1.

Assertion: order is a taxanomic category that includes one or more genera

Reason: All the genera in a family have some similar features and co-related characters.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
2.On the basis of inputs given, one can put the given organism, in which of the following kingdom? (as per
understandings of R.H Whittaker)
(A) Cell type -Eukaryotic
(B) Cell wall -Present (without cellulose)
(C) Nuclear membrane -Present
(D) Body organization -Multicellular/loose tissue
(E) Mode of nutrition-Heterotrophic (Saprophytic/Parasitic)
a) Plantae b) Fungi c) Animalia d) Protista
3.In plants symptoms like mosaic formation, leaf rolling and curling, yellowing and vein clearing dwarfing
and stunted growth due to infection of
a) fungi b) bacteriophage c) virus d) viriods
4.Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: Volvox forms spherical colony.
Statement 2: Volvox colony is made up of non-motile cells.
a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
b) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
c) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
5.Consider the following statements regarding the major pigments and stored food in the different groups of
algae and choose the correct option.
(i) In Chlorophyceae, the stored food material is starch and the major pigments are chlorophyll-a and d.
(ii) In Phaeophyceae, laminarin is the stored food and major pigments are chlorophyll-a and b.
(iii) In Rhodophyceae, floridean starch is the stored food and the major pigments are chlorophyll-a, d
and phycoerythrin.
a) (i) is correct, but (ii) and (iii) are wrong. b) (i) and (ii) are correct, but (iii) is wrong.
c) (i) and (iii) are correct, but (ii) is wrong. d) (iii) is correct, but (i) and (ii) are wrong.
6.The floral formula shown below belongs to family

a) Liliaceae b) Fabaceae c) Brassicaceae d) Solanaceae

7.Given below are the diagrammatic representation of position of floral parts on thalamus, condition of
ovary and example. Find the correctly matched combination?
Position of floral parts on thalamus Conditions of ovary Example

a) Cucumber
 b) Brinjal

c) Plum

d) Rose
8.Which of the following statement (s) is/are incorrect?
(i) Calyx and corolla are reproductive organs of a flower.
(ii) Zygomorphic flower can be divided into two equal radial halves in any radial plane.
(iii) Flowers without bracts are termed as bracteate.
(iv) Parthenocarpic fruit is formed after fertilization of the ovary.
(v) In legumes, seed is non-endospermic.
(vi) Radical buds develop on roots.
a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) b) (i), (ii) and (v)
c) (iii), (iv) and (vi) d) (i), (iv) and (v)
9.A diagram of T.S. of dicot root is given. Select the option which correctly labels A, B, C, D, and E.

A B C D E
a) protoxylem metaxylem phloem pericycle endodermis
b) metaxylem protoxylem phloem pericycle endodermis
c) protoxylem metaxylem phloem endodermis pericycle
d) metaxylem protoxylem phloem endodermis pericycle
10. Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: Anatomically, all the tissues present on the inner side of endodermis such as pericycle,
vascular bundles and pith constitute the stele.
Statement 2: Ring arrangement of vascular bundles is a characteristic of dicot stem.
a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
b) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
c) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
11. Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect?
a) They are not bound by any membrane.
b) These are involved in ingestion of food particles.
c) They lie free in the cytoplasm.
d) These represent reserve material in cytoplasm.

READ THE GIVEN PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS

“Almost all enzymes are proteins. There are some nucleic acids that behave like enzymes, these are called
ribozymes. Enzymes have protein portion (P) and non-protein constituents (Q) which make enzyme
catalytically active. Q is of further different types. When Q is removed, catalytic activity of enzyme is
lost.”
12. Identify the P and Q
P Q
a) apoenzyme cofactor
b) cofactor apoenzyme
c) holoenzyme apoenzyme
d) apoenzyme holoenzyme
13. What could be types of Q?
a) Prosthetic group b) Coenzyme c) Metal ions d) All of these
14. Select the events that do not occur in interphase stage of cell-cycle
A. RNA and protein synthesis. B. Cytoplasmic growth. C. Polymerisation of spindle fibres protein.
D. Disappearance of Golgi bodies and ER. E. DNA molecules in highly supercoiled stage.
a) C, D & E b) D & E only
c) B, C & D d) C & D only
15. Given below is the pathway of light reaction. Identify the given blanks indicated by A, B, C and D

16. Assertion (A): In C₄ plants, the primary CO₂ acceptor is phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP).
Reason (R): PEP carboxylase in mesophyll cells fixes CO₂ to form oxaloacetic acid (OAA)
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
17. Calvin cycle expends the following for fixation of 3-molecules of CO2
a) 9 ATP and 6 NADPH2 b) 8 ATP and 6 NADPH2
c) 9 ATP and 3 NADPH2 d) 6 ATP and 9 NADPH2
18. Assertion (A): In C₃ plants, some O₂ binds to RuBisCO, reducing CO₂ fixation.
Reason (R): RuBisCO has equal affinity for both CO₂ and O₂, and the binding is based on their relative
concentrations.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
19. How many ATP molecules could maximally be generated from one molecule of glucose, if the
complete oxidation of one mole of glucose to CO2 and H2O yields 686 kcal and the useful chemical
energy available in the high energy phosphate bond of one mole of ATP is 12 kcal?
a) 38 b) 57 c) 2 d) 30
20. Where does the substrate level phosphorylation TCA cycle occurs at
a) during the formation of α ketoglutaric acid from citric acid
b) during the conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinic acid
c) during the formation of malic acid from succuinic acid
d) conversion of pyruvic acid from phsphoenolpyruvate
21. Choose the wrongly matched pair from the following
a) Auxins – “to grow” b) Gibberellins – “Gibberella fujikuroi”
c) Cytokinins – Herring sperm DNA d) Abscisic acid – Flowering hormone
22. Parthenocarpic fruit can be produced by the application of which of the following auxin?
a) IBA (Indole butyric acid) b) IAA (Indole acetic acid)
c) 2, 4-D (2-4 dichlorophenoxy acetic acid) d) All of the above
23. The conditions necessary for vernalization are
a) high temperature and water b) low temperature, water and oxygen
c) water and carbon dioxide d) oxygen and water
24. Identify A to F in the diagram given below.

(a) A–Egg, B–Filiform apparatus, C–Synergid, D–Antipodals, E–Polar nuclei,

F–Central cell

(b) A–Egg, B–Synergid, C–Filiform apparatus, D–Antipodals, E–Central cell,

F–Polar nuclei

(c) A–Central cell, B–Egg, C–Synergid, D–Antipodals, E–Filiform apparatus,

F–Polar nuclei

(d) A–Filiform apparatus, B–Synergid, C–Egg, D–Central cell, E–Polar nuclei, F–Antipodals

25. If stem has 2n =10 number of chromosomes then find out

A – number of chromosome in endosperm.
B – number of chromosome in egg cell.
C – number of chromosome in polar nuclei, respectively.
 a) 15, 15, 20 b) 10, 15, 20 c) 15, 5, 10 d) 10, 5, 15
26. In maize, coloured endosperm (C) is dominant over coloureless (c); and full endosoperm (R) is
dominant over shrunken (r). When a dihybrid of F1 generation was test crossed, it produced your
phenotypes in the followingpercentage:
Coloured full - 48% Coloured shrunken - 5%
Colourless full - 7% Colourless shrunken - 40%
From this data, what will be the distance between two non-allelic genes?
a) 48 units (b) 5 units
c) 7 units (d) 12 units
27. How many hydrogen bonds are present in three turns of dsDNA if 20% nucleotides are thymine ?
a)24 b)54 c) 78 d) 100
28. In a plant species, flower colour yellow is dominant over white, and fruit shape round is dominant
over elongated. Crossing was performed between two pure lines – one having yellow-flower and
round-fruit, and another with white-flower and elongated-fruit. About 50 plants survived in
Fiprogeny. Plants of F1 were allowed to self-fertilize, and about 1120 plants. Survived in F2. If
the traits follow Mendelian inheritance, the number of plants would have yellow-flower and
round-fruit in F1 and F2 are respectively
a) 50, 630 b) 10,180 c) 10,60 d) 50,1120
29. Study the pedigree chart given below:

what does it shows

a) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like Haemophilia
b) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of metabolism Like phenylketonuria
c) Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an Autosomal recessive trait
d) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible
30. ABO blood group system is due to
a) multifactor inheritance
b) incomplete dominance
c) multiple allelism
d) epistasis
31. The process of transformation is not affected by which of the following enzymes?
A. DNase B. RNase C. Peptidase D. Lipase
a) A, B b) A, B, C, D
c) B, C, D d) A, B, C
32. Select the incorrect statement regarding DNA replication
a) Leading strand is formed is 5' to 3' direction
b) Okazaki fragments are formed in 5' to 3' direction
 c) DNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation in 5' to 3' direction
d) DNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation in 3' to 5' direction
33. The enzyme, which helps to cut one strand of DNA duplex to release tension of coiling of two
strands is
(a) DNA ligase
(b) DNA polymerase I
(c) topoisomerase
(d) helicase or unwindases
34. In one polynucleotide strand of a DNA molecule the ratio of A + T/G + C is 0.3. What is the A +
G/T + C ratio of the entire DNA molecule?
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.6 c) 1.2 (d) 1
35. Streptokinase which is used as a ‘clot buster’ obtained from
(a) Streptococcus (b) Staphylococcus
(c) Lactobacillus (d) Saccharomyces
36. Which one of the following is a wrong matching of a microbe and its industrial product, while the
remaining three are
correct ?
(a) Yeast - statins
(b) Acetobacter aceti - acetic acid
(c) Clostridium butylicum - lactic acid
(d) Aspergillus niger - citric acid
37. Which bacterium helps in the production of ‘Swiss cheese’?
(a) Propionibacterium sharmanii
(b) Trichoderma polysporum
(c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(d) Aspergillus niger
38. Two different species cannot live for long duration in the same niche or habitat. This law is
(a) Allen’s law
(b) Gause’s hypothesis
(c) Dollo’s rule
(d) Weisman’s theory
39. If in a pond, there are 20 lotus plants of last year and through reproduction 8 new plants are
added. Then, the birth rate is
(a) 0.8 offspring per lotus per year
(b) 0.2 offspring per lotus per year
(c) 0.4 offspring per lotus per year
(d) 0.6 offspring per lotus per year
40. Population density of a population in a given habitat during a given period fluctuates due to the
change in
(a) natality and mortality (b) immigration
(c) emigration (d) All of these
41. Choose the incorrect option.
(a) GFC (Grazing Food Chain) begins with producers at the first trophic level
 (b) GFC binds up inorganic nutrients, while detritus chain helps in releasing inorganic nutrients to
the cycling pool
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Detritus chain account for less energy flow than grazing food chain
42. The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 was called
a) for conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilisation of its benefits
(b) to assess threat posed to native species by invasive weed species
(c) for immediate steps to discontinue the use of CFCs that were damaging the ozone layer
(d) to reduce CO2 emissions and global warming
43. In situ strategies include
I. national parks II. wildlife sanctuaries
III. biosphere reserves IV. sacred groves
Choose the correct option.
(a) I and II (b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II and III (d) I, II, III and IV
44. Which of the following is the most serious threat to biodiversity?
(a) Competition from exotic species
(b) Commercial harvesting (c) Habitat destruction
(d) Overexploitation
45. In an ecosystem if the Net Primary Productivity (NPP) of first trophic level is 100x (kcal m²)
what would be the GPP (Gross Primary Productivity) of the third trophic level of the same
ecosystem?
(1) 10x (kcal m-²) yr-1
(2) 100x /3x (kcal m-²) yr-1
(3) x/10(kcal m-²) yr-1
(4) x (kcal m-²) yr-1

ZOOLOGY
46. Which of the following statements is/are not true?
(i) In Urochordata, notochord is present in larval tail.
(ii) In Cephalochordata, notochord extends from head to tail region.
(iii) Branchiostoma belongs to hemichordata.
(iv) Only one class of living members, class Cyclostomata represents the super class agnatha
(a) (ii) and (iv) b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) only d) (i) and (iv)
47. Amphibians share with reptiles all of the following characters expect
(a) ventral heart
(b) external fertilization and indirect development
(c) dioecious, oviparous
(d) cold blooded or poikilotherms.
48. Tendons and ligaments are the examples of
(a) areolar connective tissue
(b) adipose tissue
(c) dense regular connective tissue
 (d) loose connective tissue
49. Intercalated discs are the communication junctions between the cells of
(a) cardiac muscles
(b) striped muscles
(c) adipose tissue
(d) nerve and striated muscles
50. Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2 ) released from body tissues into the blood is present as
(a) bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs
(b) free CO2 in blood plasma
(c) 70% carbamino- haemoglobin and 30% as bicarbonate
(d) carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs
51. The graph below shows how gaseous exchange in an amphibian varies with temperature.

The graph shows that at all temperatures the lungs :

(a) absorb more oxygen than the skin
(b) absorb less oxygen than the skin
(c) release more carbon dioxide than the skin
(d) Both a and c
52. An adult human with average health has systolic and diastolic pressures as
(a) 80mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
(b) 70 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg
(c) 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
(d) 50 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
53. Blood flows rather rapidly as it leaves the human heart. Upon arriving at the capillaries, it slows
dramatically. This reduction in speed is due largely to
(a) the loss of pressure as the blood gets farther away from the heart.
(b) changes in pressure that result from water evaporation on the skin.
(c) the resistance offered by the small diameter of the capillaries.
(d) differences in pressure caused by the sugar content of the blood.
54. The atrial walls are ___ than the ventricular wall, and pressure
55. generated in the atrial chambers is ___ than in the ventricles.
(a) thinner, higher (b) thinner, lower
(c) thicker, higher (d) thicker, lower
56. Which of the following represents a larger volume of air than is normally found in the resting
tidal volume of a human lung ?
(a) Residual volume
 (b) Inspiratory reserve volume
(c) Expiratory reserve volume
(d) All of the above
57. Gas flows into the lungs of mammals during inspiration because
(a) The pressure in the lungs falls below atmospheric pressure.
(b) The volume of the lungs decreases.
(c) The pressure in the lungs rises above atmospheric pressure.
(d) The diaphragm moves upward toward the lungs.
58. Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) is released in response to the increase in blood volume and blood
pressure. Which of the following is not the function of ANF?
(a) Stimulates aldosterone secretion
(b) Inhibits the release of renin from JGA
(c) Stimulates salt loss in urine
(d) Inhibits sodium reabsorption from collecting duct
59. Intercoastal muscles are found attached with
(a) diaphragm (b) ribs
(c) pleura (d) lungs
60. What pathway is taken by water and solutes as they travel through a nephron?
(a) Glomerulus, to Bowman’s capsule, to proximal tubule, to loop of Henle, to distal tubule, to
collecting ducts
(b) Bowman’s capsule, to glomerulus, to distal tubule, to loop of Henle, to proximal tubule, to
collecting ducts
(c) Glomerulus, to Bowman’s capsule, to distal tubule, to loop of Henle, to proximal tubule, to
collecting ducts
(d) Glomerulus, to Bowman’s capsule, to proximal tubule, to collecting ducts, to distal tubule, to
loop of Henle
61. Refer the following diagram and identify the parts of a kidney Indicated

(a) A = cortex, B = nephron, C = pelvis, D= medulla, E = ureter

(b) A = cortex, B = medulla, C = nephron, D = pelvis, E = ureter
(c) A = nephron, B = cortex, C = medulla, D = ureter,
E = pelvis
(d) A = nephron, B = cortex, C = medulla, D = pelvis,
E = ureter
62. Upon preventing acetylcholine from diffusing across a neuromuscular junction, which of the
following will not result?
 (a) No action potential will be produced in the affected muscle fibre’s plasma membrane.
(b) The endoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions (Ca2+) into the cytoplasm.
(c) Myosin will not bind to actin in the affected muscle fibre.
(d) The affected muscle fiber will fail to contract.
63. Joint between bones of human skull is
(a) Hinge joint (b) Synovial joint
(c) Cartilaginous joint (d) Fibrous joint
64. The functional unit of contractile system of a striated muscle is
(a) Sarcomere (b) Z-band
(c) Sarcosome (d) Myofibril
65. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action potential results from the movement of :
(a) K+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid.
(b) Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid.
(c) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid.
(d) Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid.
66. The enzyme required for the conduction of nerve impulse across synapse is:
(a) peroxidase (b) choline acetylase
(c) ascorbic acid oxidase (d) succinic dehydrogenase
67. Assertion :- A woman passes out hCG in the urine during pregnancy.
Reason :- Excess hormones are excreted by the kidneys , presence of hCG in urine is the basis for
pregnancy test .
a)If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion .
b)If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of the Assertion .
c)If Assertion is true but the Reason is false .
d)If Both Assertion and Reason Are false
68. Read the following statements.
I. Each testis has about 25 compartments called testicular lobules.
II. Each testicular lobule contains one to three highly coiled seminiferous tubules in which sperms
are produced.
III. Sertoli cells act as nurse cells of testicles.
IV. Sertoli cells are activated by FSH secreted by the adenohypophysis.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
(a) I and III (b) Only I
(c) II and IV (d) III and IV
69. Gastrulation means
(a) conversion of blastula into morula
(b) formation of three germ layers
(c) a phase in which organogenesis takes places
(d) a phase chracterised by inner cell mass
70. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are
(a) hCG, hPL, progestogens, oestrogens
(b) hCG, hPL, oestrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
(c) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
(d) hCG, progestogens, oestrogens, glucocorticoids
71. The diagram shows some of the changes in blood hormone concentration which occurs during the
menstrual cycle. Match A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H of graph with the hormones and events given
below.
Hormones and Events
I. Oestrogen II. Ovulation III. Repair of endometrium IV. Luteinizing hormone V. Menstruation
VI. Luteal phase VII. Progesterone VIII. Ovarian phase
(a) IV I VI V III VIII VII II
(b) VIII III IV II I VI VII V
(c) VIII VI IV I VII III II V
(d) I III V VII VIII VI IV II
72. …A… makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to …B… .
(a) A–Hormone releasing IUD; B–spermatogonia
(b) A–Hormone releasing IUD; B–sperms
(c) A–Sperms; B–hormonal releasing IUD
(d) A–Sperms; B–ova
73. MTP is of much risk in which phase of thepregnancy?
(a) 2nd trimester (b) 1st trimester
(c) 1st week (d) 2nd week
74. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of
(a) ovum into the Fallopian tube
(b) zygote into the Fallopian tube
(c) zygote into the uterus
(d) embryo with 16 blastomeres into the Fallopian tube
75. The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent stages is
(a) Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus
(b) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus
(c) Pithecanthropus pekinensis → Homo habilis → Homoerectus
(d) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Pithecanthropus pekinensis → Homo erectus
76. The diagram given here shows the skull of two different mammals. Choose the most appropriate
difference between A and B.
 (a) Skull A has more teeth than skull B
(b) Skull A has more brain capacity than skull B
(c) Skull A is of a human and skull B is of an ape
(d) Skull A is of an ape and skull B is of human
77. Name the type of natural selection depicted in the given diagram (type I, type II and type III).

Type I Type II Type III

(a) Disruptive Directional Stabilising
(b) Directional Disruptive Stabilising
(c) Stabilising Directional Disruptive
(d) Stabilising Disruptive Directional
78. Genetic drift operates in
(a) small isolated population
(b) large isolated population
(c) non-reproductive population
(d) slow reproductive population
79. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite?
(a) RBCs of humans suffering from malaria
(b) Spleen of infected person
(c) Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito
(d) Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
80. Which of the following diseases causes internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anaemia and
blockage of the intestinal passage?
(a) Ascariasis (b) Filariasis
(c) Amoebiasis (d) Trypanosomiasis
81. Antigen binding site of immunoglobulin (antibody) is
(a) variable region of heavy chain
 (b) variable region of light chain
(c) constant region of light chain
(d) variable region of both heavy and light chain
82. Assertion (A) Repeated use of drugs, increases the tolerance level of receptors in our body.
Reason (R) Addiction occurs as receptors respond only to higher doses of drugs.
83. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movements on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis ?
(a) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves
(b) The smaller the fragments size, the farther it moves
(c) Positively charged fragments move to farther end
(d) Negatively charged fragments do not move
84. When an alien DNA is ligated in tetracycline resistant gene, the recombinant
(a) become tetracycline resistant
(b) will loose tetracycline resistant
(c) will remain same
(d) None of the above
85. The different steps involved in the process of recombinant DNA technology are given below
randomly? Arrange these in correct order.
I. Extraction of the desired gene product.
II. Amplification of the gene of interest.
III. Isolation of a desired DNA fragment.
IV. Ligation of the DNA fragment into a vector.
V. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host.
Correct order is
(a) I, II, III, IV and V (b) III, II, IV, V and I
(c) II, IV, V, III and I (d) I, IV, V, III and II
86. Primers are
(a) small chemically synthesised oligonucleotides of about 10-18 nucleotides that are
complementary to the region of template DNA
(b) chemically synthesised oligonucleotides of about 10-18 nucleotides that are not
complementary to the region of template DNA
(c) the double-stranded DNA that need to be amplified
(d) specific sequences present on recombinant DNA
87. Assertion (A) Many crops are incorporated with foreign genes to make them tolerant to abiotic
stresses.
Reason (R) Genomes of many plants are manipulated or altered by combining them with other
genes to get desired traits.
88. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
A. Gene therapy 1. Effort to replace non-functional gene
B. Humulin 2. A single-stranded DNA or RNA tagged with a radioactive molecule
C. Probe 3. Diagnostic test
D. ELISA 4. Diabetes
Codes
ABCDABCD
 (a) 1 4 2 3 (b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 3 1 4 2
89. Silencing of a gene could be achieved through the use of
(a) RNAi only
(b) antisense RNA only
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
90.