• Domain 2.

Safety Management Systems 23% 365 Q: Risk Management &

Hazard Control 162 questions, Management Processes 68, Project Management
42 questions, Systems Safety 35 questions, Fleet Safety 16 questions, Safety
Programs 72 questions
What is the first thing to do when a water sample comes into a lab?

1) Refrigerate the sample

2) Take the pH of the sample
3) Log in and assure chain of custody of the sample
4) Analyze the sample

The correct answer is: 3

Log in the sample. Good laboratory procedures dictate that the sample be
immediately logged in as soon as possible after arriving at the lab.
What is a chain of custody?
A) A documentation trail describing a detailed history of specific items
particularly with respect to who has held custody of the item and the
reason that person had custody of the item
B) A documentation trail describing the manufacturing history or
personal history of an item or person
C) A documentation trail describing the quality review and checklists
that were performed on an item
D) None of the above

The correct answer is: A

A chain of custody is typically associated with incident investigations

and describes in detail the identity of the person who has held custody of
an item and why the person had custody of the item.
When an employee's exposure to a chemical cannot be reduced to
permissible safe levels through engineering controls then, the least
acceptable exposure control alternative would be:

A) Administrative controls
B) Job rotation
C) Changing production schedules
D) Wearing a respirator
The correct answer is: D

Administrative controls are methods for controlling employee exposures

to contaminants or excess noise by limiting the duration of an
individual's exposure by job rotation, work assignment or time periods
away from the contaminant or noise source. Personal protective
equipment, such as a respirator, is the last alternative that should be
considered to reduce exposures.
What is the most expedient method of protecting a worker from noise?
A) Ear protection
B) Limited exposure time
C) Engineering controls
D) Administrative controls
The correct answer is: A

The quickest way is to provide hearing protection. The most effective

long term solution is to engineer out the source of the noise (if
feasible).
At a given intensity, sound in which frequency is most likely to result in
permanent hearing damage:
A) 37.5- 500 Hz
B) 1000-4000 Hz
C) 8000-16000 Hz
D) 16000-32000 Hz
The correct answer is: B

The ear is most susceptible to noise in the range that it is most sensitive.
The ear is most sensitive in the range 1000-4000 Hz.
According to the period law, when
elements are arranged in order of
increasing atomic number, then:
• a. the blanks in the chart will be filled with new
elements
• b. the metals are on the right and non-metals on the
left
• c. the electrons are equal in all groups
• d. there is a repetition of physical and chemical
properties
• Ans ‘d’.
The molarity (M) of a solution is defined as:
a. the moles of solute dissolved in one liter of solutions
(moles of solute/litres of solution)
• b. the moles of solute per kilogram of solvent (moles of
solute/kilograms of solvent)
• c. the quantity of acid that yields 1 mol H+ ion or the
quantity of a base that reacts with 1 mol H+ ion in acid-
base reactions (one equivalent of acids reacts with one
equivalent of base )
• d. the number of equivalents of a substance dissolved
in a liter of solution (equivalents of solutes/liters of
solution)
Ans ‘a’. b = Molality, c = Neutralisation, d = equivalent
soln.
What is volume of 100 grams of nitrogen (N2) at 25
degree C and one atmosphere ?

• a. 43 liters
• b. 83 litres
• c. 174 liters
• d. 255 liters

• Ans: b
• Acetone, (CH3 )2 CO, has a TLV = 750 ppm. The TLV
for acetone in mg/m3 is equal to which of the following ?
• Atomic weights: C=12, H =1, 0=16.

• a. 1779
• b. 1432
• c. 1865
• d. 1352
• Ans: a
The volume in liters occupied by 1 gram mole of a
gas under STP condition is equal to:
• a. 359 liters
• b. 22.4 liters
• c. 38.7 liters
• d. 29.5 liters.
• Ans ‘b’
The following data is available for vapour
pressure of acetone as a function of
temperature
Temperature degree F 130 120 110 100 90
Vapor pressure, mm Hg 760 740 720 700 695
When atmospheric pressure is 740 mm Hg, the vapor pressure of acetone
is also 740 mm Hg at 120 degree F. This means that the boiling point
of acetone at 740 mm Hg is:
(a) Equal to 120 degree F
(b) Higher than 120 degree F but less than 130 degree F
(c) Lower than 120 degree F but more than 110 degree F
(d) Vapor pressure is a measure of the volatility of a liquid and has
nothing to do with boiling point.
Ans ‘a’. Boiling takes place at the temperature where liquid vapor pressure
equals the ambient (atmospheric ) pressure. Vapor pressure of a
liquid always increases with an increase in temperature.
A liquid is a highly flammable liquid (flash point = 0 F) and has a specific
gravity of 0.79. From the data presented and in the absence of other
information which of the following statements is true regarding a mixture of
liquid and water ?
• a. Liquid would float on top of water
• b. Liquid would sink in water
• c. The mixture has a flashpoint of less than 0 F
• d. Data presented is not sufficient as to which will float.
• Ans ‘d’.
• Gases have a relatively high values of diffusion coefficient. Therefore, vapor density
alone would dictate whether a gas would rise or sink in air. In dealing with liquids,
however, we need two pieces of information in order to decide whether a liquid would
float or sink in water. The information required is specific gravity and solubility.
Specific gravity if the ratio of density of a liquid to the density of water. If two liquids are
insoluble in each other, the liquid with the smaller value of specific gravity would float on
top of the other liquid. However, when two liquids are soluble in each other, they become
dissolved and form a uniform solution regardless of their specific gravities
 Water has a vapour pressure of 20 mm Hg at room
temperature and acetone has a vapour pressure of 180 mm
Hg at room temperature. This indicates:

• a. water evaporates faster than acetone

• b. water evaporates more slowly than acetone
• c. at a given pressure, acetone has a lower boiling point
compared to water
• d. only (b) and (c) above.
• Ans ‘d’.
 Fire point is defined as the lowest temperature at
which enough vapour is generated to support continuous
combustion in presence of an ignition source. Fire point is:
• a. lower than flash point
• b. higher than flash point
• c. same as flash point
• d. depending on the material can be higher, lower, or the
same as flash point.
Flash point is the lowest temperature at which a liquid gives
off enough vapor to support combustion. The liquid would
not continue to burn at its flash point. Fire point temperature
requires sustained combusion and is always higher than flash
point temperature.
• Ans ‘b’.
 Materials that are classified as oxidizers must
be separated form flammables because:
• a. they can produce heat and act as a source of ignition
• b. if mixed with flammables may cause a fire in the
absence of a source of ignition
• c. they can release oxygen or catalyze the combusion
reactions
• d. only (b) and (c) above.
• Ans ‘d’.
• Compounds which are classified as oxidizers are those which
can either release oxygen or catalyse the combustion
reactions (such as chlorine). In either case, oxidizers would
make an on going fire much worse and must be separated
from flammables. They can also react with flammables and
raise the temperature to above ignition temperature.
•Heat transfer by convection takes place as a result of fluid motion /
movement. In a fire situation, convective heat transfer takes place as a result
of the movement of air and the combustion products. The rate of convective
heat transfer is proportional to the temperature difference and the area of
heat transfer. The proportionality constant H, which is called the heat
transfer coefficient, is a function of the physical properties of the fluid.
•Conduction is the mechanism of thermal energy transfer from one molecule
to another adjacent molecule without movement usually in one phase. The
rate of heat transfer is proportional to the temperature gradient per unit
thickness of the wall and the transfer area. The proportionality constant K,
which is called the thermal conductivity, is a function of the physical
properties of the materials.
•Four elements required for combustion are oxygen, fuel, source of ignition or
sufficient heat, and chemical chain reaction. These four elements make the
four corners of what is commonly known as fire tetrahedron. To extinguish a
fire we must remove at least one of these four elements. As more corners of
the fire tetrahedron are removed, the situation becomes more controlled.
•The pressure exerted by a vapor on its liquid at equilibrium is called the vapor pressure
of the liquid at the temperature of the system. The equilibrium and the vapor pressure
are strong functions of temperature. When the temperature of a system at equilibrium is
changed, a new condition of equilibrium will be reached, with a new vapor pressure.
•Lower flammability limit (LFL) is the minimum concentration of vapor in air below
which a flame will not propagate through the mixture
•Upper flammability limit (UFL) is the maximum concentration of flammable vapor in
air above which a flame will not propagate through the mixture
•Lower flammability limits for flammable liquids can be calculated from the vapor
pressure data at the flash point temperature:
•LFL x 100 = P (psia) / 14.7 or LFL = P (in Kpa) Where P = vapor pressure at flash point.
•The LFL and the UFL for a material are key factors in determining the amount of safety
ventilation needed and the extent to which the venting of explosive pressures may be
necessary. A decrease in temperature or pressure raises the LFL and lowers the UFL.
An increase in temperature, on the other hand, will lower the LFL and raise the UFL.
• Autoignition temperature is the lowest temperature that will produce combustion in the
absence of an ignition source
• National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) defines a flammable liquid as any
liquid that has a flash point below 100 oF and a vapor pressure not exceeding 40 psia
at 100oF. A combustible liquid, on the other hand, is any liquid that has a flash
point between 100oF and 200oF. Flammable liquids are further classified into the
following groups depending on their flash points and boiling points.
• Flash point is defined as the lowest temperature at which a liquid can generate
enough vapor above its surface to support combustion in the presence of a source of
ignition.
• Fire point is the lowest temperature at which a flammable liquid in an open
container gives off enough vapors to continue to burn once it has been ignited. The
fire point usually is higher than the flash point. It is important to understand the
difference between fire point and flash point; fire point data should not be used
when a decision should be based on the flash point.
• Vapor pressure
• In a closed container, some of the liquid molecules escape into the space above the
surface of the liquid. Some of these molecules can condense into the liquid phase,
and some will stay in the vapor phase. This vaporization and condensation of
molecules will continue until the rates of vaporization and condensation become
equal. When this condition is achieved, no further change in the amount or
composition of the two phases take place, and they are said to be at equilibrium
•Flammable and Combustible Liquids
•Definition of Flammable and Combustible Liquids
•The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) defines a flammable liquid as any
liquid that has a closed cup flash point below 100 oF and a vapor pressure not
exceeding 40 psia (pounds per square inch absolute) at 100 oF. A combustible liquid,
on the other hand, is any liquid that has a closed cup flash point at or above 100 oF.
Flammable liquids are further classified into the groups summarized below
depending on their flash points and boiling points.
•Class Definition
• IA Flash point below 73oF; boiling point below 100oF.
• IB Flash point below 73 oF; boiling point at or above 100 oF.
• IC Flash point at or above 73 oF, but below 100 oF.
•Table 5. Definition of Classes of Flammable Liquids
•Combustible liquids are also classified into three groups, as summarized in Table 6.
•Class Definition
•II Liquids have flash points at or above 100 oF and below 140 oF.
•IIIA Liquids have flash points at or above 140 oF and below 200 oF.
•IIIB Liquids have flash points at or above 200 oF.
• Table 6. Definition of Classes of Combustible Liquids
Remember the definition of following classifications
of NFPA 70 (NEC): Article 500:
• Class I, Division 1:
• Class I, Division 2:
• Class II, Division 1
• Class II, Division 2
• Class III, Division 1
• Class III, Division 2

• See details
Which section of NFPA diamond has a blue
background

a. flammability
• b. health
• c. reactivity
• d. special.
Ans ‘b’
 t i o n
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e qu NFPA Diamond
On
• Fire loading in building design = max amount of heat
generated in a given area as a result of fire
• Flame Spread Rating (FSR) in NFPA 101:Indicate what type
of finishing material to use to minimize fire hazards
(Developed by Steiner of UL)
• Oxidiser must be separated from flammable because it may
cause fire in absence of ignition source, release oxygen and
make fire much worse
• Rate of rise detectors are suitable for fast developing fire
and are classified as heat detectors.
• ‘Rate compensation’ fire detector is suitable for fast
developing fire and responds when a pre-set fixed temp is
exceeded
NFPA 70 (NEC); Article 500
• Class I, Div 1 ignitible concentrations of flammable
gases or vapors can exist under normal operating conditions,
or exist frequently due to repair or leakage, or where
breakdown or repair might release ignitable concentrations
and might also cause simultaneous failure of electric
requipment.
• Class I, Div 2 volatile flammable liquids or gases are
handled, processed or use, but are normally confined within
closed containers or closed system.
NFPA 70 (NEC); Article 500 (continued)

• Class II, Div 1 combustible dust in the air under normal

operating conditions sufficient to produce explosive or
ignitable mixtures,------
• Class II, Div 2 sufficient quantities of dust not normally
present,------
• Class III, Div 1 location in which easily ignitable fibers
are handled, manufactured, or use
• Class III, Div 2 easily ignitable fibers are stored
 A combustible liquid is best defined by one of the following:

1) Any liquid having a flash point above 100ºF and below 140ºF
2) Any liquid having a flash point at or above 100ºF
3) Any liquids having a flash point above 140ºF
4) Class II liquids having flash points at or above 100ºF and below
140ºF

The correct answer is: 2

A combustible liquid is any liquid having a flash point at or above 100ºF.

Flammable and combustible liquids are subdivided into classes.
Combustible liquids are: Class II - flash points at or above 100ºF and
below 140ºF Class III- flash points at or above 140ºF. NFPA 30 -
Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code
Means of egress, as defined by the National Fire Protection
Association (NFPA) Life Safety Code (NFPA 101) consists of three
separate and distinct parts. Which of the following should be
excluded?
1) Exit access
2) The exit
3) The exit discharge
4) The critical exit
The correct answer is: 4

Means of egress is a continuous and unobstructed way of exit travel from

any point in a building or structure to a public way and consists of three
separate and distinct parts, namely, exit access, the exit, and exit
discharge.
The major cause of fire-related deaths is attributed to:

A) Inhalation of smoke
B) Seared lungs
C) Carbon Monoxide
D) Burn trauma
The correct answer is: C

Statistics maintained by the National Safety Council (NSC) and the

National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) show carbon monoxide
to be the leading cause of fire-related deaths. Carbon monoxide, a gas,
inhibits blood cells in carrying oxygen to the body tissues. Of all the
gases that have poisonous effects upon man and animals, carbon
monoxide is the most widely encountered.
As a safety professional, you are asked to provide guidance in the
layout of a 5,000 square foot, high hazard facility that will house up
to 15 laboratory scientists. The expected configuration of process
equipment presents the need for a dead end corridor in the means of
egress arrangement. Based on NFPA 101 (Life Safety Code), what is
your suggestion regarding the maximum permitted length of the
anticipated dead end corridor?
A) 0 ft
B) 25 ft
C) 30 ft
D) 50 ft
The correct answer is: A

Dead ends are not permitted in high hazard occupancies with an area of
more than 200 square feet or an occupant load of more than 3 people.
NFPA 101 7.11.4 (Life Safety Code)
As a safety professional, recommend how to safely store the
following quantities of flammable and combustible liquids:

Class I - 35 gal
Class II - 35 gal
Class III - 50 gal
A) Provide two (2) approved metal storage cabinets
B) Disburse the materials throughout the assembly area
C) Provide one (1) approved metal storage cabinet
D) Require that the quantities be reducedI
The correct answer is: A

No more than 120 gal of Class I, Class II and Class IIIA liquids may be
stored in a storage cabinet. Of this total not more than 60 gal may be of
Class I and Class II liquids. NFPA 30 (Flammable and Combustible
Liquids Code)
An average of one gallon of toluene is evaporated every hour in a continuous process drying oven operating
at sea level. Assuming that the toluene completely mixes throughout the oven, what is the minimum exhaust
ventilation rate required by code to prevent an explosive concentration? The code does not permit the
concentration of flammable vapors in the oven to exceed 25% of the LEL at any time.
The LEL for toluene is 1.1% at the oven's operating temperature
The specific gravity of toluene is 0.87 (water is 1.0)
The specific vapor density of toluene is 3.1 (dry air is 1.0)
The density of water at STP is 8.328 lb/gal
The density of air at STP is 0.075lb/ft3
The basic equation to determine the required ventilation to maintain a system at a discrete LEL is:
Ventilation Rate = (Density of Water at STP)/(Density of Air at STP) * (Specific Gravity of Solvent)/(Specific
Vapor Density of Solvent) * [(100% - LEL)/LEL] * Solvent Evaporation Rate
A) 31 SCFM
B) 47 SCFM
C) 187 SCFM
D) 2,802 SCFM
The correct answer is: C
First, realize that the given equation gives you the required ventilation to MAINTAIN the LEL. We need to
know the required ventilation rate at 25% of the LEL. Therefore, we will have to multiply the result from the
given equation by a factor of 4 (100% of LEL/25% of LEL = 4). Also note that we require the answer in
standard cubic feet per MINUTE. Since the evaporation rate is gallons per hour, we will have to convert to
gallons per minute. Carefully track the units when solving this equation, and remember that specific gravity
and specific vapor density have no units.
Minimum Rate = 4 * (8.328 lb/gal / 0.075 lb/ft3) * (0.87 / 3.1) * [(100% - 1.1%) / 1.1%] * (1 gal/hr) * (1
hr/60 min)
Minimum Rate = 4 * 111.04 ft3/gal * 0.281 * 89.91 * 0.0167 gal/min
Minimum Rate = 187 ft3/min
NFPA 86 Section 7 - Standards for Ovens and Furnaces
Disadvantages of the NFPA 704 labelling system include:
A) Gives minimal information
B) Not extensively used
C) Difficult to understand
D) Misleading
The correct answer is: A

At times more information than what NFPA summarizes is required for a

correct emergency response.
The Accident Prevention Manual is published by which of the
following organizations?
A) OSHA
B) NIOSH
C) NSC
D) NFPA
The correct answer is: C

The Accident Prevention Manual is published by the National Safety

Council.
The NFPA 704 diamond has four classes of materials by position
and color on the diamond. The classes are:
A) Health hazard, flammability, reactivity, and specific hazards
B) Toxicity, ignitability, corrosivity, and reactivity
C) Explosivity, health, flammability, and specific hazards
D) Health hazards, flammability, reactivity, and corrosivity
The correct answer is: A

The four classes of materials and colors on the National Fire Protection
Association (NFPA) 704 diamond are: Health hazard-blue,
flammability-red, reactivity-yellow, and specific hazards-white.
•RISER : is a pipe installed in a building with a fire service connection or a
booster pump at the lower level for supplying water at various floor levels of a
building, eliminating the problem of laying hoses to fight a fire
•Review of Basic Principles and Terminology
•• Combustion
•Combustion can be defined as the rapid exothermic or heat-producing chemical
reaction of oxygen with a fuel. When a fuel is burned, the carbon in the fuel reacts
with oxygen to form either carbon dioxide or carbon monoxide:
• C + O2 = CO2 + heat
• C + 1/2 O2 = CO + heat
•• Heat of combustion
•The amount of heat released as a result of complete combustion of a fuel. It is
usually expressed in units of energy per mass of combustible material.
•• Heat transfer by radiation
•Electromagnetic mechanism of heat transfer. The amount of heat transfer is
proportional to the fourth power of temperature
•• Convection
• Heat transfer by convection takes place as a result of fluid motion. When a cold
fluid comes into contact with a hot surface, the film adjacent to the hot surface
picks up thermal energy. This energy, in turn, is transmitted to the bulk of the cold
•Properties of Flammable and Combustible Liquids
•• Flash Point
•Flash point is defined as the lowest temperature at which a liquid can generate
enough vapor above its surface to support combustion in the presence of a source
of ignition.
•• Vapor Pressure
•The pressure exerted by a vapor on its liquid at equilibrium is called the vapor
pressure of the liquid at the temperature of the system. It should be emphasized
that the vapor pressure of a liquid always increases with an increase in
temperature.
•• Fire Point
•Fire point is the lowest temperature at which a flammable liquid in an open
container gives off enough vapors to continue to burn once it has been ignited.
The fire point usually is higher than the flash point.
•• Specific Gravity
•The specific gravity (sp. gr.) describes the density of a liquid relative to the
density of water. Liquids with a specific gravity less than one are lighter than
water. Most flammable liquids are lighter than and insoluble in water, and will
float on its surface. A few are heavier and insoluble in water and will sink in it.
• Vapor Density
• Vapor density is a measure of the relative densities of vapors and gases compared to air
under the same conditions of temperature and pressure. Vapors generated by most
flammable liquids are heavier than air (vapor density greater than one), so the ventilation for
flammable liquids should be at or near floor level. Most flammable gases, on the other hand,
have a vapor density of less than 1 and are lighter than air. Ventilation systems for these
flammable gases should be placed above the floor depending on the point of generation.
• When the rate of vapor production is high, positive-displacement safety ventilation is
required. Fresh air intakes should be located so that they will assist the safety ventilation
process.
•• Evaporation Rate
• The evaporation rate is the rate at which a liquid is converted to vapor at a given
temperature and pressure. The evaporation rate of most liquids is reported relative to
butylacetate (evaporation rate of 1). A liquid with an evaporation rate less than 1 evaporates
more slowly than butyl-acetate.
•• Water Solubility
• Many flammable liquids, such as alcohols, ethers, and ketones, are completely or partially
soluble in water, and mixing these liquids with water reduces their flammability and
eliminates static hazards.
•• Boiling Point
• The boiling point of a liquid is defined as the temperature at which the liquid transforms
into vapor at a given pressure. It should be understood that boiling point is a strong
function of ambient pressure and always decreases with a decrease in ambient pressure.
Boiling point is usually stated at sea level pressure (1 atmosphere), which is called Normal
 Electrical

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In plant that manufacture flammable nail polish
remover, the wiring in the open processing area
should be of:

• 1. Class I, Division 1
• 2. Class I, Division 2
• 3. Class II, Division 1
• 4. Class II, Division 2
GFI detects ground flow and opens the
circuit?.
• GFI detects ground flow and opens the circuit. GFCI (G
Fault Circuit Inter../breaker) monitors for an imbalance in
current levels between the hot and neutral and trips the
circuit @ 3-5 milliamps

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On
70 – 100 ma fatal to human ?

• 3 mA = mild shock;
• 5 mA = painful shock;
• 10 mA = muscular paralysis;
• 80 mA = asphyxiation;
• 100 mA = Fibrillation
“Ventricular fibrillation” due to
electric shock ?
• Heart fibers contract separately (not together in a
coordinated manner) resulting cease of blood circulation.
Fibrillation at 100 mA
When insulation fails on a live
conductor in electrical equipment, the
p.d becomes equal to ?.
• line voltage. This poses great shock hazard to person who is
grounded and happens to touch the equipment/enclosure
If portable tool is doubly insulated,
does it need grounding ?
• It does not need grounding
Interlocks used in electrical equipment
must be of fail-safe type. It means ?
• i.e., designed in such a way that it fails without creating a
problem
Electrical ‘open knife’ switch must not
be used in hazardous loacations because
• live parts are exposed and it may form arc when the switch is
opened. So it should be enclosed in metal cabinets with
gounding
‘Snap switches’ (or push button) are
safer than ‘knife switches’ because
• live parts are enclosed.
An electrical circuit protective device such as a
fuse or circuit breaker protects

• the circuit from overload by opening the circuit and so flow

of current is stopped.
Arcing is ?

• flow of electrons through air in between 2 conductors, which

are not in direct contact. This flow of electrons generates a
visible light.
Lead acid battery during charging
produces which gas ?
• hydrogen gas.
An electrical system should be
considered de-energised after the
system has been shut off and.. ?
• appropriate tests are conducted.
• Because many electric circuits can have capacitors or system
which is grounded can have charged capacitors which may
cause electrical shock
Degree of electrical charge
accumulation increases with an
increase in insulating properties of the
two surfaces. Static electricity is a ….
phenomenon.

• Static electricity is a surface

phenomenon
• Insulating materials hinder movement of charges and so
build up charges. Conductive clothes & shoes cause charge
to flow to ground. Humidity increases surface conductivity.
Humidity is ratio of partial pressure
to equilibrium pressure at a given
temp. so if temp increases
equilibrium vapor pressure
increases, relative humidity
decreases & surface conductivity
decreases. This property is used..?
• Humidification, Ionization, chemical surfactants with high
polarity can be used for control of electrostatic hazards.
In a series arrangement the
equivalent resistance is the sum of
the individual resistances
Resistors connected in series.

R1 R2 R3

V1 V2 V3

R = R1+R2+R3
In parallel arrangement, the reciprocal of the
equivalent resistance is the sum of the reciprocals
of the individual resistances

Resistors in parallel arrangement.

V
I1 R1

I2 R 2

I3 R3

1 1 1 1
= + +
R R1 R 2 R 3
From a statistical standpoint grab sampling is ___________ continuous sampling
when trying to verify compliance with an OSHA 8-hour TWA standard.

• A) Simpler than

• B) More difficult than

• C) About as difficult as

• D) Treated in exactly the same way as

• The correct answer is: B
• To try to verify compliance with an OSHA TWA using grab sampling is extremely
difficult. The preferred method is to take a full shift sample.
Ethics
If company asks a CSP to do some job
say review etc for which the CSP does
not have expertise, the CSP must… ?
• the CSP must tell co. that the job is beyond his/her areas of
expertise. Because BCSP’s code of professional conduct
requires to perform professional services and assignments
not in all areas but only in the areas of their competence
During a tour of a plant, a safety
professional sees an unsafe condition,
followed by an employee performing
an unsafe act. The best response is
to:
• a. ignore it
• b. verbally warn the employee
• c. prepare a written report to the department head
• d. call the supervisor for action.
Which of the following organizations sets
forth the code of professional conduct for
safety professionals ?

• a. System Safety Society

• b. Board of Certified Safety Professionals
• c. American Society of Safety Professionals
• d. Society of Certified Processional Safety Engineers
• Ans ‘b’
An example of unethical behaviour is:

• a. Eating lunch with a client

• b. Requesting only 3 bids
• c. Awarding contracts to your side-business
• d. Asking your business acquaintances to bid.
• Ans ‘c’
A safety professional in his/her professional
work should:

• a. Put safety and health of people first

• b. Adhere to high standards of ethical conduct
• c. Be fair, honest, and impartial
• d. All of the above.
• Ans ‘d’
. You have gone for inspection of an
accident in petrochemical plant. A reactor
explodes and 4 workers are killed and 3 are
severely injured. The local newspapers and
TV personnel pour into the plant and want
information from you. Which of the
following courses of actions would be most
appropriate for you to take ?
• a. Try to downplay the accident
• b. Try to tell them everything that you know
• c. Stay in the background and provide information to
Head of office
d. Try to blame the accident on unavoidable causes
Ans ‘c’
• When two conducting bodies are connected by a conductor,
charges can flow freely between the two bodies and
eliminate potential differences and the possibility of
sparking. The mechanism of connecting two conducting
bodies by means of a conductor is known as bonding.
• Grounding, on the other hand, provides a electrically
conducting path between the charged object and the earth
so that excess electrons which are generated in the system
flow to earth.
 What is the use of Absolute
pressure and temperature ?
• Absolute pressure = gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure
• VP is always in which unit?
• Absolute pressure is always used in ?
• There are two absolute temperature scales used in solving
gas law problems:
• degrees Kelvin = oC + 273
• degrees Rankine = oF + 460
Which condition listed is most
likely to have static electricity
present ?

a. Low humidity locations

b. High humidity locations
c. Damp locations
d. Outdoors rather than indoors
Electric are welding produces an
intense flash which may produce a
condition commonly known as
flashburn or welders flash. Which
portion of the electromagnetic energy
spectrum is associated with this
condition ?

• a. ultraviolet
• b. infrared
• c. visible light
• d. X-ray.
Guard

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Radiation

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Welding
Natural Hazards

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OTHER DOMAIN SUBJECTS
Measuring, Monitoring Meters, Alarm, Detector etc
Eng Control Fire Fighting
Adm Control Machine Guarding
PPE Power Press
Smoke Detector
Labels
Instrumentation And Control
Tool And Machine Hazards
Walking And Working
Surfaces
Friction
Motivation
Noise
PPE
Meters, Alarm, Detector etc
Machine Guarding
Power Press
Smoke Detector
Labels
Instrumentation And Control
Tool And Machine Hazards
Walking And Working
Surfaces
Friction
Motivation
Noise
PPE
 Audit

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One of the major advantages of an external
safety audit is its:

• 1) relatively low cost

• 2) objectivity
• 3) lack of familiarity with the facility.
• 4) Lack of familiarity with facility personnel.
• External audits have the clear advantage of “objectivity”,
that is, it provides an opportunity for an independent
evaluation. High cost and minimum or no follow-up are
among the disadvantages of this type of safety audit
The MAJOR objective of a safety
inspection is:
a. to identify and correct unsafe conditions and unsafe acts.
b. To ensure compliance with federal, state, and local
regulations.
c. To measure the effectiveness of the safety programme
d. To identify any PPE which is needed in each work area.
• Ans ‘a’.
• A safety inspection must focus on identifying and correcting
unsafe conditions and unsafe acts. According to a National
Safety Council statistics, 98% of industrial accidents are
caused by either unsafe conditions or unsafe acts. 2% of
industrial accidents are caused as a result of natural
disasters such as an earthquake.
Which of the following is NOT
considered to be a major
component of a corporate
safety program ?
• a. Worker attitudes
• b. Protective equipment
• c. Safety committee
• d. Preparation of safety training books.
• Ans ‘d’.
Management will be most interested in
safety audits that report:

• 1. Frequency and severity rates

• 2. Insurance cost ratios
• 3. Cost/operational effectiveness
• 4. Identifying program designs to assure OSHA compliance
• Ans ‘3’.
One of the problems associated with
safety inspection is :-

• 1) Regulations may not be updated

• 2) Control methods may not be economical
• 3) Hazards are allowed to accumulate between inspections
• 4) Lost time cases cannot be detected
• Ans ‘3’. A safety inspection usually causes a surge in safety
and health activities. However, after a period of time
hazards are allowed to accumulate until the next inspection.
The best Audit technique to verify that an
organization is implementing a material
handling program as written is
• 1) Observing the material handling program practices and condition of
the material handling equipment
• 2) Interviewing material handling employees and observing material
handling program employee training programs
• 3) Reviewing material handling employee training records and
verifying supervisory effectiveness by conducting perception surveys
4) Verifying that the organization has documented inspections of
material handling equipment, has a preventive maintenance program
for material handling equipment, and a process to ensure that any
deficiencies found are corrected in a timely manner.
• Ans ‘a’. When possible, it is best for auditors to verify in­person that
management processes are being implemented as documented.
Otherwise, auditors have to rely on management certifications/
documents that the processes are being conducted appropriately
though those other choices are or may be true or partially true.
An auditor best demonstrate impartiality
during an audit
• 1) By being free from any line or operational responsibility for the
activity being audited
• 2) By understanding thoroughly the activity being audited and being
thoroughly prepared for the audit to be conducted
• 3) By holding a reputable third-party certification with a Code of Ethics
and Professional Conduct to which the auditor agrees to abide 4) By
signing a statement confirming that he or she will be impartial and will
report objectively all information related to the objectives of the
audit.
• Ans ‘1’. Though those other choices may be effective or partially
effective. Though it is possible for an auditor to perform a good job
within the organization with which he or she has line or staff
responsibilities, it is best for an auditor to be free from all such
responsibilities so that the final audit report will be perceived by all
readers to be free from any real or perceived biases.
Safety and Health program audits are
designed to:

• 1. Ensure compliance with codes and standards

• 2. Measure cost reductions due to accident prevention activities
• 3. Check on record keeping completeness and accuracy
• 4. Determine if a program is following a plan
• Ans ‘4’.
If question is “field” in place of “program”; then answer is ‘1’
A program review audit is designed to focus
primarily on an organization’s ESH program
parameters. It determines whether the
program’s design sufficiently meets the
objectives of its drivers (regulations, corporate
requirements, or site procedures). The other type
of audit reviews the production areas of an
organization (areas where ESH programs are
implemented). The other type of audit is referred
to as:
• 1. Facility inspection
• 2. Regulatory audit
• 3. Field audits
• 4. Performance evaluations
• Ans ‘4’.
An effective written ergonomics
program should include the following
four components: work-site analysis,
control measures to prevent hazards,
medical management, and:

• a. management support
• b. training/education
• c. cost-benefit analysis
• d. lifting exercise program
• Ans ‘b’.
Safety programs should give least
consideration to:
• 1. Management climate
• 2. Task demands
• 3. Work environment
• 4. Accident proneness
• Ans ‘4’.
Which of the following OSHA citation
types describes willful?
• 1. A direct relationship to job safety, but not likely to cause death or
serious physical harm (up to $7,000)
• 2. Substantial probability that death or serious physical harm could
result and that the employer knew, or should have known, of the
hazard (up to $7,000)
• 3. Employer intentionally and knowingly commits a violation that the
employer commits with plain indifference (up to $70,000)
• 4. An employer fails to correct a previously cited violation beyond the
abatement date
• Ans ‘3’.
• 1 = other than serious; 2 = Serious; 4 = Failure to abate
The main purpose of physical
examinations is to:

• a. screen out lazy employees

• b. ensure candidates with defects are rejected
• c. avoid bad insurance risks
• d. determine physical capacity for job performance
• Ans ‘d’.
The ABC Model Explains Causes & Consequences
of At-Risk Behaviours and throws light as to How
we should analyse and rectify At-Risk Behaviour.
Activators or Open road Sports car
Antecedent Sunny day No
Guides
Guides or
or directs
directs Police Others are
the
the behaviour
behaviour by
by habit
habit Speeding

Behaviour Over Speeding

Wear & Tear

Consequences Near-Misses
Challan Waste
Motivates
Motivates Personal
future
future occurrences
occurrences Injury PropertyGas
of
of the
the behavior
behavior Damage
Activators and Consequences are filtered through
the belief system / barriers of the persons

Environment
Filtering
through
Persons’
Activator Beliefs / Behaviour Consequence
Barriers

Feedback
The MAJOR objective of accident
investigations is:

• a. to prepare necessary documents for OSHA

• b. to prevent possible law suits
• c. to prevent similar accidents in future

• d. to prepare documents for workers’
compensation liabilities
Product Liability, Workers' Compensation, Insurance & Quality
Control
 Worker
Compensation
The legitimate implications (worker
compensation, OSHA, liability) of
subcontractors working at a facility may be
different than those of vendors at the same
facility. Which of the following is least likely
to be considered a subcontractor at a
chemical plant?
• 1. Concrete supply company
• 2. Crane service with operator
• 3. Dump truck operator
• 4. Ambulance service with on-site attendant
Which of the following is a legitimate
reason to deny worker compensation
Under compulsory worker
compensation laws
Worker compensation loss ratio
Which of the following is not a
major theory for determining
the amount of compensation
Which of the following is not
covered
Insurance

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• Which of the following is not covered under a basic fire and
EC (extended coverage) policy ?
•
• a. flood
• b. windstorm or hail
• c. vandalism or malicious mischief
• d. smoke
Definition
•
1.Implied Warranty
2.Expressed Warranty
3.Strict Liability
4.Reasonable care
The type of insurance
The experience rating portion
Retrospective rating
Pure risk is defined
Speculative risk is defined
Which best describe an
insurance company which is
out to make profit?
What percent of premium on
Boiler and Machinery policies
Experience modification
How many year(s) are used to
determine the WC premium in
a retrospective rating plan?
Accident, Incident, Near-
misses & Investigation
 Part 1: Definitions, Images etc.

• A simple, common and straightforward definition:

• Accidents are unintended, unplanned or
unforeseen events causing injury or damage.
• Definitions have slightly changed over time.
• Now a days the word ‘incident’ has been introduced
and used by many safety pros in the world as to mean
an unintended event which could or does result in
harm.
• As per above definition Incident = Accident + Near-
Misses
• So as per the above definition; there are two types of
incidences:
• ACCIDENT-type of incident:
• ….. which results in harm.
• NEAR-MISS -type of incident:
In safety management theory, accidents in the
work place are considered to be:

• Answer: Symptoms of a management failure 

• In Safety Management, the accidents have both direct

indirect causes, and basic causes .
• Although it is true that the direct cause of a given
accident may be combination of factors ranging from
not controlling hazards to human failure, the basic
(indirect) cause of all accidents goes back to
management failure.
• Managements’ involvement in improving safety is must.
The term ”accident prone” in recent years has been
viewed by many safety professionals as:

Answer: A term which is not definite enough to be useful

when attempting to pinpoint an accident cause


Accident proneness is not a characteristics of individual(s)

but lack on the part of managers / employee, which may be
the basic cause(s).
Incidence rate, which is kind of business
metric or sometime called as safety
performance benchmark is
Answer: A lagging (trailing) indicator, not a leading indicator of
safety performance. 
Overall safety performance cannot be judged by historical
data such as this. Incidence rates are poor performance
indicators.

Generally, actual injury data get more employee attention.

However, because of its nature, it creates a reactive rather
that a proactive response in preventing injuries and
accidents
1.The most powerful technique of an accident/incident
investigation is
a.Root Cause Analysis

b.Fault Tree Analysis
c.Preliminary Hazard Analysis
d.Event Tree Analysis.

• Root Cause Analysis determines the root causes of an

accident. The report also include recommendations for
corrective actions to prevent similar accidents/incidents
Question: What is the characteristic of a root cause of an
accident / incident?

Ans Management system problem

Heinrich reviewed more than 75,000 accident
cases and according to Heinrich’s estimates,
88 percent of all occupational accidents are
caused as a result of:
• a. unsafe conditions
• b. natural disasters
• c. unsafe acts 
• d. Only (a) and (c) above

According to NSC, 98% due to unsafe acts and unsafe

conditions and 2 % due to Natural causes e.g.,
earthquake / flood etc.
The MAJOR objective of accident
investigations is:

• a. to prepare necessary documents for OSHA

• b. to prevent possible law suits
• c. to prevent similar accidents in future

• d. 
to prepare documents for workers’
compensation liabilities
Part 3: Law of Ratios
In 1930 Heinrich proposed Law of Ratio among major
injuries, minor injuries and unsafe acts:
• For every 300 unsafe acts, there are 29 minor
injuries and one major injury

1
Major
injury

29 minor injuries

300 unsafe acts

This statement does first show the connection between

behaviour and injury
Frank E. Bird (US) study
revealed
below Ratio in 1969
 HSE UK Ratio Study in
Frank E. Bird (US) Ratio 1993
1
study in 1969 Over
Three
1 days’
MAJOR
INJURIES / injury
ILLNESSES or
Illness
10 7
MINOR
INJURIES / minor injuries or
ILLNESSES Illness
30 189
PROPERTY &
ENVIRONMENTAL
Non-injuries or Illness
DAMAGE

600
NEAR-MISSES
Importance of Near-misses
• So we have number of opportunities as Near-Misses (before accidents
or incidents) to prevent accidents or incidents to happen.
• So we should not miss or dismiss those near-misses
• We should investigate those near-misses like accidents or incidents
with equal priority.
Part 4: At-Risk
Behaviour
By habit you travel at a speed above the
speed limit

Should we call your behaviour a Near-miss?

No, We should call your behaviour as At-Risk behaviour
However if you near-miss an accident / incident due to your
At-Risk behaviour, then we will say you had a near-miss
 Ice Berg

MAJOR
INJURIES /
ILLNESSES

MINOR INJURIES
/ ILLNESSES

Failures
PROPERTY &
ENVIRONMENTAL
DAMAGE

NEAR-MISSES

At-Risk Behaviors
What is At-Risk Behaviour
• Risky Behaviour coming through Belief before committing Near-
misses (or accident / incident) are At-Risk Behaviour.
• At-Risk Behaviour becomes habit.
• It is very difficult to remove the habit of At-Risk behaviour. It is
corrected by Behaviour Based Approach
Part 5: Investigation
 Important Points in Investigation
• No Fault finding But Fact finding
• No Identifying culprits But Identifying causes
• No Short term fix But Long lasting solutions
• No Condemnation But Concern
• No Reactive system But Proactive system

× 
Proper Accident investigation is a
critical component of improving
HSE management
• It has highest potential for transforming HSE climate
• Similar type of accidents / Incidents occur with same /
similar root causes(s).
• We can avoid recurrent wastage of money apart from
saving life.
 An accident / incident is a contact that results in
There are threeunintended
Phases of Accident, which
harm
are as under:

CAUSES CONSEQUENCES

PRE-CONTACT CONTACT POST CONTACT

LOSS OF CONTROLS
(Accident / Incident)
Pre-contact Phases generally have many contributing Factors:
Causes & Sub-causes; Direct & Indirect
 X X rs

X
a c to
gF n
u ti
r i b
t

X
o n
g C nt?
vi n i de
o c c No
re m /A
y en t
s b i d
i r
e In c
r
ar for
g b
l in

√
ta l
In s
 Where is/are Near-misses ?

Near-miss cut-off the chain of events in

between Pre-contact and Contact phases
or before Pre-contact phase
CAUSES CONSEQUENCES

PRE-CONTACT CONTACT POST CONTACT

CONTROLS
There are many models of
Accident-Incident Investigation
• Heinrich Domino Theory
• Loss Causation Model
• Multiple Causation Theory
• Epidemiological Model
• Haddon Matrix Theory
• Human Factor Theory
• & Many Others’ Theory

• It depends upon the Investigator as to which Model / Theory

to follow. Each will reach same goal(s).
 Heinrich Domino Theory.
According to Heinrich ‘s domino theory of accident causation, there
are five factors in the sequence of events leading to an accident.
Heinrich’s theory of accident causation is Ancestry / Social
environment, Fault, Unsafe act / Unsafe condition, Accident and
Injury

n
tio
l
n

di
ia
c o

on
S o nt rs

t
en
e

rC
or e
r nm
y /P

to
t

cid
t

ry
s iro
u l

Ac
e

ju
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Ac

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sa
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The Loss Causation Model
• There are 5 dominos in an accident and each domino represents a
step in an accident sequence. First domino starts the sequence:

Immediate Causes
Lack of Control

Direct Incident
Basic Causes

Loss
Lack of Control = Management Failure which caused the basic causes
Basic Causes = At-Risk Behaviour, which caused the Immediate causes
Immediate Causes = Presence of Hazards, unreliable or untrained
persons at the time of accident etc which caused the Direct Incident
Accident Incident = What actually happened e.g., leakage of LPG
Loss = Injury and property damage that occurred
Immediate cause(s) of Accident mean

Unsafe Act(s) & / or Unsafe Conditions,

which resulted the Direct Cause(s)

Unsafe Acts Unsafe Conditions

1. Using defective equipment 1. Inadequate guard or barrier
2. Removing safety devices 2. Defective tools
3. Improper loading / Lifting 3. Exposure to high Noise / high
4. Not using PPE radiation / low illumination /
etc. high temperature
4. Inadequate ventilation
etc.
Some Underlying Basic Causes:
Deficiencies in Individual & Work
· Individual (Personal) Factor • Work (Job) factor:
• Lack of Knowledge • Inadequate Leadership
• Lack of Skill • Inadequate Supervision
• Physical / mental Stress • Inadequate safety devices
• Improper Motivation
• Wear and Tear
• Inadequate Mental / Physical
capability • Inadequate maintenance
• Ineffective training
program
Examples of Lack of Control:
Inadequate Management System in

1. Planning and Implementing

2. Commitment
3. Documentation
4. Effectiveness of Training
5. Effectiveness of Investigation
6. Non-Participation of Middle
and Senior Management
7. Lack in PPE Requirements
8. No training to Contractors
9. No Management of Change
etc
 Why? Why?
Inadequate:

Harm Threshold
Substandard
Inadequate Control

Underlying Causes

EVENT (Incident)
Immediate Causes
• System Acts / Practices
Individual
/ at Risk Potential Unintended
Factors

LOSS
• Roles & Behavior Loss Harm
Responsibilities Producing Or
Work
Events Damage
• Compliance Factors
Substandard
Condition
ti o

Causes
Root
menda
n

Mo d e l
Recom

Problem
l e m So l v
Solvingi n g Model
Pro b
What is or are root cause(s) ?

• Root Causes are like peeling off onions. After complete peeling we
will not get any single root-peel.
• Every peel is a root cause. So there number of root causes.
• There is no priority of root causes
• But there is generally priority of actions recommended on the basis
of root causes
Incident Rate

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Injuries of 3 plants in 2004 are as below. Assume that each employee
works eight hours per day, five days a week and 50 week in a year .
1. What is the number of recordable injuries for plant B in 2004?
2. What is the LWDI (number of lost work day cases ) for plant C?
3. What is the Incident Rate (IR) for recordable injuries in plant A?
4. What is the total number of recordable injuries for all plants in 2004?
5. Why the factor, 2 x 105 is used in calculation?
6. Without calculating, how you guess correct answer?
Number of Number of Number of Number of Plant Answers:
injuries injuries lost work 1. 15
treated with Treated days as a employees 2. 22.22
first aid beyond first result of
aid injuries 3. 2.5
25 10 80 400 A 4. 55
5.2 x 105 manhours
35 15 120 600 B 6.

40 30 200 900 C
Laws, Regulations, Standards & Codes
Regulatory
Authority
Risk is often considered to be comprised of
three elements: frequency (how often the
task occurs), probability (likelihood of an
event occurring), and severity
(consequence). OSHA has utilized several
levels of severity in relation to their
citations. Which of the following is in the
correct order ?
• a. Serious, De minimus, Imminent, Other-than-Serious
• b. Serious, De minimus, Other-than-Serious, Imminent
• c. Imminent, De minimus, Other-than-Serious, Serious
• d. Imminent, Serious, Other-than-Serious, De minimus.

• De minimus = Technical violation

The time OSHA allows to report a
fatality is:

• a. 4 hours
b. 8 hours
• c.24 hours
• d.48 hrs
Functional Elements of
Standardizing and
Regulatory Authority
• For Standardizing Authority,the pertinent questions are
enhanced Quality, enhanced Reliability etc.
• For Regulating Authority, the pertinent parameters are
general goal,level of knowledge and awareness of public,
practicality in implementation, longevity /flexibility of
Rules,propagation of self- regulation in the country etc.
Under provision of the Occupational Safety
and Health Act, NIOSH is responsible for:
• a. conducting research into occupationally related
diseases and illnesses
• b. educating safety and health professionals
• c. operating the Center for Disease Control
• d. all of the above
• Ans ‘a’
American Society of Mechanical
Engineers( ASME ) and the American
Petroleum Institute have codes for design
of which of the following:

• a. vessels creating an oxygen deficient atmosphere

• b. pressure vessels
• c. vacuum vessels
• d. vessels with pressures exceeding 200 PSI
Which of the following government
organizations is responsible for enforcing
the provisions of the Emergency Planning
and Community Right-to-Know act ?
a. Federal Emergency Management Agency(FEMA)
b. OSHA
c. EPA
d. NIOSH
• Ans ‘a’.
Which of the following OSHA citation
types describes willful?
• 1. A direct relationship to job safety, but not likely to cause death or
serious physical harm (up to $7,000)
• 2. Substantial probability that death or serious physical harm could
result and that the employer knew, or should have known, of the
hazard (up to $7,000)
• 3. Employer intentionally and knowingly commits a violation that the
employer commits with plain indifference (up to $70,000)
• 4. An employer fails to correct a previously cited violation beyond the
abatement date
• Ans ‘3’. 1 = other than serious; 2 = Serious; 4 = Failure to abate
An employer covered by OSHA has all
of the following rights except:

• 1. Be advised of the reason for the inspection

• 2. Accompany the compliance officer on the inspection
• 3. Have an opening and closing conference with the compliance officer
• 4. Discontinue the inspection if the employee representative appears
too friendly with the compliance officer
requires owners and operators of certain facilities
to provied detailed information on the chemicals
present at their facilities to several state and local
organizations (SERC, LEPC, and local fire deptt).
In addition, theses facilities are required to report
to EPA every year any routine toxic chemical
emissions from their facilities into the
environment. The public has the right to access
any of this information by any of the following
1. Contacting LEPC during normal working hours
•except:
• 2. Contacting SERC during normal working hours
• 3. Visiting a chemical plant within their community during normal
working hours
• 4. Viewing an EPA printed report each year summarizing the
information that was submitted for the annual toxic release inventory
Which of the following is not correct
pertaining to Occupational Safety &
Health management Systems
(OSHMS)
• 1. OSHMS is a systematic approach to managing safety and health
activities by integrating organizational policies, procedures, and
resources
• 2. OSHMS looks at the way the organization does business and
ensures that necessary safety and health policies and procedures are
inserted and aligned with the business processes
• 3. OSHMS are currently more advanced than Environmental
Management System (EMS) addressed in ISO 14001
• 4. OSHMS must be uniquely designed for organization and have a
better opportunity to gain full management concurrence and
participation if they are justified on the basis of tangible benefits that
exceed incurred costs.
• Ans ‘3’. 1, 2 & 4 = Safety Management System
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Management
Different styles of management
have a direct influence on the flow
of information within an
organization. In “participative”
management style, the flow of
information within an
organization
a. from top to bottom
is:
b. from bottom to top
c. in all directions
d. horizontal
Ans ‘c’
One of the advantages of “participative” management that the flow of
information within the organisation is in all directions. In this style
of management, the managers have access to better information as
a basis for their decisions.
The fundamental way any
organization’s management must
function is to:
• a. ensure that safety and health of all employees are protected
• b. ensure compliance with all federal, state, and local occupational
safety and environment health laws, and standards
• c. make decisions and have those decisions implemented
• d. ensure that employees have an opportunity to take part in the
decision making process
• Ans ‘c’
• Management fulfils its responsibilities of managing by making
decisions. In order to make sound management decisions, the
management must have access to facts and information.
Management styles greatly affect whether or not a manager has all
the right information to make a decision.
One of the responsibilities of
management in safety as well
as other aspects of an
organization’s business is to
follow the 3E’s principle. The
3E’s are:
a. Engineering, Education, Enforcement
b. Effectiveness, Essentials, Efforts
c. Effectiveness, Education, Enforcement
d. Establishment, Effectiveness, Education
Ans ‘a’
3 E’s in management stands for the above
In order to create a “Total Safety
Culture” within an organization,
the management must pay
attention to three major areas.
Which of the following is NOT one
of the three major areas ?
• a. Behavioral factors
• b. Engineering factors
• c. Environmental factors
• d. Personal factors
• Ans ‘b’
Engineering factors is not considered to be one of the three
domains for creating a Total Safety Culture within an
organisation.
The process of comparing a
company’s performance with others
companies in the same industry for
equipment/facility design, engineering
and controls, and management
systems is called:
• a. humiliation
• b. benchmarking
• c. comparison evaluation
d. Jonesequing
Ans ‘b’
What part of the organization must
safety and health influence ?

• a. line management
• b. staff
• c. employees
• d. all levels
• Ans ‘d’
Based on principles of Total Quality
Management(TQM)

• a. top management is reasonable for product quality

• b. line supervisors are responsible for product quality
• c. every employee is responsible for product quality
• d. only (a) and (b) above
• Ans ‘c’
Total Quality Management(TQM) is all of the
following except:

• Tied directly to the use of reinforcement and feedback to modify

behavior (organizational behavioral management)
• 2. Based on attitude adjustment methods use to achieve
improvemenet
• 3. Emphasizes internal attitudinal changes as a prerequisite to
behavior change
• 4. Emphasizes process or root cause improvements
• Ans ‘a’
Which of the following would be an
example of Deming’s principles?

• a. Supervisor and employee agreement of objectives

• b. Manager sets up production quotas for the third
quarter sales force
• c. Awarding contract work based on the lowest bidder
d. Awarding contracts based on long-term loyalty and trust

Deming’s principles = TQM = 14 points

DEMINGS MAGIC FOURTEEN STEPS
1) Drive out fear
2) Eliminate quotas and numerical goals
3) Break down all barriers between departments
4) Eliminate inspection. Learn to build products right the first time
5) Institute a vigorous program of education and self-improvement.
6) Remove barriers that rob workers of their right to pride of workmanship
7) Institute leadership: The aim of leadership should be to help people do a better job.
8) Eliminate slogans, exhortations and production targets
9) Adopt a new philosophy. This is a new economic age. Western Managers must
awaken to the challenge, learn their responsibilities and take on leadership for
change
10) End the practice of awarding business based on the price tag. Move toward a single
supplier for any one item. Base this long-terms relationship on loyalty and trust.
11) Improve constantly and forever the system of products and service
12) Put everybody to work to accomplish transformation.
13) Institute job training.
14) Create constancy of purpose toward improvement of product and service to
The responsibility for employee
safety lies with:
• a. the company CEO
• b. top management
• c. line supervisors and safety professionals
• d. all of the above
• Ans ‘d’
Decision making is a part of
management. Decision should
be made by the:
• a. Lowest possible level
• b. Highest possible level
• c. Employee team members
• d. CEO only
• Ans ‘a’
Which method is most effective
in
• a. Observing the person on the job.
• b. Monitoring the accident rate for those who completed
training.
• c. Having trainees participate in a focus group.
• D. Having trainees complete an objectively scored quiz
• Ans ‘a’
The Blake Mouton Managerial Grid
Conceptualized management styles. A
manager classified as 5,5 is known as:
• 1. Team oriented
• 2. Middle of the road
9.9
• 3. Autocratic focus

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
• 4. Country club
Country club Team Leader

People
Impoverished
Or supervisor? Authoritarian

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9.9
Task
According to the Blake Mouton Managerial Grid, a 9,1
manager is a:
• 1. Dictator; 2. Country club manager; 3. Team manager; 4. Impoverished manager

P 9 Country Club Team Mgmt

E 8 Best
O 7 Manager
P 6 MIDDLE 5,5 9,9
L
5
E
4
3
2
1 Impoverished
t i o n Task manager/ Dictator

u e s
1 2 3 q4 5 6 7 8 9
ne
O
CONCERN FOR PRODUCTION
Which of the following is not one of
the management styles identified by
Rensis Likert?
• 1. Exploitive – Authoritative – decisions imposed on subordinates
• 2. Benevolent - Authoritative – leadership by master-servant trust
• 3. Consultative System - leadership is by superiors who have
substantial but not complete trust in their subordinates.
• 4. Non-participative-Group System - leadership by superiors that
profess group involvement but ultimately make all decisions without
input
• Ans ‘c’
•
The matrix model is a network of interfaces between teams
and functional elements of an organization
GENERAL
MANAGER

Functional Functional Functional

manager manager manager
Project 1 2 3
manager
Project 4 5 6
manager
Project
7 8 9
manager
Project 10 11 12
manager
The name of the technique to manage projects and their
associated employees by gaining the benefit of resources
through shared governance (assignments to those projects
appears in tables of rows and columns where
departments/employees are columns and projects are rows) is
called:

• 1. Project management
• 2. Unity of command
• 3. Matrix management
• 4. Conceptual management
• Ans ‘c’
Herzberg’s management theory states:
• 1. Job satisfaction factors (policy, supervision, pay) are not on the
same continuum as job motivation factors (achievement, recognition,
responsibility)
• 2. There are two types of managers – theory X (those that believe that
people dislike work, must be forced, controlled or directed) and
theory Y (those that believe that people view work as natural, seek
responsibility, and like to achieve)
• 3. Employees treated as children in the workplace tend to behave as
children and those treated as adults behave as adults.
• 4. Administrative efficiency is increased by limiting the span of control
(the number of employees reporting to one individual) to not more
than five or six subordinates whose work interlocks.
• Ans ‘c’
• 2 = McGregor; 3 = Argyris; 4 = Role of Supervisor
McGregor has proposed two
theories, X and Y, describing an
employee’s attitude towards
his/her work. Theory Y states that:

a. people are not generally interested in their work, an

external motivation is required
b. workers should be motivated by raises and benefit plans
c. people are generally interested in their work and are self-
motivated o n
s t i
d. It is the management’s responsibility to motivate qu e
employees ne
O
Ans ‘c’ Theory X states the opposites i.e., people are not
generally interested in their work and are not self-
Herzberg’s management theory states:
• 1. Job satisfaction factors (policy, supervision, pay) are not on the
same continuum as job motivation factors (achievement, recognition,
responsibility)
• 2. There are two types of managers – theory X (those that believe that
people dislike work, must be forced, controlled or directed) and
theory Y (those that believe that people view work as natural, seek
responsibility, and like to achieve)
• 3. Employees treated as children in the workplace tend to behave as
children and those treated as adults behave as adults.
• 4. Administrative efficiency is increased by limiting the span of control
(the number of employees reporting to one individual) to no more
than five or six subordinates whose work interlocks.
• Ans ‘a’.
A Theory Y leader would exhibit which type of management style?
1) Autocratic
2) Democratic
3) Supportive
4) Consultative

The correct answer is: 2

Theory Y leaders assume that their employees are intelligent, hard

working, and willing to learn. They would encourage subordinates
to self-manage, take responsibility, and share in decision making.
This is democratic leadership.
Theory Y Management assumes the worker is:
A) Basically uninterested in work
B) Basically interested in work
C) Basically blase towards work
D) Basically accident prone
The correct answer is: B

Theory Y Management holds that the worker is interested and

motivated to work, as opposed to Theory X.
The theory on human motivation which declares that workers are
uninterested in and unmotivated toward work; to motivate them to
work, a system of rewards and punishments is necessary, applies to:
A) McGregor's Theory Y
B) McGregor's Theory X
C) Herzberg's Job-enrichment Theory
D) Likert's Theory
The correct answer is: B

In an attempt to analyze how management personnel view human

motivation, McGregor evolved the notion there are two basic ways in
which management can view the worker:
Theory X - assumes the worker is essentially uninterested and
unmotivated to work.
Theory Y - assumes the worker is basically interested and motivated to
work.
A manager who utilizes the inherent motivation that is present in all
humans is a ________ manager.
A) Theory X
B) Theory Y
C) Theory Z
D) Theory A
The correct answer is: B

Theory Y managers utilize the goal-orientation of the worker to achieve

results.
Laws/Rules/
Regulations
A law codified by a governing body is
a:
• a. common law
• b. regulatory law
• c. tort law
d. statutory law

Ans ‘d’
Statutory law is codified by a Govt.body
As per DOT regulations, the number of
placards required for highway transport of
hazardous materials is:

• a. 4
• b. 3
• c. 2
• d. 6
• Ans ‘a’
. SARA Title III was passed by
Congress as a result of the accident in:
•
• a. Flixborough, England
• b. Stringfello dump in California
• c. Bhopal, India
• d. All of the above.
Ans ‘c’
SARA title III Community Right – to know) was a direct
response to the chemical disaster in Bhopal, India where
more than 2000 people were killed and tens of thousands
were injured.
. SARA Title III deals with:

• a. hazardous waste emergencies

• b. all emergencies
• c. chemical emergencies
• d. only a and b above
Ans ‘c’
SARA title III deals only with chemical emergencies.
The tragedy in Bhopal,India, was the
driving force behind which major federal
legislation
• a. RCRA
• b. OSHACT
• c. SARA TITLE III
• d. Clean Air Act
• Ans ‘c’.
. SARA Title III deals with:

•
• a. hazardous waste emergencies
• b. all emergencies
• c. chemical emergencies
• d. only a and b above
SARA title III deals only with chemical emergencies.

i o n
ue st
e q
On
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? Under SARA Title
III, manufacturers, processors and distributors must give notification to
customers that their product...
A) ...is not subject to reporting requirements of Title III
B) ...is subject to reporting requirements of Title III
C) Contains a toxic chemical and provide the chemical name
D) Contains a toxic chemical and provide the percent by weight of each
toxic chemical

The correct answer is: A

Manufacturers, processors and distributors do not have to give

notification to customers that their product is subject to the reporting
requirements of Title III.
A state occupational safety and
health program standard must be
adopted within six months (180) of
the enacted federal standard and
must:
• 1. Be more effective than the federal standards
• 2. Be less effective than the federal standards
• 3. Be ‘at least as effective as’ the federal standards
• 4.contain more severe penalties
• Ans ‘3’.
According to DOT, all of the following
are required to drive a commercial
vehicle except:

• 1. Be 21 years of age
• 2. Read and speak English language
• 3. Are a current valid operator’s license
• 4. Be able to lift 50 pounds

• Ans ‘4’.
Employees operating a commercial
vehicle must have been medically
examined during the preceding:

• 1. 12 months
• 2. 18 months
• 3. 24 months
• 4. 36 months
• Ans ‘3’.
Which of the following statements is not
accurate. Motor carriers shall maintain for a
period of one year after an accident occurs a
register containing all of the following:
• 1. Copies of accident reports required by State or other
government entities
• 2. Number of injuries and fatalities for each accident
• 3. Whether hazardous materials, including fuel spilled from
the fuel tanks of motor vehicles involved in the accident,
were released.
• 4. Date of accident, city or town and state most near where
accident occurred, driver name.
• Ans ‘3’.
Which of the following is not a
commercial vehicle?
• 1. A vehicle with a gross weight rating of 26,001 or more
pounds
• 2. A vehicle designed to transport more than 15 passengers
(including the driver)
• 3. Vehicle used to transport hazardous materials in a
quantity requiring placarding.
• 4. A tandem wheel farm trailer vehicle transporting chickens
within the state of Arkansas
• Ans ‘4’.
The first Supreme court case lost by OSHA was in
1978, Marshall v. Barlow. What was the main point of
the case from Pocatello, Idaho?

• 1. Right to privacy of OSHA

• 2. Right to entry of OSHA
• 3. Right to refuse dangerous work
• 4. Right to issue citations

• Ans ‘2’.
Responsibility
• The responsibility for employee safety lies with:
•
• a. the company CEO
• b. top management
• c. line supervisors and safety professionals
• d. all of the above
One function of the safety engineer is ensuring safe
design. This is best accomplished by:
• 1. Inspecting facilities after completion
• 2. Reviewing design with the engineers from initial planning through
completion of construction.
• 3. Instructing engineers as to requirements such as OSHA and the Life
Safety Code
• 4. Instructing contractors on requirements

• Ans ‘2’.
The EHS position within most organizations is
considered a staff function rather than line. In these
organizations, the EHS person must influence:

• 1. Top management
• 2. Middle and lower management levels
• 3. Employees/union
• 4. All of the above
Workers compensation premium depends on severity
etc of plant and also nos of employees, accident
history, overheads, safety programs and estimates by
actuaries
• So not uniform among all industries
• It is state law not Federal law, so different in different states but shares
a basic concept of ‘no-fault’, which means that workers’ only source of
recovery is from Workers compensation and the employer is protected
against law suits.
• Insurance premium depends on (or is determined by) ‘experience
rating’ (predictions as to what types of losses the employer may
suffer: employee rating, overhead rating?) or ‘manual rating’ (uses
risk analysis for each type of employer: risk/severity rating?)
• ‘Premium discounting’ depends on nos of employee. More the nos,
more the discount?
• ‘Retrospective rating’ considers average industry losses for
a given period and then adjusted by the actual loss of the
company
• ‘Schedule rating’ = A baseline criteria is established and the
employer’s condition is compared with a credit and debit
accounting system.
Risk
Risk Managers should deal with
a risk with the following except:

a. Transfer risk with insurance

b. Self-insurance fund
c. Do nothing
d. Eliminate the risk
Ans ‘c’.
Which of the following is not an element of risk
management program?
• 1. The purchase of insurance to compensate the company for losses
• 2. Implementing a comprehensive EHS program to prevent or mitigate losses
• 3. Formulate a complete public relations program to represent the company
in the media
• 4. Contracting services or operations that are critical in nature and difficult to
perform properly
• Ans ‘3’.

Risk Management

Insurance ESH Contract Avoidance

Systems Safety & Reliability
 System and
Product Safety
Failure Modes Effect and
Criticality Analysis (FMECA) is :

• a. a deductive analysis
• b. a subjective analysis
• c. an inductive analysis
• d. similar to Fault Tree Analysis
• Ans: c
The main objective of a Hazard
and Operability Study(HAZOP)
is:
• a. to identify deviations from the design intent with their
causes and consequences
• b. to develop “guide words” which would best describe
system hazard analysis
• c. to satisfy OSHA requirement of Process Safety
Management Standard (29 CFR 1910.119)
• d. to apply guide words to safety instruments.
• Ans: ‘a’
The results of a HAZOP study
are normally presented in the
form of:
• a. table
• b. logic diagram
• c. risk severity chart
• d. only (a) and (b) above.

• Ans: ‘a’
i o n
ue st
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On
In FTA, the event “source of ignition”
as one of the necessary components
of combustion must be connected to
events “open flame”, “static sparks”,
and “electrical sparks” through which
of the following gates:
• a. AND
• b. SOMETIMES
• c. OR
• d. Only (a) and (c) above.

• Ans: ‘c’
The “failure rate” versus
“useful life” curve used in
reliability engineering is more
commonly known as the:
• a. reliability curve
• b. failure rate curve
• c. random failure curve
• d bathtub curve
• Ans:’d’
 In the development of an accident data collection
system, the most important first step is to:

• 1. Differentiate between human error and design error.

• 2. Define the subsequent use of the data.
• 3. Establish accident-reporting responsibilities.
• 4. Codify data to conform to existing data sources.

• Ans: ‘2’
Which type of diagram was originated by Kaoru
Ishikawa, is known as a cause-and-effect diagram, and
is useful for identifying the root causes of the causal
factors of accidents?

• 1. Control chart
• 2. Flow diagram
• 3. Histogram
• 4. Fishbone diagram

• Ans:’4’
When welding in a large steel tank
that was the tank used as a chemical
process vessel, which breathing
apparatus would you recommend for
the welder ?

a. Self-contained
b. Full face mask
c. Oxygen mask
d. Charcoal filter-type mask

Ans:’a’
Which of the following statements is
an example of a “motivation factor”
according to Herzberg’s Motivation-
Hygience” theory ?

a. Relationships with the boss

b. Money
c. Responsibility
d. Working conditions

Ans:’c’
 What is the major cause of on-the job
fatalities ?

• a. transportation incidents
• b. assaults, violent acts
• c. falls
• d. fire, explosions

• Ans: ‘a’
Adult learners have four basic needs.
Which of the following is not one of
the four.

• a. a need to know why they are learning a particular

topic or skill.
• b. A need to apply their experience to their new
learning.
• c. A need to have classroom sessions of less than four
hours duration.
• d. A need to learn things that will make them more
effective and successful.
• Ans: ‘c’
.Which of the following
presentation techniques describes
a lecture ?
• a. a single person imparts information to a large group
in a short period of time, with little time or opportunity for
interaction.
• b. The trainer/facilitator controls the flow of the session
among a limited number of people to allow open discussion
(often used for problem solving)
• c. Written description of business decisions or problems
(may be actual of fictitious)designed to allow demonstration
of predetermined skills and knowledge and encourages
critical thinking skills.
• d. When actual materials or machines cannot be used,
but nonetheless allows worker participation.
•
49 CFR 172 Subpart E covers labeling
of hazardous materials. Which of the
following would have a yellow
background?

• a. flammable gas/liquid.
• b. Corrosive
• c. Non-flammable
• d. Oxidizer

• Ans: ‘d’
Local area network (LAN):
a. link PCs to one another either directly or through a shared

mainframe computer.
b. are networks used to communicate at greater distances.
c. a network based around a centralized computer. Data and
software are obtained by the network “nodes” (desktop
PCs)
d. standard language statements used to communicate
(update/retrieve data) with a relational database
management system.
Ans: ‘a’. b = WAN, c = server based network, d = SQL
Domain names (e.g. www.smartaggie.org)
are registered in the domain name system
(DNS) and are stored in Internet computers
called domain name system servers (DNS
servers). The top-level domain (TLD)
abbreviation to the Web site of a
prestigious university (such as Texas A&M)
is:

• a. gov
• b. edu
• c. com
• d. Org
• Ans: b
Which of the following is not an
advantage of computer-assisted
training?

• a. Workers can work at their own pace.

• b. Records can be automatically maintained.
• c. It is generally not effective for small workforce
companies.
• d. Correct answers are required before a worker can
proceed to the next lesson and remediation methods can be
built into the program

• Ans: ‘ c’
Which one of the following will not
allow equipment to continue to
operate?
• a. fail safe –passive
• b. fail safe – active
• c. fail safe – operational
• d. fail safe – redundant

• Ans: ‘a’
The bathtub curve explains:

• a. typical failure rates for products plotted over time

• b. why refrigerators only last 10 years.
• c. How safety factors are plotted
• d. Why standby systems are required.

• Ans: ‘a’
Behavioral researchers and scientists
have suggested three categories of
options to affect behavioral changes.
Which of the following IS NOT one
these three categories?
• a. Build a comfortable psychological environment.
• b. Reinforcing a desired behavior until the new habit is
formed.
• c. Change attitudes
• d. Discipline negative behavior every time it occurs.
• Ans: ‘d’
Which of the following statements
IS NOT true in regard to the use of
behavioral data analysis for
improving safety ?
• a. Corrective action based on analysis of behavioral data
can prevent accidents.
• b. Behavioral data analysis can suggest corrective actions
to prevent injury
• c. Actual injury data is much more effective than
behavioral data in improving safety because it gets
employee attention.
• d. Behavioral data analysis is essential in improving
safety because it closes the improvement loop.
• Ans: ‘c’
Safety Management & Risk Management
Emergency, Waste Management, Control &
Remediation
Emergency
Situation
The first step in responding to spils of
hazardous material should be to:

• a. contain the spill

• b. protect people
• c. identify the substance
d. read MSDS
Ans ‘b’. Although identifying the substance determines the most
effective clean up procedure and protective equipment needed, the
first step is to ensure that people are protected. This includes both
responders and other people.
In new chemical plant layout where
most processing equipment is located
outdoors, which of the items listed
below should be considered first ?

• a. To group similar equipment in one location

• b. To determine the direction of the prevailing wind
• c. To provide room for maintenance
• d. To minimize piping and pumping costs.
• Ans. ‘b’. The direction of prevailing wind will determine the location of
many pieces of equipment.
In designing outdoor plant layout, all
equipments that may spill flammable
materials should be located:

• a. in an isolated area on the upwind side

• b. on the downwind side
• c. near fire stations and on the upwind side
d. close to the receiving area
Ans. ‘b’. Flammable should be placed on the down wind side otherwise,
it is possible that the wind would carry the vapors from a spill over the
plant where they could be ignited.
A basic emergency preparedness plan
will usually include all of the following
components; a chain of command, an
alarm system, medical treatment
plans, a communication system,
shutdown and evacuation procedure,
and:
a. auxiliary power systems.
• b. Contingency funds
• c. Coordination with local authorities.
• d Maps of flammable materials
• Ans. ‘a’.
must be taken into account
when determining safe
distances for release of a
hazardous substance into the
environment ?
a. Topography
b. Density
c. Wind speed and direction
d. All of the above
Ans. ‘d’. Topography, density of the released substance, and wind speed
and direction are all important factors in determining safe
distances. Other important factors are toxicological properties and
physical state of the substance (solid, liquid, gas), vapor pressure,
and quantity and rate of release.
What is span of control ?
• a. each employee reports to only one individual
• b. the number of employees reporting to one individual
• c. the company owns all aspects of the production
process
• d. the company owns little or none of the production
process
• Ans. ‘b’. Best max 5 or 6 employees reporting to one
individual
Emergency action plan requires
all of the following except:

• 1. Escape procedures and escape route assignment

• 2. Procedures for employees required to remain
and operate critical equipment
• 3. Procedures to account for all employees
• 4. Fault-tree analysis
Which of the following is not correct
regarding an emergency plan?

• 1. The individual ultimately incharge should be the highest

ranking person in the line organization
• 2. The first step in developing a plan is to identify the
potential risks (types of hazards)
• 3. A written comprehensive mangement plan is intended to
provide a preplanned response to emergencies
• 4. Welders generally make the best fire chiefs
Emergency response instrument must
be calibrated:

a. annually
• b. once a week
• c. once a month
• d. before and after each use
The correct answer is (d). In addition fixed periods say once in a year
even there is no emergency for continuous few years.
SPCC =

• Spill Prevention Control Countermeasure Plan = people

within organization
CHEMTREC gives

• information to facilitate emergency response to spills of haz

substances, formed by Chemical Manufacturer’s Association
(CMA)
Safety Theory

ns
e s tio
qu
r 4
3 o
Which of the following statements
is an example of a “motivation
factor” according to Herzberg’s
Motivation-Hygience” theory ?

a. Relationships with the boss

b. Money
c. Responsibility
d. Working conditions

Ans ‘c’. Statements a, b, and d are examples of “hygiene factors”.

Responsibility is a good example of a “motivation factor”
The Shewhart Cycle is a concept which is
used extensively in Total Quality
Management. Which of the following best
describes this cycle ?

• a. Concept, act, plan, manage

• b. Plan, do, study, act
• c. Manage, do, act, plan
d. Do, act, study, manage
Ans ‘b’. The Shewhart cycle is “plan. Do, study, act”. This cycle
is one of the most widely used tools in TQM and is also
known as the PDSA cycle.
Which of the following is NOT an
element of “3-E’s” Principle ?

a. Education
• b. Efficiency
• c. Engineering
• D. Enforcement

Ans ‘b’. The elements of “3-E’s” Principals are engineering, education,

and enforcement.
What are the five dimensions of
Heinnrich’s domino theory ?
• a. the five E’s of safety
• b. social , fault, unsafe act, accident, injury
• c. management, labor, unions, capital, and money
• d. men , machines, money, capital, and accidents.
• Ans ‘b’.
Which of thefollowing describes
Douglas McGregor’s basic
assumptions managers make
about Theory X people ?

• a. people dislike work, must be forced, controlled, or

directed
• b. people view work as natural, seek responsibility, and
like to achieve
• c. people’s needs must be balanced with the needs of
the environment
• d. employee’s needs must be coordinated with the
company needs
• Ans ‘a’.
Employees centered supervision is
more productive than job centered
supervision. In other words, the more
the job is supervised, the less
productive the people. This research
was conducted by:
• a. Rensis Likert
• b. B.F.Skinner using the Skinner Box
• c. E.M.Newhold in Accident Research on accident
pronness
• d. W.C.Pope - employees not at fault, it is the
management system.
• Ans ‘a’.
Peter Drucker wrote extensively
about MBO, Management by
Objectives. He also writes about
three company responsibilities:
companies should make a profit,
employee job satisfaction, and
the:
• a. social responsibilities of the company
• b. application of quality circles
• c. moral responsibilities of all employees
• d. ethical responsibilities of political action committees
• Ans ‘a’.
• According to Heinrich estimates, 88 per cent of all
occupational accidents are caused as a result of
•
• a. unsafe conditions
• b. natural disasters
• c. unsafe acts
• d. only (a) and (c) above
• Ans ‘c’.
According to Herbert W. Heinrich’s
domino theory of accident
causation, there are five factors in
the sequence of events leading to
an accident. These factors are:
• a. social environment, unsafe act, lack of morals,
inattentiveness, unsafe conditions
• b. social, fault,unsafe act or conditions,accident,injury
• c. unsafe act, natural disaster, accident, injury,death
• d. injury,accident,chemical,physical hazards toxic
• Ans ‘b’.
Which of the following would be an
example of Deming’s principles?

• a. Supervisor and employee agreement of objectives

• b. Manager sets up production quotas for the third
quarter sales force
• c. Awarding contract work based on the lowest bidder
d. Awarding contracts based on long-term loyalty and trust

Deming’s principles = TQM

The theory which develops a series of
steps designed to satisfy human needs
is known as:
• 1. Motivation – Hygiene Theory
of Herzberg
Self Activation
• 2. Behavioral Theory of E. Scott
Geller
Recognition in SA
• 3. Incongruency Theory – Society
maturity – immaturity by Christ Ego
Argyris
Social
• 4. Heiarchy of Needs by Abraham
Maslow Safety

Physiological

Sequence for all Individuals

Which of the following is not one of
the management styles identified by
Rensis Likert?
• 1. Exploitive – Authoritative – decisions imposed on subordinates
• 2. Benevolent - Authoritative – leadership by condescending form of
master-servant trust
• 3. Consultative System - leadership is by superiors who have
substantial but not complete trust in their subordinates.
• 4. Non-participative-Group System - leadership by superiors that
profess group involvement but ultimately make all decisions without
input
• Ans ‘4’.
Herzberg’s Motivation-Hygiene
Theory
• First Hygiene factors should be fulfilled (as far as practicable)
• Then Motivation factors

Responsibility
Sense of Achievement
Hierarchy of Factors

Recognition
Motivating
Factors Promotion
Money
Working Conditions
Hygiene factors Relationship with Boss
Company Policy
1. Does increase in salary without promotion will motivate
employees?
2. Does increase in salary without promotion will urge
employees to improve quality of his / her job again & again
throughout life?
Which of the following is incorrect?
• 1. Horizontal Integration occurs when a business expands its control
over other similar or closely related business e.g., an oil refining
business would be horizontally integrated if it owned or controlled
other oil refineries
• 2. Vertical Integration occurs when a business expands its control over
other business that are part of its overall manufacturing process e.g.,
an oil refining business would be vertically integrated if it owned or
controlled pipeline companies, railroads, barrel manufacturers, etc.
• 3. Supervisory responsibilities typically included formal decisions or
recommendations regarding: hiring, and / or terminations; employee
performance; promotions / reclassifications and / or salary
adjustments, disciplinary actions; and / or handling
complaints/grievances
• 4. The ESH person is part of the line organization and responsibilities
include monitoring employee activity for discrepancies and
administrating corrective actions.
• Ans ‘4’.
 Infant
Wear out
Mortality

Failure
Useful Life

Time
 Stress – Strain graph of ?
S
T
R
B C
E
D
S
S
(Pres-
sure)

STRAIN (% ELONGATION)

Pts: B, C and D are important in design. Why?

The theory which develops a series of
steps designed to satisfy human needs
is known as:
• 1. Motivation – Hygiene Theory
of Herzberg
Self Activation
• 2. Behavioral Theory of E. Scott
Geller Recognition in Society SA
• 3. Incongruency Theory –
maturity – immaturity by Christ Ego
Argyris
Social
• 4. Heiarchy of Needs by Abraham
Maslow Safety

Physiological

Sequence for all Individuals

Maslow’s Heirarchy of Needs identified
the basic needs of people. The middle
of the five needs is:
• 1. Physiological – food & shelter,
rest, absence of pain
• 2. Security & Safety – steady
income, basic benefits, safe SA
working conditions
• 3. Social – group affiliation, peer S Esteem
approval, social events
Belonging-love
• 4. Ego, status, esteem – title,
employee recognition reward, Safety
special assignment
Physiological
Conscious

Sub-Conscious
Which one is critical area?
UN No. of Petrol
Maslow’s Theory of Hierarchy
of Needs
• 2 basic needs: Physiological needs Personal safety needs
• 3 Higher order Needs: Love Esteem Self-actualization

Self-Fullfilment
3 Higher order Needs Ego
Hierarchy of Needs
Belongingness
Safety
2 basic needs
Physiological
Herzberg’s Motivation-Hygiene
Theory
• First Hygiene factors should be fulfilled (as far as practicable)
• Then Motivation factors

Responsibility
Sense of Achievement
Hierarchy of Factors

Recognition
Motivating
Factors Promotion
Money
Working Conditions
Hygiene factors Relationship with Boss
Company Policy

1. Does increase in salary without promotion will motivate

workers?
2. Does increase in salary without promotion will urge
workers to improve quality of his / her job again & again?
Maslow’s Theory of Hierarchy of Needs & Herzberg’s
Motivation-Hygiene Theory
 MAJOR
(Fatality)

SERIOUS
INCIDENT

MINOR
INCIDENT

NEAR-MISSES

At-Risk / Unsafe Behaviors

If we control At-Risk / Unsafe Behaviors,

near misses, incidents / accidents can be controlled
Apply Golden Rule
Apply Platinum Rule

Treat others as they want to be treated

NB: We do not want to take risk of accident at home. Why?
 INCIDENT CAUSATION
MODEL
Why ?
Inadequate:

Harm Threshold
Substandard
Inadequate Control

Underlying Causes

EVENT (Incident)
Immediate Causes
• System Acts / Practices
Individual
/ at Risk Potential Unintended
Factors

LOSS
• Roles & Behavior Loss Harm
Responsibilities Producing Or
Work
Events Damage
• Compliance Factors
Substandard
Condition

Problem
Problem Solving
Solving Model
Model
What are the laws of learning ?

•Frequency – repetition
•Recency – learnt last
•Readiness – value of training
•Disuse – skill not used
•Effect – enjoyment
•Primacy – important
•Intensity – involvement
People generally remember all of the
following except:
• a. 50% through sight and hearing.
• b. 20% through hearing.
• c. 30% through sight.
• D. 100% of the material covered in this course
Which of the following is NOT considered to be a
major component of a corporate safety program?

a)Worker attitudes
b)Protective equipment
c)Safety committee
d)Preparation of safety training books.
• A. D
• Worker attitude, protective equipment, and safety
committees are major components of a corporate safety
program
Which of the following statements BEST
describes the role of a safety committee within
an organization?
a) Create at atmosphere in which people become interested in safety
and health programs of the organization.
b) Conduct routine inspections to identify and eliminate unsafe
conditions and acts.
c) To ensure that all aspects of the organization’s operations is in
compliance with federal, state, and local laws, regulations, and
standards.
d) Only (b) and (c) above.
• Ans. ‘a’. The major function of an effective safety committee within
an organization is to create a sense of interest in safety and health
programs
Which of the following is the most powerful tool for enhancing
participation in safety?
a) Safety audits.
b ) Safety training.
c) Safety posters.
d) Safety committees.
• Ans. D
• A safety committee is a very powerful tool for enhancing participation
in safety. Another major role of a safety committee is to provide
guidance and advice to employees and management on safety and
health issues. It is actually the most powerful tool for enhancing
participation in safety. A safety committee IS A VERY POWERFUL
TOOL for enhancing participation in safety. Another major role of a
safety committee is to provide guidance and advice to employees and
management on safety and health issues
 Which of following statement is BEST describes the
role or function of a safety committee ?
a)The committee must have meeting at least once in a week
b)The committee must have at least one representative from each
department within the organization
c)The committee must set goals an objectives and measure its
performance against achieving those goals and objectives
d)The committee must have at least one member who is familiar with
the safety features of all processes used in the organization .
• Ans C. An effective safety committee must set goals and objectives
that are realistic and measurable
Management will be most interested in safety audits
that report:

• 1. Frequency and severity rates

• 2. Insurance cost ratios
• 3. Cost/operational effectiveness
• 4. Identifying program designs to assure OSHA
compliance
• Ans ‘3’.
One of the problems associated with safety
inspection is :-

• 1) Regulations may not be updated

• 2) Control methods may not be economical
• 3) Hazards are allowed to accumulate between
inspections
• 4) Lost time cases cannot be detected
• Ans ‘3’. A safety inspection usually causes a surge
in safety and health activities. However, after a
period of time hazards are allowed to accumulate
until the next inspection.
 The best Audit technique to verify that an organization is
implementing a material handling program as written is
• 1) Observing the material handling program practices and condition
of the material handling equipment
• 2) Interviewing material handling employees and observing material
handling program employee training programs
• 3) Reviewing material handling employee training records and
verifying supervisory effectiveness by conducting perception surveys
4) Verifying that the organization has documented inspections of
material handling equipment, has a preventive maintenance program
for material handling equipment, and a process to ensure that any
deficiencies found are corrected in a timely manner.
• Ans ‘a’. When possible, it is best for auditors to verify in­person that
management processes are being implemented as documented.
Otherwise, auditors have to rely on management certifications/
documents that the processes are being conducted appropriately
though those other choices are or may be true or partially true.
An auditor best demonstrate impartiality during an audit
• 1) By being free from any line or operational responsibility for the
activity being audited
• 2) By understanding thoroughly the activity being audited and being
thoroughly prepared for the audit to be conducted
• 3) By holding a reputable third-party certification with a Code of
Ethics and Professional Conduct to which the auditor agrees to abide
4) By signing a statement confirming that he or she will be impartial
and will report objectively all information related to the objectives of
the audit.
• Ans ‘1’. Though those other choices may be effective or partially
effective. Though it is possible for an auditor to perform a good job
within the organization with which he or she has line or staff
responsibilities, it is best for an auditor to be free from all such
responsibilities so that the final audit report will be perceived by all
readers to be free from any real or perceived biases.
Safety and Health program audits are designed to:

• 1. Ensure compliance with codes and standards

• 2. Measure cost reductions due to accident
prevention activities
• 3. Check on record keeping completeness and
accuracy
• 4. Determine if a program is following a plan
• Ans ‘4’.

If question is “field” in place of “program”;

then answer is ‘1’
An effective written ergonomics program should
include the following four components: work-site
analysis, control measures to prevent hazards, medical
management, and:

• a. management support
• b. training/education
• c. cost-benefit analysis
• d. lifting exercise program
• Ans ‘b’.
Safety programs should give least consideration to:

• 1. Management climate
• 2. Task demands
• 3. Work environment
• 4. Accident proneness
• Ans ‘4’.
 Which of the following OSHA citation types describes
willful?

• 1. A direct relationship to job safety, but not likely to cause death or

serious physical harm (up to $7,000)
• 2. Substantial probability that death or serious physical harm could
result and that the employer knew, or should have known, of the
hazard (up to $7,000)
• 3. Employer intentionally and knowingly commits a violation that the
employer commits with plain indifference (up to $70,000)
• 4. An employer fails to correct a previously cited violation beyond the
abatement date
• Ans ‘3’.
• 1 = other than serious; 2 = Serious; 4 = Failure to abate
The main purpose of physical
examinations is to:

• a. screen out lazy employees

• b. ensure candidates with defects are
rejected
• c. avoid bad insurance risks
• d. determine physical capacity for job
performance
• Ans ‘d’.
The MAJOR objective of
accident investigations is:

• a. to prepare necessary documents for

OSHA
•b. to prevent possible law suits
• c. to prevent similar accidents in future
• d. to prepare documents for workers’
compensation
n liabilities
s t i o
que
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On
In safety management theory, accidents in the
work place are considered to be:

• Answer: 
Symptoms of a management
failure
• In Safety Management, the accidents have both direct
indirect causes, and basic causes .
• Although it is true that the direct cause of a given
accident may be combination of factors ranging from
not controlling hazards to human failure, the basic
(indirect) cause of all accidents goes back to
management failure.
• Managements’ involvement t i o nin improving safety is
must. ue s
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On
Incidence rate, which is kind of business
metric or sometime called as safety
performance benchmark is
Answer: A lagging (trailing) indicator, not a

leading indicator of safety performance.
Overall safety performance cannot be judged by historical
data such as this. Incidence rates are poor performance
indicators.

Generally, actual injury data get more employee attention.

However, because of its nature, it creates a reactive rather
that a proactive response in preventing injuries and
accidents
t io n
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Question: What is the characteristic of a root
cause of an accident / incident?
Ans Management system problem
Heinrich reviewed more than 75,000 accident
cases and according to Heinrich’s estimates,
88 percent of all occupational accidents are
caused as a result of:
• a. unsafe conditions
• b. natural disasters
• c. unsafe acts 
• d. Only (a) and (c) above

According to NSC, 98% due to unsafe acts and unsafe

conditions and 2 % due to Natural causes e.g., earthquake
/ flood etc.
There are many models of
Accident-Incident Investigation
• Heinrich Domino Theory
• Loss Causation Model
• Multiple Causation Theory
• Epidemiological Model
• Haddon Matrix Theory
• Human Factor Theory
• & Many Others’ Theory

• It depends upon the Investigator as to which Model /

Theory to follow. Each will reach same goal(s).
 Heinrich Domino Theory.
According to Heinrich ‘s domino theory of accident causation, there
are five factors in the sequence of events leading to an accident.
Heinrich’s theory of accident causation is Ancestry / Social
environment, Fault, Unsafe act / Unsafe condition, Accident and
Injury

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The Loss Causation Model
• There are 5 dominos in an accident and each domino represents a
step in an accident sequence. First domino starts the sequence:

Immediate Causes
Lack of Control

Direct Incident
Basic Causes

Loss
Lack of Control = Management Failure which caused the basic causes
Basic Causes = At-Risk Behaviour, which caused the Immediate causes
Immediate Causes = Presence of Hazards, unreliable or untrained
persons at the time of accident etc which caused the Direct Incident
Accident Incident = What actually happened e.g., leakage of LPG
Loss = Injury and property damage that occurred
Immediate cause(s) of Accident mean

Unsafe Act(s) & / or Unsafe Conditions,

which resulted the Direct Cause(s)
Unsafe Acts Unsafe Conditions
1. Using defective equipment 1. Inadequate guard or barrier
2. Removing safety devices 2. Defective tools
3. Improper loading / Lifting 3. Exposure to high Noise /
4. Not using PPE high radiation / low
etc. illumination / high
temperature
4. Inadequate ventilation
etc.
Some Underlying Basic Causes:
Deficiencies in Individual & Work
· Individual (Personal) • Work (Job) factor:
Factor • Inadequate Leadership
• Lack of Knowledge • Inadequate Supervision
• Lack of Skill • Inadequate safety
• Physical / mental Stress devices
• Improper Motivation • Wear and Tear
• Inadequate Mental / Physical
capability • Inadequate
maintenance
• Ineffective training
program
Examples of Lack of Control:

Inadequate Management System in

1. Planning and Implementing

2. Commitment
3. Documentation
4. Effectiveness of Training
5. Effectiveness of Investigation
6. Non-Participation of Middle
and Senior Management
7. Lack in PPE Requirements
8. No training to Contractors
9. No Management of Change
etc
Under provision of the Occupational Safety
and Health Act, NIOSH is responsible for:
• a. conducting research into
occupationally related diseases and illnesses
• b. educating safety and health
professionals
• c. operating the Center for Disease
Control
• d. all of the above
• Ans ‘a’
American Society of Mechanical Engineers(
ASME ) and the American Petroleum
Institute have codes for design of which of
the following:

• a. vessels creating an oxygen deficient

atmosphere
• b. pressure vessels
• c. vacuum vessels
• d. vessels with pressures exceeding 200
PSI
Which of the following government
organizations is responsible for enforcing
the provisions of the Emergency Planning
and Community Right-to-Know act ?
a. Federal Emergency Management
Agency(FEMA)
b. OSHA
c. EPA
d. NIOSH
• Ans ‘a’.
An employer covered by OSHA has all of the
following rights except:

• 1. Be advised of the reason for the inspection

• 2. Accompany the compliance officer on the
inspection
• 3. Have an opening and closing conference with the
compliance officer
• 4. Discontinue the inspection if the employee
representative appears too friendly with the
compliance officer
Which of the following is not correct
pertaining to Occupational Safety &
Health management Systems
(OSHMS)
• 1. OSHMS is a systematic approach to managing safety and health
activities by integrating organizational policies, procedures, and
resources
• 2. OSHMS looks at the way the organization does business and
ensures that necessary safety and health policies and procedures are
inserted and aligned with the business processes
• 3. OSHMS are currently more advanced than Environmental
Management System (EMS) addressed in ISO 14001
• 4. OSHMS must be uniquely designed for organization and have a
better opportunity to gain full management concurrence and
participation if they are justified on the basis of tangible benefits that
exceed incurred costs.
• Ans ‘3’. 1, 2 & 4 = Safety Management System
The process of comparing a
company’s performance with others
companies in the same industry for
equipment/facility design, engineering
and controls, and management
systems is called:

• a. humiliation
• b. benchmarking
• c. comparison evaluation
d. Jonesequing
Ans ‘b’
Total Quality Management(TQM) is all of the
following except:

• Tied directly to the use of reinforcement and

feedback to modify behavior (organizational
behavioral management)
• 2. Based on attitude adjustment methods use to
achieve improvemenet
• 3. Emphasizes internal attitudinal changes as a
prerequisite to behavior change
• 4. Emphasizes process or root cause improvements
• Ans ‘a’
Which of the following would be an example of
Deming’s principles?

• a. Supervisor and employee agreement of

objectives
• b. Manager sets up production quotas for the
third quarter sales force
• c. Awarding contract work based on the lowest
bidder
d. Awarding contracts based on long-term loyalty
and trust

Deming’s principles = TQM = 14 points

 DEMINGS MAGIC FOURTEEN STEPS
1) Drive out fear
2) Eliminate quotas and numerical goals
3) Break down all barriers between departments
4) Eliminate inspection. Learn to build products right the first time
5) Institute a vigorous program of education and self-improvement.
6) Remove barriers that rob workers of their right to pride of workmanship
7) Institute leadership: The aim of leadership should be to help people do a better job.
8) Eliminate slogans, exhortations and production targets
9) Adopt a new philosophy. This is a new economic age. Western Managers must awaken to
the challenge, learn their responsibilities and take on leadership for change
10)End the practice of awarding business based on the price tag. Move toward a single
supplier for any one item. Base this long-terms relationship on loyalty and trust.
11)Improve constantly and forever the system of products and service
12)Put everybody to work to accomplish transformation.
13)Institute job training.
14)Create constancy of purpose toward improvement of product and service to become
competitive and to stay in business and to provide jobs.
Decision making is a part of
management. Decision should
be made by the:
• a. Lowest possible level
• b. Highest possible level
• c. Employee team members
• d. CEO only
• Ans ‘a’
Which method is most effective in
• a. Observing the person on the job.
• b. Monitoring the accident rate for those
who completed training.
• c. Having trainees participate in a focus
group.
• D. Having trainees complete an objectively
scored quiz
• Ans ‘a’
The Blake Mouton Managerial Grid
Conceptualized management styles. A
manager classified as 5,5 is known as:
• 1. Team oriented
• 2. Middle of the road
9.9
• 3. Autocratic focus

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
• 4. Country club Country club Team Leader

People
Impoverishe
d Or Authoritarian
supervisor?

9
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9.9
Task
 According to the Blake Mouton Managerial Grid, a 9,1
manager is a:
• 1. Dictator; 2. Country club manager; 3. Team manager; 4. Impoverished manager

P 9 Country Club Team Mgmt

E 8 Best
O 7 Manager
P 6 MIDDLE 5,5 9,9
L
5
E
4
3
2
1 Impoverished Task manager/ Dictator

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

t i o n CONCERN FOR PRODUCTION

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On
The matrix model is a network of interfaces between
teams and functional elements of an organization
GENERAL
MANAGE
R
Functiona Functiona Functiona
l manager l manager l manager
Project 1 2 3
manager
Project 4 5 6
manager
Project
7 8 9
manager
Project 1 1 1
manager 0 1 2
A state occupational safety and
health program standard must be
adopted within six months (180)
of the enacted federal standard
and must:
• 1. Be more effective than the federal
standards
• 2. Be less effective than the federal standards
• 3. Be ‘at least as effective as’ the federal
standards
• 4.contain more severe penalties
• Ans ‘3’.
Employees operating a commercial
vehicle must have been medically
examined during the preceding:

• 1. 12 months
• 2. 18 months
• 3. 24 months
• 4. 36 months
• Ans ‘3’.
Which of the following is not a
commercial vehicle?
• 1. A vehicle with a gross weight rating of 26,001
or more pounds
• 2. A vehicle designed to transport more than 15
passengers (including the driver)
• 3. Vehicle used to transport hazardous materials
in a quantity requiring placarding.
• 4. A tandem wheel farm trailer vehicle
transporting chickens within the state of
Arkansas
• Ans ‘4’.
Workers compensation premium depends on severity etc of plant and
also nos of employees, accident history, overheads, safety programs and
estimates by actuaries
• So not uniform among all industries
• It is state law not Federal law, so different in different states but
shares a basic concept of ‘no-fault’, which means that workers’ only
source of recovery is from Workers compensation and the employer
is protected against law suits.
• Insurance premium depends on (or is determined by) ‘experience
rating’ (predictions as to what types of losses the employer may
suffer: employee rating, overhead rating?) or ‘manual rating’ (uses
risk analysis for each type of employer: risk/severity rating?)
• ‘Premium discounting’ depends on nos of employee. More the nos,
more the discount?
• ‘Retrospective rating’ considers average
industry losses for a given period and then
adjusted by the actual loss of the company
• ‘Schedule rating’ = A baseline criteria is
established and the employer’s condition is
compared with a credit and debit
accounting system.
Risk Managers should deal with
a risk with the following except:

a. Transfer risk with insurance

b. Self-insurance fund
c. Do nothing
d. Eliminate the risk
Ans ‘c’.
Failure Modes Effect and
Criticality Analysis
(FMECA) is :
• a. a deductive analysis
• b. a subjective analysis
• c. an inductive analysis
• d. similar to Fault Tree Analysis
• Ans: c
The main objective of a Hazard and Operability
Study(HAZOP) is:
• a. to identify deviations from the design
intent with their causes and consequences
• b. to develop “guide words” which would
best describe system hazard analysis
• c. to satisfy OSHA requirement of Process
Safety Management Standard (29 CFR
1910.119)
• d. to apply guide words to safety
instruments.
• Ans: ‘a’
The “failure rate” versus “useful life”
curve used in reliability engineering
is more commonly known as the:

• a. reliability curve
• b. failure rate curve
• c. random failure curve
• d bathtub curve
• Ans:’d’
 In the development of an accident data collection
system, the most important first step is to:

• 1. Differentiate between human error and design

error.
• 2. Define the subsequent use of the data.
• 3. Establish accident-reporting responsibilities.
• 4. Codify data to conform to existing data sources.

• Ans: ‘2’
Which type of diagram was originated by Kaoru
Ishikawa, is known as a cause-and-effect diagram, and
is useful for identifying the root causes of the causal
factors of accidents?

• 1. Control chart
• 2. Flow diagram
• 3. Histogram
• 4. Fishbone diagram

• Ans:’4’
 What is the major cause of on-the job
fatalities ?
• a. transportation incidents
• b. assaults, violent acts
• c. falls
• d. fire, explosions

• Ans: ‘a’
Adult learners have four basic needs.
Which of the following is not one of
the four.
• a. a need to know why they are learning a
particular topic or skill.
• b. A need to apply their experience to their new
learning.
• c. A need to have classroom sessions of less than
four hours duration.
• d. A need to learn things that will make them
more effective and successful.
• Ans: ‘c’
 .Which of the following
presentation techniques describes
a lecture ?
• a. a single person imparts information to a large
group in a short period of time, with little time or
opportunity for interaction.
• b. The trainer/facilitator controls the flow of the
session among a limited number of people to allow
open discussion (often used for problem solving)
• c. Written description of business decisions or
problems (may be actual of fictitious)designed to
allow demonstration of predetermined skills and
knowledge and encourages critical thinking skills.
• d. When actual materials or machines cannot
be used, but nonetheless allows worker participation.
• Ans: ‘a’
49 CFR 172 Subpart E covers labeling
of hazardous materials. Which of the
following would have a yellow
background?

• a. flammable gas/liquid.
• b. Corrosive
• c. Non-flammable
• d. Oxidizer

• Ans: ‘d’
Which of the following is not an
advantage of computer-assisted
training?
• a. Workers can work at their own pace.
• b. Records can be automatically maintained.
• c. It is generally not effective for small workforce
companies.
• d. Correct answers are required before a worker can
proceed to the next lesson and remediation methods
can be built into the program

• Ans: ‘ c’
Which one of the following will not
allow equipment to continue to
operate?

• a. fail safe –passive

• b. fail safe – active
• c. fail safe – operational
• d. fail safe – redundant

• Ans: ‘a’
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On
Behavioral researchers and scientists
have suggested three categories of
options to affect behavioral changes.
Which of the following IS NOT one
these three categories?
• a. Build a comfortable psychological
environment.
• b. Reinforcing a desired behavior until the
new habit is formed.
• c. Change attitudes
• d. Discipline negative behavior every time
it occurs.
• Ans: ‘d’
Which of the following statements IS NOT
true in regard to the use of behavioral data
analysis for improving safety ?

• a. Corrective action based on analysis of behavioral

data can prevent accidents.
• b. Behavioral data analysis can suggest corrective
actions to prevent injury
• c. Actual injury data is much more effective than
behavioral data in improving safety because it gets
employee attention.
• d. Behavioral data analysis is essential in improving
safety because it closes the improvement loop.
• Ans: ‘c’
In new chemical plant layout where most
processing equipment is located outdoors,
which of the items listed below should be
considered first ?

• a. To group similar equipment in one location

• b. To determine the direction of the prevailing wind
• c. To provide room for maintenance
• d. To minimize piping and pumping costs.
• Ans. ‘b’. The direction of prevailing wind will determine the
location of many pieces of equipment.
In designing outdoor plant layout, all
equipments that may spill flammable
materials should be located:

• a. in an isolated area on the upwind side

• b. on the downwind side
• c. near fire stations and on the upwind side
d. close to the receiving area
Ans. ‘b’. Flammable should be placed on the down wind side
otherwise, it is possible that the wind would carry the vapors
from a spill over the plant where they could be ignited.
 Which of the following factors must
be taken into account when
determining safe distances for release
of a hazardous substance into the
environment ?

a. Topography
b. Density
c. Wind speed and direction
d. All of the above
Ans. ‘d’. Topography, density of the released substance, and wind
speed and direction are all important factors in determining
safe distances. Other important factors are toxicological
properties and physical state of the substance (solid, liquid,
gas), vapor pressure, and quantity and rate of release.
Emergency action plan requires all
of the following except:

• 1. Escape procedures and escape route

assignment
• 2. Procedures for employees required to
remain and operate critical equipment
• 3. Procedures to account for all employees
• 4. Fault-tree analysis
The Shewhart Cycle is a concept which is
used extensively in Total Quality
Management. Which of the following best
describes this cycle ?

• a. Concept, act, plan, manage

• b. Plan, do, study, act
• c. Manage, do, act, plan
d. Do, act, study, manage
Ans ‘b’. The Shewhart cycle is “plan. Do, study, act”.
This cycle is one of the most widely used tools in
TQM and is also known as the PDSA cycle.
What are the five dimensions of
Heinnrich’s domino theory ?
• a. the five E’s of safety
• b. social , fault, unsafe act, accident,
injury
• c. management, labor, unions, capital,
and money
• d. men , machines, money, capital, and
accidents.
• Ans ‘b’.
Which of thefollowing describes Douglas
McGregor’s basic assumptions managers
make about Theory X people ?

• a. people dislike work, must be forced, controlled, or

directed
• b. people view work as natural, seek responsibility, and
like to achieve
• c. people’s needs must be balanced with the needs of
the environment
• d. employee’s needs must be coordinated with the
company needs
• Ans ‘a’.
Fine airborne dispersions of which one of the
following is least likely to facilitate a
combustible dust explosion?
• A. Carbon black
• B. Wheat flour
• C. Diatomaceous earth (amorphous silica)
• D. Aluminium
Dry bulb temp is 870F and the wet bulb temperature
is 650F, what is the approximate relative humidity?

• A. 30%
• B. 40%
• C. 50%
• D. 60%
See Q 2 of Bowens Practice Problems
A circuit contains 3 capacitors in series, having
values 120 nF, 220nF & 320 nF. What is total
capacitance?
• A. 62.5 nF
• B. 125 nF
• C. 250 nF
• D. 320 nF

1 1 1 1
   ......
Cseries C1 C2 C3
Benzene concn = 223 mg/cubic m. Benzene
mol wt =78.11 gm/mol. What is concn in ppm?
• A. 50
• B. 70
• C. 90
• D. 110
A proposed project cost = $120,000 and have no
residual value after 7 years life time. Assuming
cost of capital is 10%, what is annual income ?
• A. $ 24,648
• B. $ 26972
• C. $ 29834
• D. $ 32981
Finklestein’s test to diagnose:

• A. Blood lead conc

• B. Epicondylitis
• C. CTS
• D. DeQuervain’s tenosynovitis
F test to diagnose tenosynovitis (wrist)
Normal range of human hearing:

• A. 20 to 2000 Hz
• B. 20 – 20000 Hz
• C. 20 – 200000 Hz
• D. 20 – 2000000 Hz
Which type of radiation poses greatest
hazard?
• A. Powdered alpha source
• B. Solid Beta source
• C. Liquid Beta source
• D. Solid gamma source

• NB: Solid least, Liquid less (only splash), powder highest

because can be inhaled
When establishing performance goal with
workers, which is most important?
• A. Mutually agreed acceptable performance
• B. Mutually agreed completion date
• C. Mutually agreed budget
• D. Mutually agreed plan

• NB: A = motivating
Find air-flow thru 15 inch square duct with air
velocity of 1500 fpm.
• A. 1875 cfm
• B. 2344 cfm
• C. 18750 cfm
• D. 22500 cfm

• NB: Q = VA; A=1.56 sq ft

Which is a lower respiratory irritant?

• A. CO
• B. Lead
• C. Ozone
• D. Radon

• NB: CO & Radon = gas & no irritation; Lead= heavy metals

affects nervous system;
What is the name of legal standard requiring
direct relationship between an injured party
(plaintiff) and defendant?
• A. Quid pro quo
• B. Privity
• C. Tort
• D. Voir dire
What hazardous material level of PPE uses an
air purifying respirator?
• A. Level A
• B. Level B
• C. Level C
• D. Level D

• A uses SCBA with totally encapsulating suit; B uses supplied air;

C uses air purifying respirator; D uses only appropriate PPE
What is the first choice to protect employee
from chlorine gas for water treatment ?
• A. Use SCBA
• B. Substitute Ozone for Chlorine
• C. Install local exhaust ventilator
• D. Train employee in proper operation and emergency response

Order of Heirarchy of Controls:

1. Eliminate
2. Substitude (example: Ozone for Chlorine)
3. Engg
4. Admin
5. PPE
Which respirator suitable for IDLH conc?

• A.
• B.
• C.
• D. SCBA
The basic safety precaution for people who work in confined spaces or in
dangerous atmospheres is:
A) The buddy system
B) Use of SCBA's
C) Use of safety harnesses and life lines
D) Proper air sampling
The correct answer is: A

The basic safety precaution for people who work in confined spaces or in
dangerous atmospheres is the "buddy system". With the buddy system,
no worker enters a dangerous atmosphere until someone else has been
designated to take responsibility for his/her safety. While one worker
goes into a confined space or other dangerous area, the buddy stays in a
safe place nearby, alert at all times for danger and ready to act in an
emergency. (Usually the buddy is suited up in protective equipment, as is
the worker, ready to help the worker out in case of trouble.)
Pressure-Demand SCBA's have a protection factor of:
A) 10 times
B) 100 times
C) 1,000 times
D) 10,000 times
The correct answer is: D

Pressure-demand Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus have protection

factors of 10,000 times. The protection factor is the ratio of the
concentration outside the mask compared to the concentration inside the
mask.
Air line respirators are designed to be used in atmospheres:
A) Not immediately dangerous to life or health
B) Containing asphyxiants
C) Containing explosive vapors
D) Such as confined spaces, where an SCBA may be awkward
The correct answer is: A

Air-line respirators are to be used in atmospheres where the threat to life

or health is not immediate, such as explosive atmospheres, asphyxiants,
or confined spaces.
What is the minimum atmospheric oxygen concentration (by volume)
permitted for employees to perform work without Self-Contained
Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) or atmosphere-supplying respirators?
A) 15.5%
B) 17.5%
C) 19.5%
D) 23.5%
The correct answer is: C

OSHA permits no less than a 19.5% oxygen concentration. Symptoms of

hypoxia typically begin at 16%.
Which of the following SCBA Systems is required for IDLH
atmospheres?
A) Demand
B) Negative Pressure Demand
C) Positive Pressure Demand
D) Gas masks
The correct answer is: C

Positive Pressure Demand SCBA's (Self Contained Breathing

Apparatus) provide a continuous flow of positive pressure air to the
facepiece of the respirator. The Demand/Negative Pressure Demand
Respirators supply air to the facepiece only upon inhalation. Gas masks
are not SCBA's.
What type of respirator is best for initial response during an emergency?
A) Organic vapor/acid gas cartridge full-face respirator
B) Powered air purifying respirator
C) Air-line/escape bottle respirator
D) Self-contained breathing apparatus

The correct answer is: D

A positive pressure SCBA is recommended until the type and level of

hazardous chemicals have been identified.
Which of the following is correct?
A) SCBA must be used when responding to a spill when the oxygen
content is unknown
B) SCBA must be used when responding to a spill if the concentration of
the material is greater than the protection factor for other levels of
respiratory protection
C) SCBA must be used when the identity of the spilled material is
unknown
D) All are correct

The correct answer is: D

When oxygen concentration of the air is less than 19.5%, the air is
oxygen deficient and SCBA must be worn. The highest protection must
be provided to first responders if any of the hazards are unknown.
How many minutes of air do you have in SCBA in emergency
conditions?
A) 60
B) 30
C) Between 15 and 45
D) Less than the rated number of minutes on the cylinder
The correct answer is: D

Due to physical exertion, air is used very quickly in an emergency,

reducing significantly the number of minutes of air delivered from an
SCBA.
It is necessary for a maintenance worker to enter a confined space where
potential atmospheres immediately hazardous to life or health may be
present. Which of the following respirators should the worker use?
A) Constant flow air supplied device
B) Demand flow air supplied device
C) SCBA
D) Half-mask with HEPA cartridges
The correct answer is: C

Air supply devices deliver breathing air through a supply hose connected
to the wearer's facepiece and is available with or without an auxiliary
ingress/egress cylinder. The self contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)
provides complete respiratory protection against toxic gases and an
oxygen deficiency. The wearer is independent of the surrounding
atmosphere because he/she is breathing with a system that admits no
outside air and can move freely without being restricted by an air hose.
On pressure demand SCBA's, there is an alarm to let the wearer know
that the air supply has decreased to _______ of full.
A) 10%
B) 20-25%
C) 30%
D) 50%
The correct answer is: B

All pressure demand units are required by NIOSH-MSHA to have an

alarm to alert the user that the air supply has decreased to 20-25% of
full.
Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) must be inspected:
A) Annually
B) Semiannually
C) Monthly
D) Weekly
The correct answer is: C

OSHA requires monthly SCBA inspections.

Which is synchronous web-based training?

• A.
• B.
• C.
• D. When learners and instructor are in a class at same time.
What is fail-passive?

• A. When failure has no effect on operation of overall system.

• B.
• C.
• D.
3 persons walking. One’s head was glowing. Measured
radiation by GM tube as 5 millirads/hr at 2 feet. What
is expected radiation when he is 8 feet ahead
• A. 0.31 millirads/hr
• B. 1.25 millirads/hr
• C. 2.5 millirads/hr
• D. 5.00 millirads/hr

• NB: ID2 = constant

Employees performance problems cause by
…………..which are most amenable to training
solution?
• A. Poor supervision
• B. Environmental factors
• C. Lack of skills and Knowledge
• D.
What is Industrial Hygiene?

• A. Control of health hazards arising from workplace

• B. Recognition and evaluation of health hazards arising from
workplace
• C. Recognition and evaluation of health hazards arising in or
from workplace
• D. Anticipation, Recognition, evaluation and control of
health hazards arising in and from workplace
In US, average IQ=100 with SD=15. Find %
population to have an IQ above 115?
• A. 1%
• B. 34.13 %
• C. 84.13 %
• D. 15.87 %
An example of ………….. Would be the repair
costs of equipment involved in an accident.
• A. Direct costs
• B. Indirect costs
• C. Hidden costs
• D. Uninsured costs

• NB: A=directly associated with incident e.g.,

medical,compensation, repair, replacement etc
Best definition of hazard?

• A. severity and probability

• B. event not expected, foreseen or intented
• C. Unsafe condition
• D. Consequences

• NB: A = Risk; B=Accident; D= severity

Which is metal fume fever?

• A. Metal fume fever is linked to exposure to berrylium

• B. Metal fume fever is linked to exposure to metals
• C. Metal fume fever is a chronic disease
• D. Both B and C
What best describes contributory negligence?

• A. Employee fails to follow safety rule and is injured

• B. Accepting a job assuming all the risk
• C. Co-worker’s error leading to employee’s injury
• D. Both A & B

• NB: B=Assumption of Risk; C=Fellow servant rule

Which is best resource for ASP / CSP exam

• A. ……. By Roger Brauer

• B.
• C.
• D.
Downstream of Fan, which is true?

• A. VP=+ve
• B. TP=+ve
• C. SP=+ve i o n
ue st
• D. All above e q
On
• Upstream: VP=+ve; TP=-ve; SP=-ve
LOTO standard requires?

• A. Periodic inspection of Program

• B. MOC
• C. PHA
• D. All above
MOC required for

• A. Replacement in Kind
• B. Machine Guarding
• C. Replacement NOT in Kind
• D. Replacement of Respirator’s cartridge
Triangle Shirtwaist Factory in 1911?

• A.
• B. Fire
• C.
• D.
Main Hazard of Magnesium Powder?

• A. Fire (or Explosion)

• B.
• C.
• D.
Which cause internal hazard?

• A.
• B.
• C. Alpha radiation
• D.
First step of safety program?

• A. Safety Policy statement

• B.
• C.
• D.
Pilot tube limited to velocities at or below?

• A.
• B. 600 – 800 fpm
• C.
• D.
Which disease is caused by cotton dust or
dust from vegetable fibre …..
• A.
• B.
• C.
• D. Byssinosis
In a safety training program, which of
the following laws of learning should
be applied ?
The laws of :
a. Recency, primacy, and ascendancy
b. Redundancy, repetition, and reiteration
c. Primacy, recency, and frequency
d. Reinforcement, repetition and opposition
It is time to evaluate the employees
knowledge of the emergency
evacuation plan. During the
classroom testing, you choose to use
multiple choice test questions
because:
• a. responses require selection from only
two choices
• b. it provides an opportunity for students
to express themselves
• c. responses can provide good diagnostic
information if alternatives are carefully
constructed
• d. they are difficult to score.
Injuries of 3 plants in 2004 are as below. Assume that each employee
works eight hours per day, five days a week and 50 week in a year .
1. What is the number of recordable injuries for plant B in 2004?
2. What is the LWDI (number of lost work day cases ) for plant C?
3. What is the Incident Rate (IR) for recordable injuries in plant A?
4. What is the total number of recordable injuries for all plants in 2004?
5. Why the factor, 2 x 105 is used in calculation?
6. Without calculating, how you guess correct answer?
Number of Number of Number of Number of Plant Answers:
injuries injuries lost work 1. 15
treated with Treated days as a employees 2. 22.22
first aid beyond first result of
aid injuries 3. 2.5
25 10 80 400 A 4. 55
5.2 x 105 manhours
35 15 120 600 B 6.

40 30 200 900 C
 LC50 is

• Toxicity data is obtained by conducting experiments on

selected laboratory test animals. Lethal Concentration (LC) is
defined as the amount/concn of chemical which can produce
death in tested animals. Lethal Concentration 50 indicates
the amount of chemical which can produce death in 50
percent of tested animals in a given period of time when the
route of entry of the chemical into an animal’s body is by
inhalation, lethal Concentration are expressed as LC50.
The Blake Mouton Managerial Grid
Conceptualized management styles.
A manager classified as 5,5 is known
as:
• 1. Team oriented
• 2. Middle of the road
9.9
• 3. Autocratic focus

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
• 4. Country club
Country Team

People
club Leader

Impoverishe
d Or Authoritaria
supervisor? n

9
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9.9
Task
The results of a HAZOP
study are normally
presented in the form of:
• a. table
• b. logic diagram
• c. risk severity chart
• d. only (a) and (b) above.

• Ans: ‘a’
 Definition / Criteria:

• OSHA:
• Has limited opening(s) for entry and exit
• Space not designed for continuous worker occupancy
• Has an actual or potential to contain hazardous atmosphere
• Contains any other recognized serious safety or health hazard
• Entry is determined as soon as plane of opening is broken
Which of the following
poses the most severe fire
hazard ?
• a. a gas with LFL = 10% and UFL = 12%
• b. a vapor with LFL = 1% and UFL = 16%
• c. a liquid with a flash point of 140o F
• d. a liquid with a flash point of 200o F
• Ans ‘c’
The MAJOR objective of a safety
inspection is:
a. to identify and correct unsafe conditions and unsafe acts.
b. To ensure compliance with federal, state, and local
regulations.
c. To measure the effectiveness of the safety programme
d. To identify any PPE which is needed in each work area.
• Ans ‘a’.
• A safety inspection must focus on identifying and
correcting unsafe conditions and unsafe acts. According
to a National Safety Council statistics, 98% of industrial
accidents are caused by either unsafe conditions or
unsafe acts. 2% of industrial accidents are caused as a
result of natural disasters such as an earthquake.
Safety programs should give least
consideration to:
• 1. Management climate
• 2. Task demands
• 3. Work environment
• 4. Accident proneness
• Ans ‘4’.
NB: We do not want to take risk of accident at home. Why?
 The term Boiling Liquid
Expanding Vapor Explosion
(BLEVE)
• a. fire caused by the vapor of a liquid at its boiling point
• b. container failure holding a liquid above its boiling point
•c volume of vapor expanding above the surface of a
liquid that may result in an explosion
• d. only (a) and (c) above.
• Ans ‘b’.
Which of the following factors
can be considered to be a
contributing factor to BLEVE in
storage area ?
• a. corrosion
• b. mechanical damage
• c. temperature
• d. all of the above
• Ans ‘a’.
How often is calibration of sound level meters required?

• A) Monthly
• B) Quarterly
• C) Before each survey
• D) Before and after each survey
•
• The correct answer is: D
• Good practice dictates that the meter be calibrated before and after each survey.
The A-weighted sound level measurement is the preferred scale of measure
because:

• A) It distinguishes intermittent and impact noise

• B) The weighting is related to effects of noise on the ear
• C) It filters high frequency background noise
• D) It can assess temperature and pressure
•
• The correct answer is: B
• The A-weighting most closely corelates the sound to the injurious effects of the
noise on the ear.
• A chemical with a molecular weight of 88 evaporates from a chemical process. Where would it
most likely accumulate?
• A) Floor
• B) Ceiling
• C) Neither A nor B, it will mix uniformly
• D) Insufficient information
•
• The correct answer is: A
• The best answer choice is A because for gases, density is proportional to molecular weight. Air
is approximately M.W= 30. Therefore the gas should sink.
A temperature of 100°C is equivalent to a temperature on the Rankine
scale of:
a. 273
b. 460
c. 560
d. 672

Process of thinking to find the answer:

1. I Know degree C to Absolute means adding 273 … so answer is “a”
2. Sorry I was wrong because I Know to find Absolute in Rankine scale
means adding 460 … so answer is “b”
3. Sorry I was wrong because I Know to find Absolute in Rankine scale
means adding 460 to degree (which is 100 here) and so answer is 100 +
460 = 560 and the answer is “c”
4. Again Sorry I was wrong because I Know to find Absolute in Rankine
scale means adding 460 to degree F & not C (which is 100 here) and so
I have to convert first degree C to degree F and then add so answer is
212 + 460 = 672 and the answer is “d”
5 workers are exposed to airborne lead at 8-hr TWA's of 27 mg/m3, 42
mg/m3, 54 mg/m3, 24 mg/m3, and 60 mg/m3. What is the mean
exposure?

1) 41 mg/m3
2) 42 mg/m3
3) 46 mg/m3
4) 40 mg/m3

In order to get the mean average exposure for the five workers, sum the
exposures for all workers = (27 + 42 + 54 + 24 + 60)mg/m3 = 207
mg/m3
Then calculate the mean exposure by dividing the sum by the total
number of workers.
207 mg/m3 / 5 workers = 41.4 m/m3 per worker
The correct answer is: 1
 Six workers are exposed to methylene chloride at the following levels
(based on an 8-hr TWA): 27 ppm, 31 ppm, 12 ppm, 86 ppm, 27 ppm,
and 40 ppm. What is the statistical mode of their exposures?

1) 37 ppm
2) 31 ppm
3) 27 ppm
4) 29 ppm

The correct answer is: 3

The mode is the number in a set of numbers that appears most

frequently. 27 ppm is correct because it appears most frequently in this
set of numbers.
When designing a safety program, it is essential that
psychological factors like individual differences, motivation,
emotion, attitudes, and ________________ be considered.

1) Reward
2) Punishment
3) Learning
4) Negativism
The correct answer is: 3

Learning underlies much of what makes for differences and

similarities among people. Through learning, people have
developed certain kinds of psychological needs, habitual patterns
of behavior, ways of reacting to emotion, and the attitudes which
brought them into the workplace. It is essential to consider
learning because training is a major consideration in safety
programming.
Under what conditions is Level A protection preferred over Level B
protection?

1) Where heat stress is a factor

2) Where the highest level of skin protection available is needed
3) Where the highest level of respiratory protection available is needed
4) Where there is a high potential for fire/explosion

The correct answer is: 2

Level A protection provides a higher level of skin protection than

Level B protection.
A simple definition for hazard, as it applies to system safety, is:

1) A source of danger
2) Risk, peril, or jeopardy
3) A potential to do harm
4) A dangerous condition which can interfere with the orderly
progress of an activity

The correct answer is: 3

A potential to do harm is the simple and abbreviated version of the

definition of "hazard." More formally, a hazard is "a potential condition,
or set of conditions, either internal and/or external to a system, which
when activated by a stimulus (set of events or conditions that transforms
a hazard from its potential state to one that causes harm to the system) or
series of events which culminate in a loss (accident)."
 Which of the following is the LEAST likely property of activated
carbon that makes it a good sample collecting medium?

1) Large surface area

2) Ease of stripping collected samples
3) High adsorbtivity for gases, vapors
4) High polarity

The correct answer is: 4

Activated carbon is extremely porous and has a non-polar surface. It

adsorbs molecules to its surface readily. When bathed in a non-polar
solvent such as carbon disulfide, the adsorbed molecules are easily
removed and dissolved into the solvent.
 Silicosis is a dust disease from exposure to:

1) Glass
2) Crystalline SiO2
3) Amorphous silica
4) Aluminum silicate

The correct answer is: 2

All of the answers contain the element silicon. However, only crystalline
silicon dioxide (SiO2) causes the disease silicosis. Dust from glass,
amorphous silica, and aluminum silicate are considered nuisance dusts
and have minimal long term biological effects.
Of the following, which is the LEAST effective way for a manager to
maximize his or her safety program?

1) Written safety policies

2) Supervisory safety training
3) Audit of safety program
4) Weekly staff meetings

The correct answer is: 4

Common elements to maximize a safety program include: written

policies, supervisor training, auditing, investigation of all hazards and
accidents, and formation of safety committees. Staff meetings can be on
any schedule that allows you to reach your goals.
An insurance company which is profit motivated is best described as a
_____________ company:

1) Captive
2) Stock
3) Mutual
4) Active sales force

The correct answer is: 2

A stock insurance company is profit motivated.

Compared to local exhaust ventilation, dilution ventilation:

1) Is more suitable for highly toxic substances

2) Is not adequate for ventilating hazardous point source emissions
3) Must be used as make-up air
4) Uses less air than local exhaust ventilation

The correct answer is: 2

General dilution ventilation is not appropriate for point source emissions

or for use with highly toxic materials. In these situations local exhaust
ventilation should be used. Because of these limitations, short circuiting
of exhaust is less critical than in local exhaust ventilation. The air from
general ventilation may or may not be used for local exhaust ventilation
make-up air, depending upon the type of local exhaust ventilation device.
 Experience has indicated that the most effective way to reduce
accidents is:
1) Training employees to be more safety conscious
2) Behavior modification
3) Designing safety features into systems
4) Job rotation

The correct answer is: 3

Hazards can be more effectively reduced or eliminated through system

design, whereas hazard reduction through changing human behavior is
limited and requires continuous reinforcement.
A 3/4in manila rope has a safety factor of 5 and a tensile strength of
1,000 lb. What is the maximum safe working load?

1) 100 lb
2) 200 lb
3) 750 lb
4) 1,000 lb

The correct answer is: 2

To determine safe working load, divide the tensile strength by the

safety factor. 1,000 lb / 5 = 200 lb
The definition of the tensile strength of an object or of a material is:

1) The compressive force that distorts it from its original shape

2) The breaking strength when exposed to a stretching force
3) 1/4 of the sheer strength
4) The sheer strength cubed

The correct answer is: 2

The tensile strength is the same as the breaking strength of a

material when exposed to a stretching force.
What is the power rating of an electric motor which draws a current of 3
A at 40W?

1) 53.3 W
2) 120 W
3) 360 W
4) 4,800 W

The correct answer is: 3

Use the formula: P = I2 R

P = I2 R
P = (3 A)2 40 W
P = 360 W
A charge of 30 coulombs is sent through a resistor with a 120 V
potential. What is the power?

1) 40 W
2) 3,600 W
3) 108,000 W
4) 432,000 W

The correct answer is: 2

1 coulomb = 1 ampere
P=E*I
P = 120 V * 30 A
P = 3,600 W
Determine the power of a hoist motor that is required to lift a load of
200 lb to a height of 55 ft in 10 sec.

1) 2.75 W
2) 200 W
3) 1,100 W
4) 1,492 W

The correct answer is: 4

Power = (force * distance) / time

= (200 lb * 55 ft) / 10 sec
= 1,100 ft-lb/sec
1 hp = 550 ft-lb/sec

1 hp = 746 W

1,100 ft-lb/sec = 2 hp = 1,492 W

A 10 m copper wire with a diameter of 0.5 mm is connected across a 110
V power line. What current flows through the wire? resistivity of
copper = 1.58 x 10-8
1) 3.2 A
2) 5.4 A
3) 136 A
4) 408 A
The correct answer is: 3
First calculate the resistance of the conductor using the formula for
calculating resistance:
R = rL/A, where R = total resistance, r = resistivity, L = length in
meters, and A = the cross sectional area of the conductor.
R = (1.58 x 10-8) (10 m) / [p (0.25 x 10-4m)2]
R = 0.806 W
Then use Ohm's law:
V=I*R
I = 110 V / 0.806 W
I = 136 A
A 2 hp, 110 V electric motor draws how much current?

1) 13.6 A
2) 55.0 A
3) 91.1 A
4) 103 A1

The correct answer is: 1

Convert hp to W:
2 hp = 1,492 W
P=E*I
I = 1,492 W /110 V = 13.6 A
A 5 hp, 220 V electric motor draws how much current?

1) 4.24 A
2) 8.78 A
3) 11.5 A
4) 17.0 A

The correct answer is: 4

Convert 5 hp to W.
5 hp = 746 W/hp * 5 hp = 3,730 W
P=E*I
I = 3,730 W / 220 V = 16.95 A
What is the WBGT given a wet bulb temperature of 75ºF and a globe
temperature of 89ºF (no solar load)?

1) 85ºF
2) 92ºF
3) 78.5ºF
4) 79.2ºF

The correct answer is: 4

WBGT = 0.7 WB + 0.3 GT = (0.7 * 75ºF) + (0.3 * 89ºF) = 79.2ºF

where WB = natural wet bulb temperature obtained with wetted sensor
exposed to natural air movement. GT is the globe temperature take
from the center of a 6 in. diameter hollow copper sphere painted on the
outside with black matte finish (called a globe thermometer).
Six workers are exposed to methylene chloride at the following levels
(based on an 8-hr TWA): 27 ppm, 31 ppm,12 ppm, 86 ppm, 27 ppm and
40 ppm. What is their statistical median exposure?

1) 37 ppm
2) 31 ppm
3) 27 ppm
4) 29 ppm

The correct answer is: 4

The median number in a set is the middle number, if the number (n) in
the set is an odd number. When there are an even number of values in a
sequence, the median is found by taking the average of the 2 "middle"
numbers, in this case: (31 ppm + 27 ppm) / 2 = 29 ppm
An employee's exposure to a mixture of solvents is found to be 20 ppm
to solvent A, 10 ppm to solvent B, and 14 ppm to solvent C. If the toxic
effects of these solvents are additive, and their TLV's are 100 ppm, 50
ppm, and 100 ppm respectively, what is the employee's exposure as a
percent of the TLV?

1) 44%
2) 54%
3) 64%
4) 74%

The correct answer is: 2

To get the total exposure determine the percentage of the TLV of each
substance the employee is exposed to and add them together or:
Exposure = (20 ppm/100 ppm)+(10 ppm/50 ppm)+(14 ppm/100 ppm)
= 20% + 20% + 14% = 54%
Calculate a worker's daily 8 hr TWA exposure to a solvent with a TLV of
100 ppm if she spends 1 hr at an operation where the concentration is
250 ppm, 4 hr at 200 ppm, and 3 hr at 100 ppm.

1) 69 ppm
2) 135 ppm
3) 169 ppm
4) 1,350 ppm

The correct answer is: 3

TWA = [(1 hr * 250 ppm)+(4 hr * 200 ppm)+(3 hr * 100 ppm)] / (1 hr +

4 hr + 3 hr) = 169 ppm
Compute the TWA concentration from the following data taken during
the day shift of a worker.
6:00 am - 9:00 am ... 100 ppm
9:00 am - 11:00 am ...200 ppm
11:00 am - 12:00 pm .... 0 ppm
12:00 pm - 2:00 pm ...100 ppm
1) 105 ppm
2) 109 ppm
3) 111 ppm
4) 113 ppm
The correct answer is: 4
TWA = (C1T1 + C2T2 + C3T3 + C4T4)/(T1+T2+T3+T4)
where C1=concentration during T1
T1=Time at concentration C1
C2=Concentration during T2
T2=Time at concentration C2, etc...
TWA = [(100 ppm * 3 hr) + (200 ppm *2 hr) + (0 ppm * 1 hr) + 100
ppm * 2 hr)] / (3 hr + 2 hr + 1 hr + 2 hr) = 112.5 ppm
The TLV's for gases and vapors are estimated on what basis?

1) Weight to weight
2) Volume to volume
3) Volume to weight
4) Weight to specific density

The correct answer is: 2

The unit "ppm" means parts of contaminant per million parts of air (for
gases and vapors). This is a volume to volume measurement.
Which does a combustible gas indicator best measure?

1) Mercury vapors
2) Lead vapors
3) Petroleum solvent vapors
4) Beryllium oxide

The correct answer is: 3

Combustible gas meters, as the name implies, only measure those

substances which are flammable. Hence, the correct answer is petroleum
solvent vapors.
 Conversion of TLV's in mg/m3 to ppm is found in the following
formula:

1) = (TLV in mg/m3) (22.45) / (Gram Molecular Weight of

Substance)
2) = (TLV in ppm)(24.45) / (Gram Molecular Weight of Substance)
3) = (TLV in mg/m3)(24.45) / (Gram Molecular Weight of
Substance)
4) = (Gram Molecular Weight of Substance) / (TLV in mg/m3)
(24.45)

Since ppm is a volume/volume ratio, the mass must cancel out,

leaving volume units. 24.45 is used for the molar volume since
temperature is assumed to be 25ºC.
When evaluating where to collect samples, which of the following
should be considered first?

1) Those at risk due to own activity

2) Those nearby
3) Those who exhibit symptoms of exposure
4) Those who complain

The correct answer is: 3

The samples should be collected on a range of people. However, those

exhibiting symptoms are most at risk and should be evaluated first;
followed by those at risk but without symptoms, those who complain,
and then others nearby.
A chiller in the plant is suspected to have a leak due to a loss of pressure
in the CFC closed loop system. What type of instrument would you use
to detect the leak?

1) Detector tube
2) Halide meter
3) LEL meter
4) O2 meter

The correct answer is: 2

Chillers contain refrigerants such as CFC's which are also known as a

class of chemicals called halides. Therefore, the best meter would be one
that detects halides.
Calculate the TWA of the following exposures:
1 hour = 150 ppm
2 hours = 75 ppm
5 hours = 10 ppm

1) 44 ppm
2) 53 ppm
3) 65 ppm
4) 74 ppm

The correct answer is: 1

TWA = [(1 hr * 150 ppm) + (2 hr * 75 ppm) + (5 hr * 10 ppm)] / 8 hr

TWA = 43.75 ppm
Of the ways to evaluate the hazards of gases and vapors, all the following are true
EXCEPT:

1) May be collected on an open-faced filter and weighed

2) May be collected on filter media
3) May be collected in containers or absorbed
4) May be collected on cloth material

The correct answer is: 4

Gases and vapors may not be collected on cloth material.

If a worker is exposed to lead for 4 hr at 24 mg/m3, 3 hr at 48 mg/m3,
and 1 hr at 0 mg/m3, what is his exposure as an 8-hr TWA?

1) 28 mg/m3
2) 30 mg/m3
3) 33 mg/m3
4) 48 mg/m3

The correct answer is: 2

To get the TWA, you must calculate the exposure rate for each part of the
8-hr day for which there is an exposure.
(24 mg/m3)(4 hr/8 hr) = 12 mg/m3
(48 mg/m3)(3 hr/8 hr) = 18 mg/m3
(0 mg/m3)(1 hr/8 hr) = 0 mg/m3
Then, you need to add together each weighted exposure to get the 8-hr
exposure.
TWA = 12 mg/m3 + 18 mg/m3 + 0 mg/m3 = 30 mg/m3
Assessments for potential TLV-C exposures should be sampled for:

1) 15 min
2) 5 min
3) 1 min
4) Only where instantaneous monitoring is feasible

The correct answer is: 1

Where instantaneous monitoring is not feasible, the TLV-C can be

assessed by sampling over a 15-min period except for those
substances that may cause immediate irritation.
A flammable gas detected in a confined space registers 10% by volume
of the atmosphere. How many parts per million (ppm) does this equal?

1) 100 ppm
2) 1,000 ppm
3) 10,000 ppm
4) 100,000 ppm

The correct answer is: 4

To convert any gas concentration to parts per million, simply multiply

the percentage expressed as a decimal by 1,000,000. In this problem,
0.10 x 1,000,000 ppm = 100,000 ppm.
A hot wire combustible gas meter should not be used in an atmosphere
containing:

1) Flammable liquids
2) Flammable gases
3) Silicone vapors
4) Methane

The correct answer is: 3

Silicone vapors rapidly poison the platinum filament in hot wire

combustible gas meters. Poisoning can occur when silicone vapors are
at very low concentrations (e.g., as low as 1 ppm).
Problem(s) you may encounter with the use of a hot wire combustible
gas meter with a platinum catalyst is that the catalyst may become:

1) Inactive
2) Poisoned
3) Enhanced
4) Both 1 and 2

The correct answer is: 4

The primary problem with "hot wire" type combustible gas detectors is
poisoning of the catalyst. Platinum catalysts are subject to poisoning by
silicone vapors at concentrations as low as 1 ppm. This silicone vapor
poisoning renders the platinum catalyst inactive.
A secondary problem that is less prevalent today because of advances
in meter construction (primarily the coating of the reference bead of the
detector with glass), is that un-coated reference beads can become
"active" with aging, not inactive.
In performing personal air sampling for welding fumes, where should
the filter cassette be placed?

1) Attached to the lapel

2) Inside the welding helmet
3) On the shoulder
4) At the waist

The correct answer is: 2

The OSHA Technical Manual specifies placement of the filter cassette

inside the welding helmet.
Under foundry conditions, the numerical value of the WBGT Index is
calculated using the formula:
1) 0.7 WB + 0.3 GT
2) 0.7 WB + 0.2 GT + 0.1 DB
3) 0.7 WB + 0.1 GT + 0.1 DB
4) 0.7 WB + 0.2 GT + wind velocity

The correct answer is: 1

The wet bulb globe temperature (WBGT) is calculated indoors or
outdoors with no solar loads: WBGT = 0.7 WB + 0.3 GT
Foundry conditions would exclude the solar load. Had the question
asked for the formula outdoors with solar load, the answer would have
been: WBGT = 0.7 WB + 0.2 GT + 0.1 DB where WB = Natural wet
bulb temperature GT = Globe temperature DB = Dry bulb temperature
How much an employee can safely lift depends least on:

1) Body size
2) Frequency
3) Body position
4) Distance

The correct answer is: 1

Although body size can contribute to overall strength, it is not a good

predictor of potential injury. When designing a lifting task and safe
weight limits, the most important factors are how often the load is
lifted (frequency), how far the load is carried (distance), and how the
load is lifted (body position).
In the course of an eight-hour work shift, a maintenance mechanic
works TWICE in the vicinity of an operation where the measured
carbon monoxide concentration in the air at his breathing zone level is
fairly constant at 50 ppm. The first time he works for 3 hr in the
morning, and the second time he works 2.5 hours in the afternoon. All
the other times, he works in areas of the plant where his exposure to
carbon monoxide is essentially zero.What is his time-weighted average
(TWA) exposure to carbon monoxide?
1) 17.2 ppm
2) 34.4 ppm
3) 51.6 ppm
4) 103.2 ppm
The correct answer is: 2

TWA=(3 hr * 50 ppm + 2.5 hr * 50 ppm + 2.5 hr * 0 ppm)/8 hr

= [(150 + 125)hr-ppm] / 8 hr
= 34.4 ppm
Electromagnetic energy:
1) Is not a factor in heat stress calculations
2) Is not a factor in heat transfer calculations
3) Is best controlled by forced air ventilation
4) Insignificantly heats the air in the room as it passes through

The correct answer is: 4

Radiant heat is a form of electromagnetic energy. It is a major input in

heat stress and heat transfer equations. It is best controlled by
shielding and heats the air it passes through only insignificantly.
A fiber is defined as a particle with an aspect ratio (L:W) of:

1) 2:1
2) 3:1
3) 4:1
4) 5:1

The correct answer is: 2

Fibers are particles with an aspect ratio of 3:1, that is, the length of
the fiber is three times the width.
The particle size of fumes range from:

1) 0.01 - 0.2 microns

2) 0.001 - 0.02 microns
3) 0.001 - 0.002 microns
4) Fumes are not particles

The correct answer is: 1

Fumes are solid particles that are condensed from metal oxides. They
range in size from 0.01 - 0.2 microns in diameter. Particles greater
than 0.5 microns are considered dusts.
The particle size of mists range from:

1) Mist are liquids-particle size does not apply

2) 0.4 - 4 microns
3) 4 - 40 microns
4) 40 - 400 microns

The correct answer is: 4

Mists are a suspension of liquid particles from condensation of vapor.

They range in particle size from 40 - 400 microns.
The aspect ratio of fiber is defined as L/W. The aspect ratio of an
exhaust hood is defined as:

1) Ratio of length to width

2) Ratio of length squared to width
3) Ratio of width to length
4) Ratio of width squared to length

The correct answer is: 3

The formula for the aspect ratio of an exhaust hood is AR = W/L

where AR is Aspect ratio, W is width, and L is length. This is the
reciprocal of the aspect ratio that would be used when discussing the
aspect ratio of an asbestos fiber.
Velocity pressure can be measured in a ventilation system using a:

1) Pitot tube
2) Thermoanemometer
3) Smoke tube
4) Piezo-electric anemometer

The correct answer is: 1

Of all devices listed, only the pitot tube can be used to measure velocity
pressure in ventilation systems. Smoke tubes can measure direction of
flow, thermoanemometers measure velocity, and Answer 4 is fictitious.
What device is commonly used to measure the capture velocity of the
fume hood?

1) Velometer
2) Pitot tube
3) Cascade impactor
4) Air pump

The correct answer is: 1

Velometers are commonly used to conduct those types of

measurements.
A good indicator gas for determination of adequacy of outdoor air
exchange in buildings is:

1) Carbon monoxide
2) Oxygen
3) Carbon dioxide
4) Nitrogen

The correct answer is: 3

Carbon dioxide is an indoor air pollutant that is given off by

occupants of the building and generally is a good indicator of the
degree of indoor air exchanged with outdoor air. Levels of carbon
dioxide below 1,000 ppm indicate, in most cases, an adequate supply
of outdoor air.
When investigating an indoor air quality issue, the first step is to:

1) Take quantitative air samples

2) Inspect the building HVAC system
3) Meet with affected employees and management
4) Survey the area for sources of air contaminants
The correct answer is: 3

The first step in investigating an indoor air quality problem is to

understand the nature of complaints from the affected employees. This
will provide clues as to the potential contaminants or other sources of the
problem. Air sampling is premature since potential contaminants are
unknown. Inspecting the HVAC system or surveying for sources of
contaminants may not be necessary if complaints point in a different
direction.
The concentration of carbon dioxide where symptoms of exposure
begin to appear is:

1) 350 ppm
2) 600 ppm
3) 1,000 ppm
4) 5,000 ppm

The correct answer is: 3

Many studies have shown that hypersensitive employees begin to report

headaches, fatigue, dizziness, and other symptoms at about 1,000 ppm.
360 ppm is the concentration of carbon dioxide in a rural environment.
Inside a well ventilated building, carbon dioxide is usually about 600
ppm. The ACGIH TLV for carbon dioxide is 5,000 ppm.
How often is calibration of sound level meters required?

1) Monthly
2) Quarterly
3) Before each survey
4) Before and after each survey

The correct answer is: 4

Good practice dictates that the meter be calibrated before and after
each survey.
Which of the following is used for detecting alpha radiation?

1) Film badge
2) Thermoluminescence detectors (TLD)
3) Pocket dosimeter
4) Geiger-Mueller with very thin windows

The correct answer is: 4

A Geiger-Mueller detector is used for radiation survey measurements

because it is capable of detecting very small amounts of radiation. With
very thin windows in the probes, the instrument can be used to detect
alpha radiation. Without them, the instrument is used to detect beta,
gamma, and x-rays. Note that this instrument does not give a uniform
response for different radiation energy levels and is accurate only for
the type of radiation energy for which it is calibrated.
The amount of material undergoing radioactive decay is often
measured in:
1) Rem
2) Rad
3) Curie
4) Roentgen

The correct answer is: 3

A curie is the amount of a material that will undergo 3.7 x 1010

disintegrations per second.
The standard deviation of a set of data is:

1) The square of the variance

2) The square root of the variance
3) The sum of the square roots of the deviation of each data
point from the mean
4) A measure of central tendency

The correct answer is: 2

The standard deviation is a measure of variation. With a

known variance, the standard deviation is easily calculated by
taking the square root of the variance.
The standard score of a normal distribution is equal to:

1) The mean of the distribution divided by the standard deviation

2) The difference between the highest and lowest values in the data set
3) The absolute deviation divided by the standard deviation
4) The number of standard deviations a data point lies from the mean

The correct answer is: 4

The standard score is also known as the z-score or the z-value and is the
number of standard deviations a point lies from the mean. For example,
a standard score of 2 means the data point is 2 standard deviations in the
positive direction from the mean.
All of the following are measures of central tendency EXCEPT:

1) Standard deviation
2) Median
3) Mode
4) Mean

The correct answer is: 1

Measures of central tendency indicate the location about which the

data points tend to congregate. The standard deviation is a measure
of dispersion.
Estimate the variance of the population from which the following sample
data came: 22, 18, 17, 20, 21.

1) 4.3
2) 2.1
3) 1.9
4) 5.0

The correct answer is: 1

Use the following formula to calculate the sample standard deviation:

The variance is then calculated by squaring the sample standard

deviation. As we have no other information to draw on, we use the
sample variance as a point estimate of the population variance.
The sample standard deviation is 2.074
2.0742 = 4.3
What is the best estimate of the variance of the population from which
the following samples came? 17 ppm, 20 ppm, 18 ppm, 22 ppm, 21
ppm, 22 ppm, 19 ppm, 21 ppm, 22 ppm

1) 3.44
2) 4.30
3) 5.01
4) 5.13

The correct answer is: 1

The best estimate of the population variance is the sample variance (the
sample standard deviation squared). To calculate the sample standard
deviation, use the formula:

The sample standard deviation = 1.856

1.8562 = 3.44
Excursions in worker exposure levels may exceed __ times the TLV-
TWA for no more than __ minutes during a workday.
1) 1, 10
2) 2, 20
3) 3, 30
4) 5, 50
The correct answer is: 3

Excursions in worker exposure levels may exceed 3 times the TLV-TWA

for no more than 30 minutes during a workday. This is based upon a
geometric standard deviation of 2.0, in which 5% of all values will
exceed 3.13 times the geometric mean.
The standard deviation is:
1) A measure of the average distance of all observations from the mean
2) A measure of the average distance of all observations from the
median
3) A constant which accounts for randomness
4) Not useful when working with normal distributions
The correct answer is: 1

The standard deviation is a measure of the average distance of all

observations from the mean.
In a normal distribution, about 68.3% of the observations will fall
between:
1) The median plus or minus one standard deviation
2) The median plus or minus two standard deviations
3) The mean plus or minus one standard deviation
4) The mean plus or minus two standard deviations
The correct answer is: 3

In a normal distribution, about 68.3% of observations will fall between

the mean plus or minus one standard deviation.
In a normal distribution, approximately 95.4% of the observations will
fall between:
1) The median plus or minus one standard deviation
2) The median plus or minus two standard deviations
3) The mean plus or minus one standard deviation
4) The mean plus or minus two standard deviations
The correct answer is: 4

In a normal distribution, 95.4% of the observations will fall between the

mean plus or minus two standard deviations.
The standard deviation is:
1) A measure of the average distance of all observations from the mean
2) A measure of the average distance of all observations from the median
3) A constant which accounts for randomness
4) Not useful when working with normal distributions
The correct answer is: 1

The standard deviation is a measure of the average distance of all

observations from the mean.
Which of the following is TRUE about a normal distribution?
1) It is symmetric around the mean
2) It can be characterized by the mean and the standard deviation
3) It is also known as a Gaussian distribution
4) All of the above
The correct answer is: 4

A normal, or Gaussian, distribution is symmetrical around the mean and

is completely characterized by the mean and standard deviation.
In a normal distribution 99% of the observations will fall within
approximately ___ standard deviation(s) of the mean.
A) 1.96
B) 2.58
C) 3.00
D) 4.40
The correct answer is: B

In a normal distribution, approximately 99% of the observations will

fall within 2.58 standard deviations of the mean; 95% within 2 standard
deviations and 68% within one standard deviation. Approximately
99.7% of the observations will fall within 3.0 standard deviations.
In a normal distribution, the mean plus two standard deviations estimates the _____
percentile of the distribution.
A) 97.7
B) 95.0
C) Lower 90.0
D) Middle 84.0
The correct answer is: A
The mean plus 2 standard deviations will estimate the point at which 97.7% of the
observations fall below. If the question asked for the mean minus two standard
deviations, then that would be the point at which 2.3% of the observations fall below.
To determine this, use the Table of the Normal Distribution and select a "z" equivalent
to the number of standard deviations above or below the mean. For this problem, we
use a "z" of 2.00. On the far right column, find "2.0". Since we said 2.00, we will use
the number in the "0" column immediately to the right of the "z" of 2.0. This number is
0.4772. (Had we asked for 2.09 standard deviations, you would have selected the
number in the "9" column at the other end of the "z = 2.0" row (that number is 0.4817).
With 0.4772, we now know the area under the curve of plus 2.00 standard deviations.
But since we wanted the whole percentile, we need to add everything below the mean
to the part we just found above the mean. Therefore, since the mean represents half of
the area under the curve, then we must add 0.500 to our number.
Area = 0.4772 + 0.500 = 0.9772 = 97.7 percentile
You passed the ASP Core Examination with a score of 192. The
cumulative statistics for this examination are as follows: Mean 180,
standard deviation 32. How many safety professionals taking the exam
have scored higher than you?
A) 47%
B) 56%
C) 35%
D) 40%
The correct answer is: C

Use the formula:

z=X-/s
= 192 - 180 / 32
= 0.375

= 0.646 (from table)

1 - z = 35% scored higher
The term used to describe the extent to which values spread on either
side of a mean, median or mode is called:
A) Limit
B) Range
C) Deviation
D) Dispersion
The correct answer is: D

Dispersion is a measure of the spread of the data with respect to the

mean or other measure.
A number that expresses the distance from a particular value (X) above
or below the mean () in units of standard deviation (S), is called
________. The result of this calculation is used in statistical tests
involving normal distributions.
A) Variable
B) Z-Score
C) Variance
D) Quartile

The correct answer is: B

The "Z-Score" is calculated below

Z = (X - )/S

It is used to test how likely the observed value X would be observed if

the X was drawn from a normal distribution with mean() and standard
deviation (S).
A manufacturing process is adjusted so the mean of a certain dimension
is 20 cm. A sample of 5 parts is checked with the following results: 19.66
cm, 20.04 cm, 19.96 cm, 19.92 cm, 19.95 cm . The t-statistic is
calculated to be -1.301. What is the conclusion regarding the t-statistic?

1) The mean should no longer be considered to be 20 cm

2) The mean should continue to be considered to be 20 cm
3) The mean has changed
4) The mean has not changed

The correct answer is: 2

Referring to the Table of Percentage Points of the t Distribution, at 4

degrees of freedom (N-1), the probability, p, that the result (t = -1.301)
is a matter of chance is greater than 0.1. We therefore continue to accept
the hypothesis that the mean is equal to 20 cm. (Note: the mean may or
may not have actually changed; statistics only allow us to make
inferences based on samples).
people are expected to be non-smokers.
3. Of the healthy (56), 59% (or 33.04) healthy people are expected to be smokers and 41% (or 22.96) people
are expected to be non-smokers.
4. Now put all of these expected values into the problem contingency table:

Sick
Healthy
Total

Smokers
21 (16.52)
29 (33.04)
50

Non-Smokers
7 (11.48)
27 (22.96)
34

Total
28
56
84
From a deck of 52 cards, one card is drawn at random. What is the
probability that the random card is either a ten or a jack?
1) l/13
2) 2/13
3) l/26
4) 1/52
The correct answer is: 2

The probability of drawing a ten:

P = 4/52 = l/13
The probability of drawing a jack: P = 4/52 = 1/13
The probability of drawing either a ten or a jack: Pboth = Pten + Pjack =
l/13 + l/13 = 2/13
Statistically, when several events are independent they:
1) Are also mutually exclusive
2) Do not affect one another
3) Are not capable of happening at the same time
4) Are also conditional on one another

The correct answer is: 2

Independent events do not have an effect on the probability of

occurrence of any other event. Mutually exclusive events cannot happen
together. It is possible that independent events could happen at the same
time.
For mutually exclusive events, the probability of A or B happening is
equal to:
1) P(A) + P(B)
2) P(A) + P(B) - P(A B)
3) P(A) + P(B / A)
4) P(A) * P(B)
The correct answer is: 1

The formula for mutually exclusive events which determines the

probability of either one event or another happening is:
P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B).

Mutually exclusive events cannot occur at the same time.

Two events that cannot occur together are called:

1) Independent events
2) Non-random events
3) Mutually exclusive events
4) Bayseian events

The correct answer is: 3

Mutually exclusive means that the events cannot occur at the same
time. Sometimes this is confused with independent events where one
event does not influence another event.
Given the fact that the probability of "heat", "fuel", and "oxygen" are
each 1 x 10-2, what is the overall probability of "fire?"
1) 1 x 106
2) 1 x 10-6
3) 1 x 10-2
4) 1 x 102
The correct answer is: 2

All of these "states" are required for a fire. Therefore, multiply the
probabilities to determine the probability of "fire."
P = Pheat + Pfuel + Poxygen
= (1 x 10-2)(1 x 10-2)(1 x 10-2)
= 1 x 10-6
If A = {5,6} and B = {1,2,3,5}, then A + B equals:
1) {5}
2) {6}
3) {1,2,3,5,6}
4) {1,2,3,4,5,6}
The correct answer is: 3

The union of A and B (A + B) is the set whose numbers are members

of either A or B. The result is {1,2,3,5,6}. Note that 4 does not appear
in either set and is therefore not a member.

Note: "Union" is denoted by a plus sign, and "intersection" is denoted

by multiplication. "OR" is also used to denote "union" and "AND" is
also used to denoted "intersection."
Given the following sample distribution: 10, 10, 15, 25, 35. Compute the
sample standard deviation.
1) 10.8
2) 9.7
3) 6.7
4) 11.9
The correct answer is: 1
The sample standard deviation is a measure of the variability of the sample
data taken from the population. It is calculated using the equation graphic
associated with this question. Usually, the sample standard deviation is simply
referred to as "s."
To calculate the sample standard deviation, s, by hand, one must first calculate
the mean of the set of numbers. In this case, the mean is 19. The next step is to
calculate how far away from the mean each data point lies. In this problem,
these would be 9, 9, 4, 6, and 16 respectively. Next, square each of these
numbers (yielding 81,81,16, 36, and 256). Now sum these squared numbers
(yielding 470). Divide this summed number by the actual number of data
points minus 1 (i.e., 5 - 1 = 4). In our problem, this is 470/4 = 117.5. Finally,
take the square root of this number (yielding a sample standard deviation of
10.8).
In a normal distribution, 99.0% of the observations will fall within
approximately ___ standard deviations of the mean.

1) 1.96
2) 2.58
3) 3.00
4) 4.40
The correct answer is: 2

In a normal distribution, approximately 99.0% of the observations will

fall within 2.58 standard deviations of the mean; 95% within 1.96
standard deviations, and 90% within 1.64 standard deviation.

Approximately 99.9% of the observations will fall within 3.49 standard

deviations.
Which of the following tests is statistical?
1) S-test
2) t-test
3) q-test
4) s-test

correct answer is: 2

A t-test is commonly used in statistics to test for differences

between groups.
The correlation formula is used to evaluate the relationship between
two variables of the same interval. Of the following selections, choose
the number that represents the closest correlation.

1) 0.00
2) 0.10
3) 0.50
4) 0.95
The correct answer is: 4

1.0 indicates a perfect correlation and 0 indicates no correlation;

therefore, 0.95 indicates the best correlation of the four answers.
Which of the following statements regarding the normal distribution
is NOT true:
1) The mean, mode, and median are the same value
2) The normal distribution is a discrete distribution
3) The tails never touch zero
4) The normal distribution is symmetrical

correct answer is: 2

The normal distribution is a continuous distribution.

If there is an even number of data points in a set of data:

1) The mode is equal to the average of the middle two values

2) The mean and the median are equal
3) The median and the mode are equal
4) None of the above

The correct answer is: 4

None of these are correct. The median is equal to the average of the
middle two values for the case where there is an even number of data
points.
If a distribution is skewed to the left, the median will always be:

1) Less than the mean

2) Between the mean and the mode
3) Greater than the mode
4) Equal to the mean

The correct answer is: 2

When a distribution is skewed, either left or right, the median will

almost always be between the mean and the mode. This is because the
median is less affected by outlying values than the mean and less
affected by the frequency of a given value than the mode.
Which of the following is not an element of a risk assessment?
1) Hazard identification
2) Exposure assessment
3) Risk communication
4) Dose-response assessment
The correct answer is: 3

Risk communication is the process of informing the public in a

understandable and effective manner of the potential harm from a given
exposure situation and/or particular agent. Hazard identification, dose-
response assessment, and exposure assessment are all elements of risk
assessment as outlined by the National Academy of Sciences.
An object dropped from the top of a building falls to the ground in 4 sec.
What is the building height?

1) 64 ft
2) 96 ft
3) 128 ft
4) 256 ft
The correct answer is: 4

The applicable formula, derived from Newton's laws is:

height = 1/2gt2 where g is the acceleration of the object due to gravity
and t is the time
height = 1/2 * 32 ft/sec2 (4 sec)2
height = 256 ft
A locomotive is traveling at 60 mph. The engineer's reaction time is
0.6 sec. How many feet will the locomotive travel before the engineer
recognizes an emergency situation and actually applies the brakes?
1) 45 ft
2) 53 ft
3) 60 ft
4) 75 ft

The correct answer is: 2

Determine the factor to convert mph to ft/sec:
(5,280 ft/mile * 1 hr/60 min * 1 min/60 sec) = 1.47 ft/sec per 1
mile/hr
Using this conversion factor, determine the velocity of the train in
ft/sec:
60 mph * 1.47 ft/sec per mph = 88 ft/sec
Determine the distance traveled by the locomotive during the
engineer's 0.6 sec reacton time:
88 ft/sec * 0.6 sec = 53 ft
What is the velocity of a bus traveling 60 mph?

1) 17 ft/sec
2) 41 ft/sec
3) 88 ft/sec
4) 94 ft/sec
The correct answer is: 3

Perform the following conversion:

60 mile/hr * 5,280 ft/mile * 1 hr/60 min * 1 min/60 sec = 88 ft/sec
To check: note that all units cancel except ft/sec.
Which of the following is the BEST method for conducting interviews
associated with an incident investigation?

1) One interviewer and one witness in a room with audio recording

2) Three interviewers and one witness in a room
3) One interviewer and three witnesses in a room
4) One interviewer and one witness in a room

The correct answer is: 4

Audio and video recording should always be avoided as this will

typically make the witness nervous and less likely to be fully open.
Having three interviewers is intimidating to the witness. Interviewing
multiple witnesses at the same time should be avoided since frequently, a
dominant person will speak for the group. The other witnesses with
information will reason with themselves that other witnesses in the room
have better information - particularly if the information is contradictory.
If the mean time between failures of a system is 5,000 trials, what is
the reliability of the system over 15,000 trials?
1) 0.05
2) 0.23
3) 0.33
4) 3.00

The correct answer is: 1

Using the reliability formula: Rt =

= 1/mean time between failures
Rt = e (-15,000/5,000)
Rt = 0.0498
The reliability of a component that has two parallel redundant
circuits (each redundant system has a reliability of 0.85) is:
1) 1.00
2) 0.98
3) 0.89
4) 0.85

The correct answer is: 2

The probability of failure of each leg is calculated as R = (1 - 0.85) =

0.15
The probability of a system failure is:
Pf = 0.15 * 0.15 = 0.0225
The system reliability is Rs = 1 - 0.0225 = 0.9775
If a system consists of 100 components in series, each with a
reliability of 0.9900, the reliability of the entire system is:
1) 0.366
2) 0.634
3) 0.990
4) 0.999

The correct answer is: 1

In series, multiply the reliabilities of all components.

R = 0.99100
= 0.366
366 times out of 1,000 the system would be able to properly
perform its function.
For reliability purposes, adding components in parallel:

1) Decreases reliability in the system

2) Has no effect on reliability in the system
3) Increases the reliability of the system
4) Depends on other subsystems

correct answer is: 3

Rseries = R1R2
Rparallel = 1 - (U1 U2)
U1 = 1 - R1
U2 = 1 - R2
Assume R1 = 0.9 and R2 = 0.8
In a series system the system reliability is:
Rs = 0.9 * 0.8 = 0.72
In a parallel system the system reliability is:
Rp = - (0.1 * 0.2) = 0.98
A switch has 5 components, all redundant to one another. The
component failure rates are 1 x 10-3, 1 x 10-2, 1 x 10-1, 1 x 10-3, and 1
x 10-2, respectively. What is the system failure rate?
1) 1 x 10-11
2) 5 x 10-11
3) 1.21 x 10-1
4) 1.21 x 10-2

The correct answer is: 1

Given the parallel construction, the total failure rate is multiplicative.

Failure Rate = (1 x 10-3) (1 x 10-2) (1 x 10-1) (1 x 10-3) (1 x 10-2) = 1
x 10-11
A wind rose is:

1) A kind of flower
2) A graphical representation of yearly wind direction
3) A computer-aided design
4) A graphical representation of stack discharges

The correct answer is: 2

Wind roses are graphical representations of wind direction. They are

important in determining prevailing wind direction.
Change analysis is:

1) A method for understanding how an incident occurred

2) A method for understanding how a change in a system could
cause problems later on
3) A method of understanding how a management system change
will affect the system
4) All of the above

The correct answer is: 4

Change analysis is an excellent investigative tool for incident

investigation as well as a proactive tool for performing risk
assessments when a system change is anticipated.
The correlation coefficient for two variables is determined to be
0.98. This strongly indicates:
1) The independent variable is the direct cause of the dependent
variable
2) The dependent variable and the independent variable are not
well-related to one another
3) A high degree of relationship exists between the two variables
4) None of the above

The correct answer is: 3

A high correlation coefficient does not mean one variable causes

the other, only that there is a strong relationship between the two
variables.
For a positively skewed distribution:

1) The median is to the left of the mean

2) The mean and median are equal and to the right of the mode
3) The mode is always equal to the median and always to the right
of the mean
4) None of the above

The correct answer is: 1

A positively skewed distribution is also said to be skewed to the

right. Most of the values are on the lower end of the scale or to the
left of the mean. Thus the middle value or median is to the left of
the mean.
Which of the following is NOT generally considered part of a
behavioral observation process?

1) Identification of behaviors to observe

2) Engineering controls
3) Conduct of observations
4) Provide feedback on results

The correct answer is: 2

A behavioral observation process generally consists of identifying

the behaviors to be observed, conducting the observations, and
providing feedback on the results.

E. Scott Geller, The Psychology of Safety

In a behavioral observation process, the principle method of feedback
is usually considered to be:
1) Posting group data on percent of safe behaviors observed
2) Discipline when an employee is seen doing something incorrectly
3) Posting individual employee results
4) Supervisors are informed of their group's performance

The correct answer is: 1

In a behavioral observation process, feedback is generally given by

posting group results such as the percent of safe behaviors observed.

E. Scott Geller, The Psychology of Safety

Given the following data, calculate the correlation coefficient. (1.1,
4.6), (3.2, 5.3), (5.7, 6.4)
1) 0.943
2) -0.951
3) -0.312
4) 0.997

The correct answer is: 4

The hidden costs of accidents are:

1) 1 to 4 times the direct costs

2) 4 to 10 times the direct costs
3) 10 to 20 times the direct costs
4) 50% of the direct costs

The correct answer is: 2

There are direct and indirect costs associated with an accident. These
costs can be thought of as an iceberg, with the direct costs the visible
portion of the iceberg and the indirect costs the large ice mass below
the surface of the water. The indirect costs have been estimated to be
4 to 10 times the direct costs.
In workers' compensation systems, the premium a company pays
for coverage is a function of:
1) Payroll
2) Manual class rates
3) Experience modification
4) All of the above

The correct answer is: 4

Premium is determined by Payroll/$100 * Class Rate *

Experience Modification.
Implied warranty involves:

1) A written statement
2) Expectation of suitability
3) Negligence
4) Tort

The correct answer is: 2

An implied warranty revolves around the implications, made by a

manufacturer or dealer, that a product is suitable for a particular
use.
"Risk analysis" is normally conducted before

1) Dose response modeling

2) Environmental analysis
3) Fault tree analysis
4) Risk management

The correct answer is: 4

The methodology of risk analysis is quite different from risk

management. Risk analysis is a scientific activity, the result of which is
an estimate of risk. Risk management must determine whether the risk
is acceptable and if not, what methods will be used to reduce the risk
to an acceptable level.
An event tree analysis is best defined as:

1) A method for identifying various possible outcomes

2) A system of numerical analysis
3) A method utilizing true and false options
4) A system of statistical analysis

The correct answer is: 1

An event tree analysis is a logic method that breaks down the

possible outcomes of a single event.
The first step in an event tree analysis is termed the:

1) Failure event
2) Primal event
3) Logic inhibit
4) Initiating event
The correct answer is: 4

The initial event in any event tree is termed the "initiating event".
When determining the relative safety of a product using fault tree
analysis, a quick way to evaluate this safety is to:
1) Count the number of "OR" gates
2) Subtract the number of "OR" gates from the number of "AND"
gates
3) Count the number of "AND" gates
4) Add the total number of gates in the tree except for the "inhibit"
gates

The correct answer is: 3

"AND" gates require that all events must occur in order for the failure
to occur therefore, the probability of failure is the product of all the
individual input probabilities. This value is much smaller than from the
same events going through an "OR" gate .
A door hinge fails 4 times out of 1,000,000 operations. What is its
success rate?

1) 99.9996 x 10-2
2) 99.9999 x 10-2
3) 99.9 x 10-3
4) 99 x 10-2

The correct answer is: 1

Success Rate = 999,996 successes / 1,000,000 attempts

= 0.999996
= 99.9996 x 10-2
A switch has 4 components. Each has a failure rate of "a". The
components are connected in series. What is the switch's failure
rate?
1) (4a) + 1
2) a4
3) 4a
4) a(a+4)

The correct answer is: 3

For n components in series, the overall failure rate is the sum of the
single components' failure rates.
What is a bathtub curve?

1) New product innovation cycle

2) Failure rate analysis showing a spiraling rate of failure
3) Typical failure rate over the life of a product
4) Atypical failure rate over the life of a product
The correct answer is: 3

The bathtub curve traces the typical failure rate of a product over time.
If a 5 hp, 220 V electric motor runs for 8 hr per day, and electricity costs
12 cents per kWh, what is the daily electricity cost to run the motor?

1) $0.45
2) $3.58
3) $1.79
4) $45.00
The correct answer is: 2

Convert hp to W.
5 hp = 3,730 W
8 hr/day * 3,730 W = 29,840 W-hr per day = 29.84 kWh per day
29.84 kWh * $0.12 per kWh = $3.58 per day.
A pulley system consisting of 3 fixed and 2 movable pulleys is being
used to raise a 500 lb load to a height of 20 ft. Neglecting friction, how
much effort must be exerted?

1) 100 lb
2) 125 lb
3) 250 lb
4) 500 lb
The correct answer is: 1

As there are five ropes holding up the load, the mechanical advantage is
5.
NOTE: The distance is irrelevant to the effort needed.
F (effort) = W(weight) / MA(mechanical advantage)
F = W/MA
F = 500 lb / 5 = 100 lb
In 1931, Heinrich significantly changed the thinking of safety
professionals. He:

1) Shifted emphasis from conditions to actions

2) Suggested the use of JSA to analyze accidents
3) Applied forensic science to accident analysis
4) Proposed monetary penalties for accidents
The correct answer is: 1

In the early 1900's, employers concentrated more on the inspection of

the workplace. Heinrich suggested that more emphasis be placed on the
actions of employees.
The most dangerous industry from the 19th to the 20th century was:
1) Automobile manufacturing
2) Mining
3) Railroad
4) Construction
The correct answer is: 2

Mining has been (and still is) one of the most dangerous industries in the
United States. Fire fighting, construction, and logging also remain high
on the list.
A TLV-TWA is defined as:

1) A time-weighted average concentration for a normal 8-hour workday

and 40 hour work week to which all workers can be exposed
continuously, day after day, without effect.
2) A time-weighted average concentration for a normal 8-hour workday
and 40-hour work week, to which nearly all workers can be repeatedly
exposed, day after day, without adverse effect
3) A relative index of toxicity
4) Both 2 and 3
The correct answer is: 2

TLV-TWA is a time weighted average concentration for a normal 8-hour

workday and 40-hour work week, to which "nearly" all workers can be
repeatedly exposed, day after day, without "adverse" effect.
TLV-STEL is the concentration to which workers can be exposed for a
short period of time without suffering from the following, EXCEPT:
1) Dermatitis
2) Irritation
3) Chronic or irreversible tissue damage
4) Narcosis
The correct answer is: 1

Dermatitis is not a factor in definition of the TLV-STEL, and therefore,

employees may suffer from some dermatitis. A STEL exposure should
NOT result in irritation, chronic or irreversible tissue damage, and
narcosis of sufficient degree to increase the likelihood of accidental
injury, impair self-rescue, or materially reduce work efficiency (provided
that the 8-hour TWA-TLV was not exceeded).
If two variables (1 and 2) have a correlation of r = -0.09, this would be
considered a:
1) Strong, direct correlation
2) Weak, direct correlation
3) Strong, inverted correlation
4) Weak, inverted correlation
The correct answer is: 4

Correlation coefficients can range from -1.0 to 1.0. The negative value
indicates that the correlation is inverted. The correlation of -0.09
indicates that the relationship between the two variables is very weak.
The geometric mean:
1) Is synonymous with the arithmetic mean
2) Is used when evaluating log normally distributed data
3) Is the median of log normally distributed data
4) Both 2 and 3
The correct answer is: 4

The geometric mean is used when evaluating log normally distributed

data and is equal to the median of the log normally distributed data. The
geometric mean is the square root of the product of all of the data
points.
Which of the following is NOT true about the correlation coefficient?
1) It can range from -1.0 to +1.0
2) Positive means a direct correlation
3) Negative means no correlation
4) As the correlation approaches 1.0, the association is stronger
The correct answer is: 3

A correlation of 0 (zero) means there is no correlation, (i.e., the variables

show complete independence from one another). A negative correlation
means the variables are inversely related to one another (e.g., as one
increases, the other decreases).
Standards that have been developed over time by a consortium of experts
and those affected by the standard are generally known as:
1) Regulatory standards
2) Mandatory standards
3) Voluntary standards
4) Consensus standards
The correct answer is: 4

Standards so developed are consensus standards because they are

developed as a result of a consensus of opinion of the group.
Which group of specially trained employees, who have been delegated by their employer,
are most qualified to respond to an emergency in which a drum of hazardous substance has
been ruptured?
A) Paramedics
B) Nurses
C) HAZMAT team
D) First aid team

The correct answer is: C

Given the proper training that covers the necessary information to control and handle
chemical substances, spills and leaks safely, including information on the proper personal
protective equipment and procedures that safeguard employees against hazards and toxic
substances exposure. In this example, the only choice that explicitly had the required
knowledge would be the HAZMAT - hazardous materials response team.
Dermatitis tends to be most severe in which of the following
industries?

A) Silver
B) Meat packing
C) Lead battery
D) Concrete products

The correct answer is: A

Using lost work day rate as a measure of severity Silver > Meat
packing > Lead battery > Concrete.
In conducting a safety and health audit at a plant owned by your
company, you find a solvent of potential hazard with a high
probability of injury being used. What is your first course of action?
A) Stop the operation
B) Recommend the solvent be changed
C) Take air samples for analysis
D) Initiate actions to effect engineering controls

The correct answer is: C

The first course of action is to take air samples for analysis and
determination of whether further action is warranted.
As part of a valid and complete hazard communications program the
employer must do all of the following except:

A) Prepare MSDS's for all substances in the process

B) Have MSDS's for substances with employee exposure
C) Have a written Hazard Communications Program
D) Train employees in the hazards of the chemicals
The correct answer is: A

Employers are not required to prepare MSDS's for the substances they
use. The manufacturer has that responsibility. The employer is required
to have MSDS's on hand and readily available to the employee for all
the substances to which they might be exposed.
What type of emergencies would you expect to find at a TSD site?

A) Those involving hazardous substances

B) Those involving trash or rubbish
C) Those dealing with fire and similar life threatening conditions
D) Those involving gas cylinders
The correct answer is: A

Treatment, storage and disposal (TSD) sites are required by law (OSHA,
TSCA, CERCLA) to have an emergency response plan for all
emergencies involving hazardous substances. Hazardous waste
operations and emergency response, 29 CFR 1910.120 is the standard
that details program requirements.
Of the following, which is most important in responding to a toluene
spill?

A) Turn off all electrical equipment in the area

B) Stop the leak
C) Contain the spill
D) Establish the hot zone and call the spill team

The correct answer is: A

Toluene vapors are flammable and may be ignited by sparks or hot

surfaces from the electrical equipment.
Which activity requires the higher level of personal protection?

A) Spill containment
B) Spill stoppage
C) Decontamination
D) Spill cleanup

The correct answer is: B

The potential exposure during spill stoppage is greater, since the

situation is not controlled and the responder has to go to the source
of the spill, which may have the greatest exposure potential.
In preparing the battery for a powered lifter always:

A) Add acid to water

B) Add water to acid
C) Ground the lifter
D) Check tire pressure

The correct answer is: A

To prepare a battery "AAA" - always add acid to water to prevent

splattering. (Remember: "Do as you oughta, add acid to watta")
What device is commonly used to measure the capture velocity of the
fume hood?
A) Velometer
B) Pitot tube
C) Cascade impactor
D) Air pump
The correct answer is: A

Velometers are commonly used to measure the capture velocities of

ventilation systems.
Pressure testing is a potentially ___________ test.
A) Destructive
B) Hypergolic
C) Hyperbaric
D) Reverberant
The correct answer is: A

Pressure testing may actually destroy the object being tested.

How many foot-candles of illumination are necessary for work that
requires fine assembly?
A) 5 ft-candles
B) 50 ft-candles
C) 500 ft-candles
D) 5000 ft-candles

The correct answer is: C

500 foot-candles is necessary for the performance of visual tasks of low

contrast and very small size over a prolonged period of time, e.g., fine
assembly, very difficult inspection. 5 foot-candles is very low light, not
for most working environments; 50 foot-candles is a typical office
environment lighting level; and 5,000 foot-candles is well beyond the
lighting necessary for the task described.
Job safety analysis is a technique to:
A) Establish safety procedures for each job
B) Determine physical demands of each job
C) Identify hazards associated with each step of the job
D) Improve the workplace environment
The correct answer is: C

Job safety analysis is a procedure to make the job safe by identifying

the hazards or potential injuries/illnesses associated with each step of
the job. In addition, developing a solution for each hazard that will
eliminate or control the exposure.
Dry bulb temperature is read from:

A) Psychrometic table
B) Psychrometer
C) Thermometer
D) Dry bulb device
The correct answer is: C

Dry bulb temperature is read from a thermometer.

Which of the following portable fire extinguishers should not be used
to extinguish a small fire in a confined space?
A) ABC dry chemical
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Water
D) BC dry chemical

The correct answer is: B

The break down of CO2 to CO in a confined space could lead to

asphyxiation.
The flowing pressure at a fire extinguishing nozzle is 50 psi. What is the
velocity of discharge in feet per second?
A) 8.5 ft/sec
B) 85.5 ft/sec
C) 50 ft/sec
D) 600 ft/sec
The correct answer is: B

Use the formula Q = 12.1 square root of P

Q = 12.1 square root of 50

Q = 12.1 (7.07)
Q = 85.5 ft/sec
Round ducts are better than square ducts because round ducts:
A) Can be made air-tight easier
B) Use less material for the same size
C) Are stronger
D) Have less friction
The correct answer is: C

In industrial applications, high velocities, and therefore high SP's, are

normally used. This condition results in duct collapses. Circular ducts
are more able to withstand this stress.
Velocity pressure of a system is always:
A) Negative
B) Positive
C) Equal to total pressure
D) Equal to static pressure
The correct answer is: B

The total pressure = static pressure + velocity pressure.

Since VP is always exerted in the direction of flow, VP is always
positive.
Why does water pressure increase with depth?
A) Water becomes more dense with depth
B) H2O exerts more force/unit area
C) The force of gravity increases with depth
D) Mass of water
The correct answer is: B

Pressure is defined as a force per unit area. As the weight of water

increases with increasing depth the pressure or force per unit area
increases.
Molality refers to:
A) Number of moles solute/liter solution
B) Number of moles solute/1000 grams solvent
C) Number of moles/gram of molecular weight
D) Number of grams solute/mole solution
The correct answer is: B

Molality refers to the number of moles of a solute dissolved per 1000

grams of a solvent. Number of moles solute/liter solution is molarity.
A 50 ft * 190 ft * 20 ft building is supplied with 8,000 cfm. What is the
number of air changes per hour in the building?
A) 1.4 air changes/hr
B) 2.5 air changes/hr
C) 3.6 air changes/hr
D) 4.7 air changes/hr

The correct answer is: B

Determine total building volume:

50 ft * 190 ft * 20 ft = 190,000 ft3
Convert cfm to ft3/hr:
8,000 cfm * 60 min/hr = 480,000 ft3/hr
480,000 ft3/hr / 190,000 ft3 = 2.5 air changes/hr
In relation to fire protection AFFF defines?
A) Aqueous film forming foam
B) Aqueous film fire fighting
C) Approved flammable fire fabric
D) Approved flammable fire fighting
The correct answer is: A

"Aqueous Film Forming Foam" means a fluorinated surfactant with

foam stabilizer which is diluted with water to act as a temporary barrier
to exclude air from mixing with fuel vapor by developing an aqueous
film on the fuel surface of some hydrocarbons. This film is capable of
suppressing the generation of fuel vapors.
All of the following are administrative controls for reducing or
preventing ergonomic injuries EXCEPT:
A) Job expansion
B) Tool changes
C) Job rotation
D) Rest periods
The correct answer is: B

Tool changes are an engineering control while job expansion, job

rotation, and rest periods are administrative controls.
The OSHA Process Safety Standard requires employers with applicable
processes to implement a Contractor Safety Program. Elements of the
Contractor Safety Program include the following EXCEPT:
A) Evaluate safety of contractor before hire
B) Process safety training
C) Explain Emergency Action Plan
D) Maintain a contract employee injury and illness log
The correct answer is: B

The employer is required to inform the contractor of the hazards

associated with the process, but is not required to perform the process
hazard training. The training is a requirement of the contract employer.
The other answers are elements of the Contractor Safety Program.
Additional elements include developing and implementing safe work
practices and evaluation of contractors to ensure fulfillment of
obligations.
Alternate methods of reducing risk associated with highly hazardous
chemicals, other than Process Safety Management Programs include the
following EXCEPT:
A) Reducing the use of highly hazardous chemicals
B) Well written procedures for managing processes
C) Reducing the quantity of highly hazardous chemicals on-site
D) Dispersing storage of highly hazardous chemicals to multiple
locations
The correct answer is: B

Although well written procedures are important for managing process

safety, the better alternatives are found in the remaining answers, which
actually reduce the overall risk of catastrophic incident. The procedure
may not be necessary if the risk is eliminated or reduced substantially.
In designing workplaces, some compromises are almost inevitable
because of competing priorities. There is an accepted order of priorities.
Which one of the following priorities is not in the appropriate order?
A) Arrangement of elements to be used in sequence
B) Primary visual tasks
C) Primary controls that interact with primary visual tasks
D) Control-display relationships

The correct answer is: A

The arrangement of elements to be used in sequence is the "Fourth

Priority" after Control-display relationships.
It is possible to reduce incidents involving human error by:

A) Carefully screening job applicants

B) Furnishing workers with personal protective equipment
C) Providing training and education to workers and line supervisors
D) Improving workplace conditions

The correct answer is: C

It is generally agreed the largest majority of incidents leading to an

accident are attributed to unsafe acts rather than unsafe conditions.
Although general estimates of many of the mental and emotional states
that cause accidents (like indifference, resentment of authority,
disregard of danger, undue haste, anger, impatience, boredom) are not
reliable, there is concensus that effective training and education will
prevent many of the human errors (unsafe acts) that arise from mental
and emotional states.
A tank truck has been involved in a fire. By the time you arrive the label
on the truck only indicates that the material has a pH of 12. What does
this tell you?
A) Material is flammable
B) Material is acidic
C) Material is basic
D) Material is neutral
The correct answer is: C

A pH of 12 is a basic solution. A pH of less than 7 is acidic, a pH of 7 is

neutral, and a pH of greater than 7 is basic.
Convert 0.2 meters per second to miles per hour.
A) 4.5 mph
B) 45 mph
C) 2.25 mph
D) 0.45 mph
The correct answer is: D

0.2 meters / sec * 3.281 ft / 1 meter * 1 mile / 5280 ft * 60 sec. / 1

minute * 60 min. / 1 hour
= 0.45 miles / hour
The Federal Aviation Administration (FA) has asked your company to confirm the
height of your radio transmission antenna. You know that the five support wires
connect to the antenna tower very near the top. You measure the angles of the five
support wires and find that the angles are all pretty close to 53 degrees. You measure
the distance from the base of the tower to the points where each of the five support
wires are secured to the ground, and you find that this distance is consistently 490 ft.
What is the height of the tower?
A) 369 ft
B) 613 ft
C) 650 ft
D) 814 ft
The correct answer is: C
This problem involves trigonometry. Draw a right triangle. One of the guy wires
represents the hypotenuse of the right triangle, while the horizontal leg represents the
distance from the base of the tower to the base of the guy wire. The vertical leg
represents the tower itself. Using the cosine identity, determine the length of the guy
wire. Cosine of angle = length of adjacent leg / length of hypotenuse leg. Cosine 53 =
490 ft / length of hypotenuse leg. The length of the hypotenuse leg is 814 ft long. Now
that the length of the guy wire is known, the height of the tower is simply a
rearrangement of the Pythagorean Theorem, a2 + b2 = c2, with b (the distance from the
base of the tower to the base of the guy wire) and c (the length of the guy wire) now
known. Therefore, the height of the tower (a) is . is 650 ft.
A ladder leans against the side of a building and makes an angle of 70º
with the ground. The foot of the ladder is 30 ft from the building. What
is the length of the ladder?
A) 11 ft
B) 32 ft
C) 88 ft
D) 92 ft
The correct answer is: C

Use the cosine trigonometric identity.

Cosine of Angle = Adjacent Leg Length/Hypotenuse Leg Length
cos 70º = 30 ft / Hypotenuse Leg Length
Hypotenuse Leg Length = 30 ft / cos 70º
= 30 ft / 0.3420 = 88 ft
A worker's muscles act on an angle of 45º with respect to the direction
of motion. The horizontal force necessary to start moving the item is 256
N and is measured standing in front of the item to be moved. What is the
actual muscle force needed to start moving the item?
A) 181 N
B) 256 N
C) 362 N
D) 551 N
The correct answer is: C

Using the cosine trigonometric identity and vector mechanics:

Cosine of Angle = Adjacent Component / Hypotenuse Resultant
cos 45º = 256 N / Hypotenuse Resultant
Hypotenuse Resultant = 256 N / cos 45º
= 256 N / 0.7071 = 362 N
How much dilution ventilation is required to reduce a solvent to a tenth
of its TLV if the rate of evaporation is 2 pints per hour, and the solvent
has a molecular weight of 36, its TLV is 50 ppm, and its specific gravity
is 0.90?
A) 1.24 x 106 ft3/hr
B) 1.56 x 106 ft3/hr
C) 3.01 x 106 ft3/hr
D) 4.03 x 106 ft3/hr
The correct answer is: D

Use the formula for dilution ventilation:

Q = (403 * specific gravity of solvent x 106 * pints per hour *
°K)/(molecular weight of solvent * TLV)
Q = (403 * 0.9 x 106 * 2 * 10) / (36 * 50)
= 4.03 x 106 ft3/hr
Inside a flammable liquid storage room, the minimum portable fire
extinguisher requirement is:

A) A 20# carbon dioxide adjacent to any dispensing station within the

room
B) A multipurpose BC dry chemical, located inside the room, adjacent
to the entrance door
C) A fire hose, with fog nozzle, mounted on a column, inside the room
D) The fire extinguisher must be located outside the room
The correct answer is: D

In a hazardous location of this nature, the recommended practice is for

the fire extiguishment equipment be located outside the room.
Confronted with having to extinguish a small Class A fire in an office
where only the following extinguishing agents were present, which
would you select?
A) Bucket of sand
B) Multipurpose dry chemical
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Dry chemical
The correct answer is: B

A multipurpose dry chemical is effective because it provides a rapid

knock-down of flames and forms a fire-retardant coating that prevents
reflash.
Where an employer has provided portable fire extinguishers for
employee use in the workplace, the employer must do all of the
following EXCEPT:
A) Provide an educational program to familiarize employees with fire
extinguisher principles and use
B) Inform employees of the hazards involved with incipient stage fire
fighting
C) Service fire extinguishers at least once a year
D) Form an employee fire brigade
The correct answer is: D
OSHA states that where an employer has provided portable fire
extinguishers for employee use in the workplace, the employer shall
also provide an educational program to familiarize employees with the
general principles of fire extinguishers use and the hazards involved
with incipient stage fire fighting. In addition, portable fire extinguishers
shall be given maintenance service at least once a year and a written
record kept to show when and how serviced.
29 CFR 1910.157(c)(3) and (g)(1)
"Bonding" a flammable liquid dispensing can refers to the process of:
A) Connecting it to the earth
B) Attaching it to a grounding strap
C) Gluing it to the floor
D) Connecting it to other conductive objects
The correct answer is: D

"Bonding" refers to the connection of conductive objects by means of a

conductor to minimize potential electrical differences between the
objects. "Grounding" is the process of connecting the conductive
objective to the ground. In flammable liquid dispensing both "Bonding"
and "Grounding" are important.
What is the most effective component in a fire prevention program for
welding or cutting?

A) Inspection of the welding apparatus

B) Upright storage of acetylene cylinders
C) Board-certified welders
D) Cutting and welding permit system
The correct answer is: D

It is felt that a permit system which allows safety professionals to

preview all cutting and welding work is very successful in eliminating
fires.
The technique that provides a means for quantitatively evaluating the
contribution of human error to the degradation of product quality is
called:
A) Fault hazard analysis
B) Failure modes effects anaysis
C) Fault tree analysis
D) THERP
The correct answer is: D

THERP, a technique for human error predictions was developed by the

Scandia Corporation. It provides a means for quantitatively evaluating
the contributions of human error to the degradation of product quality. It
can be used for human components in systems and can be combined with
either failure modes effects or fault tree analysis.
How long should eyes or skin be flushed immediately after exposure to
a hazardous chemical?
A) 10 minutes
B) 5 minutes
C) 15 minutes
D) 1.5 minutes
The correct answer is: C

A general rule is to wash with copius amounts of water for at least 15

minutes.
Immediate corrective measures should be taken when the atmospheric
concentration of:
A) Carbon dioxide is less than 2.0%
B) Carbon dioxide is greater than 3.0%
C) Carbon monoxide is less than 0.1%
D) Oxygen is greater than 18% but less than 20%
The correct answer is: B

Immediate corrective measures should be taken when the atmospheric

concentration of carbon dioxide is greater than 3.0%.
Administrative work practice controls for heat strain include
acclimatization. This requires interfacing the worker with the work
environment for how long?
A) Two hours per day for 1-2 weeks
B) Four hours per day for 1 week
C) One full week
D) Two full days

The correct answer is: A

Experience has shown that workers do not stand a hot job very well at
first, but develop tolerance rapidly and full endurance by working in the
heat for about two hours per day for a period of one to two weeks. A
worker acclimatized to heat will have a lower heart rate, a lower body
temperature, a higher sweat rate and more dilute sweat. Both work and
heat stress are required to initiate the body changes that result in
acclimatization.
How is asbestos disposed of?
A) Landfill
B) Incinerated
C) Chemically dissolved
D) Deep well injection
The correct answer is: A

Asbestos waste is commonly landfilled.

What is a lab pack?
A) A special kind of biohazard storage drum
B) Small amounts of similar materials
C) A type of manifest
D) Disposal requirement found in the OSHA Laboratory Safety Standard (29
CFR 1910.1450)
The correct answer is: B
"Because lab waste typically includes a diverse array of chemicals in small
quantities, they present special disposal concerns. In general, chemicals can
either be consolidated into bulk waste streams that meet specific
characteristics or "lab-packed". The term "lab-pack" describes the most
common method for packaging small quantities of lab waste. Small containers
of compatible waste materials are placed intact into a larger packaging unit;
usually a steel or fiber drum that contains an absorbent material, such as
vermiculite, to cushion the containers and absorb spilled or leaked waste. An
inventory is made as the containers are added to the drum. The drum is then
sealed and a copy of the inventory sheet is attached to the drum. The drum is
then shipped off-site for disposal accompanied by a hazardous waste
manifest." [From: Environmental Management Guide for Small Laboratories ,
EPA 233-B-00-001, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Small Business
What is the most serious heat related disease?
A) Heat stroke
B) Heat neurosis
C) Acute heat exhaustion
D) Heat syncope
The correct answer is: A

In heat stroke the body temperature rises to dangerous levels and the heat
control mechanisms are shut down.
A 3/4" manilla rope has a safety factor of 5 and a tensile strength of
1000 pounds, what is the maximum safe working load?
A) 1000 pounds
B) 50 pounds
C) 100 pounds
D) 200 pounds
The correct answer is: D

To detemine safe working load: divide tensile strength by safety factor.

1000 pounds/5 = 200 pounds

Aisle ways that are utilized by both industrial trucks and pedestrians
should be at least:
A) 4 feet wide
B) 3 feet wider than the widest load
C) 5 feet wider than the widest load
D) 1 foot wider than the widest load
The correct answer is: B

The aisle width requirement is 3 feet wider than the widest load of the
industrial truck.
According to contemporary motivation theory, the strongest motivator
is:
A) Fear of a boss
B) Status
C) Recognition of achievement
D) Pay
The correct answer is: C

Current theory holds that recogniton of achievement is the single most

important motivator.
Industrial safety and systems safety start from a common base, a desire
to:
A) Identify, analyze and control hazards
B) Save lives and property
C) Analyze and improve equipment
D) Control and prevent accidents to employees
The correct answer is: B

Industrial safety and systems safety start from a common base, the desire
to save lives and property. Whereas industrial safety directs itself to
people, system safety is orientated toward analysis and improvement of
hardware (e.g. systems).
With the proliferation and advancement of computer technology,
instructors have access to sophisticated software tools for generating
visual and audio aids (multimedia presentation software). Two
commercial examples of this software include:
A) Microsoft® PowerPoint ™ and Lotus® 1-2-3™
B) Microsoft® PowerPoint ™ and Corel® Presentations™
C) Microsoft® Excel™ and Microsoft® Windows™
D) Corel® Presentations™ and Microsoft® Outlook™
The correct answer is: B

Microsoft® PowerPoint ™ and Corel® Presentations™ are two of the

most popular multimedia presentation software packages. When
connected to a computer video projector, these software packages assist
instructors with their presentations by providing colorful graphics and
pictures along with video and audio clips and animations.
When teaching a class, body language is important. Regarding attire,
which of the following is most appropriate?
A) Dress the same way as the majority of the students so that you "fit-
in" with the students. If your students are dressed very casually, then
you should be dressed very casually.
B) Dress "one notch better" than your students. If your students are
dressed very causally, then you should dress business casual - if your
students are dressed business casual, then you should wear a tie (man)
or a suit (woman), etc.
C) Dress formally for all training.
D) Dress is completely irrelevant when leading a training class.
The correct answer is: B
Responsibility for safety at the operational level rests with:
A) General manager
B) Safety director
C) Facilities department
D) Line supervisor

The correct answer is: D

Line supervisors are responsible for safety. Safety is the same as other
aspects of a managers job.
In the study of traditional management the term "Span of Control" is
used to indicate:
A) The control of many by one
B) The number of personnel under one supervisor
C) The number of supervisors that should be in control
D) The number of supervisors actually in control
The correct answer is: B

Span of Control is used to indicate that one supervisor should not be

charged with too many personnel to supervise. The intent is to insure the
boss has time enough to perform the multitude of duties required of a
supervisor while still having time to attend to the needs of his people.
A statement by a manufacturer or dealer, either in writing or orally, that a
product is suitable for a specific purpose, will perform in a specific way,
or contains specific safeguards is known as:
A) Warranty
B) Implied warranty
C) Expressed warranty
D) Res ipsa loquitur
The correct answer is: C

The concept of "Expressed Warranty" is a statement that implies that a

product will perform in some manner or in a specific way.
When an injured person's care for his own safety was less than that
reasonable for a prudent person under existing conditions, he is
considered negligent and the defendant will not be held liable. This
principle is known as:
A) Privity
B) Contributory negligence
C) Joint tort
D) Assumption of risk
The correct answer is: B

The principle above describes "Contributory Negligence". The injured

person contributed to the injury because he took less than reasonable
care.
The growing concept that a manufacturer of a product is liable for
injuries due to defects, without a necessity for a plaintiff to show
negligence or fault is known as:
A) Care
B) Liability
C) Strict liability
D) Tort
The correct answer is: C

The concept that a manufacturer is liable for injuries due to defects or

use of its products regardless of negligence is "Strict Liability".
The implication by a manufacturer or dealer, that the product is suitable
for a specific purpose by: (1) placing it on sale for that purpose, (2)
advertising that it will satisfy that purpose, or (3) indicating in operating
instructions that it will accomplish that purpose is best described by
which term?
A) Intended use
B) Implied warranty
C) Expressed warranty
D) Warranty
The correct answer is: B

Implied Warranty is an implication by the manufacturer or dealer that a

product is suitable for a particular purpose, will satisfy that purpose, or
will accomplish that purpose.
An express warranty from a manufacturer, implies or states:
A) That a product is suitable for a specific use
B) That a product will perform in a specific manner
C) That you can return the product within 30 days
D) That a product will perform for at least 30 days
The correct answer is: B

An express warranty is a written or oral statement that a product will

perform in a specific manner.
Implied warranty involves:
A) Statement
B) Implication
C) Negligence
D) Tort
The correct answer is: B

An implied warranty revolves around the implications of a

manufacturer or dealer that a product is suitable.
A quantitative risk analysis (QRA) was performed on a single process. The
results of the analysis indicate that the process will fail, causing catastrophic
consequences once every 10,000 years. Your plant has seven of these processes
operating at all times, and your company has 11 other plants similar to this one
around the country. Also, your company has three other competitors with
similar numbers of facilities with very similar processes. Assuming that the
results of the QRA can be extrapolated to the other similar processes
throughout the industry, how often should you expect a catastrophic accident
in your company's industry related to this process?
A) About once every 30 years
B) About once every 80 years
C) About once every 150 years
D) About once every 180 years
The correct answer is: A
The results of the QRA are associated with a single process. You company has
84 such processes (12 facilities * 7 processes/facility). Your company's
competitors bring another 252 such processes (84 processes * 3). This is a total
of 336 such processes in the industry. That means we can expect 336
catastrophic accidents in 10,000 years, or about one accident every 30 years.
An engineering firm has performed a quantitative analysis on the
reliability of your company's product. You are reviewing the analysis and
see that the engineering company has determined that there are two key
components contributing to failures of the product. The product fails
when either Component A or Component B fails. Component A has a
failure probability of 0.105 and Component B has a failure probability of
0.080. What is the overall probability of failure of your company's
product?
A) 0.008
B) 0.105
C) 0.177
D) 0.185
The correct answer is: C

When the failures are additive (as in this OR logic), the formula to
determine the failure probability is PA + PB - (PA * PB). In this case, the
failure probability is 0.105 + 0.08 - (0.105 * 0.08) = 0.1766
A technique which is a bottom-up, deductive technique that explores
different responses to "challenges" is called:
A) Event tree analysis
B) Fault tree analysis
C) Logic analysis
D) Bottom-up assessment
The correct answer is: A

Event tree analysis is a technique which is a bottom-up, deductive

technique that explores different responses to "challenges."
The specific PHA (process hazard analysis) technique that brings
together a multi-disciplinary team, usually five to seven people, to
brainstorm and identify the consequences of deviations from design
intent for various operations and uses specific guide words is called:
A) Process Hazard Analysis
B) Preliminary Hazard Analysis
C) HAZOP Analysis
D) HAZWOPER Analysis
The correct answer is: C

The Hazard and Operability Study or Analysis applies the use of specific
guide words, such as: NO, MORE, LESS, REVERSE etc., which are
applied to parameters like: Flow, Pressure, and Temperature to
systematically identify hazards throughout the process.
The technique that selects the undesired outcome and all possible modes
of happenings is the:
A) Failure modes effects analysis
B) Fault tree analysis
C) Fault hazard analysis
D) THERP
The correct answer is: B

In the fault tree method, an undesired event is selected and all possible
happenings that can contribute to the event are diagrammed in the form
of a tree. The branches of the tree are continued until independent events
are reached. Probabilities are determined for the independent events and
after simplifying the tree, both the probability of the undesired event and
the most likely chain of events leading up to it can be computed.
Under what doctrine does one not need to prove negligence on the part
of the manufacturer, but only that an injury was attributed to a defect or
to an unreasonably dangerous condition?
A) Implied consent
B) Implied warranty
C) Negligence
D) Strict liability

The correct answer is: D

The Strict liability doctrine holds that the seller is liable for any and all
defective or hazardous products.
CERCLA stands for:

A) Comprehensive Environmental Remediation, Compensation

Limitation Act
B) Code of Environmental Remediation, Conservation, and Liability Act
C) Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and
Liability Act
D) Community Emergency Response, Compensation, and Liability Act
The correct answer is: C

CERCLA stands for the Comprehensive Environmental Response,

Compensation, and Liability Act.
In system safety you would use which gate to connect the causitive
agents "exothermic reaction"/"outside source" to the end product "heat".
A) "AND"
B) "OR"
C) Either
D) Neither

The correct answer is: B

You would utilize an "OR" gate because either an "exothermic reaction"

OR "outside source" will cause heat.
This analysis considers initiating events, their consequences through
consideration of system failure and success alternatives. It is called:
A) Event Tree Analysis
B) Fault Tree Analysis
C) Cause Consequence Analysis
D) Event/Causal Analysis
The correct answer is: A

The Event Tree Analysis is an analytical tool that can be used to

organize, characterize, and quantify accidents in a methodical order;
considering success and failure states.
In assessing risk, the hazard possibility of occurrence is assigned
_________ categories.
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 8
The correct answer is: B

There are five categories associated with probability of occurrence. They

are:

5 - Frequent (likely to occur frequently)

4 - Probable (will occur several times in life of item)
3 - Occasional (likely to occur during life of item)
2 - Remote (unlikely, but possible to occur during life of item)
1 - Improbable (so unlikely it can be assumed a hazard will not be
experienced).
An event tree analysis is best defined as:
A) A method for identifying various possible outcomes
B) A system of numerical analysis
C) A method utilizing true and false options
D) A system of statistical analysis

The correct answer is: A

An event tree analysis is a logic method that breaks down the possible
outcomes of a single event.
What is a bathtub curve?
A) New product innovation cycle
B) Bathtub outline
C) Typical failure rate analyses for products
D) Atypical failure rate
The correct answer is: C

The Bathtub curve traces the typical failure rate of a product, over time.
An example of an inductive analysis technique would be:
A) Fault tree
B) Logic tree
C) FMECA
D) Event tree
The correct answer is: C

FMECA (bottom up analysis) is an example of an inductive analysis.

Which of the following is not an element of risk assessment?
A) Hazard Identification
B) Exposure Assessment
C) Risk Communication
D) Dose-Response Assessment
The correct answer is: C

Risk communication is the process of informing the public in an

understandable and effective manner of the potential harm from a given
exposure situation and/or particular agent. Hazard identification, dose-
response assessment, and exposure assessment are all elements of risk
assessment as outlined by NAS (National Academy of Sciences).
Common law requires employers to:
A) Provide a workplace free of hazards
B) Compensate employees for workplace injuries
C) Provide a workplace that is reasonably safe
D) Applies to employees NOT employers
The correct answer is: C

Common law only requires the employer to provide a workplace that is

reasonably safe.
What is the most important factor in accident prevention?
A) Written program
B) Training
C) Safety Engineers
D) Management support
The correct answer is: D

The most critical element of any accident prevention program is

management support. Without this support the program cannot succeed.
A supervisor's job responsibilities include the 3-E's principles. Which of
the following would not be included under the 3-E's?
A) Make sure employees comply with safety rules and procedures
B) Instruct employees in how to work safely
C) Establish a safety program
D) Determine ways for eliminating injury/illness potential out of the
job.
The correct answer is: C

The supervisor's job involves:

ENGINEERING - to determine the most effective way of doing the job
and designing the injury/illness potential out of the job.
EDUCATION - to instruct the employee in the right method and
through training improve job skill, knowledge and behavior.
ENFORCEMENT - to make sure the employee follows the prescribed
work practice and complies with safety rules and procedures.
In what ways should safety be managed differently from other company
functions?
A) Cannot set goals
B) Personal contacts are more important
C) Budget support is not there
D) Safety is not managed differently
The correct answer is: D

The management of a safety program should not differ from any other
program -- set goals and plan, organize and control to achieve them. The
more the safety program's goals and management style are understood
the more support there will be for the program.
A standard applying to a particular industry with specifications that
relate to individual operations is termed a:

A) Design Standard
B) Performance Standard
C) Vertical Standard
D) Horizontal Standard
The correct answer is: C

A Vertical Standard pertains only to a particular industry i.e. OSHA

requirements for pulp, paper and paperboard mills.
System Safety is defined as:
A) Method to detect and eliminate potential hazards
B) An engineering method
C) Analysis of major components
D) Statistical analysis of the safety system
The correct answer is: A

Systems Safety is the utilization of systematic scientific engineering and

management principles to identify and minimize potential hazards.
As manager of the safety and health function, you are privy to all the
cost data that relate to insurance, medical, wages and operations. How
would you determine the total cost of an injury or illness?
A) Sum the insured and non-insured costs
B) Combine insurance cost for medical and compensation paid to
claimant
C) Determine the direct cost and multiply it by four
D) Determine the direct cost and add 25%
The correct answer is: A

Accident costs include both those that are insured and those that are not
insured. The insured include medical and compensation costs paid to the
claimant by the insurance company. The non insured include time lost
by others who observed or rendered assistance at the time of the
accident, time lost to investigate the accident, time to train a
replacement, cost for damaged materials, etc.
Risk is usually expressed as the frequency of an event multiplied by the
consequence of the event. Usually, consequence is expressed in units of
currency (e.g., dollars) to permit comparison of risk across different
areas. Which of the following scenarios has the higher annual risk?

Scenario A: Minor employee injuries occur about twice per month and
cost the company about $3,750 in lost work productivity and $1,800 in
medical and insurance compensation.

Scenario B: Catastrophic accidents occur about once every 30 years and

cost the company about $1,500,000 in lost work productivity and
equipment damage, and $2,500,000 in legal fees and other
compensation.
A) Scenario A has the higher risk
B) Scenario B has the higher risk
C) Scenarios A and B both have about the same risk
D) One cannot place a risk value on human suffering
The correct answer is: C
Suppose a company operating as a machine shop doing contract jobs for their
customers is in worker's compensation Class 3652. In the company's current state, this
worker's compensation Class has a manual rate of $10.50. The company employs 55
people and the average salary per person is $35,000. The company has an adequate
safety program and has a current experience modification factor on workers'
compensation insurance of 1.1. Next year, it will drop to 0.90. What is the firm's
estimated worker's compensation premium for the next year?
A) $181,912.50
B) $222,337.50
C) $17,500
D) $21,388.89
The correct answer is: A

Estimated premium is calculated in this case by determining the estimated payroll,

dividing the estimated payroll by $100 (since rates are based on $100 of payroll),
multiplying that number by the rate for machine shops and the experience modifier for
the new year.
Estimated Premium = [(# Emp * Avg Sal / Empl) / $100] * Manual Rate * Experience
Modifier
EP = [(55 * $35,000) / $100] * $10.50 * 0.90
EP = 19,250 * $10.50 * 0.90
EP = $181,912.50
In a group of 1000 adults, 630 are women. What is the probability that a
person chosen at random from the group will be a man?
A) 0.185
B) 0.370
C) 0.555
D) 0.740
The correct answer is: B

If 630 people out of the 1000 are women, 1000 - 630 = 370 men. The
probability of choosing a man is 370/1000.
What is the probability that an even number will come up when a single
die is thrown?
A) 1
B) 1/2
C) 1/3
D) 1/6
The correct answer is: B

Of the 6 possible numbers on each face of the die, three are even (2,4,6).
The probability is 3/6 or l/2.
From a deck of 52 cards, one card is drawn at random. What is the
probability that the random card is either a ten or a jack?
A) 1/13
B) 2/13
C) 1/26
D) 1/52
The correct answer is: B

The probability of drawing a ten = 4/52 = l/13.

The probability of drawing a jack is 4/52 = l/13.
The probability of either a ten or a jack is l/13 + l/13 = 2/13.
A door hinge fails 4 times out of 1,000,000 operations. What is the
failure rate?
A) 4 x 10-7
B) 4 x 10-9
C) 4 x 10-6
D) 4 x 10-5
The correct answer is: C

Failure Rate = 4 failures / 1,000,000 attempts

= 4 x 10-6
A boiler has three valves in series that have failure rates of 1 x 10-3, 2 x
10-6 and 4 x 10-8. What is the overall failure rate of the system?
A) 8 x 10 -17
B) 1 x 10-17
C) 4 x 10-17
D) 1 x 10-3
The correct answer is: D

The valves in series denote addition of failure rates:

(1 x 10-3)+(2 x 10-6)+(4 x 10-8)= 1 x 10-3.
An airplane landing gear has 4 components in parallel with failure rates
of 1 x 10-5, 1 x 10-8, 1 x 10-8, and 1 x 10-9 respectively. What is the
approximate failure rate?
A) 1 x 10-37
B) 1 x 10-30
C) 1 x 10-8
D) 3 x 10-8
The correct answer is: B

Given parallel construction, multiplication of failure rates is called for.

(1x10-5)(1x10-8)(1x10-8) (1x10-9)=1x10-30
There are 10 plants in a manufacturing company. Four (4) are to be
picked at random to send a representative to a safety planning meeting.
How many different combinations of plant representation are possible
at the meeting?
A) 180
B) 200
C) 210
D) 250

The correct answer is: C

Use the formula: C(n,r) = n! / r! (n-r)!

C(n,r) = 10! / 4! (10-4)!

= 3628800 / 4! * 6!
= 3628800 / 24 * 720
= 3628800 / 17280
= 210
In probability, if order is important a permutation is used. What is the
formula for a permutation?
A) N! / (N-R)!
B) N! / R! (N-R)!
C) R! / (R-N)!
D) R! / N! (R-N)!
The correct answer is: A

The formula for a permutation is:

N! / (N-R)!
When measuring the performance of the safety program, lagging
indicators measure historical results and show the effectiveness of loss
prevention measures applied in the past. What are leading indicators?
A) Trends that predict future loss performance
B) Measures that lead the performance measure analyst to pursue other
lagging indicators
C) Measures that provide the context for the lagging indicators
D) There is no such thing as a leading indicator
The correct answer is: A

Leading indicators are performance measures that show trends of

activities that could ultimately result in losses. For example, a leading
indicator could be the number of unsafe work practices observed in a
warehouse during the month. Though none of the unsafe work practices
resulted in a loss (a lagging indicator of loss prevention performance),
action could still be taken from the leading indicator trend to reduce
losses later.
Workers' Compensation insurance premiums are determined by three
rating systems namely, retrospective rating, experience rating and:
A) Modification factor
B) Manual (or state) rating
C) Loss exposure rating
D) Prospective experience rating
The correct answer is: B

The first step in the rate making process is to determine a basis for
potential loss. With Workers' Compensation, it is obtained from the
payroll i.e. the number of employees, the number of hours worked and
pay rate. Different types of work entail various degrees of hazard e.g. an
office worker versus machine operator and the establishment of job
classifications. Like industries have similar or matching classifications.
Manual rates are governed by the experience of the industry, reported
annually by insurance carriers.
The Modified Rate is defined as:
A) Modified Rate = Manual Rate * Number of Employees
B) Modified Rate = Manual Rate * Manual Premium
C) Modified Rate = Manual Rate * Experience Modification/ 100
D) Modified Rate = Manual Rate * Experience Modification

The correct answer is: D

Modified Rate = Manual Rate * Experience Modification. A good

experience modification will decrease premiums and improve loss
ratios.
The National Electrical Code (NEC) utilizes a Class I, II, III etc. hazard identification system. Class II
hazards involve:

A)
Flammable liquids

B)
Dusts

C)
Fibers
It is generally accepted that accidents:

A)
Are all preventable

B)
Only 50% are preventable

C)
Are unexpected events that can not be controlled

D)
A procedure to make a job safe by indentifying hazards in each step of the job and developing
measures to counteract those hazards is:

A)
Time and Motion

B)
Fault Tree

C)
Job Safety Analysis
Workers' Compensation represents a significant business expense for employers. To a large
extent, employers can influence their cost of this coverage by:

A)
Obtaining a low rate prospective experience rating plan

B)
Improving their experience modification rate

C)
Obtaining a low rate retrospective experience rating plan
Workers' Compensation is determined by:

A)
Federal law

B)
Casualty insurance companies

C)
State law

D)
A statement by a manufacturer or dealer, either in writing or orally, that a product is suitable for
a specific purpose, will perform in a specific way, or contains specific safeguards is known as:

A)
Warranty

B)
Implied warranty

C)
Expressed warranty
The growing concept that a manufacturer of a product is liable for injuries due to defects,
without a necessity for a plaintiff to show negligence or fault is known as:

A)
Care

B)
Liability

C)
Strict liability
The implication by a manufacturer or dealer, that the product is suitable for a specific purpose
by: (1) placing it on sale for that purpose, (2) advertising that it will satisfy that purpose, or (3)
indicating in operating instructions that it will accomplish that purpose is best described by
which term?

A)
Intended use

B)
Implied warranty

C)
Under Worker's Compensation Laws:

A)
Employee has to prove negligence by the employer

B)
Amount of compensation is decided by the employee and employer under arbitration

C)
Employer assumes responsibility and compensation for accidents, regardless of fault

D)
An express warranty from a manufacturer, implies or states:

A)
That a product is suitable for a specific use

B)
That a product will perform in a specific manner

C)
That you can return the product within 30 days

D)
The specific PHA (process hazard analysis) technique that brings together a multi-disciplinary
team, usually five to seven people, to brainstorm and identify the consequences of deviations
from design intent for various operations and uses specific guide words is called:

A)
Process Hazard Analysis

B)
Preliminary Hazard Analysis

C)
HAZOP Analysis
A system safety technique that starts with an undesired event and an analysis of how that event
can occur is called:

A)
Fault tree analysis

B)
Boolean algebra

C)
Preliminary hazard analysis
An "AND" gate implies:

A)
Division

B)
Addition

C)
Multiplication

D)
Given the fact that the probabilities of "heat", "fuel", and "oxygen" are each 1 x 10-2, what is the
overall probability of a fire?

A)
1 x 106

B)
1 x 10-6

C)
1 x 10-2
The responsibility for a defective product as it moves from the manufacturer to the customer
rests with the __________.

A)
Manufacturer

B)
Distributor

C)
Wholesaler
"Due Diligence" is commonly used to describe evaluation of:

A)
Air pollution control equipment

B)
Business property transactions

C)
Commercial hazardous waste management facilities prior to waste shipments

D)
CERCLA stands for:

A)
Comprehensive Environmental Remediation, Compensation Limitation Act

B)
Code of Environmental Remediation, Conservation, and Liability Act

C)
Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act

D)
If A = {5,6} and B = {1,2,3,5}, then A + B equals:

A)
0

B)
{5}

C)
{1,2,3,5,6}

D)
In assessing risk, the hazard possibility of occurrence is assigned _________ categories.

A)
4

B)
5

C)
6

D)
A simple definition for hazard, as it applies to system safety is:

A)
A source of danger

B)
Risk, peril, or jeopardy

C)
A potential to do harm

D)
What is a bathtub curve?

A)
New product innovation cycle

B)
Bathtub outline

C)
Typical failure rate analyses for products

D)
In doing a Risk Assessment for your hazard analysis, what is the most appropriate definition of
risk?

A)
Hazard severity X hazard probability

B)
Psychometric hazard perception

C)
Anthropologic perception of hazard
An example of an inductive analysis technique would be:

A)
Fault tree

B)
Logic tree

C)
FMECA

D)
An example of a deductive analysis technique would be:

A)
Fault tree

B)
JSA

C)
FMEA

D)
What is the most important factor in accident prevention?

A)
Written program

B)
Training

C)
Safety Engineers

D)
A safety program begins by:

A)
Developing a policy statement

B)
Assuring compliance with all OSHA standards

C)
Soliciting support of the Facilities Department

D)
One of the current principles of safety management states the key to effective line safety
performance is having management procedures that:

A)
Fix accountability for accidents

B)
Identify and correct unsafe acts and or conditions

C)
Improve worker attitude through education and training
Question Number: 458
SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEMS :Management Processes

Heinrich's ratio of no injury accidents to minor injuries to major injuries is:

A)
100-20-1

B)
200-30-10

C)
300-29-1
What type of emergencies would you expect to find at a TSD site?

A)
Those involving hazardous wastes

B)
Those involving trash or rubbish

C)
Electrical shock emergencies

D)
Occupational accidents usually result from:

A)
Physical limitations

B)
Personality differences

C)
Combination of factors

D)
The primary reason for conducting an accident investigation is to:

A)
Reduce the cost for Workers' Compensation

B)
Find and fix the blame

C)
Identify the cause and take actions to prevent recurrence

D)
Which of the following is not an accident investigation technique?

A)
STEP

B)
MORT

C)
RCA

D)
A HAZMAT team is:

A)
A typical fire brigade

B)
An organized group of employees, who are expected to handle and control leaks or spills of
hazardous substances

C)
An emergency medical surveillance team
A worker's hand has been exposed to liquid nitrogen. What is the correct first aid?

A)
Immerse hand in ice water

B)
Immerse hand in warm water

C)
Immerse hand in hot water

D)
The following are types of glove materials EXCEPT:

A)
Nitrile

B)
Neoprene

C)
PVC

D)
The first consideration when you are the first person approaching an active spill is:

A)
Stop the spill

B)
Contain the spill

C)
Move the drum

D)
The NFPA 704 diamond has four classes of materials by position and color on the diamond. The
classes are:

A)
Health hazard, flammability, reactivity, and specific hazards

B)
Toxicity, ignitability, corrosivity, and reactivity

C)
Explosivity, health, flammability, and specific hazards
The main reason for safety inspections is to:

A)
Identify unsafe acts

B)
Determine compliance with OSHA standards

C)
Prepare for insurance audits

D)
What is the first thing to do when a water sample comes into a lab?

A)
Smell it

B)
Take pH

C)
Log it in

D)
DOMAIN 3: ERGONOMICS 169
questions
• Human Factors 116
• Measurement & Monitoring 19
• Controls 34
In 1931, Heinrich significantly changed the thinking of safety professionals. He:

A)
Shifted emphasis from conditions to actions

B)
Suggested the use of JSA to analyze accidents

C)
Applied Forensic Science to accident analysis

D)
After establishing the required management systems, to become formally registered as
compliant with ISO-9000 or ISO-14000 standards, a company must:

A)
Certify in writing to the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) that the company
complies with the relevant standards.

B)
Hire an ISO-certified third-party registrar to perform an external audit of the company's facilities
at which point the third-party registrar will certify to the ISO that the company complies with the
relevant standards (if the company is compliant).

C)
Question Number: 529
SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEMS :Project Management

A Gantt Chart is used in manufacturing to:

A)
Show product development

B)
Schedule

C)
Indicate competitor's products
Responsibility for safety in day to day operations belongs to:

A)
The assigned safety engineer

B)
Top management

C)
The line supervisor

D)
A good company safety policy will include all of the following except:

A)
Responsibility

B)
Accountability

C)
Authority

D)
What is the purpose of organizations such as Underwriters' Laboratories (UL) and Factory Mutual
(FM)?

A)
To perform independent product safety evaluations on products sold to consumers

B)
To certify that products sold to consumers meet a minimum level of product safety

C)
To certify that safety-related products will perform as expected
The American National Standards Institute (ANSI) is:

A)
The United States Government representative to international boards of inquiry and regulation

B)
A United States non-profit organization

C)
A United States industry advocate