IES OBJ Electrical Engineering 2002 Paper II
IES OBJ Electrical Engineering 2002 Paper II
PAPERI I
1. A d.c. series motor is accidentally
connected to single- phase a.c. supply. The
torque produced will be
a. of zero average value
b. oscillating
c. steady and undirectional
d. pulsating and unidirectional
2. The synchronous - impedance method of
finding the voltage regulation by a
cylindrical rotor alternator is generally
considered
a. a pessimistic method because
saturation is not considered V
b. an optimistic method because
saturation is not considered
c. a fairly accurate method even if power
factor is not taken into account while
determining synchronous impedance
d. a fairly accurate method when power
factor is taken into account while
determining synchronous impedance
3. Generally the no-load losses of an
electrical machine is represented in its
equivalent circuit by a
a. parallel resistance with a low value
b. series resistance with a low value
c. parallel resistance with a high value
d. series resistance with a high value
4. The power factor of a synchronous motor
a. improves with increase in excitation
and may even become leading at
higher excitations
b. decreases with increase in excitation
c. is independent of its excitation
d. increases with loading for a given
excitation
5. When the excitation of normally operating
unloaded salient-pole synchronous motor
suddenly gets disconnected, it continues to
run as a
a. Schrage motor
b. Spherical motor
c. Switched- reluctance motor
d. Variable - reluctance motor
6. A 6-pole, 3-phase alternator running at
1000 rpm supplies to an 8-pole, 3-phase
induction motor which has a rotor current
of frequency 2 Hz. The speed at which the
motor operates is
a. 1000 rpm
b. 960 rpm
c. 750 rpm
d. 720 rpm
7. For maximum current during Slip Test
on a synchronous machine, the armature
and aligns along
a. d-axis
b. q-axis
c. 45 to d-axis
d. 45 to q-axis
8. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I (Name of test)
A. Open circuit and short circuit tests
B. Open circuit and zero power factor
tests
C. Slip test
D. Maximum lagging current test
List II (Result)
1. Leakage reactance
2. Direct axis synchronous reactance
3. Quadrature axis synchronous reactance
4. Ratio, of direct axis synchronous
reactance to quadrature axis
synchronous reactance
Codes;
A B C D
a. 1 2 4 3
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 2 1 3 4
9. A 3-phase 50 MVA 10 kV generator has a
reactance of 0.2 ohm per phase. Hence the
per-unit value of the reactance on. a base
of 100 MVA 25 kV will be
I.E.S (OBJ) - 2002
E EL LE EC CT TR RI I C CA AL L E EN NG GI I N NE EE ER RI I N NG G
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a. 1.25
b. 0.625
c. 0.032
d. 0.32
10. The results of a Slip Test for determining
direct-axis (X
d
) and quadrature-axis (X
q
)
reactances of a star-connected salient -
pole alternator are given below
phase values:
max
108 ; V V =
min
96 , V V =
max
12 , I A =
min
I 10 . A = Hence the two
reactance will be
a. X
d
=10.8 ohms and X
q
=8 ohms
b. X
d
=9 ohms and X
q
=9.6 ohms
c. X
d
=9.6 ohms and X
q
=9 ohms
d. X
d
=8 ohms and X
q
=10.8 ohms
11. Stepper motors are widely used because of
a. wide speed range
b. large rating
c. no need for field control
d. compatibility with digital systems
12.
A 3-phase transformer having zero -
sequence impedance Z0 has zero-sequence
network as represented in the figure. The
connections of its windings are
a. star with isolated neutral - delta
b. star with grounded neutral- delta
c. delta- star with grounded neutral
d. delta-delta
13. A 2-phase servomotor in control system
a. uses drag - cup rotor
b. solid cylindrical rotor without slots or
windings
c. ordinary squirrel - cage rotor
d. slip - ring rotor with inherent low
rotor resistance
14. Capacitor in a single-phase induction
motor is used for
a. improving the power factor
b. improving the starting torque
c. starting the motor
d. reducing the harmonics
15. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I (Transformer)
A. Power transformer
B. Auto transformer
C. Welding transformer
D. Isolation transformer
List II (Voltage ratio)
1. 230 V / 230 V
2. 220 V / 240V
3. 400 V / 100V
4. 132 k V / 11 kV
Codes;
A B C D
a. 4 2 3 1
b. 4 2 1 3
c. 2 4 1 3
d. 2 4 3 1
16. A two-winding transformer is used as an
auto-transformer. The kVA rating of the
auto-transformer compared to the two-
winding transformer will be
a. 3 times
b. 2 times
c. 1.5 times
d. same
17. A 20 kVA, 2000/200 V, 1-phase
transformer has nameplate leakage
impedance of 8% Voltage required to be
applied on the high - voltage side to
circulate full - load current with the low-
voltage winding short-circuited will be
a. 16 V
b. 56.56 V
c. 160 V
d. 568.68 V
18. The full-load copper-Loss and iron-loss of
a transformer are 6400 W and 5000 W
respectively. The copper-loss and iron-loss
at half load will be, respectively
a. 3200 W and 2500 W
b. 3200 W and 5200 W
c. 16O0 W and 1250 W
d. 1600 W and 5000 W
19. In a 100 kVA, 1100/220 V, 50 Hz single -
phase trans former with 2000 turns on the
high -voltage side, the open- circuit test
result gives 220 V, 91 A, 5 kW on low
voltage side. The core-loss component of
current is, approximately
a. 9.1 A
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b. 22.7 A
c. 45.0 A
d. 91 A
20. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I (Types of electrical loads)
A. Hoist
B. Fans
C. Machine Tools (Lathe, Milling
machine etc.)
D. Loads with fluid friction
List II (Torque-speed characteristics)
1. Torque (speed)
2
2. Torque (speed)
3. Constant Torque
4. Torque 1/ (speed)
Codes;
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 4
b. 1 3 4 2
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 3 1 2 4
21. For a given torque, reducing the diverter-
resistance of a d.c. series motor
a. increases its speed but armature current
remains the same
b. increases its speed demanding more
armature current
c. decreases its speed demanding less
armature current
d. decreases its speed but armature
current remains the same
22. Match List I with list II and select the
correct answer:
A. List I (Types of motors)
B. d.c. series motor
C. d.c. shunt motor
D. 3-phase induction motor
E. Synchronous motor
List II (Characteristics)
1. Constant speed
2. High starting torque
3. Low starting torque
4. Poor stability
A B C D
a. 2 4 3 1
b. 3 1 2 4
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 3 4 2 1
23. Match List I with list II and select the
correct answer:
List I
A. Commutation
B. V-curves
C. Free wheeling diode
D. Overlap
List II
1. Inductive load
2. Capacitive load
3. Interpole
4. Source inductance
5. Synchronous motor
Codes;
A B C D
a. 3 5 1 4
b. 2 4 3 5
c. 3 4 1 5
d. 2 5 3 4
24. Possible three -to - three phase transformer
connection for parallel operation is
a. A - Y to A - Y
b. A - A to A - Y
c. Y Y to A - Y
d. A - Y to Y - A
25. Match list I with list II and select the
correct answer:
List I
A. Silica Gel
B. Porcelain
C. Mercury
D. Fins
List II
1. Bushing
2. Buccholz relay
3. Tank
4. Breather
Codes;
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 4 1 2 3
26. A 4 kVA, 400/200 V single-phase
transformer has resistance of 0.02 p.u. and
reactance of 0.06 p.u. Its actual resistance
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and reactance referred to h.v. side, are,
respectively
a. 0.2 ohm and 0.6. ohm
b. 0.8 ohm and 2.4 ohm
c. 0.08 ohm and 0.24 ohm
d. 2 ohm and 6 ohm
27. A certain R - L series combination is
connected across a 50 Hz single-phase a.c.
supply. If the instantaneous power drawn
was found to be negative for 2
milliseconds in one cycle, the power
factor angle of the current must be
a. 9
b. 18
c. 36
d. 45
28. Stepper motors are mostly used for
a. high power requirements
b. control system applications
c. very high speed of operation
d. very low speed of operation.
29. A delta/star transformer has a phase-to-
phase voltage transformation ratio of K
delta phase voltage
star phase voltage
K
| |
=
|
\ .
The line -to - line voltage ratio of star/delta
connection is given by
a. K / 3
b. K
c. K 3
d. 3/K
30. Two 10 kV/440V, 1-phase transformers of
ratings 600 kVA and 350 kVA are
connected in parallel to share a load of 800
kVA. The reactances of the transformers,
referred to the secondary side are 0.0198
O and 0.0304 O respectively (resistances
negligible). The load shared by the two
transformers will, be, respectively
a. 484.5 kVA and 315.5 kVA
b. 315.5 kVA and 484.5 kVA
c. 533 kVA and 267 kVA
d. 267 kVA and 533 kVA
31. Two transformers, with equal voltage ratio
and negligible excitation current,
connected in parallel, share load in the
ratio of their kVA rating only, if their p.u.
impedances (based on their own kVA) are
a. equal
b. in the inverse ratio of their ratings
c. in the direct ratio of their ratings
d. purely reactive
32. The per-unit impedance of a circuit
element is 0.15. lithe base kV and base
MVA are halved, then the new value of the
per-unit impedance of the circuit element
will be
a. 0.075
b. 0.15
c. 0.30
d. 0.60
33. The per-unit impedance of an alternator
corresponding to base values 13.2 kV and
30 MVA is 0.2 p.u. The p.u. value of the
impedance for base values 13.8 kV and 50
MVA in p.u. will be
a. 0.131
b. 0.226
c. 0.305
d. 0.364
34. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I (Phenomenon)
A. Voltage stability
B. Transient stability
C. Oscillatory instability
D. Steady-state Dynamics
List II (Dominant features)
1. Power system stabilizer
2. Damping power
3. Angle stability
4. Reactive power
Codes;
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 4
b. 4 2 3 1
c. 1 2 3 4
d. 4 3 2 1
35. For transmission line which one of the
following relations is true?
a. AD - BC =1
b. AD - BC =1
c. AD - BC =- 1
d. AD - BC =0
36. For a given base voltage and base volt-
amp, the per-unit impedance value of an
element is X. What will be the per-unit
impedance value of this element when the
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voltage and volt-amp bases are both
doubled?
a. 4X
b. 2X
c. X
d. 0.5 X
37.
The reflection coefficient for the
transmission line shown in figure at point
P is
a. +1
b. 0.5
c. 0
d. - 1
38. A 3-phase transmission line has its
conductors at the corners of an equilateral
triangle with side 3 m. The diameter of
each conductor is 1.63 cm. The inductance
of the fine per phase per km is
a. 1.232 mH
b. 1.182 mH
c. 1.093 mH
d. 1.043 mH
39. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I (Design parameters)
A. Number of suspension insulator discs
B. Permissible sag of transmission line
conductor for a given tower
C. Corona discharge
D. Inductance of transmission line
conductor
List II (Factor(s) on which they depend)
1. Voltage and Tower footing resistance
2. Voltage
3. Voltage and conductor configuration
4. Conductor configuration and Tower
configuration
Codes;
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 1 3 2 4
d. 4 2 3 1
40. A cable has inductance of 0.22 mH per km
and capacitance of 0.202 F per km. The
surge impedance of the cable is
a. 28 O
b. 33 O
c. 42 O
d. 50 O
41. For some given transmission line the
expression for voltage regulation is given
by 100%
s R
R
V V
V
. Hence,
a. this must be a short line
b. this may either be a medium line or a
short line
c. this expression is true for any line
d. this may either by a medium line or a
long line
42. The capacitance of an overhead
transmission line increases with
1. increase in mutual geometrical mean
distance
2. increase in height of conductors above
ground
Select the correct answer from the
following
a. Both 1 and 2 are true
b. Both 1 and. 2 are false
c. Only 1 is true
d. Only 2 is true
43. Consider the following statements:
Addition of lumped capacitances in
parallel to a loss-free transmission line
increases
1. characteristic impedance *
2. Propagation constant
3. system stability
4. charging current
Which of these statements are correct?
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
44. In a certain single-phase a.c. circuit the
instantaneous voltage is given by
v = V sin (et + 30) p.u. and the
instantaneous current is given, by i =I sin
(et 300) p.u. Hence the per-unit value
of reactive power is
a. 1/4
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b. 1/2
c. 3/4
d. 3/2
45. In a multimachine interconnected system,
subsequent to a 3- phase fault, the transient
stability is examined by
a. equal -area criterion
b. solution of wing equation
c. either by equal - area criterion or by
solution of swing equation
d. combination of equal - area criterion
and solution of swing equation
46. The electrical stiffness of a synchronous
generator connected to a very large rid can
be increased by
a. increasing the excitation or the power
angle of the machine
b. reducing the excitation or the
synchronous reactance of the machine
c. increasing the synchronous reactance
of the machine
d. Operating the generator at a much
lower MW level compared to the
steady -state limit
47. A. surge of 100 kV travels along an
overhead line towards it junction with a
cable. The surge impedance for the
overhead line and cable are 400 ohms and
50 ohms respectively. The magnitude of
the surge transmitted through the cable is
a. 11.11 kV
b. 22.22 kV
c. 12.50 kV
d. 82.89 kV
48. A surge voltage rising at 100 kV/s travels
along a Loss-less open-circuited
transmission line. It takes 10 s to reach
the open end. The reflected wave from the
open end, will be rising at
a. 100 kV/s
b. 200 kV/s
c. 1000 kV/s
d. 2000 kV/s
49. The Y
BUS
matrix of a 100-bus
interconnected system is 90% sparse.
Hence the number of transmission lines in
the system must be
a. 450
b. 500
c. 900
d. 1000
50. Match list I with list II and select the
correct answer:
List I (Load flow methods)
A. Gauss-Siedel load flow
B. Newton-Raphson load flow
C. Fast decoupled load flow
D. Real time load flow
List II (System environment)
1. Gauss Elimination
2. L U factors
3. Contingency studies
4. Off-line solution
Codes;
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 2 3 4 1
51. Match List I with list II and select the
correct answer:
List I (Types of relays)
A. Negative sequence relay
B. Harmonic - restraint differential relay
C. Over-current relay with time - delay
D. Mho relay
List II (Protective schemes)
1. Distribution feeder protection
2. Long h.t. lines protection
3. Transformer protection
4. Rotor protection of alternators
Codes;
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 1 2 4 3
c. 4 2 1 3
d. 1 3 4 2
52. The inverse characteristics of an induction
disc relay are shown below
Match list I with list II and select the
correct answer
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List I (x, y co-ordinates and parameter)
A. x co-ordinate
B. y co-ordinate
C. Parameter
List II (Variables)
1. Plug settling voltage
2. Current as multiplier of plug setting
3. Operating time
4. Time multiplier setting
5. Power factor
Codes;
A B C
a. 5 4 1
b. 2 3 4
c. 5 3 4
d. 2 4 1
53. Two generators rated 200 MW and 400
MW having governor droop characteristics
of 4% and 5% respectively are operating in
parallel. If the generators operate on no
load at 50 Hz, the frequency at which they
would operate with a total load of 600
MW is
a. 48.50 Hz
b. 47.69 Hz
c. 46.82 Hz
d. 49.04 Hz
54. The bonding forces in c9mpound
semiconductors, such as GaAs, arise from
a. ionic bonding
b. metallic bonding
c. covalent bonding
d. combination of ionic and covalent
bonding
55. Consider the following statements in
connection with the biasing of
semiconductor diodes ;
1. LEDs are used. Sunder forward - bias
condition
2. Photodiodes are used under forward-
bias condition
3. Zener diodes are used under reverse-
bias condition
4. Variable capacitance diodes are used
under reverse-bias condition
Which of these statements are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
56. The junction capacitance of a linearly
graded junction varies with the applied
reverse bias V
r
as
a.
1
r
V
b.
1/2
r
V
c.
1/3
r
V
d.
1/2
r
V
57. The diffusion capacitance of a forward
biased p
+
- n junction diode with a steady
current I depends on
a. width of the depletion region
b. mean lifetime of the holes
c. mean lifetime of the electrons
d. junction area
58. The modified work function of an n-
channel MOSFET is 0.85 V. If the
interface charge is 3 10
-4
C/m
2
and the
oxide capacitance is 300 F/m
2
, the flat
band voltage .is
a. - 1.85 V
b. - 0.15 V
c. +0.15 V
d. +1.85 V
59. In the circuit shown below,
the average value of v
o
(t) will be
a. 0
b. /
m
V t
c. / 2
m
V
d.
m
V
60. Match list I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I (Amplifiers mode of operation)
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
List II (Properties/characteristics)
1. Clips off half. a cycle
2. Leads to most stable biasing circuit
3. Transistor acts as switch
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4. Amplification of the resonant
frequency only
Codes;
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 1 2 4 3
d. 2 1 3 4
61. Early effectin BJ T refers to
a. avalanche breakdown
b. thermal runaway
c. base narrowing
d. Zener breakdown
62. In the circuit shown below, the average
value of V
o
(t) will be
a. 0
b. /
m
V t
c. / 2
m
V
d.
m
V
63. The Darlington pair is mainly used for
a. impedance matching
b. wideband voltage amplification
c. power amplification
d. reducing distortion
64. In the op-amp circuit shown below,
v
i
>0 and i =I
o
.e
ov
. The output v
o
will be
proportiona to
a.
i
v
b. v
i
c. e
kv
i
d. ( )
i
l n kv
65. In the inverting op-amp circuit shown
below,
the resistance R
g
is chosen as R
1
| | R
2
in
order to
a. increase gain
b. reduce offset voltage
c. reduce offset current
d. increase CMRR
66. An amplifier of gain A is bridged by a
capacitance C as shown below.
The effective input capacitance is
a. C/A
b. C(1 - A)
c. C (1.+A)
d. CA
67. The resolution of a 12 bit Analog to
Digital converter in per cent is
a. 0.01220
b. 0.02441
c. 0.04882
d. 0.09760
68.
The Boolean expression for the output Y
in the logic circuit in
a. A B C
b. A B C
c. A B C
d. A B C
69. To add two M-bit numbers, the required
number of half adders is
a. 2m 1
b. 2
m
1
c. 2m +1
d. 2m
70. Consider the following
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Any combinational circuit can be built
using
1. NAND gates
2. NOR gates
3. DC - OR gates
4. Multiplexeis
Which of these are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
71. The decimal equivalent of hexadecimal
number 2 A OF is
a. 17670
b. 17607
c. 17067
d. 10767
72. The binary equivalent of hexadecimal
number 4 F 2 D is
a. 0101 1111 0010 1100
b. 0100 1111 0010 1100
c. 0100 1110 0010 1101
d. 0100 1111 0010 1101
73. A 3-to-8 decoder is shown below:
All the output lines of the chip will be
high, when all the inputs 1, 2 and 3
a. are high; and G
1
, G
2
are low
b. are high; and G
1
is high, G
2
is high
c. are high; and G
1
is low, G
2
is high
d. are high; and G
1
is high, G
2
is low
74. Which logical operation is performed by
ALU of 8085 to complement a number?
a. AND
b. NOT
c. OR
d. EXCLUSIVE OR
75. The number of output pins of a 8085
microprocessor are
a. 40
b. 27
c. 21
d. 19
76. Consider the execution of the following
instructions by a 8085 microprocessor
LXI H, 01FF
H
SHLD 2050
H
After execution the contents of memory
locations 2050
H
and 2051
H
and the
registers H and L, will be
a. 2050 ;2051 01; ; 01
H H
FF H FF L
b. 2050 01;2051 ; ; 01
H H
FF H FF L
c. 2050 ;2051 01; 01;
H H
FF H L FF
d. 2050 ;2051 01; 00; 00
H H
FF H L
77. Which one of the following functions is
performed by the 8085 instruction MOV
H, C?
a. Moves the contents of H register to C
register
b. Moves the contents of C register to H
register
c. Moves the contents of C register to H
L pair
d. Moves the contents of HL pair to C
register
78. For 8085 microprocessor; the instruction
RST.6 restarts subroutine at address
a. 00H
b. 03H
c. 30H
d. 33H
79. Memory-mapped I/O-scheme for the
allocation of address to memories and I/O
devices, is used for
a. small systems
b. large systems
c. both large and small systems
d. very large systems
80. The interfacing device used for the
generator of accurate time delay in a
microcomputer system is
a. Intel 8251
b. Intel 8257
c. Intel 8253
d. Intel 8259
81. Let x(t) be a real signal with the Fourier
transform X(f). Let X*(f) denote the
complex conjugate of X(f). Then
a. X(-f) =X*(f)
b. X(-f) =X(f)
c. X(-f) =- X(f)
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d. X(-f) =- X*(f)
82. Let the transfer function of a network be
( ) ( )
( ) 4
2
j f j f
H f H f e e
u t
= = If a signal
x(t) is applied to such a network, the
output y(t) is given by
a. 2x(t)
b. x(t - 2)
c. 2x(t - 2)
d. 2x(t - 4t)
83. The maximum number of quantized
amplitude levels, than a 3-digit ternary
PCM system can be used to represent is
a. 8
b. 9
c. 27
d. 81
84. The waveform ( )
1 2
cos cos A t k t e e + is
a. amplitude modulated
b. frequency modulated
c. phase modulated
d. frequency as well as phase modulated
85. Let x(t) = 5 cos (50t + sin 5t). Its
instantaneous frequency (in rad/s) at t =0
has the value
a. 5
b. 50
c. 55
d. 250
86. The performance of the DPCM - Coder
improves as the
a. input probability density becomes
more and more Gaussian
b. input power spectral density tends to
be white
c. input dynamic range increases
d. sample-to-sample correlation of the
input increases
87. An FM wave uses a 2-5V, 500 Hz
modulating frequency and has a
modulation index of 50. The deviation is
a. 500 Hz
b. 1000 Hz
c. 1250 Hz
d. 25000 Hz
88. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I (Modulation / reception techniques)
A. Super heterodyne receiver
B. FM
C. PCM
D. Delta modulation
List II (Disadvantages)
1. Threshold effect
2. Granular noise
3. Image frequency interference
4. Quantization noise
Codes;
A B C D
a. 1 3 4 2
b. 3 1 4 2
c. 1 3 2 4
d. 3 1 2 4
89. Consider a binary Hamming code of block
length 31 and rate equal to (26/31). Its
minimum distance is
a. 3
b. 5
c. 26
d. 31
90. A satellite channel can be fairly accurately
modelled as a
a. random delay channel
b. panic button channel
c. additive white Gaussian noise channel
d. fading channel
91. One, disadvantage of adaptive delta
modulation over linear delta modulation is
that it
a. requires more bandwidth
b. is more vulnerable to channel errors
c. requires a large number of comparators
in the encoder
d. is not suitable for signals with periodic
components
92. An MTI radar is operating at the
wavelength of 5 10
-2
m and the pulse
repetition frequency (PRF) is 1000. Then
the first blind speed (in m/s) occurs at
a. 25
b. 50
c. 500
d. 1000
93. Consider the following statements:
If the maximum range of a radar has to be
doubled,
1. the peak transmitted power may be
increased 16 fold
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2. the antenna diameter may be doubled
3. the sensitivity of the receiver may be
doubled
4. the transmitted pulse width may be
doubled
Which of these statements are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
94. With reference to a pulsed radar match
List I (Problem) with List II (Causes) and
select the correct answer:
List I (Problem)
A. Second time around echo
B. Blind speeds
C. Inadequate range resolution
D. False alarms
List II (Causes)
1. Broad transmitted pulse
2. Inadequate detection threshold
3. MTI filter
4. Inadequate Inter Pulse period
Codes;
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 1 2 4 3
c. 4 2 1 3
d. 1 3 4 2
95. When cathode of a thyristor is made more
positive than its anode
a. all the junctions are reverse biased
b. outer junctions are reverse biased and
central one is forward biased
c. outer junctions are forward biased and
central one is reverse biased
d. all the junctions are forward biased
96. The sharing of the voltages between
thyristors operating in series is influenced
by the
a. di/dt capabilities
b. dv/dt capabilities
c. junction temperatures
d. static v - i characteristics and leakage
currents
97. R - C snubber is used in parallel with the
thyristor to
a. reduce dv/dt across it
b. reduce di/dt through it
c. limit current through the thyristor
d. ensure its conduction after gate signal
is removed
98. For a step up d.c. - d.c. chopper with an
input d.c. voltage of 220 volts, if the
output voltage required is 330 volts and
the non-conducting time of thyristor is 100
s the ON time of thyristor would be
a. 66.6 s
b. 100 s
c. 150 s
d. 200 s
99. A thyristor controlled reactor is used to get
a. variable resistance
b. variable capacitance
c. variable inductance
d. improved reactor power factor
100. A single-phase full-bridge converter with a
free-wheeling diode feeds an inductive
load. The load resistance is 15.53O and it
has a large inductance providing constant
and ripple free d.c. current. Input to
converter is from an ideal 230 V, 50 Hz
single phase source. For a firing delay
angle of 60, the average value of diode
current is
a. 10 A
b. 8.165 A
c. 5.774 A
d. 3.33 A
101. The operation of an inverter fed induction
motor can be shifted from motoring to
regenerative braking by
a. reversing phase sequence
b. reducing inverter voltage
c. decreasing inverter frequency
d. increasing inverter frequency
102. In a three-phase full wave a.c. to d.c.
converter, the ratio of output ripple-
frequency to the supply-voltage frequency
is
a. 2
b. 3
c. 6
d. 12
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103. A6-phase bridge-converter feeds a purely
resistive load. The delay angle o is
measured from the point of natural-
commutation. The effective control of
voltage can be obtained when a lies in the
range
a. 0 s o s 105
b. 0 s o s 120
c. 0 s o s 150
d. 0 s o s 180
104. a.c. voltage regulators are widely used in
a. traction drives
b. fan drives
c. synchronous motor drives
d. slip power recovery scheme of slip-
ring induction motor
105. When fed from a fully controlled rectifier,
a d.c. motor, driving an active load, can
operate in
a. forward motoring and reverse braking
mode
b. forward motoring and forward braking
mode
c. reverse motoring and reverse braking
mode
d. reverse motoring and forward braking
mode
106. Compared to a single - phase half-bridge
inverter, the output power of a single-
phase full-bridge inverter is higher by a
factor of
a. 12
b. 8
c. 4
d. 2
107. In a switched-mode power supply (SMPS),
after conversion of a.c. supply to a highly
filtered d.c. voltage, a switching transistor
is switched ON and OFF at a very high
speed by a pulse width modulator (PWM)
which generates very-high frequency
square pulses. The frequency of the pulses
is typically in the range of
a. 100 Hz - 200 Hz
b. 500 Hz 1 kHz
c. 2 kHz 5 kHz
d. 20 kHz - 50 kHz
108. How many switches are used to construct a
three-phase cycloconverter?
a. 3
b. 6
c. 12
d. 18
109. A 3-phase cycloconverter is used to obtain
a variable- frequency single-phase a.c.
output. The single phase a.c. load is 220 V.
60 A at a power factor of 0.6 lagging. The
rms value of input voltage per phase
required is
a. 376.2 V
b. 311.12 V
c. 266 V
d. 220 V
110. Assertion (A): Even at no load a large
three - phase squirrel- cage. Induction
motor is started at reduced voltage.
Reason (R): If a large three phase
squirrel -cage induction motor with no
load is started at full voltage, it is
damaged.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
111. Assertion (A): A single-phase induction
motor is not self-starting.
Reason (R): A three-phase induction motor
is self-starting.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
112. Assertion (A): The distribution
transformers are designed for minimum
core losses.
Reason (R): Primary windings of
distribution transformers are energized
throughout the day.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
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c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
113. Assertion (A): The maximum operating
temperature of overhead Line conductors
made of aluminum or copper is restricted
to 75C.
Reason (R): Conductor temperature
beyond 75C may shatter porcelain
insulators.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
114. Assertion (A): In the modeling of medium
and long transmission lines the nominal-it
and T circuits are not equivalent to each
other.
Reason (R): A star-delta transformation
can be used to derive the one circuit from
the other.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
115. Assertion (A): When a Line -to-Line (L -
L) faults takes place at the terminals of an
open-circuited generator, phase voltages
are sometimes indeterminate, though line
-to- line voltages are always determinable.
Reason (R): During a line-to-line fault,
zero-sequence voltage is always
indeterminate.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
116. Assertion (A): In L. P. S. (Longitudinal
Power Supply) system, the voltage
regulation is generally poor?
Reason (R): L. P. S. system has low level
of short-circuit M. V.A.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
117. Assertion (A): A tunnel diode can be used
as an oscillator.
Reason (R): Voltage controlled negative
resistance is exhibited by a tunnel diode.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
118. Assertion (A): The intrinsic carrier
concentration of Si at room temperature is
more than that of GaAs.
Reason (R): Si is an indirect bandgap
semiconductor while GaAs is a direct
bandgap semiconductor.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
119. Assertion (A): Slope overload is a problem
in D.P.C.M.
Reason (R): D. P.C. M. makes use of
adjacent sample correlations.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
120. Assertion (A): Thermal noise in metallic
resistors can be characterized by Gaussian
probability density function.
Reason (R) Power spectral density of
thermal noise is essentially constant for a
very large frequency range.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
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