total number of whisky bottle in that mart is 25% of total bottle of Venkateshwara
wine mart?

r’s
1) 5 : 6 2) 16 : 7 3) 8 : 7 4) 8 : 9 5) 2 : 3
101. Alok can do a work in 24 days and Banny can do same work in 36 days. Cauvery’s
efficiency is 100% more than that of Banny. Alok, Banny, Cauvery together started
another work which is double of previous work and Cauvery left work after 6 days
and remaining work is completed by Alok and Banny together, if they get Rs.26100
ha
total as wages, Find out Cauvery’s share in it.
1) 4350 2) 5580 3) 8700 4) 3650 5) 9960
102.

E
Retailer mark up an article 35% above its cost price and earn Rs 80 by giving 20%
discount on marked price. If he sells article at 15% discount on marked price
then, find retailer’s profit on selling one article.
d
1) 180 2) 175 3) 166.5 4) 150.5 5) 147.5
103. Present age of Sivanandana is 50% more than Badaplin’s present age, while 5
ee

years ago, Sivanandana’s age was twice than that of Badaplin’s age at that time.
Five years hence, sum of ages of Badaplin and Sivanandana is equal to
Premsingh’s age at that time, then find present age of Premsingh.
C
1) 30 2) 35 3) 40 4) 45 5) 48
104. Narendra and Vijay started a business together. Amount invested by Narendra is
Sr

150% more than amount invested by Vijay. Ratio between time period of investment
of Naredra to Vijay is 2 : 3. Find total profit earned by Narendra and Vijay together
if Narendra earns Rs. 450 more than Vijay.
1) 2000 2) 1800 3) 1750 4) 2250 5) 2300
105. Venkatadry deposited Rs.7500 for three years. The compound interest rate
received for these years would be 3%, 2% and 1% respectively, then find the
C
approximate amount he will receive at the end.
1) 7558 2) 7958 3) 7625 4) 8251 5) 8352
Directions (106-110): In each of the following number series, a wrong number is
given. Find out the wrong number.
106. 120, 143, 189, 258, 348, 465
1) 120 2) 143 3) 258 4) 348 5) 465
107. 255, 216, 175, 132, 85, 32
1) 255 2) 216 3) 132 4) 85 5) 32
108. 27, 48, 80, 134, 221, 355
1) 27 2) 48 3) 134 4) 355 5) 221
109. 11, 10, 19, 56, 223, 1115
1) 1115 2)19 3) 11 4) 223 5) 56
110. 292, 291, 295, 268, 284, 161
1) 292 2) 284 3) 268 4) 161 5) 291

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 26

Directions(111-115): Read the following information carefully and answer the

given below questions.
Gnan leaves his home on bike and went to a shop to purchase some items.
Shop is …(X)… km away from his home and his speed is 40 km/h. When he left
home at the same time Sopan left the shop and reaches Gnan's home, 6 minutes
prior when Gnan reaches the shop. Speed of Sopan is 10 km/h more than Gnan's
speed.
At the shop, Gnan saw two workers Pandari and Amar and ratio of efficiency of
1
Pandari to that of Amar is 5: 4. When Pandari is working with 133 % his original

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3
1
efficiency, then it would take 11 days to finish a work by both Pandari and
4
Amar together and when Amar is working with 125% of his original efficiency,
ha
then it would take…(Y)… days to finish the same work by both Pandari and Amar
together.
Shopkeeper of the shop marked up the price of items Sugar and Flour up by 20%

E
and 25% respectively and allows only 10% discount on both the items. Ratio of
cost price of items Sugar to Flour is 25 : 28 and difference between the selling
price of items Sugar and Flour is Rs.450. Total profit amount earned by the
d
shopkeeper after selling both the items to Gnan is …(Z)...
111. Find the value of X.
1) 16 2) 20 3) 25 4) 30 5) 36
ee

112. Find the value of Y.

1)15days 2)18 days 3) 21 days 4) 12 days 5) 10 days
C
113. Find the value of Z.
1) 400 2) 420 3) 470 4) 550 5) 600
Sr

114. How much time taken by Sopan reached Gnan’s home?

1) 30min 2) 45 min 3) 60 min 4) 15 min 5) 24 min
115. Find the difference between the cost price of Sugar and cost price of Flour.
1) 300 2) 600 3)900 4) 1200 5) 1500
Directions (116-120): Read the following information carefully and answer the
given below question.
C
The table given below shows Bengaluru Ayyam gari bakery sold two
different cakes (Normal + Cool) on five different months in the year of 2021.

Month name Total cakes Normal: Cool cakes

On January 3560 5:3
Till February 5425 11:14
Till March 7065 5:4
Till April 8635 6:5
Till May 10224 7:5

116. Number of cake sold on May is 70% of the total number of cake baked on this
month and the ratio of number of Normal and Cool cake baked is 3:2. The number
of unsold Normal cakes is approximately what percent of Cool cakes unsold?
1) 33% 2) 19% 3) 25% 4) 40% 5) 60%

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 26

2
117. Number of Normal cakes sold on June are less than that of January and
5
number of Cool cakes sold on January are 11% less than that of June. Find the
ratio of number of Cool cakes sold on June to number of Normal cakes sold on
June?
1) 95:101 2) 33:35 3)85:87 4)100:87 5) 100: 89
118. There are two types of Normal and coolcakes that is Savoury and Semisweet. On
February ratio of Normal savoury cake to Normal Semisweet cake is 5:4. On
March ratio of Cool savoury cake to Cool Semisweet cake is 1:2. Find the difference

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between total number of Normal and Cool Savoury cakes sold on February and
March together respectively to the total number of Normal and Cool Semisweet
cake sold on same months respectively.
1) 56 2) 46 3) 36 4) 16 5) 26
119. Find the difference between 20% of the number of highest Cool cake sold and
ha
45% of the number of third lowest Normal cake sold (Approximately).
1) 160 2) 224 3) 365 4) 487 5) 520
120. Find the total number of cakes sold on April?
1) 1570 2) 1750

E 3) 1705 4) 1075 5) 5071

Directions (121-124): In the given questions, two quantities are given, one as
d
‘Quantity I’ and another as ‘Quantity II’. You have to determine relationship
between two quantities and choose the appropriate option:
121. Quantity I: Ratio between expenditure and savings of a person is 5 :4. If his
ee

income is increased by 15% and expenditure increased by 20%, then find increased
percentage in savings.
Quantity II: Arjun can do a piece of work in 18 days, while Venkat and Prajwal
C
together can do the same work in 6 days. If the ratio of efficiency Venkat to Arjun
is 8 : 5, then find in how many days Prajwal can complete the same work alone.
Sr

1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II

3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
122. Quantity I: A person covers a distance with the speed of 2.5 meters/second in 1
hour 30 minutes and 40 second. Find distance covered by him (Distance in km).
Quantity II: Speed of a boat in still water is 3.5 km/hr. If the time taken by boat
C
to cover a certain distance in upstream is 250% of the same distance cover in
downstream, then find the speed of the stream?
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
123. Quantity I: Find the capacity of the tank. Tap A can fill a tank in 2.5 hrs. But due
to a leak in the bottom of the tank, it takes 10 hrs more to fill the tank. If from
the leaking water is running at 50 lit/hr.
Quantity II: Pipe A and B alone can fill a tank in ‘x’ hours and ‘x+10’ hours
respectively. If both pipes together fill the tank in 12 hours, then the time taken
by B alone?
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 26

124. Quantity I: Time (in months), Arun invests Rs.25,600 at CI at the rate of 12.5%
per annum and after some time he got Rs.6800 as interest.
Quantity II: Satish is three years elder than Trinadh and after two years the
ratio of age of Satish to that of Trinadh will be 5 : 4. Find the average of age of
Satish and Trinadh after four years.
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
125. Vessels P, Q and R contains a mixture of milk and water. The ratio of the quantity
of P, Q and R is 28 : 25 : 16 respectively. In-vessel P milk to water ratio is 3 : 4

r’s
and in-vessel Q water to milk ratio is 3: 2, if vessel R contains milk to water ratio
is 3 : 5 and all the mixture of three-vessel poured into another vessel S then in
vessel S, quantity of water 26 liters more than milk. Then find the quantity of
mixture contained in vessel P.
1) 65 2) 56 3) 112 4) 81 5) 28
ha
126. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 2 and the denominator is increased
1
by 3, the resultant fraction is , but when we add 3 to the numerator it becomes
2

E
equal to the denominator. What is the original fraction?
d
2 3 7 7 7
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
5 5 9 11 13
127. The perimeter of a rectangle is 2 cm more than the circumference of a circle and
ee

the area of the circle is 616 cm². If the breath of the rectangle is equal to the
radius of the circle, then find the length of the rectangle (in cm).
1)24 2) 62 3) 51 4) 21 5) 31
C
128. A boat covers 9 km upstream and 38 km downstream in 3 hrs, while it covers 45
km upstream and 57 km downstream in 8 hrs. What is the speed of the current?
Sr

1) 2 kmph 2) 7 kmph 3) 10 kmph 4) 5 kmph 5) 4 kmph

129. Speed of Venkatadri and Narayanadri is 54 km/hr and 36 km/hr and when two
trains travelling in opposite directions take 10 seconds to cross each other
1
completely. Speed of Simhachalam is 33 % more than Venkatadri and it also
3
take 10 seconds to cross Venkatadri while travelling in opposite direction. The
C
ratio between the length of Narayanadri and Simhachalam is 1 : 2. Find the time
taken by Simhachalam to cross platform of length 200 meter.
1)10 sec 2) 12 sec 3) 15sec 4) 18sec 5) 20sec
Directions (130-135): In each of the following questions you have to find out
which of the following statement/s is/ are redundant for determining the answer
of the given question or can be despensed with.
130. Rajesh, Ramesh and Rakesh enter into a business then what is the profit share
of Ramesh out of the total profit?
Statement I: Ramesh and Rakesh started the business with an investment of
12000 and 16000 for 6 months and 9 months respectively.
Statement II: Rajesh invested 12500 for 2 years and his profit is 62500
1) Only I is redundant 2) Only II is redundant
3) Any one of them is redundant
4) None of them is redundant 5) Can’t be determined

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 26

131. What is the sum of ages of Pavani and Parveen?

Statement I: Ratio of ages Pavani and Parveen is 4:3 and that of Parveen and
Pramila is 3:2
Statement II: Difference between ages of Pavani and Pramila is 30 years.
1) Only I is redundant 2) Only II is redundant
3) Any one of them is redundant
4) None of them is redundant 5) Can’t be determined
132. Find the sum of two numbers.

r’s
2
Statement I: The difference between the numbers is 5 of their product.

Statement II: The ratio of difference between two numbers to their products is 3
: 20.
1) Only I is redundant
ha 2) Only II is redundant
3) Any one of them is redundant

E
4) None of them is redundant 5) Can’t be determined
133. Two trains running in the opposite direction crosses each other in 60 seconds.
d
What is the sum of their lengths?
Statement I: Sum of the speed of the trains is 42 m/s
ee

Statement II: Difference in the speed of the trains is 12 m/s

1) Only statement I is redundant. 2) Only statement II is redundant.
3) None of these. 4) None of the statements is redundant.
C
5) Any of the above statement alone is redundant.
Sr

134. A book was sold at a loss of 18%. Book had been marked up by 32% above its cost
price. Find the amount of discount offered on the book.
Statement I: If the book had sold for Rs. 640 more, there would have been a
profit of 14%.

1
Statement II: If the discounted amount of book is 33 % of the cost price.
3
C
1) Only I is redundant 2) Only II is redundant
3) Any one of them is redundant
4) None of them is redundant 5) Can’t be determined
135. Find the total amount invested by Mahender.
Statement I: Total amount received by Vikranth after 2 years is Rs.3513.6 at
compound interest.
Statement II: Mahender and Vikranth invested their amount at simple interest
and compound interest respectively and the difference between the interests
received by both after 2 years is Rs 500.
1) Only I is redundant 2) Only II is redundant
3) Any one of them is redundant
4) None of them is redundant 5) Can’t be determined

20
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 26

Directions (136-140): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given question.
The following line graph shows the number of Trimmers sold by five
different companies namely Philips, Nova, Syska, Smart buy and Groomiist.
The total number of Trimmer’s sold by all companies is 6000.

50

40 40

r’s
30 30
25
20 20 20 20
18
10 10 12
5
0
ha
Philips Nova Syska Smart buy Groomiist

E % of Trimmers sold % of trimmers return

d
136. Find the total number of Trimmers returned as faulty for Syska.
ee

1) 216 2) 196 3) 200 4) 245 5) 343

137. Find the difference between the number of Trimmers returned as faulty from
Philips and Groomiist.
C
1) 288 2) 340 3) 300 4) 274 5) 280
138. If the number of Trimmers returned to Nova is repaired by the company and each
Sr

Trimmer repair cost is Rs.112, then find the total repaired cost of Nova.
1) 20185 2) 21504 3) 20850 4) 19850 5) 20160
139. Find the ratio of the number of Trimmers returned to Smart buy to the number of
Trimmers sold of Syska.
1) 2 : 17 2) 1 : 18 3) 1 : 15 4) 2 : 19 5) 3 : 8
140. If the number of Trimmers sold in Sony is 40% more than that in Philips and the
C
ratio of Rotary to Foil Trimmers of Sony is 4 : 3, and 12.5% of Rotary Trimmers
stated as faulty Trimmers, then find the faulty Rotary Trimmers of Sony.
1) 99 2) 127 3) 108 4) 120 5) 80
REASONING
Direction (141-145): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:
Thirteen people namely - N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting
in two parallel rows. Persons - N, P, S, U, X, Z are sitting in row-1 and facing
South direction. Remaining persons are facing north direction. Except one person,
remaining all are facing each other.
T is sitting third to the left of the one who is facing N and only one among
the three persons are sitting at ends of the line. One of the immediate neighbours
of T is facing X. The number of persons sitting between N and P is twice as
between N and X. As many people sit to the left of V as to the right of him. W sits

21
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 26

third to the right of O. X does not faces Y. U is sitting opposite to R, who is not
sitting to the right of W. Only one person sits between U and S. Y sits to the left
of Q. P and X are not immediate neighbors.
141. Who is not facing to any other person?
1) R 2) T 3) O 4) V 5) Q
142. What is the position of U with respect to the one who is sitting opposite to Y?
1) Second to the right 2) Third to the right
3) Second to the left 4) Third to the left
5) Fourth to the right

r’s
143. Who among the following persons are the immediate neighbours of V?
1) O, Q 2) T, W 3) R, W 4) Y, T 5) Q, R
144. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as
per the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following
ha
does not belong to that group?
1) P – W 2) N – O 3) U – Y 4) Z – V 5) S – R
145. Who among the following pair of people are sitting at ends of the line?

146.
1) XQ 2) ZT

E 3) WP 4) TU 5) QS
If from the word “PERFORMANCE”, the letters which come after ‘K’ according to
d
the English alphabetical order are replaced with second consonant before them
and the letters which come before ‘K’ according to the English alphabetical order
are replaced with their succeeding letter then remove the repeated letters and
ee

arrange the remaining letters alphabetically from left to right. After that, how
many letters are there between the letters which are 1st from the left end and 3rd
from the right end as per the English alphabetical order?
C
1) One 2) None 3) Three 4) Two 5) More than three
147. Study the following information and answer the given question:
Sr

Information: ‘XYZ’ one of the start up software development companies of country

Z has recently developed a software to generate the content using Artificial
intelligence (AI) for its marketing department. The software was in testing stages
since last six months and the head of marketing department was asked to give
their observations regarding the software. The management of XYZ’ decided to
postpone the release of the software based on the discussion in the meeting with
C
the marketing head and the development team of the software. The management
asked the following questions to the development team regarding the software in
the meeting.
A ‘Yes’ as an answer to which of the following was the reason for the
management taking the mentioned decision?
1) Are we absolutely certain that only the valid users can access the control
systems of the software?
2) Will your department be able to provide us with independent third party testing
proofs at the earliest?
3) Will the software be replicating content from the websites of other players in
the industry?
4) Will we be able to control the content database and its storage location as per
our requirements?
5) Will the software be updated monthly without any disruption of services ?

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 26

Direction (148-150): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:
A & B (18) – A is 15m to the North of B
A $ B (9) – A is 14m to the East of B
A @ B (25) – A is 21m to the West of B
A % B (18) – A is 23m to the South of B
148. If K & T (16), G % N (2), V @ N (5) and G $ T (4) then find out the shortest distance
between V and K?
1) 9m 2) 8m 3) 10m 4) 11m 5) 7m
149. If H @ N (12), D % S (1), P & H (15), P @ S (9), X & R (18) and D @ R (8) then which

r’s
direction is point R with respect to point N?
1) South 2) South-West 3) North-East 4) North-West 5) South-East
150. Q @ Y (10), G % Y (3), X $ G (5), V & X (15), V @ C (8), R & C (8), R $ S (6), S & H
(5) and M @ H (13) then find out the distance and direction of point M with
respect to point Q?
1) 7m, South
4) 9m, South-west
ha 2) 8m, North-east
5) 7m, North
3) 5m, North

Direction (151-152): Study the following information and answer the given

151.
question:

E
In this question is given an information followed by two statements numbered I
d
and II. You have to consider the Information and following statements and decide
which of the following may be an effect of the given information?
Information - Company A recently purchased 50 new flats for its employees
ee

following several requests from various employees. However, 35 of the 50 flats

still remain unallocated even after a year of purchase as the response of
employees for those flats was very
C
Statement I: The said flats are located very far from the office thereby increasing
the travel time by two hours.
Sr

Statement II: 10 of the 50 flats are part of a residential society which is speculated
to undergo redevelopment in the next two years.
1) Only II may be an effect 2) Both I and II may be an effect
3) Only I may be an effect 4) Either I or II may be an effect
5) Neither I nor II may be an effect
152. This consists of a situation followed by two statements numbered I and II given
C
below it. You have to assume everything to be true and then decide which of
following statements is a consequence of the given situation:
Situation: Company B is one of the leading manufacturers of electronic items
and gadgets in Country K. Company B is planning to launch a smart TV with
touch screen next month.
Statement I: The touch screen smart TV being launched by Company B will
definitely become the highest selling smart TV in the market
Statement II: After the launch of smart TV with touch screen in the market
Company B will stop manufacturing any other smart TV with immediate effect
1) Only I may be a consequence of the given situation
2) Only II may be a consequence of the given situation
3) Either I or II may be a consequence of the given situation
4) Neither I nor II may be a consequence of the given situation
5) Both I and II may be a consequence of the given situation

23
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 26

Direction (153-157): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:
Eight people viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W were born in eight different
months of JANUARY, MARCH, APRIL, MAY….. of the same year, and they have
different coins viz. 24, 27, 31, 39, 47, 58, 63 and 78.
Only three people were born between W and the one who has 63 coins. The
person who has 63 coins is born in the month which has 31 days. Only one
person was born between S and the one who born in November and no one born
after the month of November. Only one person was born between V and the one
who has 24 coins and both are born after May and both are born in the months

r’s
which have 31 days. The sum of the coins of W and P is equal to the coins of V.
Only four people were born between T and the one who was born in September. R
was born after S. Only two people were born between R and P. The sum of the
coins of R and S is equal to the coins of T. Q has 47 coins and was born before U
and both are born in the months, which have 31 days. The number of coins with

153.
ha
U is as twice as W. The one who has 31 coins was born before V.
What is the sum of the number of coins of V and W?
1) 92 2) 109 3) 123 4) 102 5) 116
154.
1) July

E
P is born on which of the following months?
2) August 3) September 4) October 5) Either July or August
d
155. Who has least number of coins among them?
1) S 2) P 3) R 4) T 5) U
156. Which of the following statement/s is/are true as per the given arrangement?
ee

1) W was born in the month of April.

2) Only two people were born between Q and the one who has 24 coins.
C
3) W has 39 coins.
4) Only three people were born in the month, which have 30 days.
Sr

5) All the statements are true.

157. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as
per the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following
does not belong to that group?
1) R – 31 2) S – U 3) October – W 4) T – 39 5) May – S
Direction (158-161): Study the given information carefully and answer the given
C
questions:
In alphabetical series, all the vowels are removed and then the letters are
coded as 1-7 like B is coded as 1, C is coded as 2, D is coded as 3 and so on. Now,
next letters after 7 will again be coded 1-7 till Z. Vowels are coded as below
arrangement.
TIME – 2&3*
GARLIC – 5@72&2
CLOUD – 22+^3
I. If the first letter is vowel and last letter is consonant then second letter of the
word is coded as ‘%’.
II. If the word begins and ends with vowel then the third letter of the word is
coded as ‘#’.
III. If there are more than three vowels in a word, then the last two vowels are
coded as ‘>’.

24
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 26

158. What is the code of ‘ACCURATE GREAT’?

1) @2#^7@2* 57@*2 2) >2#>7@2% 75+2@
3) @2#^7>2> 57*@2 4) @4#*7>2> 57*@1
5) *2#^7>2@ 57*@2
159. What is the code for the word ‘BEAUTIFUL’?
1) 1*@^2>4>2 2) 1*@^2&4>2
3) 1*@^5>4>2 4) 1+@^2>8>2
5) 1*@%2>4>2

r’s
160. What is the code for the word ‘AFFECT ORANGE’?
1) @#4*22 +7#45* 2) @%4*22 >8#45*
3) @%9*21 +7#45* 4) &%4#22 +7#45*
5) @%4*22 +7#45*
ha
161. What is the code for the word ‘MEASURE CUBE OCEAN’?
1) 3*%1>7> 2^1* +%*@4 2) 3*@4>7> 2#1* >%*@4
3) 3*@1>7>
5) 3*@1>7+
2^1*
2^1*

E
+%*@4
+%*@2
4) 5*@1>7> 2^1* +%*@4
d
162. Study the following information and answer the given questions:
The waste management programme initiative by the government of State A, which
ee

involved the monthly collection of non-degradable household waste at the ward

level, has been suspended indefinitely six months after its commencement. The
decision taken by the government to suspend the programme may be a
C
consequence of which of the following?
(A) Due to the monthly waste collection schedule, where only one type of waste
Sr

(such as plastic, glass, rubber, etc.) is collected each month, many people have
complained about the tedious task of sorting and safety storing the waste in
their homes until the next collection cycle for that specific waste category arrives
in the following months.
(B) in the last three months there has been a 65% increase in the volume of
waste reaching the state’s existing waste management facilities. As a result,
C
substantial quantities of waste have accumulated at the current treatment plants
in the state, remaining untouched for several months.
(C) The district coordinator of district B, the most urbanized district in the state
has requested government approval to incinerate 3200 tonnes of non-degradable
and non-recyclable waste. However, this proposal has faced criticism from few
environmentalists within the state.
(D) The state government has recently received reports highlighting a significant
increase in illegal dumping of non-degradable waste in various areas, due to the
restrictions on waste collection under the programme. This has led to
environmental concerns and a lack of community cooperation in adhering to the
collection schedule.
1) Only (A) 2) only (B) 3) Only (B) and (C)
4) Only (A) and (B) 5) Only (D)

25
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 26

Direction (163-166): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:
Twelve boxes viz. M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are kept in two stacks
- Stack A and Stack B such that the bottom-most box is numbered as 1 and the
top-most box is numbered as 6. Stack A is to the west of Stack B. All boxes are of
same dimension. Some of the boxes are of different colours.
Note: If it is given that Box E is kept one/two/three boxes above/below Box F,
then, both the boxes are kept in the same type of stack unless stated otherwise.
If it is given that Box E is kept adjacent to Box F, then Box E is either west/east

r’s
of Box F unless stated otherwise.
Gray coloured box is kept three places above the Pink coloured box. Box M is
kept adjacent to Pink coloured box. Box S is kept two places above box V. Box S is
an odd numbered box. Box U, which is a yellow coloured box is kept three places
ha
above box O. Box P is kept one place above Red colour box. Box T is not kept in
stack A. Pink colour box is kept one place below box V, but not in the same type of
stack. Box M and box O are kept in different type of stack. Box W is kept three

E
places below Black coloured box. Box U is kept one place above box N, which is an
odd numbered box. Box O is not kept adjacent to box V. Box P is kept adjacent to
d
box U. Box W and box Q are kept in the same type of stack. Box X is kept three
places above box R. Blue coloured box is kept one place below box R, but not in the
same type of stack.
ee

163. Which of the following boxes are kept in stack B?

I. P II. N III. O
C
1) Only I and II 2) Only II and III 3) Only I and III 4) Only III 5) All I, II and
III
Sr

164. Box P is how many places below Box Q in stack A?

1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) More than three 5) None of these
165. Which of the following statements is/are true as per the given arrangement?
1) Box M and Box V are adjacent boxes of different stacks.
2) Box T is kept three places above Box N.
C
3) Box W is Black coloured box.
4) Box S and Box R are adjacent boxes.
5) All the statements are true.
166. Box S is kept adjacent to which of the following box in different type of stack?
1) W 2) O 3) X 4) R 5) None of these
167. If the third letter of all the words in each row are taken then which of the
following row forms a meaningful word?
I. SAD, NUT, VAN, BYE
II. PAY, MAP, SUN, BUS
III. GUM, PIC, VAR, AGO
1) Only I 2) Both I and III 3) Only III
4) All I, II and III 5) None

26
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 26

168. Read the given information and answer the question:

The incidents of robbery on the highway between city X and city Z have increased
in the past three months. Select the most appropriate sequence of courses of
action to prevent robbery on the highway. (A course of action is a step or
administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow up or further action
in regard to the problem, policy etc.)
(A) Movements of habitual offenders and robbers released from jail should be
tracked regularly.
(B) Vulnerable places on the highway between city X and city Z should be
identified.

r’s
(C) Self-defence training should be provided to people to tackle with the robbers.
(D) Police patrolling should be increased during night on the highway.
1) DCAB 2) BDAC 3) CABD 4) ABCD 5) BADC
Direction (169-171): Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
ha
First twelve even numbers are written from top to bottom. The letters of the
word ‘DARK’ are written in alphabetical order against the multiples of six such
that one letter is written against one number from top to bottom. Only two numbers

E
are left blank and against rest of the numbers, letters viz. G, M, Q, S, T and V
were written against rest of the numbers not necessarily in the same order.
More than three letters are placed between V and K. S was written against
d
the number which is the highest square number among the given numbers. The
top and bottom most numbers are not left blank. Only two letters are placed
between S and Q. T was written above V. A is immediate to neither G nor the
ee

blank places. Letter D is placed exactly between two blank places.

169. How many meaningful words can be formed by using the letters which are placed
at 6, 8, 18 and 24 positions (Each letter using only once)?
C
1) Two 2) Three 3) One 4) None 5) More than three
170. What is the sum of the numbers against which letters V and G are written?
Sr

1) 26 2) 27 3) 30 4) 24 5) 18
171. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as
per the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following
does not belong to that group?
1) R, K 2) A, S 3) T, M 4) M, S 5) G, D
172. Study the following information and answer the given question:
Situation: Despite the cut off percentage for the pre-placement aptitude exams
C
remaining the same as previous years, the number of students qualifying for
placements from the university have sharply declined this year as compared to
the previous year.
Following are some data points collected by the placement cell of the university :
Point 1: 15% lesser students applied for the pre-placement aptitude exams this
year as compared to the previous year.
Point 2: Organizations recruiting from the university declared that they will now
give 60:40 weightage to final semester exam scores and marks scored in the pre-
placement aptitude exams, respectively.
Point 3: Average student performance has dropped by 38% in the final semester
as compared to the previous year.
Point 4: The syllabus for the pre- placement aptitude exams, which was changed
year, became twice as difficult as compared to the syllabus used before.
1) Only 1 2) Only 2 and 3
3) Only 4 4) Only 3 and 4 5) Only 2

27
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 26

Direction (173-175): In these questions the given symbols %, *, ^, #, @, ~, &

and + have been used with the following Illustration.
“P % Q” means P is the son of Q
“P * Q” means P is the sister of Q
“P ^ Q” means P is the brother of Q
“P # Q” means P is the father of Q
“P @ Q” means P is spouse of Q
“P ~ Q” means P is the mother of Q
“P & Q” means P is the sister-in-law of Q

r’s
“P + Q” means P is the daughter of Q
Statement I: E ~ S # N ^ R + V, M % G @ A ~ V & B * X % E
Statement II: G & K ^ C + B @ R ~ F @ G +D, E ^ S @ N % M @ C
173. How is B related to N?
ha
1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the
data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while the

E
data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
3) The data in both statement I and statement II together are necessary to answer
d
the question
4) The data either in statement I alone or data in statement II alone is sufficient
ee

to answer the question

5) The data in both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to
answer the question
C
174. Who is the mother-in-law of M?
1) The data either in statement I alone or data in statement II alone is sufficient
Sr

to answer the question

2) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the
data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question
3) The data in both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to
answer the question
4) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while the
C
data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
5) The data in both statement I and statement II together are necessary to answer
the question.
175. If Y @ E * W, then how is W related to B?
1) The data in both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to
answer the question
2) The data either in statement I alone or data in statement II alone are sufficient
to answer the question
3) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while the
data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
4) The data in both statement I and statement II together are necessary to answer
the question.
5) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the
data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question

28
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 26

176. If it is possible to make only one meaningful four letter English word with the
given four words in the each statement by applying given conditions then those
statements are your answer.
Condition 1: Taking first vowel from left end in the first word from left end.
Condition 2: Taking nearest consonant of vowel (which is from condition-1) in
second word.
Condition 3: Taking third consonant from right end in third word.

r’s
Condition 4: Taking highest numerical value of the letter as per the English
alphabetical order in fourth word.
Statement I: COIN BLUE GIFT SIZE
Statement II: BEAN HONK LUCK CAMP
Statement III: SUIT
ha DATE HANG WOLF
Statement IV: PAIN
1) Only I and III

E SHIP
2) Only IV
BYTE TRIP
3) Only II and IV
d
4) Only III 5) Only I and IV
177. Read the given information to answer the given question: (Conclusion)
ee

Proponents of renewable energy argue that transitioning to wind and solar power
will significantly reduce greenhouse gas emissions and combat climate changes.
C
Critics, however, point out that the intermittent nature of these energy sources
necessitates the development of efficient energy storage solutions. Without such
Sr

solutions, reliance on renewable could lead to energy shortages and increased

use of backup fossil fuel plants, which might negate the environmental benefits.
Additionally, the production and disposal of solar panels and wind turbines have
their own environmental impacts.
Which of the following, if true, would best address the critic’s concerns about the
C
intermittent nature of wind and solar power?
1) Governments are offering subsidies for the installation of solar panels and
wind turbines.
2) New grid management technologies are currently being developed to better
integrate energy sources.
3) Advances in battery technology have made energy storage more efficient and
affordable.
4) Public opinion strongly favors the adoption of renewable energy sources.
5) Wind and solar power are projected to become the cheapest sources of energy
within the next decade.

29
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 26

Direction (178-180): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:
Seven people viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U and V got different marks. Only two people
got more marks than S. R got more marks than T but fewer marks than P. V got
fewer marks than Q but more marks than U. P doesn’t get more marks than S. U
got more marks than R but fewer marks than P. The second-highest marks are
96. The third lowest marks are 65.
178. Who amongst the following person got second lowest marks?
1) V 2) T 3) R 4) P 5) U

r’s
179. How many people got more marks than P?
1) Three 2) Four 3) One 4) Two 5) More than four
180. If the sum of the marks of V and R is 152 and the sum of the marks of U and Q is
163, then what is the average marks of Q and R?
1) 74 2) 67 3) 82 4) 77 5) 71
ha
Direction (181-185): A number arrangement machine arranges two digit numbers
in a certain manner. Step-1 is obtained by taking the difference of the numbers
given in Input on the basis of given arrows. Each step is obtained by applying an

E
operation different from the previous step. Each step gives output taking input
from the previous step.
d
ee
C
Sr
C

Using the above illustration solve the following input:

181. What would be the difference of the sum of the digits of both boxes of step-2?
1) 0 2) 5 3) 4 4) 2 5) 3
182. What is the sum of all the digits in step 1?
1) 39 2) 37 3) 40 4) 41 5) 38

30
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 26

183. Which digit will be added to the sum of the two digits of the first box in Step -3 to
divide perfectly by the digit in step 4?
1) 4 2) 7 3) 3 4) 5 5) 9
184. Which of the following numbers will be present in step-1?
1) 56 2) 73 3) 91 4) 79 5) 84
185. How many numbers in all steps are divisible by the digit in the last step?
1) One 2) Three 3) Four 4) Two 5) No one
186. Given below are three combinations (i), (ii) and (iii) of five letters. In each

r’s
combination you have to arrange all the letters as per the English alphabetical
order from left to right. Then, in each combination the first letter from the left
end will be numbered I, the second letter from the left end will be numbered II,
the third letter from the left end will be numbered III and so on. Hence in each
combination I, II, III, IV and V will denote the position of the letter from left end.
(i) M R D U K
ha
(ii) E X N C Q
(iii) P S B H T

E
From each of the given combinations, the letters that are at the same position
d
are clubbed together. The letters at which of the position/s (I, II, III, IV and/or V)
will appear alphabetically if taken in order of combination (i), (ii) and (iii)
ee

respectively ?
1) Both III and V 2) Only III 3) Both II and III
4) Both I and III 5) Only I, IV and V
C
187. Read the given information to answer the given question. (Argument)
Sr

Cities around the world are grappling with rising levels of air pollution. One
proposed solution is the widespread adoption of urban green spaces, such as
parks and green roofs. Proponents claim that these green spaces can significantly
reduce air pollution by absorbing pollutants and producing oxygen. They argue
that increasing green spaces will improve air quality and public health. Critics,
however, question the effectiveness of this approach, suggesting that it might
C
not be sufficient to address the scale of the problem.
Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument in favour of
increasing urban green spaces?
A.Studies show that indoor plants can help regulate temperatures within certain
building premises.
B.Green spaces have been shown to improve mental health and well-being.
C.People living in urban areas with extensive green spaces report lower levels of
respiratory diseases.
D.Advances in horticulture have led to development of plant that are more efficient
at absorbing pollutants.
1) Only B and D 2) Only A and D 3) Only C and D
4) Only A, B, and C 5) Only A, C and D

31
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 26

Direction (188-190): Study the information carefully and answer the given
questions:
Following are the criteria for selecting team leader for the software company
XYZ. The candidate should.
Age Securit
Work Written Interview
Person (as on 1-1- Primary language y
Experience Test Score Score
2025) deposit
M 29 4 years 85% 5.6 English, Kannada 59k
N 37 2 years 62% 6.2 Hindi, English 74k
O 24 5 years 75% 7.3 Kannada, Telugu 45k

r’s
P 32 4 years 73% 7.1 Telugu, Hindi 82k
Q 28 2 years 68% 6.8 English, Telugu 66k
R 31 5 years 89% 8.3 Hindi, Kannada 72k

(i) The person has a work experience of at least three years.

(ii) The person is fluent in either Telugu or Hindi.
ha
(iii) Have scored at least 60% in the written test.
(iv) Have scored at least 6.5 in the interview.
(v) be at least 28 years and not more than 35 years as on 01-1-2025.

E
If the candidate satisfies all the above criteria, the candidate may be selected. If
the candidate fulfils all the criteria except,
(a) criterion (i), deposited more than 65k, then he/she is referred to Managing
d
Director.
(b) criterion (v), but has a work experience of at least four years then he/she is
referred to Chairman.
ee

Based on the above information and data given in each question, you have to
decide the course of action. You are not to assume anything.
188. Who amongst the following candidates are selected?
C
1) Only R 2) Only M 3) Only P and R 4) Only P 5) Only M and O
189. Who amongst the following candidates are referred to Chairman?
Sr

1) Only R 2) Only N 3) Only Q and N 4) Only O 5) Only M

190. Who amongst the following candidates are rejected?
1) Only M 2) Only N 3) Only O 4) Only M and N 5) Only R

KEY
1.2 2.3 3.4 4.2 5.2 6.4 7.3 8.4 9.1 10.4
11.5 12.3 13.5 14.2 15.3 16.4 17.5 18.3 19.5 20.4
C
21.2 22.3 23.5 24.2 25.4 26.1 27.5 28.2 29.3 30.1
31.2 32.3 33.4 34.3 35.2 36.5 37.1 38.5 39.2 40.3
41.2 42.2 43.1 44.3 45.2 46.3 47.1 48.3 49.3 50.5
SCAN QR FOR
51.3 52.2 53.3 54.3 55.2 56.4 57.5 58.3 59.2 60.4
OUR RESULTS
61.1 62.4 63.2 64.1 65.4 66.2 67.2 68.1 69.3 70.2
71.3 72.2 73.3 74.5 75.4 76.4 77.5 78.3 79.4 80.3
81.5 82.1 83.3 84.3 85.1 86.1 87.3 88.2 89.4 90.1
91.5 92.2 93.1 94.3 95.5 96.4 97.5 98.1 99.4 100.5
101.3 102.5 103.1 104.2 105.2 106.4 107.1 108.4 109.1 110.4
111.2 112.4 113.4 114.5 115.1 116.2 117.5 118.4 119.2 120.1
121.2 122.1 123.1 124.1 125.2 126.1 127.5 128.4 129.5 130.4
131.4 132.5 133.2 134.2 135.5 136.1 137.3 138.5 139.2 140.4
141.2 142.2 143.3 144.3 145.1 146.5 147.3 148.3 149.3 150.5
151.3 152.4 153.4 154.5 155.2 156.5 157.3 158.3 159.1 160.5
161.3 162.2 163.2 164.2 165.2 166.3 167.2 168.2 169.3 170.4
171.4 172.3 173.4 174.4 175.1 176.3 177.2 178.3 179.1 180.4
181.4 182.1 183.4 184.5 185.1 186.2 187.3 188.3 189.4 190.4

32