Which instruments is used to measure

humidity of the atmosphere continuously?

a. Barograph
b. Thermograph
c. Hydrograph
d. Thermo-hydrograph
Entrance losses between tank and pipe or
losses through elbows, fittings and valves
are generally expresses as a functions of:

a. Kinetic energy
b. Pipe diameter
c. Friction factor
d. Volume flow rate
The air that contains no water vapor is
called:

a. Zero air
b. Saturated air
c. Dry air
d. Humid air
In psychrometric chart, the constant-
enthalpy lines coincide with constant-
temperature lines at temperature

a. Above 50˚C
b. Below 40 ˚C
c. Below 50 ˚C
d. Above 10 ˚C
The amount of moisture in air depends on
its

a. pressure
b. volume
c. temperature
d. humidity
The deep body temperature of healthy
person is maintained constant at

a. 27 deg C
b. 37 deg C
c. 47 deg C
d. 48 deg C
Air motion also plays important role in

a. Surroundings
b. cooling
c. Human comfort
d. None of these
During simple heating and cooling process
has a ___________ humidity ratio.

a. increasing
b. decreasing
c. constant
d. None of these
The ___________ follows a line of constant
wet-bulb temperature on the
psychrometric chart.

a. Evaporative cooling process

b. Condensive cooling process
c. Direct cooling process
d. None of these
A vapor which is not about to condense is
called a

a. Mixture of vapor and liquid

b. Critical vapor
c. Superheated vapor
d. None of these
Passing from the solid phase directly into
vapor phase is called

a. condensation
b. fusion
c. sublimation
d. None of these
Robert Boyle observed during his
experiments with a vacuum chamber that
the pressure of gases is inversely
proportional to their

a. temperature
b. pressure
c. volume
d. None of these
____________ is energy in transition.

a. Heat
b. Work
c. Power
d. None of these
Is the mode of energy transfer between a
solid surface and the adjacent liquid or gas
which is in motion, and it involves combine
effects of conduction and fluid motion.

a. conduction
b. convection
c. Radiation
d. None of these
Radiation is usually considered as

a. Surface phenomenon
b. Surface interaction
c. Surface corrossion
d. None of these
Work is ________ between the system and
the surroundings.

a. Work interaction
b. Energy interaction
c. Heat interaction
d. None of these
Is a process during which the system
remains in equilibrium at all times.

a. Quasi-equilibrium
b. Static equilibrium
c. Dynamic equilibrium
d. None of these
In the absence of any work interactions
between a system and its surroundings,
the amount of net heat transfer is equal

a. To the change in total energy of a

closed system
b. To heat and work
c. Energy interactions
d. None of these
The constant volume and constant
pressure specific heats are identical for

a. Compressible substance
b. Incompressible substance
c. Compressible gas
d. None of these
The velocity of fluid is zero at the wall and
maximum at the center because of the

a. Velocity effect
b. Viscous effect
c. Temperature effect
d. None of these
For steady flow devices, the volume of the
control volume

a. increase
b. decrease
c. constant
d. None of these
The work done in a turbine is __________
since it is done by the fluid.

a. positive
b. negative
c. zero
d. None of these
Reheating process in brayton cycle, the
turbine work will

a. increase
b. Decrease
c. Remains the same
d. None of these
Which of the following is the chemical
formula of Ethanol?

a. C7H16
b. C2H6O
c. C7H8
d. C6H12
Which of the following is the chemical
formula of Heptane?

a. C7H16
b. C2H6O
c. C7H8
d. C6H12
Which of the following is the chemical
formula of Hexene?

a. C7H16
b. C2H6O
c. C7H8
d. C6H12
Which of the following is the chemical
formula of Toluene?

a. C7H16
b. C2H6O
c. C7H8
d. C6H12
As the air passes through a nozzle, which
of the following will increase?

a. temperature
b. enthalpy
c. Internal energy
d. Mach number
As the air passes through a diffuser, which
of the following will decrease?

a. temperature
b. enthalpy
c. Internal energy
d. Mach number
As the air passes through a nozzle, which
of the following will decrease?

a. entropy
b. velocity
c. Internal energy
d. Mach number
As the air passes through a diffuser, which
of the following will increase?

a. density
b. entropy
c. Mach number
d. velocity
As the air passes through a diffuser, which
of the following will not be affected?

a. density
b. entropy
c. Mach number
d. velocity
After passing through a convergent-
divergent nozzle, the temperature of air
will:

a. increase
b. decrease
c. Remains the same
d. None of these
After passing through a convergent-
divergent nozzle, the density of air will:

a. increase
b. decrease
c. Remains the same
d. None of these
After passing through a convergent-
divergent nozzle, the mach number of air
will:

a. increase
b. decrease
c. Remains the same
d. None of these
By increasing the temperature source of
Carnot cycle, which of the following will not
be affected?

a. efficiency
b. work
c. Heat added
d. Heat rejected
By decreasing the temperature sink of
Carnot Cycle, which of the following will
not be affected?

a. efficiency
b. work
c. Heat added
d. Heat rejected
By superheating the refrigerant in vapor
compression cycle with useful cooling,
which of the following will increase? (use
per unit mass analysis)

a. Condenser pressure
b. Evaporator pressure
c. Quality after expansion
d. Heat rejected from condenser
By superheating the refrigerant in vapor
compression cycle with useful cooling,
which of the following will decrease? (use
per unit mass analysis)

a. Refrigerating effect
b. COP
c. Compressor power
d. Mass flow rate
By superheating the refrigerant in vapor
compression cycle without useful cooling,
which of the following will decrease?

a. Heat rejected
b. COP
c. Compressor Power
d. Mass flow rate
By superheating the refrigerant in vapor
compression cycle without useful cooling,
which of the following will not be affected?
(use per unit mass analysis)

a. Refrigerating effect
b. COP
c. Compressor power
d. Mass flow rate
By sub-cooling the refrigerant in vapor
compression cycle at condenser exit, which
of the following will increase? (use per unit
mass analysis)

a. Refrigerating effect
b. Specific volume at suction
c. Compressor power
d. Mass flow rate
By sub-cooling the refrigerant in vapor
compression cycle at condenser exit, which
of the following will decrease? (use per unit
mass analysis)

a. Coefficient of performance
b. Heat rejected from condenser
c. Refrigerating effect
d. Mass flow rate
By increasing the vaporizing temperature
in vapor compression cycle, which of the
following will increase? (use per unit mass
analysis)

a. Mass flow rate

b. COP
c. Specific volume at suction
d. Compressor work
By increasing the vaporizing temperature
in vapor compression cycle, which of the
following will decrease? (use per unit mass
analysis)

a. Refrigerating effect
b. COP
c. Evaporator temperature
d. Temperature difference between
evaporator and compressor
By increasing the condenser pressure in
vapor compression cycle, which of the
following will increase? (use per unit mass
analysis)

a. Refrigerating effect
b. COP
c. Specific volume at suction
d. Compressor work
By increasing the condenser pressure in
vapor compression cycle, which of the
following will decrease? (use per unit mass
analysis)

a. Moisture content after expansion

b. Compressor power
c. Heat rejected from condenser
d. Mass flow rate
If the pressure drop in the condenser
increases in a vapor compression cycle,
which of the following will increase? (use
per unit mass analysis)

a. Mass flow rate

b. Compressor power
c. Heat rejected in the condenser
d. Specific volume at suction
If the pressure drop in the condenser
increases in a vapor compression cycle,
which of the following will decrease? (use
per unit mass analysis)

a. Refrigerating effect
b. Mass flow rate
c. Heat rejected in the condenser
d. Compressor work
If the pressure drop in the condenser
increases in a vapor compression cycle,
which of the following will not be affected?
(use per unit mass analysis)

a. Compressor power
b. Mass flow rate
c. Heat rejected in the condenser
d. COP
If the pressure drop in the evaporator
increases in a vapor compression cycle,
which of the following will increase? (use
per unit mass analysis)

a. Refrigerating effect
b. Vaporizing temperature
c. Heat rejected in the condenser
d. COP
If the pressure drop in the evaporator
increases in a vapor compression cycle,
which of the following will decrease? (use
per unit mass analysis)

a. Specific volume at suction

b. Compressor power
c. Heat rejected in the condenser
d. COP
By lowering the condenser pressure in
Rankine cycle, which of the following will
decrease? (use per unit mass analysis)

a. Pump work
b. Turbine work
c. Heat rejected
d. Cycle efficiency
By increasing the Boiler pressure in
Rankine cycle, which of the following will
decrease? (use per unit mass analysis)

a. Heat rejected
b. Pump work
c. Cycle efficiency
d. Moisture content
By superheating the steam to a higher
temperature in Rankine cycle, which of the
following will decrease? (use per unit mass
analysis)

a. Moisture content at the turbine exhaust

b. Turbine work
c. Heat added
d. Heat rejected
By superheating the steam to a higher
temperature in Rankine cycle, which of the
following will increase? (use per unit mass
analysis)

a. Moisture content at the turbine exhaust

b. Pump work
c. Condenser pressure
d. Cycle efficiency
By superheating the steam to a higher
temperature in Rankine cycle, which of the
following will increase? (use per unit mass
analysis)

a. Moisture content at the turbine exhaust

b. Pump work
c. Condenser pressure
d. Cycle efficiency
By reheating the steam before entering the
second stage in Rankine cycle, which of
the following will decrease?

a. Turbine work
b. Moisture content after expansion
c. Heat added
d. Heat rejected
When Rankine cycle is modified with
regeneration, which of the following will
increase?

a. Turbine work
b. Heat added
c. Heat rejected
d. Cycle efficiency
Is the combination of base load and
peaking load.

a. Rated load
b. Intermmediate load
c. Combine load
d. Over-all load
Sum of the maximum demand over the
simultaneous maximum demand.

a. Use factor
b. Capacity factor
c. Demand factor
d. Diversity factor
Regenerative with feed heating cycle with
infinite number of feedwater heaters thus
efficiency is equal to:

a. Otto cycle
b. Stirling cycle
c. Erricson cycle
d. Carnot cycle
A type of turbine used in desalination of
sea water.

a. Back pressure turbine

b. Passout turbine
c. Peaking turbine
d. Reaction turbine
States that when conductor and a
magnetic field move relatively to each
other, an electric voltage is induced in the
conductor.

a. Maxwell’s law
b. Kirchoff’s law
c. Faraday’s law
d. Newton’s law
Transfers heat directly to electrical energy
by utilizing thermoionic emissions.

a. Thermoionic motor
b. Thermoionic generator
c. Thermoionic convertor
d. Thermoionic cell
Is the largest group of coal containing 46-
86% of fixed carbon and 20 to 40% volatile
matter.

a. anthracite
b. Sub anthracite
c. Bituminous
d. Sub-bituminous
When 1 gram of coal is subjected to a
temperature of about 105C for a period of
1 hour, the loss in weight of the sample
gives the:

a. Volatile matter and moisture

b. ash
c. Fixed carbon
d. Moisture content
When 1 gram of sample coal is placed in a
crucible and heated 950oC and maintained
at that temperature for 7 minutes, there is
a loss in weight due to elimination of:

a. Volatile matter and moisture

b. ash
c. Fixed carbon
d. Moisture content
Consist of hydrogen and certain hydrogen
carbon compounds which can be removed
from coal by heating.

a. Moisture content
b. Product of combustion
c. ash
d. Volatile matter
By heating 1 gram of coal in an uncovered
crucible until the coal is completely
burned, the _______ will formed.

a. Volatile matter and moisture

b. ash
c. Fixed carbon
d. Moisture content
Caking coal are used to produce coke by
heating in a coke oven in the absence of
___ with volatile matter driven off.

a. air
b. Oil
c. oxygen
c. nitrogen
Gindability of standard coal is:

a. 80
b. 90
c. 100
d. 110
Major constituent of all natural gases is:

a. ethane
b. methane
c. propane
d. cethane
Two types of fans are:

a. Centrifugal and axial

b. Tangential and rotary
c. Reciprocating and axial
d. Centrifugal and rotary
Enthalpy of substance at specified state
due to chemical composition.

a. Enthalpy of reaction
b. Enthalpy of combustion
c. Enthalphy of formation
d. Enthalpy of product
A type of boiler used for super critical
pressure operation:

a. La Mont boiler
b. Once-through circulation boiler
c. Force Circulation boiler
d. Natural circulation boiler
Economizer in a water tube boiler is heated
by:

a. Electric furnace
b. Electric current
c. Incoming flue gas
d. Outgoing flue gas
Receives heat partly by convection and
partly by radiation.

a. Radiant superheater
b. Desuperheater
c. Convective Superheater
d. Pendant superheater
Regenerative superheater is a storage type
of heat exchangers have an energy
storage medium called:

a. matrix
b. regenerator
c. boiler
d. recuperator
Stirling cycle uses a _______ as working
fluids.

a. Incompressible gas
b. Incompressible fluids
c. Compressible refrigerant
d. Compressible fluids
In stirling process, the heat is added
during

a. Isobaric process
b. Isentropic process
c. Isothermal process
d. Heat process
Brayton cycle is also known as:

a. Carnot cycle
b. Joule cycle
c. Diesel cycle
d. Rankine cycle
Is applied to propulsion of vehicles
because of certain practical
characteristics.

a. Diesel cycle
b. Otto cycle
c. Carnot cycle
d. Brayton cycle
Heat exchangers typically involve:

a. No work interactions
b. No heat interactions
c. No energy interactions
d. None of these
A device that is used to convert the heat
to work is called:

a. adiabatier
b. regenerator
c. Heat engines
d. None of these
The objective of a heat pump is to
maintain a heated space at:

a. Low temperature
b. High temperature
c. Medium temperature
d. None of these
A process is called _____________ if no
irreversibilities occur outside the system
boundaries during the process.

a. Externally reversible
b. Internally reversible
c. reversible
d. None of these
An energy interaction which is not
accompanied by entropy transfer is

a. energy
b. heat
c. work
d. None of these
The only devices where the changes in
kinetic energy are significant are the

a. compressor
b. pumps
c. Nozzles and diffusers
d. None of these
The distance between the TDC and BDC
in which the piston can travel is the

a. Right extreme position

b. Displacement stroke
c. Stroke of the Engine
d. Swept Stroke
In compression-engine, the combustion
of air-fuel mixture is self-ignited as a
result of compressing the mixture above
its

a. Self developed temperature

b. Mixing temperature
c. Self feed temperature
d. Self ignition temperature
 The thermal efficiency of an ideal Otto
cycle depends __________ of the working
fluid.

a. The pressure ratio of the engine and the specific

heat ratio
b. The temperature ratio of the engine and the
specific heat ratio
c. The moles ratio of the engine and the specific
heat ratio
d. The compression ratio of the engine and the
specific heat ratio
Using monatomic gas, the thermal
efficiency of Otto cycle

a. increases
b. decreases
c. Remains constant
d. None of these
In diesel engine, combustion process
during combustion occurs during

a. Isothermal process
b. Constant pressure process
c. Isentropic process
d. adiabatic
If the cut-off ratio decreases, the
efficiency of diesel cycle

a. increases
b. decreases
c. Remains constant
d. None of these
In ericsson cycle, the regeneration
process occurs during ________ process

a. Constant volume
b. Constant pressure
c. Constant temperature
d. None of these
In brayton cycle, the ______ during
constant pressure process

a. Work is added
b. Heat is transferred
c. Pressure is rejected
d. Energy is added
The two major application areas fo gas
turbine engines are:

a. Driving automotive engine and

locomotives
b. Heating and generation
c. Aircraft propulsion and electric power
generation
d. None of these
The use of generator in is recommended
only when the turbine exhaust
temperature is higher than the
compressor....

a. Exit temperature
b. Inlet temperature
c. Mean temperature
d. Absolute temperature
 As the number of stages is increased,
106.

the expansion process becomes

a. isentropic
b. Isothermal
c. Isometric
d. Polytropic
Aircraft gas turbines operate at higher
pressure ratio typically between

a. 6 to 8
b. 12 to 24
c. 10 to 18
d. 10 to 25
the singe stage expansion process of an
ideal brayton cycle without regeneration
is replaced by a multistage expansion
preocess with reheating between the
same pressure limits. As a result of
modification, thermal efficiency will

a. increase
b. decrease
c. Remain constant
d. None of these
Which of the following is/are the
application of Brayton cycle

a. Propulsion system
b. Automotive Turbine Engines
c. Aircraft Turbine engines
d. All of these
It is used as working fluid in high
temperature applications of vapor cycles

a. Helium
b. Deuterium
c. Mercury
c. water
The superheated vapor enters the
turbine and expands isentropically and
produces work by the rotating shaft. The
_________ may drop during the process.

a. density
b. viscosity
c. Temperature and pressure
d. None of these
Only _______ of the turbine work output is
required to operate the pump

a. .01%
b. .02%
c. .03%
d. .04%
Superheating the steam to higher
temperatures decreases the moisture
content of the steam at the ____________.

a. Turbine inlet
b. Compressor inlet
c. Compressor exit
d. Turbine exit
Regeneration also provides a convenient
means of dearating the feedwater to
prevent

a. Boiler explosion
b. Boiler scale production
c. Boiler corrosion
d. Compressor damage
Can be applied in Steam turbine cycle
(rankine), Gas turbine cycle (Brayton)
and Combined cycle.

a. Hydroelectric plant
b. Nuclear power plant
c. Cogeneration plant
d. Tidal power plant
In a rankine cycle with fixed turbine inlet
conditions. What is the effect of lowering
the condenser pressure, the heat
rejected will:

a. increase
b. decrease
c. Remains the same
d. None of these
How do the following quantities change
when the simple ideal Rankine cycle is
modified with regeneration? The heat
rejected will:

a. Increase
b. decrease
c. Remains the same
d. None of these
It is an obvious reason for incomplete
combustion.

a. Insufficient carbon
b. Insufficient air
c. Insufficient nitrogen
d. Insufficient oxygen
A rule of thumb is that the COP improves
by ____ for each oC the evaporating
temperature is raised or the condensing
temperature is lowered

a. 2-4%
b. 6-7%
c. 1-5%
d. 6-10%
Are generally more expensive to
purchase and install than other heating
systems, but they

a. refrigerator
b. Adiabator
c. Heat pumps
d. humidifier
The most widely used absorption system
is the ammonia-water system, where
ammonia is served as refrigerant and
water as the

a. cooling
b. heating
c. Heating and cooling
d. Transport medium
The efficiencies of all reversible heat engines operating between the same two reservoirs_______.

A. Differ

B. Are the same

C. Are unequal

D. None of the above

A process with no heat transfer is known as

A. Isobaric process

B. Adiabatic process

C. Isothermal process

D. Isometric process
The relative density of a substance is the ratio of its density to the density of

A. Mercury

B. Oil

C.gas

D. Water
The type of heat exchanger allows fluid to flow at right angles to each other

A. Series flow

B. Parallel flow

C. Cross flow

D. Counter flow
The fact that total energy in any one energy system remains constant is called the principle of ______.

A. Conservation of energy

B. Second law of thermodynamics

C. Conservation of mass

D. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

A process for which the inlet and outlet enthalpies are the same

A. Isenthalpic

B. Enthalpy Conservation

C. Throttling

D. Steady State
The sum of energies of all the molecules in the
system, energies that appear in several complex
forms.

A. Kinetic energy

B. Internal energy

C. External energy

D. Flow work
The system that is completely impervious to its
surrounding. Neither mass nor energy cross its
boundaries.

A. Open system

B. Closed system

C. Adiabatic system

D. Isolated system
A device used to measure small and moderate
pressure difference.

A. Manometer

B. Bourdon gage

C. Barometer

D. Piezometer
A vapor having a temperature higher than the
saturation temperature corresponding to its
pressure.

A. Superheated vapor

B. Saturated vapor

C. Super saturated vapor

D. Subcooled vapor
The energy of stored capacityfor performing work
possessed by a moving body, by virtue of its
momentum.

A. Internal energy

B. Work

C. Gravitational potential energy

D. Kinetic energy
The thermodynamic process wherein temperature is
constant and the change in internal energy is zero.

A. Isobaric process

B. isometric process

C. Isothermal process

D. Polytropic process
The function of a pump or compressor is to

A. Transfer heat from one fluid to another

B. Increase the total energy content of the flow

C. Extract energy from the flow

D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow

This law states that “all energy received as heat by a
heat-engine cannot be converted into mechanical
work”

A. 1st law of thermodynamics

B. 2nd law of thermodynamics

C. 3rd law of thermodynamics

D. All of the above

The intensity of pressure that is measured above
absolute zero is called:

A. Gage pressure

B. Absolute pressure

C. Vacuum pressure

D. Saturation pressure
This is the ratio of the heat equivalent of the brake
or useful horsepower developed of an engine and
available on its crankshaft to the heat to th same
time.

A. Brake engine efficiency

B. Indicated thermal efficiency

C. Combined thermal efficiency

D. Brake thermal efficiency

Flow work is equal to pressure times _________.

A. Temperature

B. Entropy

C. Internal energy

D. Specific volume
This form of energy is due to the position or
elevation of the body.

A. Internal energy

B. Kinetic energy

C. Potential energy

D. Work
Another term for constant volume process

A. Isometric

B. Isochoric

C. Isovolumic

D. All of the above

Work done by the steam during a reversible
adiabatic expansion process in the turbine.

A. Brake work

B. Ideal work

C. Actual fluid flow

D. Combined work
The efficiency of Carnot cycle depends upon the

A. Pressure

B. Entropy

C. Volume

D. Temperature
It is the heat required in a constant-pressure process
to completely vaporize a unit-mass of liquid at

A. A given temperature

B. Latent heat vaporization

C. Enthaply of vaporization hfg

D. all of the above

Is a commonly used device for measuring
temperature differences or high temperatures.

A. Thermistor

B. Thermocouple

C. Bimetallic strip

D. Mercury in glass
The science and technology concerned with
precisely measuring energy and enthalpy.

A. Themodynamics

B. Chemistry

C. Calorimetry

D. None of the above

The rate of doing work per unit time

A. Torque

B. Power

C. Force

D. Moment
In an ideal Rankine Cycle with fixed boiler and
condenser pressure. What is the effectof
superheating the steam to a higher temperature to
the cycle thermal efficiency?

A. The cycle thermal efficiency will increase

B. The cycle thermal efficiency will decrease

C. The cycle thermal efficiency will remain constant

D. None of the above

A vapor having a temperature higher than the
saturation temperature corresponding to the
existing pressure.

A. Superheated vapor

B. Saturated vapor

C. Unsaturated vapor

D. Water
It is the work done in pushing a fluid across a
boundary, usually into or out of the system.

A. Mechanical work

B. Nonflow work

C. Flow work

D. Electrical work
A liquid that has a temperature lower than the
saturation temperature corresponding to the
existing pressure.

A. Subcooled liquid

B. Saturated liquid

C. Unsaturated liquid

D. Water
In this type of boiler, the water passes through the
tubes while the flue gases burn outside the tubes,

A. Water-tube boiler

B. Fire-tube boiler

C. Steam generator

D. Electric boiler
It shows the water level in the boiler drum.

A. Water column

B. Try cocks

C. Gauge glass

D. All of the above

It prevents damage to the boiler by giving warning
of low water.

A. Safety valve

B. Fusible plug

C. Relief valve

D. Try cocks
It has several functions. When necessary it empties
the boiler for cleaning, inspection, or repair. It blows
out mud, scale, or sediment when the boiler is in
the operation and prevents excessive concentration
of soluble impurities in the boiler.

A. Blow-down line

B. Boiler feedwater pump

C. Steam valve

D. None of the above

Is a heat exchanger which utilizes the heat of the
flue gases to preheat the air needed for combustion.

A. Economizer

B. Feedwater heater

C. Reheater

D. Air preheater
Is a feedwater preheating and waste heat recovery
device which utilizes the heat of the flue gases.

A. Economizer

B. Open heater

C. Closed heater

D. Waterwalls
Is a system of furnace cooling tubes which can
extend the evaporative capacity of the water-tube
boiler and at the same time protect the furnace
walls from high temperature.

A. Reheater

B. Waterwalls

C. Superheater

D. Feedwater heater
Is based on the generation of 34.5 lbm/hr of steam
from water at 212oF to steam at 212oF and
equivalent to 33,500 btu/hr.

A. One horsepower

B. One kilowatt

C. One boiler horsepower

D. none of the above

Prevents boiler pressure from rising above a certain
predetermined pressure by opening to allow excess
steam to escape into the atmosphere when that point
is reached, thus guarding against a possible explosion
through excessive pressure.

A. Relief valve

B. Safety valve

C. Fusible plug

D. Pressure switches
In a water-tube boiler, the water will pass
through________

A. Inside the tubes

B. Outside the tubes

C. Inside the shell

D. Outside the shell

As the number of stages is increased, the expansion
process becomes

a. Isentropic

b. Isothermal

C. Isometric

D. polytropic
Aircraft gas turbines operate at higher pressure ratio
typically between

A. 6 to 8

B. 12 to 24

C. 10 to 18

D. 10 to 25
The first commercial high-pass ratio engines has a
bypass ratio of

A. 1

B. 3

C. 5

D. 7
The single-stage expansion process of an ideal
Brayton cycle without regeneration is replaced by a
multistage expansion process with reheating between
the same pressure limits. As a result of modification,
thermal efficiency will:

A. Increase

B.decrease

C. Remain constant

D. None of these
Which of the following is/are the application of
Brayton cycle:

A. Propulsion system

B. Automotive turbine system

C. Aircraft turbine engines

D. All of these
It is used as working fluid in high temperature
applications of vapor cycles.

A. Helium

B. Deuterium

C. Mercury

D. water
The superheated vapor enters the turbine and
expands isentropically and produces work by
rotating the shaft. The ______ may drop during the
process.

A. Density

B. Viscocity of fuel

C. Temperature and pressure

D. None of these
Only _______ of the turbine work output is required
to operate the pump.

A. 0.01%

B. 0.02%

C. 0.03%

D. 0.04%
Superheating the steam to higher temperatures
decreases the moisture content of the steam at the
_______.

A. Turbine inlet

B. Compressor inlet

C. Compressor exit

D. Turbine exit
Regeneration also provides a convenient mans of
dearating the feedwater to prevent

A. Boiler explosion

B. Boiler scale production

C. Boiler corrosion

D. Compressor damage
Can be apply in Steam turbine cycle(Rankine), gas
turbine cycle (brayton) and combined cycle

A. Hydroelectric plant

B. Nuclear power plant

C. Cogeneration plant

D. Tidal power plant

In a Rankine cycle with fixed turbine inlet conditions.
What is the effect of lowering the condenser
pressure, the heat rejected will:

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remains the same

D. None of these
In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and
condenser pressures. What is the effect of
superheating the steam to a higher temperature,
the pump work input will:

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remains the same

D. None of these
How do the following quantities change when the
simple ideal Rankine cycle is modified with
regeneration? The heat rejected will:

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remains the same

D. None of these
During a combustion process, the component which
exist before the reaction are called:

A. Reaction

B. Combustion

C. Reactants

D. product
In an obvious reason for incomplete combustion

A. Insufficient carbon

B. Insufficient air

C. Insufficient nitrogen

D. Insufficient oxygen
Higher heating value when water in th product of
combustion is in

A. Solid form

B. Vapor form

C. Gas form

D. Liquid form
Device which transfer heat from low temperature
medium to a high temperature one is a

A. Adiabatic

B. Refrigerator

C. Heat exchanger

D. Heat pump
A rule of thumb is that the COP improves by ______
for each oC the evaporating temperature is raised or
the condensing temperature is lowered

A. 2 to 4 %

B. 6 to 7 %

C. 1 to 5 %

D. 6 to 10 %
Are generally more expensive to purchase and install
than other heating systems, but they save money in
the long run.

A. Refrigrator

B. Adiabator

C. Heat pumps

D. humidifier
The most widely used absorption system is the
ammonia-water system, where ammonia is serves
as refrigerant and H2O as the

A. Cooling

B. Heating

C. Heating and cooling

D. Transport medium
Which of the following is used for Binary cycle
power generation for high temperature application.

A. Mercury

B. Sodium

C. Potassium

D. All of these
Critical temperature of mercury

A. 1160 oC

B. 1260oC

C. 1360oC

D. 1460oC
Critical pressure of mercury

A. 100 Mpa

B. 108 Mpa

C. 128 Mpa

D. 158 Mpa
Method used in converting heat directly to
electricity by magnetism.

A. electromagnetic induction

B. Magnetodynamic

C. Magnetohydrodynamic

D. thermoelectric
Which of the following is NOT a material used for
thermolectric elements.

A. Bismuth telluride

B. Lead telluride

C. Zinc telluride

D. Germanium
A type of coal formed after anthracite.

A. Lignite

B. Bituminous

C. Peat

D. Graphite
Which of the following is lowest grade of coal?

A. Peat

B. Lignite

C. Sub-bituminous

D. bituminous
Which of the following helps in the ignition of coal?

A. Moisture

B. Ash

C. Fixed carbon

D. Volatile matter
Is the ratio fixed carbon and volatile matter.

A. Air-fuel ratio

B. Fuel ratio

C. Combustion ratio

D. Carbon-volatile ratio
A suspension of a finely divide fluid in another.

A. Filtration

B. Floatation

C. Emulsion

D. Separation
Contains 90% gasoline and 10% ethanol.

A. Gasohol

B. Gasonol

C. Gasothanol

D. Gasethanol
Process commercially in coal liquefaction.

A. Tropsch process

B. Fisher process

C. Fisher-tropsch process

D. Mitch-tropsch process
Is an organic matter produced by plants in both land
and water.

A. Bio-ethanol

B. Biomass

C. Petroleum

D. Biogradable
In thermal powerplant, induced draft fans are
located at the

A. Exit of furnace

B. Foot of the stack

C. Above the stack

D. top of the stack

In thermal powerplant, forced draft fan are installed
at the

A. foot of furnace

B. top of the stack

C. Exit of the preheater

D. Inlet of the preheater

Known as drum less boiler

A. La Mont boilers

B. Fire tube boilers

C. Forced circulation boiler

D. Once-through boiler
Reduces the steam temperature by spraying low
temperature water from boiler drum.

A. Reheater

B. Preheater

C. Desuperheater

D. superheater
Carbon dioxide can be removed by :

A. Deaeration

B. Aeration

C. Evaporation

D. vaporization
Is often used to absorb silica from water.

A. Sorbent

B. Rectifier

C. Silica gel

D. Magnesium hydroxide
Presence of excess hydrogen ions make the water

A. Acidic

B. Alkanity

C. Base

D. hydroxicity
PH of water varies with

A. Pressure

B. Temperature

C. Density

D. volume
PH value of _____ is usually maintained for boiler
water to minimized corrosion.

A. 8.5

B. 9.5

C. 10.5

D. 11.5
What type of turbine that has a degree of reaction
of ½ ?

A. Impulse turbine

B. Reaction turbine

C. Rarsons turbine

D. Deriaz turbine
It is a temperature at which the air
becomes saturated at constant pressure

A. dry-bulb temperature
B. wet-bulb temperature
C. dew-point temperature
D. saturation temperature
In a __________ cooling tower, the air
moves horizontally through the fills as the
water moves downward

A. Cross-flow C. Parallel
Flow

B. Counter- flow D. Double Flow

It is the subject that deals with the
behavior of moist air

A. Psychrometer C. Refrigeration

B. Psychrometry D. Pneumatics
It is the ratio of the mass of water vapor in a
certain volume of moist air at a given
temperature to the mass of water vapor in the
same volume of saturated air at the same
temperature

A. Humidity Ratio C. Humidity

B. Specific Humidity D. Relative Humidity

Air whose condition is such that any
decrease in temperature will result of
condensation of water vapor into liquid

A. Saturated Air
B. Unsaturated Air
C. Saturated Vapor
D. Moist Air
Is the warm water temperature minus the
cold water temperature leaving the
cooling tower

A. Approach
B. Terminal Difference
C. Cooling Range
D. LMTD
The temperature where the relative
humidity becomes 100% and where the
vapor starts to condense is known as

A. dry-bulb temperature
B. Dew-point temperature
C. Wet-bulb temperature
D. Saturation temperature
The surrounding air _________ temperature is
the lowest temperature to which water can
possibly be cooled in a cooling tower

A. Dry bulb C. Dew point

B. Wet bulb C. Saturation Temperature

Which is not a major part of a vapor
compression system?

A. Compressor C. Evaporator

B. Condenser D. Refrigerant
This refers only to the rate of heat transfer
attributable only to the change in dry-bulb
temperature

A. Sensible Heating or cooling

B. Humidification
C. Dehumidification
D. Cooling and dehumidifying
It is a binary mixture of dry air and water
vapor

A. Dry air C. Moist Air

B. Saturated Vapor D. Wet Mixture

The temperature measured by an ordinary
thermometer

A. Wet bulb temp

B. Dry bulb temp
C. Dew point temp
D. Wet bulb depression
The mass of water interspersed in each
kilogram of dry air

A. Enthalpy
B. Humidity Ratio
C. Specific volume
D. Relative Humidity
This system combines to vapor compression
units, with the condenser of the low
temperature system discharging its heat to the
evaporator of the high-temperature system

A. Cascade Systems
B. Multi-stage systems
C. Binary Systems
D. Multi-pressure Systems
A process of increasing humidity ratio at
constant dry bulb temperature

A. Dehumidifying process
B. Cooling process
C. Heating process
D. Humidifying process
The ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor
in the air to the saturation pressure
corresponding to the temperature of the air

A. Humidity Ratio
B. Relative humidity
C. Specific humidity
D. Moisture Content
It is an air conditioning process that involves
heating without changing the moisture content
of air. The process is represented by a
horizontal line in the psychrometric chart, from
left to right

A. Sensible Cooling Process

B. Sensible heating Process
C. Humidifying Process
D. Heating and Dehumidifying Process
It is the air conditioning process of increasing
the humidity ratio without changing the dry-
bulb temperature of the air. The process is
represented in the psychrometric chart by a
vertical line, from up to down

A. Sensible Cooling Process

B. Sensible Heating Process
C. Humidifying Process
D. Heating and dehumidifying Process
The temperature at which the water vapor
content of moist air begins to condense
when air is cooled at constant pressure

A. Dew Point temperature

B. Wet bulb Temperature
C. Dry bulb temperature
D. Condensing Temperature
It is the index of performance of a
refrigeration cycle which is a
dimensionless quantity

A. Coefficient of Performance
B. Energy Ratio
C. Energy Efficiency Ratio
D. Performance Ratio
It is simply the compression of the gas in
two or more cylinders in place of a single
cylinder compressor

A. Intercooled Compression
B. Multi-staged Compression
C. Efficient Compression
D. High Power Compression
The transfer of energy from the more
energetic particles of a substance to the
adjacent less energetic ones as a result of
interactions between particles

A. Heat Transfer
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. Convection
What is the simultaneous control of
temperature, humidity, air movement,
and quantity of air in space?

A. Refrigeration
B. Psychrometry
C. Air-Conditioning
D. Humidification
The non-condensing component of the
moist air

A. Hydrogen
B. Water Vapor
C. Nitrogen
D. Dry Air
The substance used for heat transfer in a vapor
compression refrigerating system. It picks up heat by
evaporating at a low temperature and pressure and
gives up this heat by condensing at a higher
temperature and pressure

A. Water C. Ammonia

B. Air D. Gas
What is the pressure of the refrigerant
between the expansion valve and the
intake of the compressor in a multi
pressure refrigeration system?

A. High side pressure

B. Discharge Pressure
C. Condensing Pressure
D. Low side Pressure
Air motion also plays important role in

A. Surroundings
B. Cooling
C. Human comfort
D. None of these
During simple heating and cooling process
has a _____ humidity ratio

A. Increasing
B. Decreasing
C. Constant
D. None of these
The ____ follows a line of constant wet
bulb temperature on the psychometric
chart

A. Evaporative cooling process

B. Condensive cooling process
C. Direct cooling process
D. None of these
A vapor which is not about to condense is
called

A. Mixture of vapor and liquid

B. Critical vapor
C. Superheated vapor
D. None of these
Passing from the solid phase directly into
the vapor phase is called

A. Condensation
B. Fusion
C. Sublimation
D. None of these
Robert Boyle observed during his
experiments with a vacuum chamber that
the pressure of gases is inversely
proportional to their

A. Temperature
B. Pressure
C. Volume
D. None of these
____ is energy in transition

A. Heat
B. Work
C. Power
D. None of these
Is the mode of energy transfer between a
solid surface and the adjacent liquid or
gas which is in motion and it involves
combined effects of conduction and fluid
motion

A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. None of these
Radiation is usually considered as

A. Surface phenomenon
B. Surface interaction
C. Surface corrosion
D. None of these
Work is ____ between the system and
surroundings

A. Work interaction
B. Energy interaction
C. Heat interaction
D. None of these
Is a process during which the system
remains in equilibrium at all times

A. Quasi equilibrium
B. Static equilibrium
C. Dynamic equilibrium
D. None of these
In the absence of any work interactions
between the system and its surroundings,
the amount of net heat transfer is equal

A. To the change in total energy of a

closed system
B. To heat and work
C. Energy interactions
D. None of these
The constant volume and constant
pressure specific heats are identical for

A. Compressible substance
B. Incompressible substance
C. Compressible gas
D. None of these
The velocity of fluid is zero at the wall and
maximum at the center because of the

A. Velocity effect
B. Viscous effect
C. Temperature effect
D. None of these
For steady flow devices, the volume of the
control volume is

A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Constant
D. None of these
The work done in a turbine is ___ since it
is done by the fluid

A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. None of these
Reheating process in Brayton cycle, the
turbine work will

A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. None of these
Which of the ff. is the chemical formula of
Ethanol?

A. C7H16
B. C 2H 6 O
C. C 7H 8
D. C6H12
Which of the ff. is the chemical formula of
Heptane?

A. C7H16
B. C 2H 6 O
C. C 7H 8
D. C6H12
Which of the ff. is the chemical formula of
Hexane?

A. C7H16
B. C 2H 6 O
C. C 7H 8
D. C6H12
Which of the ff. is the chemical formula of
Toulene?

A. C7H16
B. C 2H 6 O
C. C 7H 8
D. C6H12
As the air passes through a nozzle, which
of the following will increase?

A. Temperature
B. Enthalpy
C. Internal energy
D. Mach number
As the air passes through a diffuser, which
of the following will decrease?

A. Temperature
B. Enthalpy
C. Internal energy
D. Mach number
As the air passes through a nozzle, which
of the following will decrease?

A. Temperature
B. Enthalpy
C. Internal energy
D. Mach number
As the air passes through a diffuser, which
of the following will increase?

A. Density
B. Entropy
C. Mach number
D. Velocity
As the air passes through a nozzle, which
of the following will NOT be affected?

A. Density
B. Entropy
C. Mach number
D. Velocity
After passing through a convergent-
divergent nozzle, the temperature of air
will:

A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. None of these
After passing through a convergent-
divergent nozzle, the density of air will:

A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. None of these
After passing through a convergent-
divergent nozzle, the mach number of air
will:

A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. None of these
By increasing the temperature source of
Carnot cycle, which of the following will
not be affected?

A. Efficiency
B. Work
C. Heat added
D. Heat rejected
By increasing the temperature sink of
Carnot cycle, which of the following will
not be affected?

A. Efficiency
B. Work
C. Heat added
D. Heat rejected
By superheating the refrigerant in vapor
compression cycle with useful cooling,
which of the following will increase? (use
per unit mass analysis)

A. Condenser pressure
B. Evaporator pressure
C. Quality after expansion
D. Heat rejected from condenser
By superheating the refrigerant in vapor
compression cycle with useful cooling,
which of the following will decrease? (use
per unit mass analysis)

A. Refrigerating effect
B. COP
C. Compressor power
D. Mass flow rate
By superheating the refrigerant in vapor
compression cycle without useful cooling,
which of the following will decrease? (use
per unit mass analysis)

A. Heat rejected
B. COP
C. Compressor power
D. Specific volume at suction
By superheating the refrigerant in vapor
compression cycle without useful cooling,
which of the following will not be
affected? (use per unit mass analysis)

A. Refrigerating effect
B. COP
C. Compressor power
D. Mass flow rate
By superheating the refrigerant in vapor
compression cycle without useful cooling,
which of the following will increase? (use
per unit mass analysis)

A. Refrigerating effect
B. COP
C. Compressor power
D. Mass flow rate
By subcooling the refrigerant in vapor
compression cycle at condenser exit,
which of the following will increase? (use
per unit mass analysis)

A. Refrigerating effect
B. Specific volume at suction
C. Compressor power
D. Mass flow rate
By subcooling the refrigerant in vapor
compression cycle at condenser exit,
which of the following will decrease? (use
per unit mass analysis)

A. COP
B. Heat rejected from condenser
C. Refrigerating effect
D. Mass flow rate
By increasing the vaporizing temperature
in vapor compression cycle, which of the
following will increase? (use per unit mass
analysis)

A. Mass flow rate

B. COP
C. Specific volume at suction
D. Compressor work
By increasing the vaporizing temperature
in vapor compression cycle, which of the
following will decrease? (use per unit
mass analysis)

A. Refrigerating effect
B. COP
C. Evaporator temperature
D. Temperature difference between
evaporator and compressor
A device that violates the 2nd Law of
Thermodynamics is called

A. Perpetual motion machine of second

kind
B. Perpetual motion machine of third
kind
C. Perpetual motion machine of first kind
D. None of these
A ___ is used in aircraft engines and some
automotive engine. In this method, a
turbine driven by the exhaust gases is used
to provide power to compressor or blower
at the inlet.

A. Discharging
B. Turbocharging
C. Supercharging
D. Scavenging
The thermal efficiency of an ideal Otto
cycle depends _____ of the working fluid.

A. The pressure ratio of the engine and

the specific heat ratio
B. The temperature ratio of the engine
and the specific heat ratio
C. The moles ratio of the engine and the
specific heat ratio
D. The compression ratio of the engine
and the specific heat ratio
The efficiencies of all reversible heat engines operating between the same two reservoirs_______.

A. Differ

B. Are the same

C. Are unequal

D. None of the above

A process with no heat transfer is known as

A. Isobaric process

B. Adiabatic process

C. Isothermal process

D. Isometric process
The relative density of a substance is the ratio of its density to the density of

A. Mercury

B. Oil

C.gas

D. Water
The type of heat exchanger allows fluid to flow at right angles to each other

A. Series flow

B. Parallel flow

C. Cross flow

D. Counter flow
The fact that total energy in any one energy system remains constant is called the principle of ______.

A. Conservation of energy

B. Second law of thermodynamics

C. Conservation of mass

D. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

A process for which the inlet and outlet enthalpies are the same

A. Isenthalpic

B. Enthalpy Conservation

C. Throttling

D. Steady State
The sum of energies of all the molecules in the
system, energies that appear in several complex
forms.

A. Kinetic energy

B. Internal energy

C. External energy

D. Flow work
The system that is completely impervious to its
surrounding. Neither mass nor energy cross its
boundaries.

A. Open system

B. Closed system

C. Adiabatic system

D. Isolated system
A device used to measure small and moderate
pressure difference.

A. Manometer

B. Bourdon gage

C. Barometer

D. Piezometer
A vapor having a temperature higher than the
saturation temperature corresponding to its
pressure.

A. Superheated vapor

B. Saturated vapor

C. Super saturated vapor

D. Subcooled vapor
The energy of stored capacity for performing work
possessed by a moving body, by virtue of its
momentum.

A. Internal energy

B. Work

C. Gravitational potential energy

D. Kinetic energy
The thermodynamic process wherein temperature is
constant and the change in internal energy is zero.

A. Isobaric process

B. isometric process

C. Isothermal process

D. Polytropic process
The function of a pump or compressor is to

A. Transfer heat from one fluid to another

B. Increase the total energy content of the flow

C. Extract energy from the flow

D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow

This law states that “all energy received as heat by a
heat-engine cannot be converted into mechanical
work”

A. 1st law of thermodynamics

B. 2nd law of thermodynamics

C. 3rd law of thermodynamics

D. All of the above

The intensity of pressure that is measured above
absolute zero is called:

A. Gage pressure

B. Absolute pressure

C. Vacuum pressure

D. Saturation pressure
This is the ratio of the heat equivalent of the brake
or useful horsepower developed of an engine and
available on its crankshaft to the heat to th same
time.

A. Brake engine efficiency

B. Indicated thermal efficiency

C. Combined thermal efficiency

D. Brake thermal efficiency

Flow work is equal to pressure times _________.

A. Temperature

B. Entropy

C. Internal energy

D. Specific volume
This form of energy is due to the position or
elevation of the body.

A. Internal energy

B. Kinetic energy

C. Potential energy

D. Work
Another term for constant volume process

A. Isometric

B. Isochoric

C. Isovolumic

D. All of the above

Work done by the steam during a reversible
adiabatic expansion process in the turbine.

A. Brake work

B. Ideal work

C. Actual fluid flow

D. Combined work
The efficiency of Carnot cycle depends upon the

A. Pressure

B. Entropy

C. Volume

D. Temperature
It is the heat required in a constant-pressure process
to completely vaporize a unit-mass of liquid at

A. A given temperature

B. Latent heat vaporization

C. Enthaply of vaporization hfg

D. all of the above

Is a commonly used device for measuring
temperature differences or high temperatures.

A. Thermistor

B. Thermocouple

C. Bimetallic strip

D. Mercury in glass
The science and technology concerned with
precisely measuring energy and enthalpy.

A. Themodynamics

B. Chemistry

C. Calorimetry

D. None of the above

The rate of doing work per unit time

A. Torque

B. Power

C. Force

D. Moment
In an ideal Rankine Cycle with fixed boiler and
condenser pressure. What is the effectof
superheating the steam to a higher temperature to
the cycle thermal efficiency?

A. The cycle thermal efficiency will increase

B. The cycle thermal efficiency will decrease

C. The cycle thermal efficiency will remain constant

D. None of the above

A vapor having a temperature higher than the
saturation temperature corresponding to the
existing pressure.

A. Superheated vapor

B. Saturated vapor

C. Unsaturated vapor

D. Water
It is the work done in pushing a fluid across a
boundary, usually into or out of the system.

A. Mechanical work

B. Nonflow work

C. Flow work

D. Electrical work
A liquid that has a temperature lower than the
saturation temperature corresponding to the
existing pressure.

A. Subcooled liquid

B. Saturated liquid

C. Unsaturated liquid

D. Water
In this type of boiler, the water passes through the
tubes while the flue gases burn outside the tubes,

A. Water-tube boiler

B. Fire-tube boiler

C. Steam generator

D. Electric boiler
It shows the water level in the boiler drum.

A. Water column

B. Try cocks

C. Gauge glass

D. All of the above

It prevents damage to the boiler by giving warning
of low water.

A. Safety valve

B. Fusible plug

C. Relief valve

D. Try cocks
It has several functions. When necessary it empties
the boiler for cleaning, inspection, or repair. It blows
out mud, scale, or sediment when the boiler is in
the operation and prevents excessive concentration
of soluble impurities in the boiler.

A. Blow-down line

B. Boiler feedwater pump

C. Steam valve

D. None of the above

Is a heat exchanger which utilizes the heat of the
flue gases to preheat the air needed for combustion.

A. Economizer

B. Feedwater heater

C. Reheater

D. Air preheater
Is a feedwater preheating and waste heat recovery
device which utilizes the heat of the flue gases.

A. Economizer

B. Open heater

C. Closed heater

D. Waterwalls
Is a system of furnace cooling tubes which can
extend the evaporative capacity of the water-tube
boiler and at the same time protect the furnace
walls from high temperature.

A. Reheater

B. Waterwalls

C. Superheater

D. Feedwater heater
Is based on the generation of 34.5 lbm/hr of steam
from water at 212oF to steam at 212oF and
equivalent to 33,500 btu/hr.

A. One horsepower

B. One kilowatt

C. One boiler horsepower

D. none of the above

Prevents boiler pressure from rising above a certain
predetermined pressure by opening to allow excess
steam to escape into the atmosphere when that point
is reached, thus guarding against a possible explosion
through excessive pressure.

A. Relief valve

B. Safety valve

C. Fusible plug

D. Pressure switches
In a water-tube boiler, the water will pass
through________

A. Inside the tubes

B. Outside the tubes

C. Inside the shell

D. Outside the shell

As the number of stages is increased, the expansion
process becomes

a. Isentropic

b. Isothermal

C. Isometric

D. polytropic
Aircraft gas turbines operate at higher pressure ratio
typically between

A. 6 to 8

B. 12 to 24

C. 10 to 18

D. 10 to 25
The first commercial high-pass ratio engines has a
bypass ratio of

A. 1

B. 3

C. 5

D. 7
The single-stage expansion process of an ideal
Brayton cycle without regeneration is replaced by a
multistage expansion process with reheating between
the same pressure limits. As a result of modification,
thermal efficiency will:

A. Increase

B.decrease

C. Remain constant

D. None of these
Which of the following is/are the application of
Brayton cycle:

A. Propulsion system

B. Automotive turbine system

C. Aircraft turbine engines

D. All of these
It is used as working fluid in high temperature
applications of vapor cycles.

A. Helium

B. Deuterium

C. Mercury

D. water
The superheated vapor enters the turbine and
expands isentropically and produces work by
rotating the shaft. The ______ may drop during the
process.

A. Density

B. Viscocity of fuel

C. Temperature and pressure

D. None of these
Only _______ of the turbine work output is required
to operate the pump.

A. 0.01%

B. 0.02%

C. 0.03%

D. 0.04%
Superheating the steam to higher temperatures
decreases the moisture content of the steam at the
_______.

A. Turbine inlet

B. Compressor inlet

C. Compressor exit

D. Turbine exit
Regeneration also provides a convenient mEans of
deaErating the feedwater to prevent

A. Boiler explosion

B. Boiler scale production

C. Boiler corrosion

D. Compressor damage
Can be applied in Steam turbine cycle(Rankine), gas
turbine cycle (brayton) and combined cycle

A. Hydroelectric plant

B. Nuclear power plant

C. Cogeneration plant

D. Tidal power plant

In a Rankine cycle with fixed turbine inlet conditions.
What is the effect of lowering the condenser
pressure, the heat rejected will:

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remains the same

D. None of these
In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and
condenser pressures. What is the effect of
superheating the steam to a higher temperature,
the pump work input will:

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remains the same

D. None of these
How do the following quantities change when the
simple ideal Rankine cycle is modified with
regeneration? The heat rejected will:

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Remains the same

D. None of these
During a combustion process, the component which
exist before the reaction are called:

A. Reaction

B. Combustion

C. Reactants

D. product
In an obvious reason for incomplete combustion

A. Insufficient carbon

B. Insufficient air

C. Insufficient nitrogen

D. Insufficient oxygen
Higher heating value when water in th product of
combustion is in

A. Solid form

B. Vapor form

C. Gas form

D. Liquid form
Device which transfer heat from low temperature
medium to a high temperature one is a

A. Adiabatic

B. Refrigerator

C. Heat exchanger

D. Heat pump
A rule of thumb is that the COP improves by ______
for each oC the evaporating temperature is raised or
the condensing temperature is lowered

A. 2 to 4 %

B. 6 to 7 %

C. 1 to 5 %

D. 6 to 10 %
Are generally more expensive to purchase and install
than other heating systems, but they save money in
the long run.

A. Refrigrator

B. Adiabator

C. Heat pumps

D. humidifier
The most widely used absorption system is the
ammonia-water system, where ammonia is serves
as refrigerant and H2O as the

A. Cooling

B. Heating

C. Heating and cooling

D. Transport medium
Which of the following is used for Binary cycle
power generation for high temperature application.

A. Mercury

B. Sodium

C. Potassium

D. All of these
Critical temperature of mercury

A. 1160 oC

B. 1260oC

C. 1360oC

D. 1460oC
Critical pressure of mercury

A. 100 Mpa

B. 108 Mpa

C. 128 Mpa

D. 158 Mpa
Method used in converting heat directly to
electricity by magnetism.

A. electromagnetic induction

B. Magnetodynamic

C. Magnetohydrodynamic

D. thermoelectric
Which of the following is NOT a material used for
thermolectric elements.

A. Bismuth telluride

B. Lead telluride

C. Zinc telluride

D. Germanium
A type of coal formed after anthracite.

A. Lignite

B. Bituminous

C. Peat

D. Graphite
Which of the following is lowest grade of coal?

A. Peat

B. Lignite

C. Sub-bituminous

D. bituminous
Which of the following helps in the ignition of coal?

A. Moisture

B. Ash

C. Fixed carbon

D. Volatile matter
Is the ratio fixed carbon and volatile matter.

A. Air-fuel ratio

B. Fuel ratio

C. Combustion ratio

D. Carbon-volatile ratio
A suspension of a finely divide fluid in another.

A. Filtration

B. Floatation

C. Emulsion

D. Separation
Contains 90% gasoline and 10% ethanol.

A. Gasohol

B. Gasonol

C. Gasothanol

D. Gasethanol
Process commercially in coal liquefaction.

A. Tropsch process

B. Fisher process

C. Fisher-tropsch process

D. Mitch-tropsch process
Is an organic matter produced by plants in both land
and water.

A. Bio-ethanol

B. Biomass

C. Petroleum

D. Biogradable
In thermal powerplant, induced draft fans are
located at the

A. Exit of furnace

B. Foot of the stack

C. Above the stack

D. top of the stack

In thermal powerplant, forced draft fan are installed
at the

A. foot of furnace

B. top of the stack

C. Exit of the preheater

D. Inlet of the preheater

Known as drum less boiler

A. La Mont boilers

B. Fire tube boilers

C. Forced circulation boiler

D. Once-through boiler
Reduces the steam temperature by spraying low
temperature water from boiler drum.

A. Reheater

B. Preheater

C. Desuperheater

D. superheater
Carbon dioxide can be removed by :

A. Deaeration

B. Aeration

C. Evaporation

D. vaporization
Is often used to absorb silica from water.

A. Sorbent

B. Rectifier

C. Silica gel

D. Magnesium hydroxide
Presence of excess hydrogen ions make the water

A. Acidic

B. Alkanity

C. Base

D. hydroxicity
PH of water varies with

A. Pressure

B. Temperature

C. Density

D. volume
PH value of _____ is usually maintained for boiler
water to minimized corrosion.

A. 8.5

B. 9.5

C. 10.5

D. 11.5
What type of turbine that has a degree of reaction
of ½ ?

A. Impulse turbine

B. Reaction turbine

C. Rarsons turbine

D. Deriaz turbine
1. An organization of the workers of a particular trade or craft whose primary aim is to improve the social and economics status of its members.

a. Company union
b. Employees club
c. Employees union
d. Trade union
2. A possible or chance events which when
they occur, will involve a large amount of
expenditures.

a. Contract
b. Lease
c. Contingencies
d. exaggerated
3.A study of the factors involve in engineering projects
and using the result of such study in employing the
most efficient cost saving techniques without affecting
the safety and soundness of the project.

a. Feasibility study
b. Engineering economics
c. Engineering safety program
d. Engineering project thesis
4. Statement the truth of which must be
established by proof.

a. Postulate
b. Hypothesis
c. Theorem
d. Proportion
5. Minimum grade mechanical engineer
required in the operation of a 500 kW
diesel power plant.

a. PME
b. MPE
c. RME
d. CPM
6. A place where sellers and buyers comes together.

a. Mall
b. Tiangges
c. Market
d. sidewalk
7. Amount of money or its equipment which is
given in exchange for goods or commodity.

a. Loan
b. Interest
c. Price
d. Discount
8. Two triangles are congruent if two angles and the included side
of one are equal respectively to two angles and the included side
of the other.

a. Accuracy
b. Significant figures
c. Theorem
d. Experimentation
9. A line that meets a place but is not
perpendicular to it in relation.

a. Coplanar
b. Parallel
c. Oblique
d. Collinear
10. _________ of a negotiable papers is the difference between
the present worth of the paper at some times in the future.

a. Discount
b. Reduction
c. Percent increased
d. Depreciation
11. Used to produce consumer goods.

a. Producer good
b. Consumer good
c. Bond
d. Annuity
12. Fund supplied by others on which a fixed rate of interest
must be paid and the debt be repaid at a given place or time.

a. Demand
b. Equity capital
c. Borrowed capital
d. Appraisal
13. The process of determining the value of
a certain property for specific reasons.
a. Annuity
b. Demand
c. Appraisal
d. Bond
14. The analysis and evaluation of the factors that will affect the
economic success of engineering project to the end that a
recommendation can be made which will ensure the best use of capital.

a. Present worth
b. Investment
c. Engineering economy
d. Economic life
15. Process of determining the value of
certain properties or equipment for certain
reasons.
a. Devaluating
b. Depletion
c. Valuation
d. Depreciation
16. A device used to determine whether the part has been made
to the tolerance required and does not usually indicate a specific
dimension.

a. Gage
b. Meter
c. Micrometer
d. Durometer
17. A solid bounding by a surface all points of which
are equidistant from a point called the center.

a. Parabola
b. Cycloid
c. Sphere
d. hyperbola
18. Caused by either lessening in the demand for the service
rendered by the asset or the availability of more efficient asset
which will operate with lower out of pocket cost.

a. Obsolescence
b. Salvage value
c. Market value
d. Annuity
19. It occurs when a unique product or service is available only
from a single supplied and entry of all other possible suppliers
prevented.

a. Competition
b. Monopoly
c. Profitability
d. Rational
20. What is the angle of pi and less than 2pi.

a. Acute
b. Oblique
c. Obtuse
d. supplementary
21. An algebraic expression having two
variable in it, example 3x + 3y is called
a. Binary
b. Binomial
c. Trinomial
d. Polynomial
22. A statement the truth of which follows
with little or not proof from a theorem.
a. Axiom
b. Corollary
c. Postulate
d. Hypothesis
23. The temperature at which the vapor pressure of the
liquid is equal to the pressure exerted on the liquid.

a. Pour point
b. Boiling point
c. Cloud point
d. Flash point
24. The weight of an object in air is equal
to the weight of the displaced liquid on
which the object is placed.

a. Pascal's law
b. Buoyancy
c. Tirrecelli’s theorem
d. equillibrium
 25. Transmission of heat from a hot to a
cold body due to motion of matter.

a. Radiation
b. Convection
c. Conduction
d. Absorption
26. A polyhedron which has 20 faces is
known as.
a. Pentagon
b. Pentedecagon
c. Icosahedron
d. pendecagon
27. A solid having a constant cross-section
in plane perpendicular to its axis.

a. Conic
b. Cissold
c. Prism
d. ellipse
28. Cost that are difficult to attribute or
allocate to a specific output or with activity

a. Indirect cost
b. Direct cost
c. Variable cost
d. Invariable cost
29. Cost that are repetitive and occur when
an organization produces similar goods or
services on a continuing basis

a. Direct cost
b. Recurring cost
c. Indirect cost
d. No answer
30. For economic decision making process
in the private sector, economic calculations
are made to maximize net benefits to.
a. Those who invest in the enterprise and
assume no risk
b. The public
c. The creditors of the enterprise
d. Those who work as part of the enterprise
31. The heat transfer from molecule
through a body or through bodies in
contact.
a. Radiation
b. Convection
c. Conduction
d. Absorption
32. The ratio of the limiting frictional force
to the normal force.
a. Static friction
b. Coefficient ratio
c. Coefficient of static friction
d. Coefficient of roughness
33. It is an arrangement of objects in a
definite order.

a. Probability
b. Permutation
c. Mathematical expectation
d. Combination
34. The theoretical or expected frequency.

a. Prediction
b. Permutation
c. Probability
d. Progression
35. The annual depreciation charge equals capital
recovery with return for an interest rate of

a. 100%
b. Zero
c. Greater than zero
d. Greater than one
36. Depreciation resulting not from a deterioration in the assets
ability to serve its intended purpose but from a change in the
demand for the services it can render.

a. Functional
b. Physical
c. Depletion
d. valuation
37. The uniform annual end of year payment to repay a debt in
years with an interest rate i, is determined by multiplying the
capital recovery factor by the

a. Average debt
b. Initial debt
c. Initial debt plus interest
d. Average debt plus interest
38. An annuity whereby payment is
postponed for a certain period of time.
a. Annuity due
b. Perpetuity
c. Ordinary annuity
d. Deferred annuity
39. The velocity of propagation of an infinitely
small disturbance relative to the fluid ahead is
a. Acoustic velocity
b. Velocity of sound
c. Nozzle velocity
d. Interior velocity
40. Velocity of sound in an ideal gas is only a
function of
a. Pressure
b. Temperature
c. Volume
d. entropy
41. The ratio of the actual velocity at a given location
and the velocity of sound at the same location.

a. Prandlt number
b. Mach number
c. Reynolds number
d. Moles number
42. A jet plane travels at 1100 km/hr. if the mach
number at this speed is less than unity, it is called

a. Sonic
b. Supersonic
c. Trans-sonic
d. subsonic
43. Define as the force necessary to accelerate one
kilogram mass at rate of one meter per second per
second

a. Calorie
b. Joule
c. Newton
d. Slug
44. Force required to accelerate a mass of one gram
at a rate of one centimeter per second per second

a. Pound
b. Gram
c. Kilogram
d. Dyne
45. Define as the mass that is accelerated at a rate
of one foot per second per second where acted
upon by one pound force.

a. Kilogram
b. Dyne
c. Ergs
d. slug
46. A bond whereby the security behind it
are the equipment of the issuing corporation
a. Debenture
b. Mortgage bond
c. Lies bond
d. Collateral bond
47. Actual interest earned by a given
principal
a. Effective interest
b. Compounded interest
c. Simple interest
d. Nominal interest
48. In statistic, the standard deviation
means
a. Frequency
b. Central tendency
c. Distribution
d. Dispersion
49. If the second derivation of the equation of a curve
equal to the negative of the same curve, the curve is

a. Tangent
b. A sinusoid
c. A parabola
d. An exponential
50. varignon’s theorem is used to determine

a. Volume of sphere
b. Moment of inertia
c. Location of centroid
d. Area of a circle
51. Properties of a body which measure its
resistance to change in motion.
a. Mass
b. Weight
c. Acceleration
d. Rigidity
52. Motion of a rigid body in which a straight line
passing through any two of its practices always
remains constant

a. Rotation
b. Translation
c. Plane motion
d. Kinetics
53. Product of force and time during which
it acts on the body
a. Impulse
b. Momentum
c. Work
d. force
54. Continues emission of energy from the
surface of all bodies.
a. Conduction
b. Emissitivity
c. Radiation
d. Convection
55. An encased rotating element provided with vanes
which drew in fluid of the center and except it at high
velocity at the outer edge

a. Bucket
b. Ejector
c. Vanes
d. impeller
56. A pump used to transfer fuel oil

a. Reciprocating
b. Injector
c. Gear
d. tubine
57. Force that opposes the relative motion
of a body at rest or in motion
a. Frictional force
b. Resultant force
c. Centripetal force
d. Centrifugal force
58. Temperature of a fluid flowing under
pressure through a pipe is usually measured by:
a. Hg thermometer
b. Pyrometer
c. Velometer
d. Glass thermometer
59. The area bounded by the curve under the
T-S diagram represents
a. Work of a non-flow
b. Heat
c. Power
d. Change of entropy
60. An increase in the quantity of goods consumed or acquired by
an individual will decrease the amount of satisfaction derived
from the goods

a. Law of diminishing
b. Law of supply and demand
c. Matheson law
d. No answer
61. A decrease in value of an asset brought by the
development of new and more economical methods
processes or machinery

a. Depletion
b. Depreciation
c. Obsolescence
d. annually
62. Cost of the product arising from expenditures incurred
in disposing of the products and services produced

a. Factory cost
b. Selling cost
c. Fixed cost
d. Variable cost
63. The velocity which an object needs to
overcome the gravitational force of a plane
a. Escape velocity
b. Orbiting velocity
c. Angular velocity
d. Linear velocity
64. A chemical process which occur when
water is added to cement
a. Hydration
b. Oxidation
c. Plastic flow
d. Counter diffusion
65. The angle formed between one line and the
prolongation of the preceding line in a closed
transverse.

a. Obtuse
b. Split
c. Deflection
d. direction
66. A temperature above which a given gas
cannot be liquefied

a. Boiling point
b. Vaporization temperature
c. Critical temperature
d. Absolute temperature
67. The interest charges under the condition that the
interest in any time is charged only to the capital

a. Declining balance
b. Simple interest
c. Compound interest
d. No answer
68. This occurs when the suppliers and any action taken by
anyone of them will definitely effect the course of action to
others

a. Oligopoly
b. Competition
c. Monopoly
d. Monopsony
69. Things that cannot be quantitatively measured
or valued such as items of costs and physical assets

a. Intangibles
b. Tangibles
c. Capital
d. Investment
70. The type interest that is periodically added to the amount of
loan so that subsequent interest is based on the cumulative
amount

a. Simple
b. Compound
c. Interest rate
d. Sinking fund
71. The actual rate of interest on the
principal for one year.
a. Nominal rate of interest
b. Compound interest
c. Effective rate of interest
d. Simple interest
72. The amount of money paid for the use
of borrowed capital.
a. Interest
b. Discount
c. Future
d. Depletion
73. The value of personal and professional service
rendered or of good solid in the operation of the
business.

a. Income
b. Equity
c. Credit
d. Present worth
74. The ratio of the interest payment to the
principal for a given unit of time and usually
expressed as a percentage of the principal.

a. Income
b. Discount
c. Interest rate
d. Benefit-cost ratio
75. The capacity of commodity to satisfy
human wants.
a. Discount
b. Necessity
c. Luxuries
d. Demand
76. The ratio of the annual net profit to the
amount of capital invested.
a. Current ratio
b. Quick ratio
c. Acid test ratio
d. Rate of return
77. The satisfaction or pleasure that an individual
derives from the consumption of a good or service.

a. Necessity
b. Luxury
c. Market
d. Utility
78. These are products or services that are required to support
human life and activities, that will be purchased in somewhat the
same quantity even though the price varies considerable.

a. Necessities
b. Luxuries
c. Utility
d. producer goods and service
79. The excess of income over expenses is

a. Interest
b. Discount
c. Profit
d. Rate of return
80. A financial ratio which indicates the
short term liquidity of the business firm.
a. Quick ratio
b. Current ratio
c. Debt ratio
d. Equity ratio
81. Quick ratio is defined as the ratio of quick assets
to the current liabilities, sometimes this is called

a. Acid test ratio

b. Debt ratio
c. Current
d. Equity ratio
82. Grand total of the assets operational
capability of a corporation.
a. Earning value
b. Investment
c. Authorized capacity
d. Money market
83. Anything of value possessed by an enterprise,
which consists of properties and the right to the
properties tangible or intangible which maybe
used for the payment of depts.
a. Equities
b. Liabilities
c. Valves
d. Assets
84. The index which indicates the recorded value
of net assets for each share of common stock.

a. Book value per share of common stock

b. Divided per share on common stock
c. Earnings per share on common stock
d. Return on common stockholder’s equity
85. The difference between the value to the property as it stands
ready for operation and its value as it would stand at complication
of construction as an inert assembly of physical parts.

a. Goodwill
b. Fair value
c. Going concern value
d. Networth
86. An increase in cost which is important in problems where it
will be determined whether an increase in production would be
profitable for the enterprise.

a. Marginal cost
b. Variable cost
c. Differential cost
d. Increment cost
87. The amount received from the sale of an
additional unit of a product.
a. Market value
b. Marginal revenue
c. Differential value
d. Increment value
88. The additional cost producing one more
unit
a. Differential cost
b. Increment cost
c. Marginal cost
d. overhead cost
89. The sum of all the expenses necessary to organize the
business enterprise and its financing until the time actual
construction is done for the enterprise.

a. Development cost
b. Original cost
c. Promotion cost
d. Working capital
90. The sum of all direct material costs and
direct labor costs.
a. Promotion cost
b. Production cost
c. Development cost
d. Prime cost
91. The sum of direct material cost, direct
labor cost and overhead cost.
a. Production cost
b. Promotion cost
c. Prime cost
d. Construction cost
92. Under condition of perfect competition the price at which a
given product will be supplied and purchased is the price that will
result in the supply and the demand being equal

a. Law of supply
b. Law of supply and demand
c. Law of demand
d. Law of diminishing return
93. We can classify an interest rate which specifies the
actual rate of interest on the principal for one year as

a. Nominal rate
b. Rate of return
c. Exact interest rate
d. Effective rate
94. An association of two or more individuals for the
purpose of operating a business as co-owners for profit.

a. Sole proprietorship
b. Company
c. Partnership
d. Corporation
95. Decrease in the value of a physical
property due to the passage of time.
a. Inflation
b. Depletion
c. Recession
d. Depreciation
96. The provision in the contract that indicates the
possible adjustment of material cost and labor cost.

a. Secondary clause
b. Contingency
c. Escalatory clause
d. Main clause
97. The length of time which the property
may be operated at a profit.
a. Physical life
b. Economic life
c. Operating life
d. All of the above
98. Liquid assets such as cash and other assets
that can be converted quickly into cash, such as
accounts receivable and merchandiser are called

a. Total assets
b. Fixed assets
c. Current assets
d. None of the above
99. Money paid for the use of borrowed
capital.
a. Discount
b. Credit
c. Interest
d. Profit
100. The worth of the property equal to the
original cost less deprecation.
a. Scrap value
b. Face value
c. Market value
d. Book value
101. Grand total of the assets and
operational capability of a corporation.

a. Authorized capital
b. Investment
c. Subscribed capital
d. Money market
102. A condition where only few individuals produce a certain
product and that any action of one will lead to almost the sane
action of others.

a. Oligopoly
b. Semi-monopoly
c. Monopoly
d. Perfect competition
103. These are the products or services that are desired by human
and will be purchased if money is available after the required
necessities have been obtained.

a. Utilities
b. Necessities
c. Luxuries
d. Product goods and services
104. This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service
is supplied by a number of vendors entering the market.

a. Perfect competition
b. Oligopoly
c. Monopoly
d. Elastic demand
105. It is the amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing
seller for a property where each has equal advantage and is under
no compulsion to buy or sell.

a. Fair value
b. Market value
c. Book value
d. Salvage value
106. It is defined to be the capacity of a
commodity to satisfy human want.
a. Discount
b. Luxury
c. Necessity
d. Utility
107. A bank is advertising 9.5% accounts that yield 9.84%
annually. How often is the interest compounded?

a. Annually
b. Quarterly
c. Bi-monthly
d. Semi-monthly
A change in position, specified by a
length and a direction is said to be:

a. Displacement
b. Acceleration
c. Velocity
d. Dynamic equilibrium
A change in position, specified by a
length and a direction is said to be:

a. Displacement
b. Acceleration
c. Velocity
d. Dynamic equilibrium
The process of one substance mixing
with another because of molecular
motion is known as?

a. Adhesion
b. Diffusion
c. Cohesion
d. Confusion
The process of one substance mixing
with another because of molecular
motion is known as?

a. Adhesion
b. Diffusion
c. Cohesion
d. Confusion
Those cost that arise at the result of a
change in operations or policy or it is the
ratio of a small increment cost and a
small increment of output.

a. Increment cost
b. Differential cost
c. Marginal cost
d. Promotion cost
Those cost that arise at the result of a
change in operations or policy or it is the
ratio of a small increment cost and a
small increment of output.

a. Increment cost
b. Differential cost
c. Marginal cost
d. Promotion cost
The sum of all the cost incurred by the
originators of the project up to the time
that the promoters of the project accept
the project is known as:

a. Developmental cost
b. Marginal cost
c. Construction cost
d. Promotion cost
The sum of all the cost incurred by the
originators of the project up to the time
that the promoters of the project accept
the project is known as:

a. Developmental cost
b. Marginal cost
c. Construction cost
d. Promotion cost
What is the acid test ratio?

a. The ratio of owner’s equity to total

current liabilities
b. The ratio of all assets to actual current
liabilities
c. The ratio of current assets (exclusive of
inventory) to the total current liabilities
d. The ratio of gross margin to operating
sales, and administrative expenses
What is the acid test ratio?

a. The ratio of owner’s equity to total

current liabilities
b. The ratio of all assets to actual current
liabilities
c. The ratio of current assets (exclusive of
inventory) to the total current liabilities
d. The ratio of gross margin to operating
sales, and administrative expenses
How do call an energy required to move
1 coulomb of charge through an element

a. Current
b. Voltage
c. Power
d. Resonance
How do call an energy required to move
1 coulomb of charge through an element

a. Current
b. Voltage
c. Power
d. Resonance
This is a number sequence where the
succeeding term is obtained by adding
the last pair of preceding terms such as
the sequence (1,1,2,3,5,8…). How do you
call this number sequence?
a. Euler’s number
b. Fermat number
c. Fibonacci number
d. Fourier series
This is a number sequence where the
succeeding term is obtained by adding
the last pair of preceding terms such as
the sequence (1,1,2,3,5,8…). How do you
call this number sequence?
a. Euler’s number
b. Fermat number
c. Fibonacci number
d. Fourier series
If the roots of an equation are zero.
Then, how do you classify the solutions?

a. Extranous solution
b. Trivial solution
c. Conditional solution
d. Ambiguous solution
If the roots of an equation are zero.
Then, how do you classify the solutions?

a. Extranous solution
b. Trivial solution
c. Conditional solution
d. Ambiguous solution
In electricity, how do you call the rate of
charge flow?

a. Potential difference
b. Current
c. Voltage
d. Power
In electricity, how do you call the rate of
charge flow?

a. Potential difference
b. Current
c. Voltage
d. Power
This law in electrical states, “the
algebraic sum of currents entering a
node (or a closed boundary) is zero”.
How do you call this law?

a. Kirchhoff’s current law

b. Ohm’s current law
c. Kirchhoff’s voltage law
d. Ohm’s voltage law
This law in electrical states, “the
algebraic sum of currents entering a
node (or a closed boundary) is zero”.
How do you call this law?

a. Kirchhoff’s current law

b. Ohm’s current law
c. Kirchhoff’s voltage law
d. Ohm’s voltage law
This law in electrical circuits state. “the
algebraic sum of all voltage around a
closed path (or loop) is zero”. How do
you call this law?

a. Kirchhoff’s current law

b. Ohm’s current law
c. Kirchhoff’s voltage law
d. Ohm’s voltage law
This law in electrical circuits state. “the
algebraic sum of all voltage around a
closed path (or loop) is zero”. How do
you call this law?

a. Kirchhoff’s current law

b. Ohm’s current law
c. Kirchhoff’s voltage law
d. Ohm’s voltage law
In electrical, what is the SI unit of
conductance?

a. Ohm
b. Mho
c. Siemens
d. Ampere
In electrical, what is the SI unit of
conductance?

a. Ohm
b. Mho
c. Siemens
d. Ampere
Which of the following is the equivalent
of 1 ampere?

a. 1 coulomb per second

b. 1 joule per coulomb
c. 1 volt per ampere
d. 1 ampere per coulomb
Which of the following is the equivalent
of 1 ampere?

a. 1 coulomb per second

b. 1 joule per coulomb
c. 1 volt per ampere
d. 1 ampere per coulomb
This is the process of expressing a
polynomial as the product of another
polynomial or monomial of lower
degree. What is this mathematical
process?
a. Decomposition
b. Rationalization
c. Factoring
d. Polynomial damping
This is the process of expressing a
polynomial as the product of another
polynomial or monomial of lower
degree. What is this mathematical
process?
a. Decomposition
b. Rationalization
c. Factoring
d. Polynomial damping
This is a point where the concavity of a
curve changes or when the slope of the
curve is neither increasing nor
decreasing. What is this point commonly
called?
a. Maximum point
b. Minimum point
c. Point of tangency
d. Point of inflection
This is a point where the concavity of a
curve changes or when the slope of the
curve is neither increasing nor
decreasing. What is this point commonly
called?
a. Maximum point
b. Minimum point
c. Point of tangency
d. Point of inflection
How do you call the axis of the hyperbola
that passes through the center, the foci
and vertices?

a. Transverse axis
b. Conjugate axis
c. Asymptotic axis
d. Major axis
How do you call the axis of the hyperbola
that passes through the center, the foci
and vertices?

a. Transverse axis
b. Conjugate axis
c. Asymptotic axis
d. Major axis
What is a number, which could not be
expressed as a quotient of two integers?

a. Natural
b. Rational
c. Irrational
d. Surd
What is a number, which could not be
expressed as a quotient of two integers?

a. Natural
b. Rational
c. Irrational
d. Surd
How do you call the opposite of the
prefix nano?

a. Peta
b. Tera
c. Giga
d. Hexa
How do you call the opposite of the
prefix nano?

a. Peta
b. Tera
c. Giga
d. Hexa
What do you call a triangle having three
unequal sides?

a. Obtuse
b. Oblique
c. Scalene
d. Isosceles
What do you call a triangle having three
unequal sides?

a. Obtuse
b. Oblique
c. Scalene
d. Isosceles
How do you call the distance of a point
from the y-axis?

a. Polar distance
b. Coordinate
c. Abscissa
d. Ordinate
How do you call the distance of a point
from the y-axis?

a. Polar distance
b. Coordinate
c. Abscissa
d. Ordinate
This is the measure of central tendency
defined as the most frequent score. How
do you call this measure of central
tendency?

a. Median
b. Mode
c. Mean
d. Deviation
This is the measure of central tendency
defined as the most frequent score. How
do you call this measure of central
tendency?

a. Median
b. Mode
c. Mean
d. Deviation
Which of the following is the equivalent
of 1 mil?

a. one-tenth of an inch
b. One-thousandth of an inch
c. One million of an inch
d. One-half of an inch
Which of the following is the equivalent
of 1 mil?

a. one-tenth of an inch
b. One-thousandth of an inch
c. One million of an inch
d. One-half of an inch
A polygon with ten sides is said to be:

a. Dodecagon
b. Decagon
c. Decahedron
d. Dedecahedron
A polygon with ten sides is said to be:

a. Dodecagon
b. Decagon
c. Decahedron
d. Dedecahedron
Any number expressed in place-value
notation with base 12 is know as:

a. Duodecimal
b. Deontie
c. Decile
d. dedekind
Any number expressed in place-value
notation with base 12 is know as:

a. Duodecimal
b. Deontie
c. Decile
d. dedekind
Which of the following is true regarding
the minimum attractive rate of return
used in judging proposed investments?
a. It is much smaller than the interest rate used
to discount expected cash flows from
investments
b. It is frequently a policy decision made by an
organization’s management
c. It is larger than the interest rate used to
discount expected cash flow from
investments
d. It is not relevant in engineering economy
studies
Which of the following is true regarding
the minimum attractive rate of return
used in judging proposed investments?
a. It is much smaller than the interest rate used
to discount expected cash flows from
investments
b. It is frequently a policy decision made by an
organization’s management
c. It is larger than the interest rate used to
discount expected cash flow from
investments
d. It is not relevant in engineering economy
studies
Which of the following situation has a
conventional cash flow so that an
internal rate of return can be safely
calculated and used?
a. Your company undertakes a mining project in which
the land must be reclaimed at the end of the project
b. You invest in a safe dividend stock and receive
dividends each year
c. You lease a car and pay by the month
d. Your company invests heavily in a new product that
will generate profits for two years. To keep profits
high for 10 years, the company plans to invests
heavily after two years
Which of the following situation has a
conventional cash flow so that an
internal rate of return can be safely
calculated and used?
a. Your company undertakes a mining project in which
the land must be reclaimed at the end of the project
b. You invest in a safe dividend stock and receive
dividends each year
c. You lease a car and pay by the month
d. Your company invests heavily in a new product that
will generate profits for two years. To keep profits
high for 10 years, the company plans to invests
heavily after two years
The economic order quantity (EOQ) is defined
as the order quantity which minimize the
inventory cost per unit time. Which of the
following is not an assumption of the basic
EOQ model with no shortages?
a. Reordering is done when the inventory is
zero
b. The entire reorder quantity 1 delivered
instantaneously
c. There is an upper bound on the quantity
ordered
d. The demand rate is uniform and constant
The economic order quantity (EOQ) is defined
as the order quantity which minimize the
inventory cost per unit time. Which of the
following is not an assumption of the basic
EOQ model with no shortages?
a. Reordering is done when the inventory is
zero
b. The entire reorder quantity 1 delivered
instantaneously
c. There is an upper bound on the quantity
ordered
d. The demand rate is uniform and constant
Which of the following events will cause
the optional lot size, given by the classic
EOQ model with no shortages, to
increase?

a. A decrease in inventory carrying

cost
b. An increase in demand
c. A decrease in demand
d. aor c
Which of the following events will cause
the optional lot size, given by the classic
EOQ model with no shortages, to
increase?

a. A decrease in inventory carrying

cost
b. An increase in demand
c. A decrease in demand
d. aor c
What is a borrower of a particular loan
almost always required to do during
repayment?
a. Pay exactly the same amount of
principal each payment
b. Pay exactly the same amount of interest
each payment
c. Repay the loan over an agreed-upon
amount of time
d. Pay the interest only wherever failure to
pay the principal
What is a borrower of a particular loan
almost always required to do during
repayment?
a. Pay exactly the same amount of
principal each payment
b. Pay exactly the same amount of interest
each payment
c. Repay the loan over an agreed-upon
amount of time
d. Pay the interest only wherever failure to
pay the principal
How do you classify work-in-process?

a. A liability
b. An expense
c. A revenue
d. An asset
How do you classify work-in-process?

a. A liability
b. An expense
c. A revenue
d. An asset
What is the indirect product cost (IPC)
spending variance?
a. The IPC volume adjusted budget
minus the total IPC absorbed
b. The IPC volume adjusted budget
[fixed + volume (variable IPC rate)]
c. The difference between actual IPC
and IPC volume adjusted budget
d. The difference between actual IPC
and IPC absorbed
What is the indirect product cost (IPC)
spending variance?
a. The IPC volume adjusted budget
minus the total IPC absorbed
b. The IPC volume adjusted budget
[fixed + volume (variable IPC rate)]
c. The difference between actual IPC
and IPC volume adjusted budget
d. The difference between actual IPC
and IPC absorbed
Which of the following does not affect
owner’s equity?

a. Expense to get license of start

business
b. Investment capital
c. License to start business
d. Dividends paid
Which of the following does not affect
owner’s equity?

a. Expense to get license of start

business
b. Investment capital
c. License to start business
d. Dividends paid
How do you call an increase in the value
of a capital asset?

a. Profit
b. Capital gain
c. Capital expenditure
d. Capital stock
How do you call an increase in the value
of a capital asset?

a. Profit
b. Capital gain
c. Capital expenditure
d. Capital stock
Another name for derivative is said to
be:

a. Differential manifold
b. Partial derivative
c. Differential form
d. Differential coefficient
Another name for derivative is said to
be:

a. Differential manifold
b. Partial derivative
c. Differential form
d. Differential coefficient
Another term for rhombus is said to be:

a. Dichotomy
b. Diamond
c. Cyclic quadrilateral
d. Bi-rectangular
Another term for rhombus is said to be:

a. Dichotomy
b. Diamond
c. Cyclic quadrilateral
d. Bi-rectangular
A polygon with twelve sides is known as:

a. Dodecagon
b. Decagon
c. Decahedron
d. Dedecahedron
A polygon with twelve sides is known as:

a. Dodecagon
b. Decagon
c. Decahedron
d. Dedecahedron
A prefix denoting a multiple of ten times
any of the physical units of the system
international

a. Deka
b. Nano
c. Hecto
d. Exa
A prefix denoting a multiple of ten times
any of the physical units of the system
international

a. Deka
b. Nano
c. Hecto
d. Exa
The father of plane geometry.

a. Euclid
b. Pythagoras
c. Aristotle
d. Galileo
The father of plane geometry.

a. Euclid
b. Pythagoras
c. Aristotle
d. Galileo
This is the case of a solution of a plane
triangle where the given data leads to
two solutions. How do you call this case?

a. Ambiguous case
b. Quadratic ease
c. Extraneous ease
d. Conditional ease
This is the case of a solution of a plane
triangle where the given data leads to
two solutions. How do you call this case?

a. Ambiguous case
b. Quadratic ease
c. Extraneous ease
d. Conditional ease
It is a type of polygon in which each
interior angle must be less than or equal
to 180˚, and all vertices ‘point outwards’
away from the interior. How do you call
this polygon?
a. Concave polygon
b. Convex polygon
c. Regular polygon
d. Irregular polygon
It is a type of polygon in which each
interior angle must be less than or equal
to 180˚, and all vertices ‘point outwards’
away from the interior. How do you call
this polygon?
a. Concave polygon
b. Convex polygon
c. Regular polygon
d. Irregular polygon
It is a series of equal payments occuring
at equal intervals of time where the first
payment is made after several periods,
after the beginning of the payment. How
do you call this payment?
a. Deferred annuity
b. Delayed annuity
c. Progressive annuity
d. Simple annuity
It is a series of equal payments occuring
at equal intervals of time where the first
payment is made after several periods,
after the beginning of the payment. How
do you call this payment?
a. Deferred annuity
b. Delayed annuity
c. Progressive annuity
d. Simple annuity
What do you think is the negotiation of
wage rates, conditions of employment,
etc. by representatives of the labor force
and management?

a. Union trade
b. Union rally
c. Collective bargaining
d. Cooperative
What do you think is the negotiation of
wage rates, conditions of employment,
etc. by representatives of the labor force
and management?

a. Union trade
b. Union rally
c. Collective bargaining
d. Cooperative
How do you call a type of bound where
the corporation’s owner name is
recorded and the interest is paid
periodically to the owners with their
asking for it?
a. Registered bond
b. Preferred bond
c. Incorporator’s bond
d. Bail bond
How do you call a type of bound where
the corporation’s owner name is
recorded and the interest is paid
periodically to the owners with their
asking for it?
a. Registered bond
b. Preferred bond
c. Incorporator’s bond
d. Bail bond
How do you call the integral of any
quotient whose numerator is the
differential of the denominator?

a. co-logarithm
b. Logarithm
c. Product
d. Derivative
How do you call the integral of any
quotient whose numerator is the
differential of the denominator?

a. co-logarithm
b. Logarithm
c. Product
d. Derivative
What is a regular polygon that has 27
diagonals?

a. Nonagon
b. Hexagon
c. Pentagon
d. Heptagon
What is a regular polygon that has 27
diagonals?

a. Nonagon
b. Hexagon
c. Pentagon
d. Heptagon
How do you call the formula used to
compute the value of n factorial, which is
in symbolic form (n!), where n is large
number?

a. Matheson formula
b. Diophantine formula
c. Richardson-Duchman formula
d. Stirling’s approximation
How do you call the formula used to
compute the value of n factorial, which is
in symbolic form (n!), where n is large
number?

a. Matheson formula
b. Diophantine formula
c. Richardson-Duchman formula
d. Stirling’s approximation
What is the reason why an ivory soap
floats in water?

a. All matter has mass

b. The specific gravity of ivory soap is
greater than that of water
c. The density of ivory soap is unity
d. The specific gravity of ivory is less
than that of water
What is the reason why an ivory soap
floats in water?

a. All matter has mass

b. The specific gravity of ivory soap is
greater than that of water
c. The density of ivory soap is unity
d. The specific gravity of ivory is less
than that of water
When two planes intersect with each
other, the amount of divergence
between the two planes is expressed by
measuring the:

a. Reflex angle
b. Dihedral angle
c. Polyhedral angle
d. Plane angle
When two planes intersect with each
other, the amount of divergence
between the two planes is expressed by
measuring the:

a. Reflex angle
b. Dihedral angle
c. Polyhedral angle
d. Plane angle
What do you think is the output or sales
at which income is insufficient to equal
to equal operating cost?

a. Break even point

b. Depreciation
c. Investment
d. Cash flow
What do you think is the output or sales
at which income is insufficient to equal
to equal operating cost?

a. Break even point

b. Depreciation
c. Investment
d. Cash flow
What is an estimate of assets’ net market
value at the end of its estimated life?

a. Book value
b. Depreciation
c. Salvage value
d. Cash flow
What is an estimate of assets’ net market
value at the end of its estimated life?

a. Book value
b. Depreciation
c. Salvage value
d. Cash flow
What do you think is the lessening of the
value of an asset due to a decrease in
the quantity available as a coal, oil and
timber in forest?

a. Depletion
b. Amortization
c. Depreciation
d. investment
What do you think is the lessening of the
value of an asset due to a decrease in
the quantity available as a coal, oil and
timber in forest?

a. Depletion
b. Amortization
c. Depreciation
d. investment
What can you say about the present
worth of all depreciation over the
economic life of the item?

a. Maintenance
b. Capital recovery
c. Depreciation recovery
d. Annuity
What can you say about the present
worth of all depreciation over the
economic life of the item?

a. Maintenance
b. Capital recovery
c. Depreciation recovery
d. Annuity
What do you think is the provision in the
contract that indicates the possible
adjustment of material cost and labor
cost?

a. Secondary clause
b. Specification
c. Escalatory clause
d. General clause
What do you think is the provision in the
contract that indicates the possible
adjustment of material cost and labor
cost?

a. Secondary clause
b. Specification
c. Escalatory clause
d. General clause
This is the process of determining the
value of certain property reasons. Guess,
what is this?

a. Amortization
b. Investment
c. Appraisal
d. Depreciation
This is the process of determining the
value of certain property reasons. Guess,
what is this?

a. Amortization
b. Investment
c. Appraisal
d. Depreciation
How do you call those products or
services that are directly used by people
to satisfy their wants?

a. Consumer goods and services

b. Necessity products and services
c. Producer goods and services
d. Luxury products and services
How do you call those products or
services that are directly used by people
to satisfy their wants?

a. Consumer goods and services

b. Necessity products and services
c. Producer goods and services
d. Luxury products and services
These are used to produce consumer
goods and services. Guess, what are
there?

a. Consumer goods and services

b. Necessity products and services
c. Producer goods and services
d. Luxury products and services
These are used to produce consumer
goods and services. Guess, what are
there?

a. Consumer goods and services

b. Necessity products and services
c. Producer goods and services
d. Luxury products and services
What do you think are those products or
services that are required to support human
life and activities that will be purchased in
somewhat the same quantity even though
the price varies considerably?

a. Consumer goods and services

b. Necessity products and services
c. Producer goods and services
d. Luxury products and services
What do you think are those products or
services that are required to support human
life and activities that will be purchased in
somewhat the same quantity even though
the price varies considerably?

a. Consumer goods and services

b. Necessity products and services
c. Producer goods and services
d. Luxury products and services
How do you call a cylinder with elliptical
cross section?

a. Ellipsoid
b. Cylindroid
c. Hyperboloid
d. Paraboloid
How do you call a cylinder with elliptical
cross section?

a. Ellipsoid
b. Cylindroid
c. Hyperboloid
d. Paraboloid
How do you call a market whereby there
is only one buyer of an item for which
there are no goods substitutes?

a. Monopoly
b. Monopsony
c. Oligopoly
d. Oligopsony
How do you call a market whereby there
is only one buyer of an item for which
there are no goods substitutes?

a. Monopoly
b. Monopsony
c. Oligopoly
d. Oligopsony
Which statement about a charge placed
on a dielectric material is true?

a. The charge increase the conductivity of

the material
b. The change is confined to the region in
which the charge was placed
c. The charge is immediately lost to the
atmosphere
d. The charge is instantly carried to the
material’s surface
Which statement about a charge placed
on a dielectric material is true?

a. The charge increase the conductivity of

the material
b. The change is confined to the region in
which the charge was placed
c. The charge is immediately lost to the
atmosphere
d. The charge is instantly carried to the
material’s surface
Which of the following is not a property
of magnetic field lines?
a. Magnetic field lines have no
beginnings and no ends
b. The intersect surfaces of equal
intensity at right angles
c. The lines cross themselves only at
right angles
d. The field is stronger where the lines
are closer together
Which of the following is not a property
of magnetic field lines?
a. Magnetic field lines have no
beginnings and no ends
b. The intersect surfaces of equal
intensity at right angles
c. The lines cross themselves only at
right angles
d. The field is stronger where the lines
are closer together
Tesla is a unit of which of the following?

a. Magnetic induction
b. Inductance
c. Capacitance
d. Magnetic flux
Tesla is a unit of which of the following?

a. Magnetic induction
b. Inductance
c. Capacitance
d. Magnetic flux
What is a pole pitch?

a. The angle at which the pole

windings are wound
b. The space on the stator allocated to
one pole
c. The space on the stator allocated to
two poles
d. The mica used to insulate the pole
from each other
What is a pole pitch?

a. The angle at which the pole

windings are wound
b. The space on the stator allocated to
one pole
c. The space on the stator allocated to
two poles
d. The mica used to insulate the pole
from each other
How do you call a polygon with 10,000
sides?

a. Hectogon
b. Chilliagon
c. Myriagon
d. Octacontagon
How do you call a polygon with 10,000
sides?

a. Hectogon
b. Chilliagon
c. Myriagon
d. Octacontagon
Any line segment joining a vertex of a
triangle to a point on the opposite side is
called as:

a. Newton line
b. Secant
c. Cevlan
d. Euclidian line
Any line segment joining a vertex of a
triangle to a point on the opposite side is
called as:

a. Newton line
b. Secant
c. Cevlan
d. Euclidian line
It is any influence capable of producing a
change in the motion of an object.

a. Force
b. Acceleration
c. Friction
d. Velocity
It is any influence capable of producing a
change in the motion of an object.

a. Force
b. Acceleration
c. Friction
d. Velocity
How do you call the amount needed at
the beginning of operations and permits
the enterprise to begin functioning
before it receives any income from the
sales of its product or service.
a. Initial working capital
b. Regular working capital
c. Equity
d. Annuity
How do you call the amount needed at
the beginning of operations and permits
the enterprise to begin functioning
before it receives any income from the
sales of its product or service.
a. Initial working capital
b. Regular working capital
c. Equity
d. Annuity
In the problem of writing the equation of
a certain curve with respect to another
axes in which the new axes are parallel to
the original axes and similarly directed is
known as:
a. Translation of axes
b. Reversal of axes
c. Notation of axes
d. Relocation of axes
In the problem of writing the equation of
a certain curve with respect to another
axes in which the new axes are parallel to
the original axes and similarly directed is
known as:
a. Translation of axes
b. Reversal of axes
c. Notation of axes
d. Relocation of axes
How do you call a ring shaped surface or
solid obtained by rotating a circle about
a coplanar line that does not intersect?

a. Torus
b. Annulus
c. Circoloid
d. Annular
How do you call a ring shaped surface or
solid obtained by rotating a circle about
a coplanar line that does not intersect?

a. Torus
b. Annulus
c. Circoloid
d. Annular
If the eccentricity is less than one, then
curve is known as:

a. Ellipse
b. Hyperbola
c. Parabola
d. Circle
If the eccentricity is less than one, then
curve is known as:

a. Ellipse
b. Hyperbola
c. Parabola
d. Circle
What can you say to the following
statement: “the volume of a circular
cylinder is equal to the product of its
base and altitude.”?

a. Postulate
b. Corollary
c. Theorem
d. Axiom
What can you say to the following
statement: “the volume of a circular
cylinder is equal to the product of its
base and altitude.”?

a. Postulate
b. Corollary
c. Theorem
d. Axiom
What is the study of the properties of
figures of three dimensions?

a. Physics
b. Solid geometry
c. Plane geometry
d. Trigonometry
What is the study of the properties of
figures of three dimensions?

a. Physics
b. Solid geometry
c. Plane geometry
d. Trigonometry
Points that lie in the same plane:

a. Coplanar
b. Collinear
c. Oblique
d. Parallel
Points that lie in the same plane:

a. Coplanar
b. Collinear
c. Oblique
d. Parallel
When a line y = mx + b slopes
downwards from left to right, the slope
m is:

a. Less than zero

b. Greater than zero
c. Equal to zero
d. Equal to 1
When a line y = mx + b slopes
downwards from left to right, the slope
m is:

a. Less than zero

b. Greater than zero
c. Equal to zero
d. Equal to 1
“whenever a net force acts on a body, it produces
acceleration in the direction of the resultant force, an
acceleration which is directly proportional to the
resultant force and inversely proportional to the
resultant force and inversely proportional to the
mass of the body”. How do you call this theory?

a. Newton's first law of motion

b. Farday’s law of forces
c. Newton’s second law of motion
d. Hook’s law of equilibrium
“whenever a net force acts on a body, it produces
acceleration in the direction of the resultant force, an
acceleration which is directly proportional to the
resultant force and inversely proportional to the
resultant force and inversely proportional to the
mass of the body”. How do you call this theory?

a. Newton's first law of motion

b. Farday’s law of forces
c. Newton’s second law of motion
d. Hook’s law of equilibrium
It is defined that the momentum of a
moving object is the product of its mass,
m, and velocity, V. in Newton's law of
motion, what is the rate of change of
momentum with respect to time?
a. Power
b. Momentum
c. Energy
d. Force
It is defined that the momentum of a
moving object is the product of its mass,
m, and velocity, V. in Newton's law of
motion, what is the rate of change of
momentum with respect to time?
a. Power
b. Momentum
c. Energy
d. Force
The loss of weight of body submerge in a
fluid is:
a. Proportional to the weight of the
body
b. Equal to the weight of the fluid
displaced
c. Proportional of the volume of the
body
d. Independent of the volume of the
body
The loss of weight of body submerge in a
fluid is:
a. Proportional to the weight of the
body
b. Equal to the weight of the fluid
displaced
c. Proportional of the volume of the
body
d. Independent of the volume of the
body
The amount of company’s profits that
the board of directors of the corporation
decides to distribute to ordinary
shareholders.

a. Dividend
b. Retum
c. Share of stock
d. Par value
The amount of company’s profits that
the board of directors of the corporation
decides to distribute to ordinary
shareholders.

a. Dividend
b. Retum
c. Share of stock
d. Par value
Which of the following is not a theorem
on limits?
a. The limit of the algebraic sum of several
functions is equal to the sum of their limits
b. The limit of the product of several function is
equal to the product of their limits
c. The limit of the difference of several function
is equal to the difference of their limits
d. The limits of the quotient of two functions is
equal to the quotient of their limits,
provided the denominator is not zero.
Which of the following is not a theorem
on limits?
a. The limit of the algebraic sum of several
functions is equal to the sum of their limits
b. The limit of the product of several function is
equal to the product of their limits
c. The limit of the difference of several function
is equal to the difference of their limits
d. The limits of the quotient of two functions is
equal to the quotient of their limits,
provided the denominator is not zero.
When a homogeneous, flexible cord is
held at the two ends and allowed to sag
freely on its own weight, it will produce a
curve very similar to a parabola opening
upwards. How do you call this curve?
a. Parabola
b. Catenary
c. Cycloid
d. Epicycloids
When a homogeneous, flexible cord is
held at the two ends and allowed to sag
freely on its own weight, it will produce a
curve very similar to a parabola opening
upwards. How do you call this curve?
a. Parabola
b. Catenary
c. Cycloid
d. Epicycloids
Which of the following common wealth
acts is known as the oldest mechanical
engineering law?

a. Commonwealth act 394

b. Commonwealth act 294
c. Commonwealth act 594
d. Commonwealth act 8394
Which of the following common wealth
acts is known as the oldest mechanical
engineering law?

a. Commonwealth act 394

b. Commonwealth act 294
c. Commonwealth act 594
d. Commonwealth act 8394
What is a borrower of a particular loan
almost always required to do during
repayment?
a. Pay exactly the same amount of
interest each payment.
b. Pay exactly the same amount of
principal each payment
c. Repay the load over an agreed-
upon amount of time
d. The choices a and c above
What is a borrower of a particular loan
almost always required to do during
repayment?
a. Pay exactly the same amount of
interest each payment.
b. Pay exactly the same amount of
principal each payment
c. Repay the load over an agreed-
upon amount of time
d. The choices a and c above
To be a member of the board of
mechanical engineering, he/she must be
at least how many years old?

a. 25 years
b. 30 years
c. 35 years
d. 40 years
To be a member of the board of
mechanical engineering, he/she must be
at least how many years old?

a. 25 years
b. 30 years
c. 35 years
d. 40 years
How do you call the line passing through
the focus and perpendicular to the
directrix of a parabola?

a. Latus rectum
b. Axis of parabola
c. Transverse axis
d. Major axis
How do you call the line passing through
the focus and perpendicular to the
directrix of a parabola?

a. Latus rectum
b. Axis of parabola
c. Transverse axis
d. Major axis
What is the ratio of the distance
between the foci to the distance
between the vertices in either hyperbola
or ellipse?

a. Eccentricity
b. Latus rectum
c. Variance
d. deviation
What is the ratio of the distance
between the foci to the distance
between the vertices in either hyperbola
or ellipse?

a. Eccentricity
b. Latus rectum
c. Variance
d. deviation
It is a statement that one mathematical
expression is greater than or less than
another, how do you call this?

a. Conditional expression
b. Inequality
c. Interval
d. Domain
It is a statement that one mathematical
expression is greater than or less than
another, how do you call this?

a. Conditional expression
b. Inequality
c. Interval
d. Domain
It is a method of depreciation where a fixed sum of
money is regularly deposited at compound interest
in a real or imaginary fund in order to accumulate
an amount equal to the total depreciation of an
asset at the end of the assets estimated life. How
do you call this depreciation?

a. Straight line method

b. Declining balance method
c. SYD method
d. Sinking fund method
It is a method of depreciation where a fixed sum of
money is regularly deposited at compound interest
in a real or imaginary fund in order to accumulate
an amount equal to the total depreciation of an
asset at the end of the assets estimated life. How
do you call this depreciation?

a. Straight line method

b. Declining balance method
c. SYD method
d. Sinking fund method
What is an artificial expense that spreads
the purchase price of an asset or other
property over a number of years?

a. Depreciation
b. Amnesty
c. Sinking fund
d. Bond
What is an artificial expense that spreads
the purchase price of an asset or other
property over a number of years?

a. Depreciation
b. Amnesty
c. Sinking fund
d. Bond
How do you classify this interest rate,
which specifies the actual rate of interest
on the principal for one year?

a. Nominal rate
b. Rate of return
c. Exact interest rate
d. Effective rate
How do you classify this interest rate,
which specifies the actual rate of interest
on the principal for one year?

a. Nominal rate
b. Rate of return
c. Exact interest rate
d. Effective rate
What type of curve is generated by a
point which moves in uniform circular
motion about an axis, while traveling
with a constant speed, V, parallel to the
axis?
a. A cycloid
b. An epicycloids
c. A hypocycloid
d. A helix
What type of curve is generated by a
point which moves in uniform circular
motion about an axis, while traveling
with a constant speed, V, parallel to the
axis?
a. A cycloid
b. An epicycloids
c. A hypocycloid
d. A helix
What do you call the possible outcome
of an experiment?

a. A sample space
b. A random point
c. An event
d. A finite set
What do you call the possible outcome
of an experiment?

a. A sample space
b. A random point
c. An event
d. A finite set
How do you call a sequence of numbers
where the succeeding term is greater
than the preceding term?

a. Dissonant series
b. Isometric series
c. Convergent series
d. Divergent series
How do you call a sequence of numbers
where the succeeding term is greater
than the preceding term?

a. Dissonant series
b. Isometric series
c. Convergent series
d. Divergent series
A branch of mathematics which uses the
properties of numbers by using symbols or
letters to represent numbers in arithmetic
operations which usually variables and
unknown quantities which usually involves the
use and rearranging or equation.
a. Trigonometry
b. Algebra
c. Geometry
d. Calculus
A branch of mathematics which uses the
properties of numbers by using symbols or
letters to represent numbers in arithmetic
operations which usually variables and
unknown quantities which usually involves the
use and rearranging or equation.
a. Trigonometry
b. Algebra
c. Geometry
d. Calculus
This is a series of sequential method for
carrying out a desire procedure to solve
problem.

a. Algorithm
b. Hypsograin
c. Logarithm
d. Angstrom
This is a series of sequential method for
carrying out a desire procedure to solve
problem.

a. Algorithm
b. Hypsograin
c. Logarithm
d. Angstrom
This is use for expressing wavelengths of
light or ultraviolet radiation with a unit
or length equal to 10-10 meter?

a. Mersenne number
b. Middle
c. Light year
d. Angstrom
This is use for expressing wavelengths of
light or ultraviolet radiation with a unit
or length equal to 10-10 meter?

a. Mersenne number
b. Middle
c. Light year
d. Angstrom
It refers to a straight line, which a curve
approaches closely, but never meets or
touches the curve.

a. Asymptote
b. Directrix
c. Latus rectum
d. Line segment
It refers to a straight line, which a curve
approaches closely, but never meets or
touches the curve.

a. Asymptote
b. Directrix
c. Latus rectum
d. Line segment
It is a collection of numbers or letters
used to represent a number arranged
properly in rows and columns.

a. Determinant
b. Matrix
c. Array
d. Equation
It is a collection of numbers or letters
used to represent a number arranged
properly in rows and columns.

a. Determinant
b. Matrix
c. Array
d. Equation
It is a high-level programming language
for the computer used to express
mathematical and scientific problems in
a manner that resembles. English rather
than computer notations.
a. Algol
b. Cobol
c. Pascal
d. Aldus
It is a high-level programming language
for the computer used to express
mathematical and scientific problems in
a manner that resembles. English rather
than computer notations.
a. Algol
b. Cobol
c. Pascal
d. Aldus
In any triangle, the length of a line which
is equal to the square root of the sides
adjacent to the point where this line
started minus the product of the
segments of the third side is known as:
a. Angle bisector
b. Median
c. Perpendicular bisector
d. Trisector
In any triangle, the length of a line which
is equal to the square root of the sides
adjacent to the point where this line
started minus the product of the
segments of the third side is known as:
a. Angle bisector
b. Median
c. Perpendicular bisector
d. Trisector
The whole is greater than any one of its
parts. This statement is known as:

a. Postulate
b. Axiom
c. Hypothesis
d. Theorem
The whole is greater than any one of its
parts. This statement is known as:

a. Postulate
b. Axiom
c. Hypothesis
d. Theorem
A perpendicular segment from a vertex
of the triangle to the line containing the
opposite side is known as:

a. Median
b. Altitude
c. Angular bisector
d. Perpendicular bisector
A perpendicular segment from a vertex
of the triangle to the line containing the
opposite side is known as:

a. Median
b. Altitude
c. Angular bisector
d. Perpendicular bisector
An S.I unit of area equal to 100 sq. m

a. Arc
b. Aere
c. Hectares
d. Are
An S.I unit of area equal to 100 sq. m

a. Arc
b. Aere
c. Hectares
d. Are
The angle that the line of sight to the
object, makes with the horizontal, which
is above the eye of the observer, is called
as:

a. Angel of elevation
b. Angle of depression
c. Acute angle
d. Obtuse angle
The angle that the line of sight to the
object, makes with the horizontal, which
is above the eye of the observer, is called
as:

a. Angel of elevation
b. Angle of depression
c. Acute angle
d. Obtuse angle
In complex algebra, we use a diagram to
represent a complex plane commonly
called as:

a. Venn diagram
b. Histogram
c. Argand Diagram
d. Funicular diagram
In complex algebra, we use a diagram to
represent a complex plane commonly
called as:

a. Venn diagram
b. Histogram
c. Argand Diagram
d. Funicular diagram
The area bounded by two concentric
circles is called as:

a. Annulus
b. Ring
c. Disk
d. Sector
The area bounded by two concentric
circles is called as:

a. Annulus
b. Ring
c. Disk
d. Sector
A series of number in which each
number or term is derived from the
preceding number by adding a constant
value to it is known as:

a. Geometric sequence
b. Arithmetic sequence
c. Analytic sequence
d. Differential sequence
A series of number in which each
number or term is derived from the
preceding number by adding a constant
value to it is known as:

a. Geometric sequence
b. Arithmetic sequence
c. Analytic sequence
d. Differential sequence
10 to the negative power of 18 is the
value of the prefix:

a. Atto
b. Femto
c. Micro
d. Pico
10 to the negative power of 18 is the
value of the prefix:

a. Atto
b. Femto
c. Micro
d. Pico
A series of equal payments occurring at
equal period of time.

a. Annuity
b. Sinking fund
c. Cash flow
d. Annual cost
A series of equal payments occurring at
equal period of time.

a. Annuity
b. Sinking fund
c. Cash flow
d. Annual cost
The ratio of annual sales to the average
of assets used in producing these sales.

a. Inventory turnover
b. Asset turnover
c. Operating-expense ratio
d. Quick ratio
The ratio of annual sales to the average
of assets used in producing these sales.

a. Inventory turnover
b. Asset turnover
c. Operating-expense ratio
d. Quick ratio
Quick ratio is defined as the ratio of
quick assets to the current liabilities,
sometimes this is called:

a. Acid test ratio

b. Debt ratio
c. Equity ratio
d. Current ratio
Quick ratio is defined as the ratio of
quick assets to the current liabilities,
sometimes this is called:

a. Acid test ratio

b. Debt ratio
c. Equity ratio
d. Current ratio
Form of business/company ownership:

a. Partnership
b. Corporation
c. Single proprietorship
d. All of the above
Form of business/company ownership:

a. Partnership
b. Corporation
c. Single proprietorship
d. All of the above
It is defined to be any method of
repaying a debt, the principal and
interest included usually by a series of
equal payments at periodic intervals of
time.
a. Amortization
b. Annuity
c. Deferred annuity
d. Preferred annuity
It is defined to be any method of
repaying a debt, the principal and
interest included usually by a series of
equal payments at periodic intervals of
time.
a. Amortization
b. Annuity
c. Deferred annuity
d. Preferred annuity