Test Paper

: II

Test Subject

: LIFE SCIENCE

Test Subject Code :

Test Booklet Serial No. : _______________________

OMR Sheet No. : _________________________________

K-2814

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Name & Signature of Invigilator/s

Signature: ____________________________________
Name
: ____________________________________

Signature : ___________________________________
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: ___________________________________

Paper
: II
Subject : LIFE SCIENCE
Time : 1 Hour 15 Minutes

Maximum Marks : 100

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 8

1.
2.
3.

4.

Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50

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Instructions for the Candidates

1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will
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correct response against each item.
Example :

5. P I Pqr OMR E , P I
P II C WW EW bPR. OMR E

6.
7.
8.

9.

10.
11.
12.
13.

5. Your responses to the questions are to be indicated in the OMR

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13. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.

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where (C) is the correct response.

.../P.T.O.

*K2814*

Total Number of Pages : 8

LIFE SCIENCE
Paper II
Note :

This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions. Each question carries
two (2) marks. All questions are compulsory.

1. The bond formed by sharing of electrons

between two atoms is called

5. In which type of cleavage the egg or

ovum is not completely divided into
blastomeres ?

(A) Electrovalent bond

(B) Coordinate bond

(A) Holoblastic cleavage

(C) Covalent bond

(B) Unequal holoblastic cleavage

(D) Ionic bond

(C) Discoidal meroblastic cleavage

--------------------

(D) Meroblastic cleavage

2. Which of the following enzyme causes

DNA strand separation during
replication ?

-----------------------------

6. Cancers arising from epithelial cells is

called

(A) Polymerase
(B) Helical

(A) Adenoma

(C) Ligase

(B) Carcinoma

(D) Nuclease

(C) Sarcoma

------------------

-------------------

(D) Leukemia

3. The reversal of the gene order which

may result when 2 breaks occur in the
same chromosome is called

7. Vermiform appendix is part of which

of the following ?

(A) Inversion
---------------------(B) Duplication

(A) Alimentary
canal
----------------------------

(C) Translocation

(B) Vascular system

(D) Deletion

(C) Nervous system

(D) Reproductive system

4. Which of the following sequences

correctly describes the cell cycle
phases ?

8. Respiratory system of cockroach is

(A) G1 G2 S G0 mitosis

(A) Integument

(B) S G2 mitosis G1 G0

(B) Lungs

(C) G0 G1 S G2 mitosis

(C) Gills

(D) Mitosis G1 G0 S G2

(D) Trachea

----------------------------

Paper II

-------------------

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Total Number of Pages : 8

9. Which hormone regulates the amount

of urine by controlling the rate of water
absorption in nephron tubules ?

13. Formation of diverse species from a

single ancestor is called
(A) Mutualism

(A) Oxytocin

(B) Commensalism

(B) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

(C) Speciation

----------------------------

(C) Luteotropic hormone (LTH)

(D) Adaptive radiation

-----------

(D) Thyronine

14. Life on the earth originated about

10. In which of the following technique

radionuclides are used ?

(A) 1.5 billion years ago

(A) --------------------------PET Scan

(B) 2.5 billion years ago

(B) CT Scan

(C) 3.5 billion years ago

(C) CAT Scan

(D) 4.5 billion years ago

---------

(D) Ultrasonography

15. Diversity encompass

11. Which of the following could not be a

correlation coefficient ?

(A) Species richness

(B) Species frequency of occurrence

(A) 0

(C) Relative abundance

(B) 0.3

(D) Both (A) and (B)

(C) 10

-------------

-----------

16. The great barrier reef exists nearer to

(D) 1

(A) Australia

12. Which of the following is arranged in

correct sequence for systematic
classification ?

----------

(B) New Zealand

(C) Malaysia

(A) Kingdom, phylum, family, order,

genus, class, species

(D) Indonesia

(B) Kingdom, phylum, class, order,

family, genus, species

17. The term halophilic refers to

-----------

(A) Temperature tolerance

(C) Kingdom, order, phylum, genus,

class, family, species

(B) Salinity tolerance

-------

(C) Tolerance to low water activity

(D) Kingdom, order, phylum, family,

class, genus, species

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(D) Tolerance to acidic pH

3

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Total Number of Pages : 8

18. The isotope used in the treatment of

Graves disease is

22. The rate constant of a reaction at 293K

was found to be 3.2 103/sec. At 303K
it is likely to be

(A) Co60

(A) 3.2 103 /sec

(B) p32

(B) 6.4 103 /sec

(C) g131

-----------

----------

3
(C) 1.6 10 /sec

(D) C14

(D) 6.4 106 /sec

19. In a sample of DNA, analysis of its base
composition showed that the proportion
of A + G was not equal to T + C. Hence,
this DNA is

23. Ramachandran plot

(A) Represents sterically allowed
conformation of polypeptide

---------

(A) Double stranded DNA

(B) Can give orientation of cofactors

in proteins

(B) Single stranded DNA

----------

(C) Can identify nonprotein amino acids

if present in proteins

(C) Mutated DNA

(D) DNA from a cancer cell

(D) Presence of metal ions

20. Hydrogen bond can be formed with the
following except

24. Peptidyl transferase reaction is

catalysed by

(A) O H .... O

(A) Ribosomal proteins

(B) O H .... N

(B) Ribosome

(C) O H .... S

---------

(C) Ribosomal RNA

(D) N H .... N

------------

(D) t-RNA
21. The expression of tryp operon in E. Coli
is regulated in part by the availability of
tryptophan. This regulation is called

25. The enzyme responsible for generation

of IP3 in cells is
(A) Protein kinase C

(A) Attenuation

---------

(B) Phospholipase C

(B) Translational read-through

----------

(C) Antitermination

(C) Phospholipase A2

(D) Nonsense suppression

(D) Sphingomyelinase

Paper II

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Total Number of Pages : 8

30. Major nucleotide repeats of a

telomere is

26. The complementarity determining

region of an immunoglobulin molecule
is located in

(A) Adenine rich repeats

(A) VH domain

(B)
Guanine rich repeats
---------

(B) CL domain

(C) Thymine rich repeats

(C) VH and CH domains

(D) Uracil rich repeats

(D) VH and VL domains

-----------

31. Functional property of m-RNA is

27. One of the X chromosomes in human

females undergoes ________ type of
heterochromatilisation.

(A) Transcription
(B) Recombination
(C) Replication

(A) Constitutive

(D) Translation

(B) Facultative

----------

----------

(C) Defective

32. Calcium independent cell surface

adhesion molecule is

(D) Variable

(A) Cadherins

28. pH of lysozyme is maintained by

(B) Selections

(A)
Proton pump
----------

(C) Ig-superfamily

----------

(B) Sodium pump

(D) Integrins

(C) Calcium pump

33. On removing thyroid from the tadpole it

will

(D) Chloride pump

29. Replicative transposition is
characterized by

(A) Remain as tadpole

---------

(B) It will grow into giant frog

(A) Movement of transposon from one

cell to another

(C) Die immediately

(D) Grow into small frog

(B) Replication of repeated DNA

sequences

34. The functional unit of vertebrate

excretory system is

(C) Excision of transposon from one

location and its subsequent
insertion at a different location

(A) Kidney
(B) Urinary bladder

(D) The original sequence remains in

-----place and the new sequence is
inserted at a different location

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(C) Neuron
(D)
-------5

Nephron

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Total Number of Pages : 8

35. Master of master gland is

40. Darwinian fitness of an organism is the

(A) Hypothalamus

measure of

(B) Pituitary

(A) Survival

(C) Thymus

(B) Physical fitness

---------

(D) Thyroid

(C) Adaptation to the environment

36. Which will be the genotypic ratio of the

cross between Bb and bb ?

(D) Number of viable offspring

---------

41. Which of the following are sympatric

(A) 1 : 2 : 1

species ?

(B) 3 : 1

(A) Different species living in the same

(C) 1 : 1

--------

-------

(D) 1 : 1 : 1

place

(B) Same species living in different

37. The correct number of human

chromosome was I reported by

places

(A) Painter

(C) Morphologically different species

(B) Boveri and Sutton

(D) Morphologically same species

(C) Wilson

42. Which one of the following species is

(D) Tjio and Levan

listed in the Red Data Book of India ?

--------

38. Mutation which replaces purine to purine

and pyrimidine to pyrimidine is

(A) Rauwolfia suspentina

(B) Santalum album

(A) Transition

(C) Pterocarpus santalinus

(B) Transversion

----------

(D) Ochreinauclia missionis

(C) Translocation

-------

(D) Frameshift mutation

43. The State having a largest area of forest

cover in India is

39. The totality of genes of a given

population is called

(A) Arunachal Pradesh

(A) Gene frequency

(B) Madhya Pradesh

-------

(B) Gene pool

----------

(C) Assam

(C) Gene family

(D) Haryana

(D) Genome

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Total Number of Pages : 8

44. Climax community is in the state of

(A)
---------

47. When pea and rose comb chickens are

crossed what is the comb phenotype in

Equilibrium

F1 individual ?

(B) Nonequilibrium

(A) Pea comb

(C) Abrupt change

(B) Rose comb

(D) Constant change

(C) Single comb

45. Which of the following traits do archaea

(D) Walnut comb

--------

and bacteria share ?

48. Who coined the term Prebiotic soup ?

I) Composition of cell wall

(A) J. B. Hooker

II) Presence of plasma membrane

(B) J. B. S. Haldane

III) Lack of a nuclear envelope

-------

IV) Identical r-RNA sequence

(C) S. W. Fox

(A) I correct

(D) A. Oparin

(B) III correct

49. In which of the following provirus DNA

(C) I and III are correct

is formed in viral life cycle ?

(D)
II and III are correct
------------

(A) X174
(B) Polio Virus

46. Which of the following is a false

(C) Rous Sarcoma Virus

statement ?

---------

(D) Influenza Virus

(A) A blood group individuals have B

antibodies

50. The oldest microfossil so far of age

(B) B blood group individuals have A

3.5 billion years ago was

antibodies

(A) Cyanobacteria

(C) AB blood group individuals have

------

--------

(B) Eobionts

A antigen and B antibody

(C) Coacervates

(D) O blood group individuals have

both antibodies

(D) Microspheres
____________

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Paper II

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Total Number of Pages : 8

b PRX
Space for Rough Work

Paper II

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