AREA 01: ARPP

1. A client approached Architect Ivy in order to help him find a

suitable lot to situate a few branch of his food industry business.
They agreed and made an agreement. What type of service will Ar.
Ivy deliver? SPP 201 - 2.4
a. Site Selection and Analysis
b. Consultation
c. Research and Programming
d. Feasibility Studies
2. Ar. Rocel was tasked to create flyers, miniature model and
presentation for the Proposed Condominium Project in order to
generate funds for its Construction. As per SPP Document what type
of service is he providing? SPP 201 - 2.12
a. Value Management
b. Promotional Services
c. Additional Services
d. Fund Raising Services
3. The Architect as the ________ is directly responsible to the Owner
on all aspects of Construction work: programming, coordination,
quality and cost control and time management. SPP 204-B - 2.0
a. Project Manager
b. Consultant
c. Construction Manager
d. Construction Adviser
4. As per SPP Document 204-B indicates that Construction Manager could
either be, except. SPP 201 – 5.2 QUALIFICATIONS
a. A member hired by the Contractor
b. A member of the staff of the owner
c. An independent individual
d. A firm hired by the Owner to manage the construction of the
particular project.
5. As described functions and Descriptions of Task. The following are
the responsibilities of Construction Manager (CM) including the
function of the Construction Supervision Group (CSG).(reference
Doc.204-A and Architect’s Guidelines).
a. Keeping all Records
b. All of the Above
c. Coordination and Supervision
d. Quality Control of Work
6. The Construction Supervision Group (CSG) is responsible to the
Owner in what type services? SPP 204-A – 6 LEGAL RESPONSIBILITY
a. Technical
b. Administrative
c. None of the Above
d. A&B
7. Does the Construction Supervision Group can make a decision on
matter that are sole responsibility of the Architect of Records
(AOR)? SPP 204-A – 6.2 LEGAL RESPONSIBILITY
a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
d. I Don’t know
8. Under SPP Doc 203 Specialized Architectural Services. Item Number
17 (203.17) The Architect in this area of Practice must have much
more than the basic knowledge of Specification Writing, Estimation
and Quantity Survey, Architectural Production, Architectural
software, Architectural support services and contract document
review. SPP Doc 203 Specialized Architectural Services. Item Number
17 (203.17)
a. Contract Documentation and Review Services
b. Post design services (Including Construction services)
c. Preliminary Services
d. None of the Above
9. Under Spp 203 (203.14)It is defined as an act or process of
estimating value. The Consulting Architect in this area of practice
places value on the building/structure condition and defects, and
on its repair and maintenance, including the required improvement.
Spp 203 (203.14)
a. Forensic Architecture
b. Building Testing & Commissioning
c. Building Appraisal
d. Facilities Maintenance Support

10. The Building environment rating system under SPP 203 is needed
to evaluate the performance of a building to encourage market
migration towards sustainable design. The rating system must meet
the criteria below in order have the certification. SPP 203 –
203.12
a. Flexible, such that projects need not meet identical
requirements to qualify.
b. All of the above
c. Credit based, allowing projects to earn points for environment-
friendly use of the building/ structure and actions taken during
planning, design, construction and occupancy.
d. Consensus-based and market driven in order to accelerate the
development and implementation of green building practices.

11. In this area of practice, the Architect recommends the

systematic process of ensuring that a building / structure’s array
of systems is planned, designed, installed and tested to perform
according to the design intent and the building’s operational
needs. If the building materials, equipment and system are not
installed properly or are not operating as intended, the
 effectiveness, efficiency, productivity and other benefits of high
performance plans/designs will not be achieved. SPP 203 – 203.12
a. Facilities Maintenance support
b. Building testing & Commissioning
c. Building System Design
d. Security Evaluation and Planning

12. The Consulting Architect in this area of Practice arranges to

formulate methods of rating and ascertaining the value of
structures or facilities which may be fully secured, kept safe,
protected, assured, guaranteed and provided sufficient safeguards
for the conduct of any work or activity.
a. Security Evaluation and Planning SPP 203 – 203.8
b. Building Appraisal
c. Building testing & commissioning
d. Historic and Heritage Conservation and Planning
13. Stadia will fall under what Group of Project Classification?
SPP 202 – 4.2 PROJECT CLASSIFICATION
a. Group 2
b. Group 3
c. Group 4
d. Group 1
14. SPPCC acronym stands for? SPP 202 – 2.2 schematic design phase
a. Statement of the Probable Project Construction Cost
b. Statement of the Probable Project Consultancy Cost
c. Statement of the Probable Project Construction Concept
d. Statement of the Probable Project Construction Code

15. This method of Compensation is applied to government projects,

since they entail more paper work and time consuming efforts. SPP
202 – 5.4
a. Multiple Direct Personal Expense
b. Per Diem, Honorarium Plus Reimbursable expenses
c. Lump Sum Fixed fee
d. Professional fee plus Expense
16. The total cost of all equipment, utilities and other items which
were either designed, specified or procured by the Architect and his
Consultants for the Owner, that were used or installed in the project.
SPP 203 – 4.3
A. cost of the work
B. extra cost
C. construction cost
D. basic cost

17. The person or organization that undertakes or promotes an ADC with

the primary objective of obtaining excellence in design for a project
or for a development concept. SPP-208 – 2.1
A. jury B. architect C. owner D. Professional Advisor
18. Most expensive and time-consuming method of selecting the
Architect. 3. METHOD OF SELECTION 3.3.2 DISADVANTAGES
A. comparative selection
B. design competition
C. mixed method
D. direct selection

19. An Architect nominated by the Owner and approved by the IAPoA to

organize the ADC on behalf of the Owner. SPP-208 – 2.3
A. jury
B. architect
C. owner
D. Professional Advisor

20. Specialist personnel who may be consulted by the Jurors during the
conduct of the ADC to permit them to obtain all necessary relevant
information. SPP 208 – 2.4
A. jury
B. architect
C. Technical Advisors
D. Professional Advisor

21. The body formed by the Owner and approved by the Professional
Advisor, to assist the Professional Advisor and the Jury in the
administrative conduct of the ADC SPP 208 – 2.5
A. Competition Secretariat
B. Competitor Secretariat
C. Competition Secretary
D. Jury

22. Is the person/firm or corporation who provides the guarantee for

the contractor's bond UAP DOC 301 – 1.08
A. Security
B. Surety
C. Principal
D. Guarantor

23. Which of the ff. services is not performed by the Architect under
the design-build service by administration? SPP 207 – 2 SCOPE OF
DESIGN BUILD BY ADMIN
A. Prepares schedule of work, construction program, construction
estimate, bill of mat’ls, etc
B. Keeps records and books of accounts
C. points construction superintendent, purchasing agent,
timekeeper, property clerks, etc.
D. Advances funding for payment of expenditures connected with work

24. In a typical owner-architect agreement, which of the following is

generally NOT included?
 A. Design and placement of signs
B. Ownership of documents
C. Labor contingencies
D. Arbitration

25. Which of the following activities is NOT within the scope of

project management? SPP 206 – 8.3
A. Provides planning, programming, monitoring, advising activities
on material costs/construction methods
B. Economic analysis/project feasibility
C. Segments, supplements, compliments functions of Architects,
Engineers, and Contractor’s
D. Provides overall control of construction activities

26. Which of the following services are expected from the architect
serving as building/ground administrator? SPP 205 – 1.1.3
A. Building maintenance
B. Post-construction evaluation
C. Equipment maintenance
D. Billing of tenants for rentals/utilities

27. Under the Civil Code, under what condition can the Architect or
Engineer be held liable for damages within fifteen years after project
completion?
A. Due to violation of terms of contract
B. Structure collapse due to faulty construction
C. Structure collapse due to defects in plans/specification
D. Structure collapse due to defective materials

28. What is the role of the project Manager during the Pre-Construction
phase of the project? SPP-206– 9.2
A. Recommends early purchase of equipment/materials requiring a
long lead for procurement and delivery for expediency
B. Observes work in progress to assure compliance with
drawings/specification
C. Manages general coordination and scheduling of work
D. Revise and refines estimates as construction proceeds

29. Which of the following does NOT constitute the post-construction

services of the architect? SPP 205
A. Real property evaluation
B. Post-construction evaluation
C. Building/ground administration
D. Building/equipment maintenance

30. Within how many days from the date a change is ordered shall any
claim for adjustment involving questions of facts be asserted?
A. 5 days C. 15 days
B. 10 days D. 30 days
 AREA 02:ESTIMATES

31. If a partition wall has a width of 8.0 m, and the wall height is
3.0m at both of its ends and 6.0m at the middle, how many 6” CHB is
needed ?
a. 300 pcs c. 600 pcs
b. 450 pcs d. 750 pcs
NOTE : THERE ARE 12.50 PCS. OF CHB PER SQ. M. OF
WALL
RECTANGLE WALL = 8.00 M. X 3.00 M. = 24.00 SQ.
M.
TRIANGLE WALL = ( 8.00 M. X 3.00 M. ) / 2
= 24.00 SQ. M. / 2 = 12.00 SQ. M.
TOTAL WALL AREA = RECTANGLE WALL + TRIANGLE WALL
= 24 SQ. M. + 12 SQ. M. = 36 SQ. M.
NO. OF CHB = TOTAL WALL AREA X 12.5 PCS. PER SQ.
M. FIGURE 3
= 36.00 SQ. M. X 12.5 PCS. PER SQ. M. = 450 PCS.

32. If the said wall in Question no. 31 is instead a 12cm-thick solid

concrete, what is the weight of the concrete?
a. 6,912 kg c. 10,368
b. 8,640 kg d. 12,960
NOTE : UNIT WEIGHT OF CONCRETE = 2,400 KG. / CU. M.
WALL AREA = 36.00 SQ. M.
WALL VOLUME = WALL AREA X THICKNESS OF CONCRETE
= 36.00 SQ. M. X 0.12 M. = 4.32 CU. M.
CONCRETE WEIGHT = 4.32 CU. M. X 2,400 KG. / CU. M.
= 10,368 KG.

33. If the said wall in Question no.32 is to be painted on all

surfaces, what is the total area of coverage?
WALL AREA = 36.00 SQ. M. X 2 SIDES = 72.00 SQ. M.
a. 72 sqm c. 74 sqm
b. 73 sqm d. 75 sqm

34. If, in the said wall in Question no.32, a G.I

sheet flashing shall be installed on the sloping
edge with 9 cm sleeves
on both side, how many 3 ft. by 6 ft. G.I. Sheet is
needed.?
a. 1 pcs. b. 2 pcs. c. 3 pcs.
d. 4 pcs.
NOTE : TO GET THE LENGTH OF THE ANGLE OF A ROOF / FLASHING C = A
² + B ²
WIDTH OF FLASHING = WALL THICKNESS + LEFT SLEEVE + RIGHT SLEEVE
= 0.12 M. + 0.09 M. + 0.09 M. = 0.30 M. C = ?
LENGTH OF FLASHING = 4 ² + 3 ² = 16 + 9 B = 3m.
= 25 = 5.00 M. A = 4m.
LENGTH OF G.I. SHEET = 6 ft. X 12 ft. X 2.54 CM. / 100 CM. = 1.8288 M. PART OF FIGURE 3
FLASHING = LENGTH OF FLASHING / LENGTH OF G.I.
= 5.00 M. / 1.8288 M.
= 2.734 PCS. PER SLOPE OR 3 PCS. PER SLOPE
35. If 10mm Reinforcement Bars @ 0.40m O.C. B.W. will be used for the
Concrete Floor Slab in 40.00 m. X 40.00 m. Ffootprint. How many pieces
of 10mm Reinforcement Bars will be needed?
a. 1,212 pcs. b. 1,313 pcs. c. 1,414 pcs. d. 1,515 pcs.
ASSUME : 6.00 METERS BAR LENGTH
( 40.00 M. / 0.40 M. DISTANCE ) + 1 PC. = 101 PCS. VERTICAL LENGTHS @
40.00 M. EACH
( 40.00 M. / 0.40 M. DISTANCE ) + 1 PC. = 101 PCS. VERTICAL LENGTHS @
40.00 M. EACH
101 PCS. X 40.00 M. = 4,040.00 METERS.
101 PCS. X 40.00 M. = 4,040.00 METERS.
TOTAL LENGTH = 8,080.00 METERS
10 MM DIA. TOTAL BARS = TOTAL LENGTH / BAR LENGTH
= 8,080.00 M. / 6.00 M.
= 1,347.00 PCS. OF BARS
AREA 01:
36. A phenomenon of light and visual perception that may be describe in
terms of an individual’s perception of hue, saturation, and lightness
for objects, and hue, saturation, and brightness for light sources.
a. Sun Light b. Lighting c. Monochrome d. Color

A relative light value of a color, produced by adding white to it.

a. Tone b. Gray c. Tint d. Monochromatic

37. An intermediate value of color between a tint and a shade.

a. Tone b. Gray c. Hue d. Tint

38. Having no saturation and therefore no hue, as white, black, or

gray.
a. Brightness b. Monochromatic c. Achromatic d. Polychromatic

9. Having or exhibiting a variety of colors.

a. Brightness b. Monochromatic c. Achromatic d. Polychromatic

39. The degree by which a color differs from a gray of the same
lightness or brightness, corresponding to saturation of the perceive
color.
a. Hue b. Saturation c. Chroma d. Lightness

40. Who of these have not administer the Bauhaus

a. Mies Van Der Rohe b. Le Corbusier c. Walter Gropius d.
Marcel Brewer

41. Stated “Less is Bore”

a. Robert Venturi b. Le Corbusier c. Mies Van Der Rohe d.
Adolf Loos
42. BROADACRE CITY was urban or suburban development concept proposed
by ________________.
a. Mies Van Der Rohe b. Ernest W. Bugress c. Le Corbusier d. FLW

43. CENTRAL PLACE THEORY is a geographical theory that seeks to explain

the size and spacing of human settlements. It rests on the notion that
centralization is a natural principle of order and that human
settlements follow it. Created by __________.
a. Sir Ebenezer Howard b. Walter Christaller
c. Raymond Unwin d. Le Corbusier

44. The LINEAR CITY design was first developed by ___________ in Spain
during the 19th century
a. Hippodamus b. Arturo Soria y Mata
c. Leonardo Da Vinci d. Antonio Sant’elia

45. Who proposed the SECTOR MODEL in urban land use and demography
modified the concentric zone model of city development?
a. Homer Hoyt b. Frank Lloyd Wright
c. Ernest W. Bugress d. Sir Ebenezer Howard

46. What is the color for Residential in zoning?

a. Red b. Yellow c. Green d. Blue

47. What is the color for Playground in zoning?

a. Blue b. Violet c. Green d. Yellow

48. What is the color for Industrial in zoning?

a. Blue b. Violet c. Red d. Yellow

49. Art Nouveau in Germany known as

a. Jugendstil b. Bauhaus c. Empire Style d. Eclecticism

50. This is a gateway to a Dravidian temple for Hindu Architecture

a. Stupa b. Torii c. Torana d. Gopuram

51. This is a Chinese gateway made of stone and wood

a. Virmana b. Torii c. Pai-lou d. Mandap

52. Design Build Services by Administration’s Fee

a. 10% b. 6% c. 7% d. 8%

53. Specialize Allied Services’ Fee for Acoustical, communication and

electronic engineering services
a. 10% - 15% Cost of Work b. 7% Cost of Works
c. 15% - 20% Cost of Work d. 15% Cost of Works

54. Full time supervision’s method of compensation

 a. 5% PCC b. 1% - 1.5% PCC
c. 1.5% - 3% PCC d. 2% - 5% PCC

55. What size of picture size for the Progress Photograph?

a. 6” x 8” b. 3” x 5” c. 8.5” x 11.5” d. 4” x 6”

56. How many months to release retention after the date of final
payment?
a. 2 months b. 6 months c. 3 months d. 12 months

57. American __________ of Testing Material

a. Standard b. Society c. Swastika d. School

58. Post Construction Services’ method of compensation

a. 1% - 1.5% gross rental b. 4% - 6% gross rental
c. 2% - 5% gross rental d. 7% gross rental

59. He shall provide the necessary management support by applying his

leadership and showing respect for co-professionals to be more
effective participants in the team.
a. Project Manager b. Construction Manager
c. Full-time Inspector d. Architect

60. Convention Halls

a. 6% b. 7% c. 8% d. 10%

AREA 2: STRUCTURE
AREA 2 TIP
(search nyo ang ibang choices, kahit di yun ang answer para more
knowledge lang)

61. Based on the National Building Code of the Philippines, outermost

edge of eaves should be at least ______mm, from the side and rear of
property lines. NBC page, 371
a. 2000 b. 1200 c. 1500 d. 750

62. Structure exempted from building permits include open terraces

directly resting on the ground not exceeding. NBC page, 33
a. 20sqm b. 12sqm c. 25sqm d. 15sqm

63. It is a special plate girder consisting of tees, plates, angles and

multiple web
a. box girder c. T-flange girder
b. hybrid girder d. bridging

64. Longitudinal beams which rest on top chord, and preferably at the
joints of the truss
 a. purlins b. jack rafter c. rafters d. girders

65. It is the general term applied for all forces which act upon a
structure and anything else which causes stresses or deformation
within a structure or part thereof.
a. loads b. none of the listed c. strain d. weights

66. These members are inclined joists used to support sloping roofs
a. plates b. purlins c. rafters d. planks

67. A 3-dimensional structural system without the bearing walls,

composed of interconnected members laterally supported so as to
function as a complete self-contained unit with or without the aids of
horizontal diaphragms of floor-bracing system.
a. box system c. freeform
b. space frame d. braced frame

68. Identify in illustration CMU-2, which

figure is a lintel block?
a. figure 4
b. figure 2
c. figure 1
d. figure 3

69. Identify in illustration WJ-1, which

figure is a dado joint?
a. figure 1
b. figure 4
c. figure 3
d. figure 2

70. Identify in Illustration t-

4, which letter in the target
is a valley jack rafter?
a. target B
b. target D
c. target C
d. target A

71. What is the appropriate

paint material for G.I. sheet
roofing?
a. alkyd type
b. acrylic latex type
c. Lacquer type
d. urethane
72. The paint finishing material of long-span pre-painted roofing sheet
is:
a) acrylic paint c) polyester paint
b) duco paint d) automotive paint

73. A common paint film defect where progressive powdering from the
surface inward occurs. It is called:
a) blistering c) chalking
b) peeling d) alligatoring

74. In column, the ratio of its effective length to its least radius of
gyration is called:
a) Moment of Inertia c) Slenderness ratio
b) Development length d) Ratio and proportion

75. A joint where two successive placements of concrete meet is called:

a) Truss joint c) Construction joint
b) Contraction joint d) Expansion joint

76. A wall which supports vertical loads in addition to its weight

without the benefit of a complete vertical load carrying space frame
is called:
a) Retaining wall
b) Curtain wall
c) Shearing wall
d) Bearing wall

77. The point in the moment diagram at which the curvature reverses as
it changes from concave to convex is called:
a) Point of deflection
b) Moment of Inertia
c) Point of Inflection
d) Magnitude

78. A type of concrete floor which has no beam is called:

a) Flat slab
b) 2-way slab
c) one-way slab
d) Ribbed floor

79. One-way concrete slab are used when:

a) The slab is being supported by two parallel beams
b) The slab has no cantilevered portion
c) The concrete slab is reinforced on the near bottom side
d) The concrete slab is sloping to all side

80. The tendency for one part of the beam to move vertically with
respect to an adjacent part is called:
 a) Shear c) Force
b) Moment d) Strength
Take note: Shear lang ang nag-iisang choice jan na nag-iindicate ng
deformation, so automatic shear ang answer. Kung namali ka pa ☹,
reviewhin mo ang types of structural deformation, and yang mga nasa
choices

81. Any material changes in shape when subjected to the action of a

force is called:
a) Reflection c) Deformation
b) Deflection d) Acceleration

82. The greatest stress to which a material is capable of developing

without a permanent deformation remaining upon the complete release of
stress is called:
a) Allowable stress c) Bending Stress
b) Moment of Inertia d) Proportional limit

83. The measure of the stiffness of a material is called:

a) Effective length c) Stiffness ratio
b) Proportional limit d) Ratio and proportion

84. The deformation of a structural member as a result of loads acting

on it is called:
a) Strength c) Stress
b) Strain d) Deflection

85. 13. Level tool is a:

a) Tool use for guiding and testing the work to a vertical and
horizontal position
b) A tool for checking height elevation
c) Tool use to check the water level
d) The tool designated the different ranking of tool usage

86. Steel square is a:

a) A small try square
b) Tool for testing and for framing work
c) A steel square for use of signage
d) Tool of the steelman

87. The vertical surface on the face of a stair step is called:

a) Stair clip c) Nosing
b) Stairhead d) Riser

88. Wood board should have a thickness specification of:

a) Not less than 2” thick x 5” and up wide
b) Not less than 1” thick x 4” and up wide
c) Not less than 2” thick x 4” and up wide
 d) Not less than 3” thick x 7” and up wide

89. Wood plank is a piece of lumber that is:

a) 2” to 5” thick
b) 6” to 8” thick
c) 5” to 7” thick
d) 8” up thick

90. A high-speed rotary shaping hand power tool use to make smooth
cutting and curving on solid wood is called:
a) Surface planer c) portable hand router
b) Dado plane d) Lathe machine

91. Dressed lumber is referred to:

a) Covered with plastic for shipment
b) Lumber of exact measurement
c) Smoothed or planed lumber
d) Lumber used for fine carpentry works

92. Wood defects are heart shake, cup shake, star shake and:
a) Knots c) Deterioration
b) Discoloration d) Rotten

93. The other kind of handsaw other than rip-cut saw is:
a) Diagonal cut saw c) Circular saw
b) Cross-cut d) Coping saw

94. Jack rafter is used for:

a) Hip roof support c) Long span beam
b) Cantilevered truss d) None of these

95. As per PD 1096, What is the minimum horizontal dimension of court

in meters?
a. 0.90m c. 1.50m
b. 2.00m d. 3.00m