Subjects: Strength of Materials, Structural Analysis, RCC, Steel Design

Total Questions: 60

A. Strength of Materials (13 Questions)

Q1. A steel bar of 2 m length and 20 mm diameter is subjected to a tensile load of 30 kN. If E
= 200 GPa, the elongation is: (A) 0.95 mm (B) 1.9 mm (C) 0.48 mm (D) 0.76 mm

Q2. A simply supported beam of span 6 m carries a central point load of 20 kN. The
maximum bending stress is proportional to: (A) L (B) L² (C) L³ (D) 1/L

Q3. (MSQ) Principal planes are those where:

(A) Shear stress is zero (B) Normal stress is maximum/minimum (C) Both shear and normal
stresses are equal (D) Angle of obliquity is 45°

Q4. The polar moment of inertia of a solid circular shaft of diameter d is:

(A) πd³/16 (B) πd⁴/32 (C) πd⁴/64 (D) πd⁴/32

Q5. (NAT) A cantilever beam of length 2 m carries a point load of 10 kN at the free end. The
maximum deflection is ___ mm. (Take EI = 40 kNm²)

Q6. In Mohr’s circle, the center represents: (A) Maximum shear stress (B) Average normal
stress (C) Maximum normal stress (D) Principal stress

Q7. For a thin cylinder subjected to internal pressure, the ratio of hoop stress to longitudinal
stress is: (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 0.5 (D) 4

Q8. (NAT) A rectangular beam section is 200 mm deep and 100 mm wide. Its section
modulus is ___ × 10³ mm³.

Q9. Shear stress distribution in a triangular section is: (A) Linear (B) Parabolic (C)
Trapezoidal (D) Cubic

Q10. Euler’s critical buckling load for a column hinged at both ends is: (A) π²EI/L² (B)
π²EI/4L² (C) 2π²EI/L² (D) 4π²EI/L²

Q11. A 25 mm diameter steel rod is subjected to a tensile stress of 100 MPa. The force
carried by the rod is ___ kN.

Q12. Poisson’s ratio can never be greater than: (A) 0.25 (B) 0.33 (C) 0.5 (D) 1.0

Q13. The assumptions in pure bending theory are: (A) Material is homogeneous (B) Plane
sections remain plane (C) Stress is linear across section (D) Modulus of elasticity varies
with depth
B. Structural Analysis (12 Questions)
Q14. The degree of static indeterminacy of a propped cantilever beam is: (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2
(D) 3

Q15. Castigliano’s theorem is applicable for: (A) Linear elastic structures only (B) Plastic
structures (C) Rigid bodies (D) All types of structures

Q16. (NAT) A two-hinged parabolic arch of span 20 m and rise 5 m carries a UDL of 20
kN/m. The horizontal thrust is ___ kN.

Q17. A plane truss has 10 joints and 15 members. Its condition is: (A) Perfect (B) Deficient
(C) Redundant (D) Unstable

Q18. Influence lines can be drawn for: (A) Shear force (B) Bending moment (C) Deflection
(D) Material strength

Q19. In slope-deflection method, the unknowns are: (A) Support reactions (B) Joint
rotations and displacements (C) Bending moments (D) Shear forces

Q20. A simply supported beam of 8 m span carries a UDL of 10 kN/m. The maximum
bending moment is ___ kNm.

Q21. The Maxwell-Betti reciprocal theorem is valid if: (A) Structure is linear elastic (B)
Displacements are small (C) Material follows Hooke’s law (D) All of the above

Q22. In moment distribution method, carry-over factor for a fixed end is: (A) 0.5 (B) 0 (C) 1
(D) 2

Q23. Clapeyron’s theorem of three moments applies to: (A) Simply supported beams (B)
Continuous beams (C) Cantilevers (D) Arches

Q24. A fixed beam of span 6 m carries a central point load of 30 kN. The fixed-end moment
is ___ kNm.

Q25. A portal frame with sidesway has: (A) Horizontal reactions unequal (B) Bending in
columns (C) Axial load in columns (D) No vertical reactions

C. Reinforced Concrete Design (13 Questions)

Q26. The design compressive strength of M25 concrete is: (A) 25 MPa (B) 20 MPa (C) 15
MPa (D) 17 MPa

Q27. (NAT) For Fe500 steel, the design strength is ___ MPa.

Q28. Limiting neutral axis depth for Fe250 steel is: (A) 0.53d (B) 0.48d (C) 0.46d (D) 0.42d

Q29. The minimum clear cover for slab reinforcement as per IS 456 is: (A) 15 mm (B) 20
mm (C) 25 mm (D) 30 mm
Q30. Doubly reinforced beams are designed when: (A) Depth is restricted (B) Moment
exceeds limiting moment (C) Both tension and compression steel are required (D) Beam is
slender

Q31. The maximum percentage of tension reinforcement in beams as per IS 456 is: (A) 2%
(B) 4% (C) 6% (D) 8%

Q32. The minimum eccentricity for a column of length 4 m and depth 400 mm is ___ mm.

Q33. IS 456 recommends minimum grade of concrete for RCC as: (A) M15 (B) M20 (C) M25
(D) M30

Q34. Partial safety factor for concrete in limit state method is: (A) 1.0 (B) 1.15 (C) 1.25 (D)
1.5

Q35. The minimum diameter of bars used for stirrups in beams is ___ mm.

Q36. Effective length of column depends on: (A) End conditions (B) Slenderness ratio (C)
Effective height (D) Support restraints

Q37. A flat slab system transfers loads primarily through: (A) Bending in beams (B) Two-
way action of slab (C) Shear walls (D) Cantilever action

Q38. The maximum spacing of shear reinforcement in beams as per IS 456 is ___ mm.

D. Steel Design (12 Questions)

Q39. The design strength of steel in limit state method is: (A) fy / 1.15 (B) fy / 1.5 (C) fy /
1.0 (D) fy / 2.0

Q40. The maximum slenderness ratio of a member carrying dead and live loads is ___ (as per
IS 800).

Q41. Lateral-torsional buckling in beams occurs due to: (A) Shear in web (B) Compression
in flange (C) Bending stress in flange (D) Excessive span

Q42. The effective length of a column with one end fixed and other hinged is: (A) L (B) 0.7L
(C) 0.8L (D) 0.5L

Q43. Bolted connections fail by: (A) Shear of bolts (B) Bearing of bolts on plate (C) Tearing
of plate (D) Shear lag

Q44. The effective throat thickness of a fillet weld is: (A) Equal to leg size (B) 0.7 × leg size
(C) 1.2 × leg size (D) 2 × leg size

Q45. The maximum pitch of bolts in tension members is ___ mm (as per IS 800).
Q46. Plastic section modulus is always: (A) Less than elastic section modulus (B) Equal to
elastic section modulus (C) Greater than elastic section modulus (D) Unrelated

Q47. (MSQ) The purpose of providing batten plates in built-up columns is: (A) To resist
shear (B) To keep components together (C) To resist buckling (D) To transfer bending
moment

Q48. The effective length of a steel compression member with both ends fixed is: (A) L (B)
0.5L (C) 0.7L (D) 2L

Q49. The maximum spacing of vertical stiffeners in a plate girder is ___ times the depth of
web.

Q50. A steel tension member is designed for: (A) Yield stress (B) Rupture strength (C) Block
shear strength (D) Minimum of above three

1. What is the primary product formed during the hydration of cement? [ ]

a) Calcium carbonate b) Calcium silicate hydrate
c) Calcium hydroxide d) Ettringite
2. Which compound in cement reacts the fastest with water? [ ]
a) C3S b) C2S c) C3A d) C4AF

3. What role does gypsum play in cement hydration? [ ]

a) Speeds up the reaction of C3A b) Controls the rate of C3A hydration
c) Reduces strength of cement d) Provides workability

4. Which of the following is a by-product of cement hydration?

[ ]
a) Silica gel b) Calcium hydroxide c) Sodium sulfate d) Aluminum oxide
5. What is the chemical formula of C3S? [ ]
a) 3CaO·SiO2 b) 2CaO·SiO2 c) 3CaO·Al2O3 d) 4CaO·Al2O3·Fe2O3

6. Which of the following hydration products contributes the most to the strength of
concrete? [ ]
a) Calcium silicate hydrate b) Calcium hydroxide c) Ettringite d) Gypsum

7. What happens during the dormant period of cement hydration? [ ]

a) Rapid heat release b) Formation of hydration products c) Slowing down of
reaction
d) Formation of ettringite

8. What is the approximate percentage of C3S in ordinary Portland cement? [ ]

a) 10-20% b) 40-60% c) 70-80% d) 20-30%

9. Which Bouge’s compound causes short term and long-term strength gain in cement?
[ ]
a) C3S and C2S b C2S and C3S c) C3S and C3A d) C2S and C3A

10. Which phase in the hydration process is responsible for the initial set of cement? [ ]
a) C3S reaction b) C3A reaction c) C2S reaction d) C4AF reaction