FULL PORTION TEST PAPER (ONLY MCQ) – 2022-2023

Time: 2hr PHYSICS – Standard 10th Marks: 80

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1Mark Each)

Question 1:

1. A resistive force to be overcome by a machine is:

a. Load
b. Effort
c. Mechanical advantage
d. None of the above

2. Observe the diagram given below and find the number of strands supporting the load::

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

3. The rotation is always produced by a ______________.

a. Applied force
b. Pair of forces
c. Pull and push
d. All of the above

4. A nut is opened by a wrench of length 20 cm. If the least force required is 5 N, find the moment of force
needed to turn the nut.
a. 0.5 N m
b. 1 N m
c. 10 N cm
d. 100 N / cm

5. In equilibrium, the algebraic sum of the moments of forces about any point is ________.
a. a positive quantity
b. a negative quantity
c. zero
d. one

6. Force applied by a lady is 2N and moment of force is 16Nm, distance of pivot from the effort would be
_____.
a. 32m
b. 8m
c. 0.125m
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d. 18m

7. Find the efficiency of a machine is 60% and the work input is 200 J. Find the work output.
a. 120 kgf
b. 120 J
c. 2.67 J
d. 2.67 N

8. Observe the diagram given below and choose the correct option:

a. The M.A. of this system is 5

b. There are 5 strands of tackle which are supporting this load
c. The effort is in the downward direction
d. Tension is always applied in the downward direction

9. Choose the correct option:

a. 1 W = 3.6 J
b. 1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19 J
c. 1 J = 3.6 x 106 kWh
d. 1 J = 4.2 cal

10. Which of the following is an example to electrical energy being converted to heat energy:
a. Toaster
b. Oven
c. Thermocouple
d. Microwave

11. The energy released on burning wood is called:

a. Heat energy
b. Hydro energy
c. Geo thermal energy
d. Mechanical energy

12. A man spends 250 J of energy in displacing a body by 1000 m in the direction of the force. Find the
force applied by the man.
a. 0.25 N
b. 4 N
c. 4 J
d. 0.25 J

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13. A dynamo shows the following energy conversion:
a. Electrical energy to Sound energy
b. Mechanical energy to Electrical energy
c. Electrical energy to Mechanical energy
d. Heat energy to Electrical energy

14. Power does not depend upon:

a. Pressure of the medium
b. Time
c. Displacement
d. Force applied

15. A ball of mass 5 kg slows down from 50 m/s to 20 m/s. Calculate the change in its kinetic energy.
a. 5250 J
b. 4500 J
c. 2250 J
d. 10500 J

16. Boy A climbs 5 floors in a building while boy B having the same weight, is able to climb only 3 floors.
Compare the work done.
a. 5:3
b. 3:5
c. 1:2
d. 1:1

17. If refractive indices of medium 1 and medium 2 are the same, then:
a. i = r, speed of light changes
b. i = r, speed of light does not change
c. i > r, speed of light changes
d. i < r, speed of light does not change

18. Fish anticipates the presence of hunter even though being in water due to ____________.
a. Scattering of light.
b. Reflection of light.
c. Dispersion of light.
d. Refraction of light

19. The critical angle for glass-air is 450 for the light of yellow colour. The critical angle for green colour
will be ____________.
a. Less than 45 degree.
b. More than 45 degree.
c. Equal to 45 degree.
d. None of these.

20. A student performs the experiment of tracing the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular
glass slab for different angles of incidences. He measures the angle of incidence i, angle of refraction r
and angle of emergence e for all his observations. He would find that in all cases:
a. i is more than r but equal to e
b. i is less than r but equal to e
c. i is more than e but equal to r
d. i is less than e but equal to r

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21. If the angle of prism is 60° and the angle of minimum deviation is 40 °, the angle of refraction will be
_____________.
a. 30°
b. 60°
c. 100°
d. 120°

22. Light travels through a glass block as shown. Which angle shows the correct position of the critical
angle for light in the glass?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
23. To get a brighter image, which of them is preferred instead of a plane mirror?
a. A convex lens
b. A concave mirror
c. A convex mirror
d. A total reflecting prism

Observe the diagram given below and answer the following questions (24 – 26)

24. What is the angle of incidence at R:

a. 300
b. 600
c. 900
d. 450

25. What is the angle BSR:

a. 300
b. 600
c. 900
d. 450

26. Why does the ray RS get reflected back into the same medium:
a. As the angle of incidence is more than the critical angle
b. As the angle of incidence is lesser than the critical angle
c. As the angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle
d. The critical angle is of no consequence here
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27. The diagram below shows a:

a. Plano-convex lens
b. Bi-concave lens
c. Concavo-convex lens
d. Convexo-concave lens

28. In the position for the image given below, where should the object be placed?

a. Between F1 and 2F1

b. At 2F1
c. Between F1 and O
d. Beyond 2F1

29. In a slide projector, the size of the image will be __________.

a. Highly magnified
b. Magnified
c. Diminished
d. Highly diminished

30. The dotted line in the ray diagram given below represents:

2F2 F2 F1 2F1

a. Optical centre
b. Convex lens
c. Focus
d. Concave lens

31. Which of the following statements is true with regards to the image formed in the given ray diagram:

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a. A real image will be formed in front of the lens between F and 2F

b. A real image will be formed at infinity
c. A virtual image will be formed at infinity
d. No image will be formed as the rays are diverging

32. For the ray diagram given below, choose the correct option.

2F1 F1 F2 2F2

a. The image formed would be diminished

b. The image would be formed beyond 2F2
c. Both a and b are correct.
d. Neither a nor b is correct

33. Linear magnification can be calculated using:

a. m =
b. m =
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b

34. A 2 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens. The distance of the
object from the lens is 15 cm. If the image is formed 30 cm behind the lens, find the magnification of the
image
a. +1
b. -1
c. +2
d. -2

35. Find the focal length of a convex lens, if the object that is placed at 15 cm from it, produces an image 30
cm behind the lens.
a. 20 cm
b. 10 cm
c. 5 cm
d. 15 cm

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36. According to sign convention, the focal length of a lens will always be taken as a negative value,
irrespective of the lens.
a. Agree
b. Disagree
c. Cannot be determined
d. None of the above

37. The colour that has deviated the most is:

a. White.
b. Red.
c. Violet.
d. Equal deviation
e.
38. The colours which the human eye can detect fall in the ______region of electromagnetic spectrum.
a. Ultraviolet
b. Infrared
c. Visible
d. Both visible and infrared

39. Which of the following options correctly gives the value of one angstrom?
a. 1 Ǻ = 10-10 m
b. 1 Ǻ = 10-4 m
c. 1 Ǻ = 10 m
d. 1 Ǻ = 10-8 m

40. Visible light with the longest wavelength is:

a. Violet
b. Green
c. Blue
d. Red

41. Which of the following choices lists electromagnetic waves from lower to higher frequencies?
a. radio waves, infrared light, microwaves
b. ultraviolet light, infrared light, X rays
c. infrared light, ultraviolet light, gamma rays
d. visible light, microwaves, ultraviolet light

42. The wavelength of the visible spectrum is in the range of _________.

a. 130nm to 390nm
b. 400nm to 800nm
c. 780nm to 820nm
d. 850nm to 980nm

43. TV Remote control uses:

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a. Infrared radiations
b. Radio waves
c. Visible Radiations
d. Ultraviolet Radiations

44. Waves in decreasing order of their wavelength are:

a. X-rays, infrared rays, visible rays, radio waves
b. radio waves, visible rays, infrared rays, X-rays.
c. radio waves, infrared rays, visible rays, X-rays.
d. radio waves, ultraviolet rays, visible rays, X-rays.

45. Which of the following has minimum wavelength?

a. Blue light
b. γ-rays
c. infrared rays
d. microwaves

46. Which of the following indicates the correct set of combination in radio waves?
a. Shorter wavelength – high frequency
b. Longer wavelength – less frequency
c. Shorter wavelength – less frequency
d. Longer wavelength – high frequency

47. Radio waves are having the longest wavelength among all the electromagnetic waves.
a. False
b. True
c. Not enough information given
d. None of the above

48. Which radiations are used in the treatment of muscle ache?

a. Infrared
b. Ultraviolet
c. Microwave
d. X-rays

49. Which of the following are not electromagnetic waves?

a. Cosmic rays
b. Gamma rays
c. β rays
d. X rays

50. Which of the following is called heat radiation?

a. X-rays
b. Gamma rays
c. Microwaves
d. Infrared radiation
51. When in a nucleus number of neutrons exceed much higher the number of protons:
a. atom starts emitting electrons
b. atom starts emitting protons and neutrons
c. nucleus of atom becomes unstable and radioactive
d. all above parts are correct

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52. From decay of radioactive substance positively charged particles emitted are called:
a. alpha particles
b. beta particles
c. X-rays
d. gamma radiation

53. A doubly ionised helium atom is same as:

a. a beta particle
b. a gamma particle
c. two protons
d. an alpha particle

54. Isotopes are the atoms of:

a. same element having different atomic number but same mass number
b. same element having same atomic number but different mass number
c. different elements having different atomic number but same mass number
d. different elements having same atomic number but different mass number

55. Penetration power is maximum in:

a. X-rays
b. gamma radiation
c. alpha radiation
d. beta radiation

56. Which among the following is not the external source of background radiations?
a. solar radiation
b. cosmic rays
c. UV radiation
d. radon 222

57. Total number of electrons carried by one coulomb of charge in flow of one ampere of current is:
a. 6.25 x 10¹⁸
b. 6.25 x 10²⁵
c. 6.25 x 10²¹
d. 6.25 x 10¹⁹

58. Potential in a conductor is expressed in unit:

(a) ohm
(b) ampere
(c) volt
(d) coulomb

59. Work done in bringing the unit test charge from infinity to a point on conductor is called:
(a) potential difference
(b) emf
(c) terminal voltage
(d) potential

60. Electrical resistance in a conductor is the:

(a) obstruction in passage of potential in flow on current
(b) obstruction in passage of current flowing in conductor
(c) obstruction in movement of electrons in conductor
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(d) all above parts are correct

61. In given current-voltage graph straight line represents:

(a) resistivity of conductor

(b) conductance of conductor
(c) resistance of conductor
(d) none of the above

62. Superconductors are the substances in which:

(a) resistance is infinite
(b) resistance is zero at very high temperature
(c) resistance is zero at very low temperature
(d) resistance is finite at absolute zero temperature

63. Select the correct option for series combination of resistors:

(a) different current passes through each resistor
(b) same current passes through each resistor
(c) total resistance of combination is smaller than individual smaller resistance
(d) voltage is same on all resistors

64. SI unit of electrical energy is:

(a) kilowatt hour
(b) kilo-volt ampere
(c) joule per second
(d) joule

65. Correct expression of Joule's heating effect of current is:

(a) H = 1²Rt
(b) H = 0.24 I²Rt
(c) H = 2.4 I²Rt
(d) H = 1²Rt/2.4

66. Two wires which remain at zero volt same potential at local sub-station are:
(a) live wire and earth wire
(b) fuse wire and earth wire
(c) neutral wire and earth wire
(d) neutral wire and live wire

67. Wire that carries current from source to distribution board is:
(a) fuse wire
(b) earth wire
(c) live wire
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(d) neutral wire

68. Wire that is for return of current back to the source is:
(a) fuse wire
(b) earth wire
(c) live wire
(d) neutral wire

69. A fuse of high rating about 50 A is connected in live wire at pole or just before the electric meter is:
(a) MCB
(b) company fuse
(c) ELCB
(d) cartridge fuse

70. Higher the current rating of fuse wire:

(a) fuse wire used should be thin
(b) fuse wire used should be twisted
(c) fuse wire used should be of copper
(d) fuse wire used should be thick

71. Current rating of fuse is calculated by expression:

(a) total power of appliance/voltage of supply
(b) total power of circuit/voltage of supply
(c) voltage of supply/power of appliance
(d) voltage of supply/power of circuit

72. A person will not get the electric shock from faulty appliance or electric circuit if:
(a) wires insulation is proper
(b) earthing has not been done
(c) wires of proper rating are used hands
(d) person never touch the electrical wiring with wet

In a given experiment current is passed in a circular wire. In relation to the given figure for the magnetic
field produced, select the correct option from Q. 73 to Q. 76.

73. Direction of magnetic field lines at point A is:

(a) clockwise
(b) anticlockwise
(c) parallel
(d) perpendicular

74. Direction of magnetic field lines at point B is:

(a) clockwise
(b) anticlockwise
(c) parallel
(d) perpendicular

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75. Direction of magnetic field lines between space enclosed by points A and B is:
(a) clockwise
(b) anticlockwise
(c) in same direction
(d) in opposite direction

76. At the center of current carrying wire magnetic field is assumed to be:
(a) uniform with parallel field line
(b) non-uniform with non-parallel field lines
(c) clockwise
(d) anticlockwise

77. Unit of heat capacity of a body is:

(a) J K–¹
(b) JK
(c) JkgK–¹
(d) JkgK

78. On increasing the mass of a substance, its thermal capacity:

(a) remains unchanged
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) first times increases then decreases

79. In copper calorimeter its vessel is protected by wool and wood jacket:
(a) to avoid heat loss by conduction
(b) to avoid heat loss by radiation
(c) to avoid heat gain by convection
(d) to avoid heat loss by convection

80. In part AB there is:

(a) fall in temperature

(b) rise in temperature
(c) heat is lost from water
(d) temperature is constant

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