Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Integrated Circuits

1. An IC has …………….. size

a) Very large
b) Large
c) Extremely small
d) None of the above

2. ICs are generally made of ………………

a) Silicon
b) Germanium
c) Copper
d) None of the above

3. ……………… ICs are the most commonly used

a) Thin films
b) Monolithic
c) Hybrid
d) None of the above

4. The most popular form of IC package is ……………..

a) DIL
b) Flatpack
c) TO-5
d) None of the above

5. ……………. cannot be fabricated on an IC

a) Transistors
b) Diodes
c) Resistors
d) Large inductors and transformers

6. An audio amplifier is an example of ………………

a) Digital IC
b) Linear IC
c) Both digital and linear IC
d) None of the above
7. The active components in an IC are ………….
a) Resistors
b) Capacitors
c) Transistors and diodes
d) None of the above

8. We use ……………….. ICs in computers

a) Digital
b) Linear
c) Both digital and linear
d) None of the above

9. The SiO2 layer in an IC acts as ………….

a) A resistor
b) An insulating layer
c) Mechanical output
d) None of the above

10.ICs are used in ……………

a) Linear devices only
b) Digital devices only
c) Both linear and digital devices
d) None of the above

11.A transistor takes …………… inductor on a silicon IC chip

a) Less space than
b) More space than
c) Same space as
d) None of the above

12.The most popular types of ICs are …………..

a) Thin-film
b) Hybrid
c) Thick-film
d) Monolithic
13.Digital ICs process …………….
a) Linear signals only
b) Digital signals only
c) Both digital and linear signals
d) None of the above

14.Operational amplifiers use …………..

a) Linear ICs
b) Digital ICs
c) Both linear and digital ICs
d) None of the above

15.Which of the following is most difficult to fabricate in an IC?

1. Diode
2. Transistor
3. FET
4. Capacitor
16.An IC has ................. size.
a) very large
b) large
c) extremely small
d) none of the above
17.ICs are generally made of .................
a) silicon
b) germanium
c) copper
d) none of the above
18. .............. ICs are the most commonly used.
a. thin film
b. monolithic
c. hybrid
d. none of the above
19.The most popular form of IC package is .................
(i) DIL
(ii) Flatpack
(iii) TO-5
(iv) none of the above
20.. ................. cannot be fabricated on an IC.
(i) transistors
(ii) diodes
(iii) resistors
(iv) large inductors and transformers
21.An audio amplifier is an example of ..............
(i) digital IC
(ii) linear IC
(iii) both digitial and linear IC
(iv) none of the above
22.The active components in an IC are .............
i) resistors
ii) capacitors
iii) transistors and diodes
iv) none of the above
23.We use ................. ICs in computers.
(i) digital
(ii) linear
(iii) both digital and linear
(iv) none of the above
24.The SiO2 layer in an IC acts as .................
(i) a resistor
(ii) an insulating layer
(iii) mechanical output
(iv) none of the above
25.ICs are used in .................
(i) linear devices only
(ii) digital devices only
(iii) both linear and digital devices
(iv) none of the above
26. A transistor takes ................. inductor on a silicon IC chip.
(i) less space than
(ii) more space than
(iii) same space as
(iv) none of the above
27. The most popular types of ICs are .................
 (i) thin-film
(ii) hybrid
(iii) thick-film
(iv) monolithic
28. Digital ICs process .................
(i) linear signals only
(ii) digital signals only
(iii) both digital and linear signals
(iv) none of the above
29. Operational amplifiers use .................
(i) linear ICs
(ii) digital ICs
(iii) both linear and digital ICs
(iv) none of the above
30. Which of the following is most difficult to fabricate in an IC ?
(i) diode
(ii) transistor
(iii) FET
(iv) Capacitor

31. In an NPN transistor the P is the.

a) collector.
b) Emitter
c) base.
d) None of these
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 116.
32. When compared to a photo diode, a photo transistor.
a) Is less sensitive to light levels.
b) Responds faster to changes of light.
c) Is slower to respond to changes of light.
d) All the above

33. For correct operation of a transistor, the following conditions must apply.
a) The base-emitter junction must be forward biased and the base-
collector junction must be greater than 0.7 volts.
 b) For an NPN transistor the base-emitter junction must be forward
biased and for a PNP transistor the base emitter junction must be
reverse biased.
c) The base-collector junction must be reverse biased and the base-
emitter junction must be forward biased.
d) All the above

Eismin Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition page 116.

34. Current gain in a common emitter amplifier is given the symbol.

a) Β.
b) a.
c) Hcg.
d) C.

35. When a positive voltage is applied to the base of a normally biased n-p-n
common emitter amplifier.
a) the collector voltage goes less positive.
b) the emitter current decreases.
c) the base current decreases.
d) All the above
36.Which way does conventional current flow in a PNP junction?.
a) Emitter to base.
b) Collector to base.
c) Collector to emitter.
37. For conduction of a transistor, the emitter junction is.
a) forward or reverse as appropriate to the input signal.
b) reverse biased.
c) forward biased.
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 116.
38. In a PNP transistor, which way does conventional current flow?.
a. Base to emitter.
b. Collector to emitter.
c. Emitter to collector.
39. In a PNP transistor, conventional current will flow when.
a) the emitter is more positive than the base.
b) the base is more positive than the emitter.
 c) the collector is more positive than the emitter.
40.In a common collector circuit the output and input are.
a) in phase.
b) out of phase by 60°.
c) out of phase by 90°.

41.an NPN transistor to conduct the collector circuit has to be.

a) more positive than the base.
b) less positive than the emitter.
c) more positive than the emitter.
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 116.
42.Point X compared to point.
a) Y is more negative.
b) Z is more positive.
c) Z is more negative.
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 116/117.

43.Resistance measured using an AVO between the Collector and Emitter of a

transistor is.
a) smaller Collector to Emitter.
b) same both ways.
c) higher Collector to Emitter.
. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 119.
44.A transistor is used in.
a) current amplifiers.
b) both current amplifiers and voltage amplifiers.
c) voltage amplifiers.
45.Under normal operating conditions X will be.
a) negative with respect to Z.
b) positive with respect to Z.
c) negative with respect to Y.
. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 116/117.
46.. In which direction does the current flow on a PNP transistor when forward
biased?.
a) Emitter to base.
b) . Emitter to collector.
c) Collector to emitter.
47.With an NPN transistor electrons leave the.
a) Base.
b) Collector.
c) Emitter.
48. In a transistor, the arrow always points in the direction of.
a) electron flow.
b) conventional current.
c) emitter.
49.19. In an NPN transistor the.
a) collector is more positive than the base.
b) collector is the same as the base.
c) emitter is more positive than the base.
50.If light entering a photo transistor decreases, the current to the collector.
a) decreases.
b) remains the same.
c) increases.
51.A silicon bi-polar transistor with two depletion zones.
a) operates by varying electric fields.
b) is a voltage operated device.
c) consists of 3 slices of semiconductor material.
52."To decrease the voltage gain of a common emitter amplifier you would
increase the resistance in the.
a) base circuit.
b) emitter circuit.
c) collector circuit.
53.The current I/P and O/P waveforms in a common emitter amplifier are.
a) out of phase.
 b) in phase.
c) 90° out of phase.
54.How is the amplifier in the diagram shown wired?.

a) Common base.
b) Common emitter.
c) Common collector.
55.Which mode of operation provides the best high frequency response?
a) . emitter.
b) base.
c) collector.
56.A FET when compared to a junction transistor is.
a) low impedance.
b) current operated.
c) high impedance.

57. One characteristic of the emitter follower is.

a) low resistance output.
b) low current amplification.
c) high voltage amplification.
58.An amplifier current gain will be slightly less than 1, but its voltage gain will
be high, if it is connected in the.
a) common base configuration.
b) common emitter configuration.
c) common collector configuration.
59.The common collector amplifier is sometimes called the emitter follower
circuit because.
a) the emitter voltage follows the collector voltage.
b) the emitter current follows the collector current.
c) the emitter voltage follows the base voltage.
60.Amplifiers may be classified as.
a) voltage amplifiers or power amplifiers.
 b) voltage amplifiers or impedance amplifiers.
c) common emitter or common collector amplifiers.
61.An amplifier can provide both voltage gain and current gain when it is
connected in the.
a) common collector configuration.
b) common emitter configuration.
c) common base configuration
62.The most commonly used semiconductor material is
a) silicon
b) germanium
c) mixture of silicon and germanium
d) none of the above
63.In p-n-p transistor the current IE has two components viz. IEP due to
injection of holes from p-region to n-region and IE due to injection of
electrons from n-region to p-region. Then

a) IEp and IEn are almost equal

b) IEp >> IEn
c) IEn >> IEp
d) either (a) or (c)
64.In an n-p-n transistor, the majority carriers in the base are

a) Electron
b) Holes
c) Both electron and hole
d) Either electron or hole
65.An LED has a rating of 2 V and 10 mA. It is used along with 6V battery. The
range of series resistance is
a) 0 to 200 Ω
b) 200 - 400 Ω
c) 200 Ω and above
d) 400 Ω and above

66. A Transistor has

a) One P-N Junction
b) Two P-N Junction
c) Three P-N Junction
d) Four P-N Junction
67. The number of depletion layer in a Transistor is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
68. The base of the Transistor is ……………. Doped
a) Heavily
b) Lightly
c) Moderately
d) . None of the above

69.The element that has biggest size in a transistor is

a) Collector
b) Emitter
c) Base
d) Emitter- Base junction
70.In a PNP transistor, the current carriers are
a) Acceptor Ions
b) Donar ions
c) Free electrons
d) Holes
71.The Collector of the Transistor is ……………. Doped
a) Heavily
b) Lightly
c) Moderately
 d) None of the above
72.The Emitter of the Transistor is ……………. Doped
a) Heavily
b) Lightly
c) Moderately
d) None of the above
73. A transistor is a ………….. operated device.
a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Both Current and Voltage
d) Non of the above
74. In a NPN transistor…….are minority carriers
a) Free electrons
b) Holes
c) Acceptor Ions
d) Donar ions Ans – Holes
75. In a transistor, the base current is about …………. Of emitter current
a) . 25%
b) . 20%
c) . 50%
d) . 5%
76. At the Base-emitter junction of a transistor is
a) Reverse Biased
b) A wide depletion layer
c) Low resistance
d) Non of the above
77. The input impedance of the transistor is ………..
a) High
b) Low
c) Very high
d) Almost Zero
78. In a transistor…………….
a) IE = Ic- IB
b) Ic = IE + IB
c) IB= Ic + IE
d) IE = Ic+ IB
79. The value of Alpha of a transistor is …………
 a) >1
b) <1
c) =1
d) none of the above

80. The value of β of a transistor is …………

a) > 1
b) < 1
c) = 1
d) Between 20 and 500
81.The output impedance of a transistor is ……………
a) High
b) Low
c) zero
d) Very Low
82. The relation between  and β is
a) =/1-
b) 
c) -
d) +
83. The most commonly used transistor Configuration is
a) CCC
b) CEC
c) CBC
d) None of the above
84. The voltage gain of a transistor connected in CCC is
a) Equal to 1
b) More than 10
c) More than 100
d) Less than 1
85. In a transistor, signal is transferred from a ……………. Circuit
a) High resistance to Low resistance
b) Low resistance to High resistance
c) Low resistance to Low resistance
d) High resistance to High resistance.
86. The Arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the direction of ……………
a) Electron current in the emitter
 b) Electron current in the Collector
c) Hole current in the emitter
d) None of the above
87. The leakage current in CE configuration is ……. That in CB arrangement
a) More than
b) Less than
c) The same as
d) None of the above
88. The most commonly used SC material for the manufacture of a transistor is
a) Ge
b) Si
c) Cu
d) None of the above
89.The collector – Base junction in a transistor has
a) F.W.B at all times
b) R.V.B at all times
c) Low resistance
d) None of the above
90.Transistor biasing represents ………….. Conditions.
a) AC
b) DC
c) Both AC and DC
d) None of the above
91. Transistor biasing is done to keep ………… in the circuit
a) Proper direct current
b) Proper AC
c) The base current Small
d) Collector current Small.
92. Operating point represents ……………..
a) Values of IC and VCE when signal is applied
b) The magnitude of the signal
c) Zero signal values of IC and VCE
d) None of the above
93. Improper biasing of a Transistor circuit leads to
a) excessive heat production at collector terminal
b) distortion in output signal
c) Faulty location load line
 d) Heavy loading emitter terminal
94. The universal bias stabilization circuit is most popular because
a) Ic does not depend on the transistor characteristics
b) Its Beeta instability is high
c) Voltage divider is heavily loaded by transistor base
d) Ic = Ie Ans - Ic does not depend on the transistor
characteristics
95. Transistor Biasing is generally provided by a …………….
a) Biasing circuit
b) Bias battery
c) diode
d) None of the above
96. For proper operation of the transistor , its collector should have
a) FWB
b) RVB
c) Very Small size
d) None of the above
97.. The circuit that provides the best stabilization of operating point is …….
a) Base Resistor bias
b) Collector feedback bias
c) Voltage Divider or Potential Divider Bias
d) None of the above .
98. The point of intersection of the DC and AC load line represents……………
a) Operating point
b) Current gain
c) Voltage Gain
d) None of the above
99. An ideal value of stability factor is ……………….
a) 100
b) 200
c) More than 200
d) 1
100. The disadvantage of Base resistor method of transistor biasing is that
it…….
a) is complicated
b) is sensitive to changes in β
c) Provides high stability
 d) None of the above.
101. The operating point is also called the …………….
a) Cut off point
b) Quiescent point
c) The maximum current point
d) None of the above.
102. For proper amplification by a transistor circuit, the operating point
should be located at ………. Of the DC load line.
a) The end point
b) Middle point
c) The maximum current point
d) None of the above.
103. The disadvantage of Voltage Divider Bias is that it has ……
a) High stability factor
b) Low base Current
c) Many resistors
d) None of the above.
104. Thermal runway occurs when …………….
a) Collector is RVB
b) Transistor is not biased
c) Emitter is FWB
d) Junction Capacitance is high.
105. The purpose of resistance in the emitter circuit of a transistor
amplifier is to ……
a) Limit the maximum IE
b) Provide base- emitter bias
c) Limit the change in the IE
d) None of the above.
106. In a transistor amplifier circuit , VCE = VCB + …….
a) VBE
b) 2VBE
c) 1.5 VBE
d) None of the above.
107. The base resistor circuit is generally used in
a) Amplifier circuit
b) Switching circuit
c) Rectifier circuit
 d) None of the above.
108. The value of S factor of a collector feedback bias circuit is ………… that
of base resistor bias.
a) The same as
b) More than
c) Less than
d) None of the above
109. The value of S factor of Base resistor bias is .
a) 1  b).
b)   + 1
c) None of the above
d) 
110. . In the design of a biasing circuit, the value of collector load RC is
determined by
a) VCE consideration
b) IB consideration
c) VCE consideration
d) None of the above
111. . If the value of the IC increases the value of the VCE…….
a) remains same
b) Decreases
c) Increases
d) None of the above
112. If the value of the Temperature increases the value of the VBE…….
a) remains same
b). Decreases
c). Increases
d). None of the above
113. The stabilization of operating point in potential divider method is
provided by …. a). RE Consideration
b). RC Consideration
c). VCC Consideration
d). None of the above

114. When the temperature changes , the operating point is shifted due to
……..
a). Changes in ICBO
 b). Changes in Vcc
c). Change in the value of circuit resistances
d). None of the above
115. What is the IC no. of OP-AMP
a. IC 742
b. IC741
c. IC743
d. IC744
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116. IDEAL Open loop gain of OP-AMP is
a. Infinite
b. 0
c. 1
d. 5
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117. IDEAL Input impedance of OP-AMP is
a) Infinite
b) 0
c) 1
d) 5
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118. IDEAL Output impedance of OP-AMP is
a) Infinite
b) 0
c) 1
d) 5
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119. IDEAL Bandwidth of OP-AMP is
a) Infinite
b) 0
c) 1
d) 5
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120. The common-mode gain is
a) Very high
b) Very low
c) Always unity
d) Unpredictable
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121. If ADM=3500 and ACM=0.35,CMRR is=

a) 1225
b) 10000
c) 80db
d) Answer [1] and [3]
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122. What is gain formula for inverting amplifier?
a) –RF/R1
b) RF/R1
c) 1–RF/R1
d) 1+RF/R1
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123. What is gain formula for Non- inverting amplifier?
a) –RF/R1
b) RF/R1
c) 1–RF/R1
d) 1+RF/R1
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124. In unity follower what is value of Rf
a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
 d) 5
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125. In unity follower what is value of Ri
a) infinite
b) 0
c) 2
d) 5
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126. Practical Open loop gain of OP-AMP is
a. Infinite
b. 0
c. 1
d. 5
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127. Practical Input impedance of OP-AMP is
a. 2Mohm
b. 5mohm
c. 1Mohm
d. 5mohm
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128. Practical Output impedance of OP-AMP is
a) Infinite
b) 100
c) 1100
d) 5kohm
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129. How much supply required for op-amp is
a. +15v
b. 12v
c. -45v
 d. 05v
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130. What is value of V1 in virtual ground concept

a. 0
b. 1
c. 5
d. 1
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131. For inverting amplifier R1=1K and Rf=1M, AV=
a. -1000
b. 1000
c. -1100
d. 10
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132. For non- inverting amplifier R1=1K and Rf=1M, AV=
a. 1001
b. 1000
c. -1100
d. 10
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133. What is pin number of two in IC 741
a. Inverting pin
b. Non inverting pin
c. positive
d. negative
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132. What is pin number of three in IC 741
a. Inverting pin
b. Non inverting pin
c. positive
d. negative
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133. What is ideal value of Bandwidth in OP-AMP is
e) Infinite
f) 0
g) 1
h) 5
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134. In inverting Amplifier output signal is
a) In phase with input signal
b) Out of phase with input signal
c) Equal to input signal
d) All of the above
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135.In Non-inverting Amplifier output signal is

a) In phase with input signal
b) Out of phase with input signal
c) Equal to input signal
d) All of the above
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136.When a three of OP-amp stages are connected in series with voltage

gain A1 , A2 & A3, the overall voltage gain is equal to
a) A1+A2+A3
b) A1*A2*A3
c) A1-A2-A3
d) A1*A2+A3
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137.An OP-AMP can be classified as ……………….amplifier
 a) Linear
b) Low -rin
c) Positive feedback
d) RC-coupled
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138.Since input resistance of an ideal op-amp is infinite

a) Its output resistance is zero
b) Its output voltage becomes independent of load resistance
c) Its input current is zero
d) It becomes a current –controlled device.
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139.The gain of an op-amp is around
a) 1,000,000
b) 1000
c) 100
d) 10,000
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140.When an input voltage of 1V is applied to an op-amp having Av=106
and bias supply of +15V,the output voltage is
a) 15*106 V
b) 106 V
c) 15 uV
d) 15 V
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141.When in negative scalar, both R1 and Rf are reduced to zero, the circuit
function is
a) Integrator
b) Subtraction
c) comparator
d) unity follower
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142.The two input of op-amp is called as
a) High and low
b) Positive and negative
c) Inverting and Non-inverting
d) Differential and Non-differential
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143.The feedback path in an op-amp integrator consist of
a) Capacitor
b) Resistance
c) Inductor
d) Led
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144.The most popular application of op-amp integrator is
a) Produce sine signal
b) Produce ramp signal
c) Produce cosine signal
d) Produce dc signal
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145.What is pin number of two in IC 741
e. Inverting pin
f. Non inverting pin
g. positive
h. negative
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146.What is pin number of three in IC 741
a. Inverting pin
b. Non inverting pin
c. positive
d. negative
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147.Differentiator is used to produce a rectangular wave from ___.
a. Sine wave input
b. Ramp input
c. Both a & b
d. NTA S.
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148.The Averaging summing amplifier consist of input voltage V1 and V2
then VOUT=
a. (V1+V2)/2
b. –(V1+V2)/3
 c. - (V1+V2)/2
d. (V1+V2)/4
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149.The Subtraction amplifier consist of input voltage V1 and V2 then VOUT=
a. V1/V2
b. V2-V1
c. V1+V2
d. V1 * V2
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150.Practical Input impedance of OP-AMP is
e. 2Mohm
f. 5mohm
g. 1Mohm
h. 5mohm
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151.Practical Output impedance of OP-AMP is

e) Infinite
f) 100
g) 1100
h) 5kohm
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152.How much supply required for op-amp is
e. +15v
f. 12v
g. -45v
h. 05v
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153. Which signals are rejected by Differential amplifier___.
a. Differential mode signals
b. Common mode signals
c. Both a & b
d. Out off phase signal
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154.Negative feedback ___
a. Stabilizes gain of amplifier
 b. Decreases input impedance
c. Increase output impedance
d. Both a & b
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155.Feedback element in the integrator is ____
a. capacitor
b. resistor
c. inductor
d. only b is correct
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156.Feedback element in the Differentiator is ____.
a. Capacitor
b. resistor
c. inductor
d. transistor
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157.The output of comparator is ____.
a. ±Vcc
b. ±Vsat
c. ±Vin
d. 0
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158.____ circuit is called as unity gain buffer.

a. Inverting amplifier
b. Voltage follower
c. Non inverting amplifier
d. Summing Amplifier
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159. With zero volt on both inputs, an OPAMP ideally should have an output____
a. Equal to the positive supply voltage
 b. Equal to the negative supply voltage
c. Equal to zero
d. Equal to CMRR
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160.For an OPAMP with negative feedback, the output is ____

a. Equal to the input

b. Fed back to the inverting input
c. Increased
d. Fed back to the non-inverting input
S. CHAND Page no. 2505

161. A crystal diode has ………

a) one pn junction
b) two pn junctions
c) three pn junctions
d) none of the above
162. A crystal diode has forward resistance of the order of ……………
a) kΩ
b) Ω
c) MΩ
d) none of the above
163. The reverse current in a diode is of the order of ……………….
1. kA
2. mA
3. μA
4. A

164. The forward voltage drop across a silicon diode is about …………………
1. 2.5 V
2. 3 V
3. 10 V
4. 0.7 V
165. A crystal diode is used as ……………
1. an amplifier
2. a rectifier
 3. an oscillator
4. a voltage regulator
166. The d.c. resistance of a crystal diode is ………….. its a.c. resistance
1. the same as
2. more than
3. less than
4. none of the above
167. An ideal crystal diode is one which behaves as a perfect ……….. when
forward biased.
1. conductor
2. insulator
3. resistance material
4. none of the above
168.The ratio of reverse resistance and forward resistance of a germanium
crystal diode is about ………….
1. 1 : 1
2. 100 : 1
3. 1000 : 1
4. 40,000 : 1

169.The leakage current in a crystal diode is due to …………….

1. minority carriers
2. majority carriers
3. junction capacitance
4. none of the above
170. If the temperature of a crystal diode increases, then leakage current ………..
1. remains the same
2. decreases
3. increases
4. becomes zero
171. The PIV rating of a crystal diode is ………….. that of equivalent vacuum diode
1. the same as
2. lower than
3. more than
4. none of the above
172. If the doping level of a crystal diode is increased, the breakdown
voltage………….
 1. remains the same
2. is increased
3. is decreased
4. none of the above
173. The knee voltage of a crystal diode is approximately equal to ………….
1. applied voltage
2. breakdown voltage
3. forward voltage
4. barrier potential
174. When the graph between current through and voltage across a device is a
straight line, the device is referred to as ……………….
1. linear
2. active
3. nonlinear
4. passive
175. When the crystal current diode current is large, the bias is …………
1. forward
2. inverse
3. poor
4. reverse
176. A crystal diode is a …………… device
1. non-linear
2. bilateral
3. linear
4. none of the above
177. A crystal diode utilises …………….. characteristic for rectification
1. reverse
2. forward
3. forward or reverse
4. none of the above
178. When a crystal diode is used as a rectifier, the most important
consideration is ………..
1. forward characteristic
2. doping level
3. reverse characteristic
4. PIC rating
179. If the doping level in a crystal diode is increased, the width of depletion
layer………..
1. remains the same
2. is decreased
3. in increased
4. none of the above
180. A zener diode has ………..
1. one pn junction
2. two pn junctions
3. three pn junctions
4. none of the above
Answer :1
181. A zener diode is used as …………….
1. an amplifier
2. a voltage regulator
3. a rectifier
4. a multivibrator
182.The doping level in a zener diode is …………… that of a crystal diode
1. the same as
2. less than
3. more than
4. none of the above
183. A zener diode is always ………… connected.
1. reverse
2. forward
3. either reverse or forward
4. none of the above

184. A zener diode utilizes ……….. characteristics for its operation.

1. forward
2. reverse
3. both forward and reverse
4. none of the above
185. In the breakdown region, a zener didoe behaves like a …………… source.
1. constant voltage
2. constant current
3. constant resistance
4. none of the above

186. A zener diode is destroyed if it…………..

1. is forward biased
2. is reverse biased
3. carrier more than rated current
4. none of the above
187. A series resistance is connected in the zener circuit to………..
1. properly reverse bias the zener
2. protect the zener
3. properly forward bias the zener
4. none of the above
189. A zener diode is …………………. device
1. a non-linear
2. a linear
3. an amplifying
4. none of the above
190. A zener diode has ………….. breakdown voltage
1. undefined
2. sharp
3. zero
4. none of the above
191. ……………. rectifier has the lowest forward resistance
1. solid state
2. vacuum tube
3. gas tube
4. none of the above
192. Mains a.c. power is converrted into d.c. power for ……………..
1. lighting purposes
2. heaters
3. using in electronic equipment
4. none of the above
193. The disadvantage of a half-wave rectifier is that the……………….
1. components are expensive
2. diodes must have a higher power rating
3. output is difficult to filter
4. none of the above
194. If the a.c. input to a half-wave rectifier is an r.m.s value of 400/√2 volts,
then diode PIV rating is ………………….
1. 400/√2 V
2. 400 V
3. 400 x √2 V
4. none of the above
195. The ripple factor of a half-wave rectifier is …………………
1. 2
2. 1.21
3. 2.5
4. 0.48
196. There is a need of transformer for ………………..
1. half-wave rectifier
2. centre-tap full-wave rectifier
3. bridge full-wave rectifier
4. none of the above
197. The PIV rating of each diode in a bridge rectifier is ……………… that of the
equivalent centre-tap rectifier
1. one-half
2. the same as
3. twice
4. four times
198. For the same secondary voltage, the output voltage from a centre-tap
rectifier is ………… than that of bridge rectifier
1. twice
2. thrice
3. four time
4. one-half
199. If the PIV rating of a diode is exceeded, ………………
1. the diode conducts poorly
2. the diode is destroyed
3. the diode behaves like a zener diode
4. none of the above
200. A 10 V power supply would use …………………. as filter capacitor.
1. paper capacitor
2. mica capacitor
3. electrolytic capacitor
 4. air capacitor
201. A 1,000 V power supply would use ……….. as a filter capacitor
1. paper capacitor
2. air capacitor
3. mica capacitor
4. electrolytic capacitor
202. The ……………….. filter circuit results in the best voltage regulation
1. choke input
2. capacitor input
3. resistance input
4. none of the above
203. A half-wave rectifier has an input voltage of 240 V r.m.s. If the step-down
transformer has a turns ratio of 8:1, what is the peak load voltage? Ignore diode
drop.
1. 27.5 V
2. 86.5 V
3. 30 V
4. 42.5 V
204. The maximum efficiency of a half-wave rectifier is ………………..
1. 40.6 %
2. 81.2 %
3. 50 %
4. 25 %
205. The most widely used rectifier is ……………….
1. half-wave rectifier
2. centre-tap full-wave rectifier
3. bridge full-wave rectifier
4. none of the above

206.The diode ________.

a) is the simplest of semiconductor devices

b) has characteristics that closely match those of a simple switch

c) is a two-terminal device
 d) All of the above

207. The arrow direction in the diode symbol indicates

a. Direction of electron flow.
b. Direction of hole flow (Direction of conventional current)
c. Opposite to the direction of hole flow
d. None of the above
208. The knee voltage (cut in voltage) of Si diode is
a. 0.2 V
b. 0.7 V
c. 0.8 V
d. 1.0 V
209. When the diode is forward biased, it is equivalent to
a. An off switch
b. An On switch
c. A high resistance
d. None of the above
210. Under normal reverse bias voltage applied to diode, the reverse current in Si
diode
a. 100 mA
b. order of μA
c. 1000 μA
d. None of these
211. Avalanche breakdown in a diode occurs when
a. Potential barrier is reduced to zero.
b. Forward current exceeds certain value.
c. Reverse bias exceeds a certain value.
d. None of these
212. Reverse saturation current in a Silicon PN junction diode nearly doubles for
very
a. 20 rise in temp.
b. 50 rise in temp.
c. 6 0 rise in temp.
d. 100 rise in temp.
213. A forward potential of 10V is applied to a Si diode. A resistance of 1 KΩ is
also in series with the diode. The current is
a. 10 mA
 b. 9.3 mA
c. 0.7 mA
d. 0
214. In the diode equation, the voltage equivalent of temperature is
a. 11600/T
b. T/11600
c. T x 11600
d. 11600/T2
215. Barrier potential at the room tem. (250 C) is 0.7V, its value at 1250 C is
a. 0.5 V
b. 0.3 V
c. 0.9 V
d. 0.7 V
216. When a reverse bias is applied to a diode, it will
a. Raise the potential barrier
b. Lower the potential barrier
c. Increases the majority-carrier a current greatly
d. None of these Answers
217. The number of digits in octal systems are (
a) 8
(b) 7
(c) 8 or 7
(d) 10

218.The digit F in hexadecimal system has equivalence in digital system to

(a) 16
(b) 15
(c) 17
(d) 18

219. The number FF in hexadecimal system has equivalence in decimal system to

(a) 256
(b) 255
(c) 240
(d) 239

220. Two voltages are 0V and -5V. In positive logic

(a) 0V is 1 and -5V is 0
(b) -5V is 1 and 0V is 0
(c) 0V is 1 in some circuit and 0 in others
(d) -5V is 1 in some circuit and 0 in others
221. Hexadecimal number F is equal to octal number
(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 17
(d) 18

222. Binary number 1101 is equal to octal number

(a) 17
(b) 16
(c) 15
(d) 14 .

223. -8 is equal to signed binary number (8 bit)

(a) 10001000
(b) 00001000
(c) 1000000
(d) 11000000
224 . 1 ’ s complement of 11100110 is
(a) 00011001
(b) 10000001
(c) 00011010
(d) 00000000

225. 2 ’ s complement of binary number 0101 is

(a) 1011
(b) 1111
(c) 1101
(d) 1110
226. -24 is 2 ’ s complement form is
(a) 11101000
(b) 01001000
(c) 01111111
(d) 00111111

227. 7BF16 = (----)2

(a) 0111 1011 1110
(b) 0111 1011 1111
(c) 0111 1011 0111
(d) 0111 1011 0011

228. (E7F6)16 = (-----)10

(a) (600000)10
(b) (59382)10
(c) (9382)10
(d) (382)10
229. 26810 = (----)16
(a) 10 A16
(b) 10 B16
(c) 10 C16
(d) 10 D16

230. The number of bits in ASCII is

(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 9
(d) 7

231. The number of bits in EBCDIC is

(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 8
(d) 6

230.FF16 when converted to 8421 BCD is

(a) 0000 0101 0101
(b) 0010 0101 0101
(c) 1111 0101 0101
(d) 1000 0101 0101
231.Decimal number 9 in Gray code is
(a) 1100
(b) 1101
(c) 110
(d) 1111
232.11011 in gray code equal to binary
(a) (10010)2
(b) (11111)2
(c) (11100)2
(d) (10001)2

233.Indicate which of the following logic gates can be used to realize all possible combinational Logic
functions
(a) OR gates only
(b) NAND gates only
(c) EX OR gates only
(d) NOR gates only

234.In a half wave rectifier, the load current flows for what part of the cycle.
a. 00
b. 90
c. 1800
d. 3600
235.In a full wave rectifier, the current in each diode flows for
a. whole cycle of the input signal
b. half cycle of the input signal
c. more than half cycle of the input signal
d. none of these

236. in a full wave rectifier, if the input frequency is 50 Hz, then output frequency will be
a. 50 Hz
b. 75 Hz
c. 100 Hz
d. 200 Hz

237.In a center tap full wave rectifier, if Vm is the peak voltage between center tap and one end of the
secondary, the maximum voltage coming across the reverse bias diode is
a. Vm
b. 2 Vm
c. Vm/2
d. Vm/√2
238.The maximum efficiency of full wave rectification is
a. 40.6%
b. 100%
c. 81.2%
d. 85.6%
239. In a bridge type full wave rectifier, if Vm is the peak voltage across the
secondary of the transformer, the maximum voltage coming across each reverse
biased diode is
a. Vm
b. 2 Vm
c. Vm/2
d. Vm/√2
240. To get a peak load voltage of 40V out of a bridge rectifier. What is the
approximate rms value of secondary voltage?
a. 0 V
b. 14.4 V
c. 28.3 V
d. 56.6 V
241. If the line frequency is 50 Hz, the output frequency of bridge rectifier is
a. 25 Hz
b. 50 Hz
c. 100 Hz
d. 200 Hz
242. The ripple factor of a bridge rectifier is
a. 0.482
b. 0.812
c. 1.11
d. 1.21
243. The bridge rectifier is preferred to an ordinary two diode full wave rectifier
because
a. it needs much smaller transformer for the same output
b. no center tap required
c. less PIV rating per diode
d. all the above
244. The basic purpose of filter is to
a. minimize variations in ac input signal
b. suppress harmonics in rectified output
c. remove ripples from the rectified output
d. stabilize dc output voltage

245. The use of a capacitor filter in a rectifier circuit gives satisfactory

performance only when the load
a. current is high
b. current is low
c. voltage is high
d. voltage is low

246. A half wave rectifier is equivalent to

a. clamper circuit
b. a clipper circuit
c. a clamper circuit with negative bias
d. a clamper circuit with positive bias
247. The basic reason why a full wave rectifier has a twice the efficiency of a half
wave rectifier is that
a. it makes use of transformer
b. its ripple factor is much less
c. it utilizes both half-cycle of the input
d. its output frequency is double the line frequency
248. In a rectifier, larger the value of shunt capacitor filter
a. larger the peak-to-peak value of ripple voltage
b. larger the peak current in the rectifying diode
c. longer the time that current pulse flows through the diode
d. smaller the dc voltage across the load
249.In a LC filter, the ripple factor,
a. Increases with the load current
b. increases with the load resistance
c. remains constant with the load current
d. has the lowest value
250. The main reason why a bleeder resistor is used in a dc power supply is that it
a. keeps the supply ON
b. improves voltage regulation
c. improves filtering action
d. both (b) and (c)
251. Which rectifier requires four diodes?
a. half-wave voltage doubler
b. full-wave voltage doubler
c. full-wave bridge circuit
d. voltage quadrupler
252. The dc output polarity from a half-wave rectifier can be reversed by
reversing
a. the diode
b. transformer primary
c. transformer secondary
d. both (b) and (c)

253.The op amp can amplify

a. AC signals only
b. DC signals only
c. Both ac and dc signals
d. Neither ac not dc signals
254.The input offset current equals the
a. Difference between the two base currents
b. Average of the two base currents
c. Collector current divided by current gain
d. Difference between the two base-emitter voltages

255.When the two input terminals of a diff amp are grounded

a. The base currents are equal
b. The collector currents are equal
c. An output error voltage usually exists
d. The ac output voltage is zero

256. A common-mode signal is applied to

a. The non- inverting input
b. The inverting input
c. Both inputs
d. The top of the tail resistor

257.The common-mode voltage gain is

a. Smaller than the voltage gain
b. Equal to the voltage gain
c. Greater than the voltage gain
d. None of the above

258. The input stage of an op amp is usually a

a. Differential amp
b. Class B push-pull amplifier
c. CE amplifier
d. Swamped amplifier
259.The common-mode rejection ratio is
a. Very low
b. As high as possible
c. Equal to the voltage gain
d. Equal to the common-mode voltage gain
 260.The typical input stage of an op amp has a
a. Single-ended input and single-ended output
b. Single-ended input and differential output
c. Differential input and single-ended output
d. Differential input and differential output

261. The input offset current is usually

a. Less than the input bias current
b. Equal to zero
c. Less than the input offset voltage
d. Unimportant when a base resistor is used

262.With both bases grounded, the only offset that produces an error is the
a. Input offset current
b. Input bias current
c. Input offset voltage
d. β

263.The voltage gain of a loaded differential amp is

a. Large than the unloaded voltage gain
b. Equal to RC / re
c. Smaller than the unloaded voltage gain
d. Impossible to determine

264. At the unity-gain frequency, the open-loop voltage gain is

a. 1
b. AV(mid)
c. Zero
d. Very large

265. If the cutoff frequency is 20 Hz and the mid-band open-loop voltage gain is
1,000,000 the unity-gain frequency is
a. 20 Hz
b. 1 MHz
c. 2 MHz
d. 20 MHz
266. When the initial slope of a sine wave is greater than the slew rate.
a. Distortion occurs
b. Linear operation occurs
c. Voltage gain is maximum
d. The op amp works best

267. A 741 C contains

a. Distortion resistors
b. Inductors
c. Active-load resistors
d. A large coupling capacitor

268. The input impedance of a BIFET op amp is

a. Low
b. Medium
c. High
d. Extremely high

269. The 741 C has a unity-gain frequency of

a. 10 Hz
b. 20 Hz
c. 1 MHz
d. 15 MHz

270. An op amp has a voltage gain of 200,000. If the output voltage is 1 V, the
input voltage is
a. 2 μV
b. 5 μV
c. 10 V
d. 1 V
271. A 741 C has
a. A voltage gain of 100,000
b. An input impedance of 2 MΩ
c. An output impedance of 75 Ω
d. All of the above
272. The voltage follower has a
a. Closed-loop voltage gain of unity
b. Small open-loop voltage gain
c. Closed-loop bandwidth of zero
d. Large closed-loop output impedance

273. An instrumentation amplifier has a high

a. Output impedance
b. Power gain
c. CMRR
d. Supply voltage

274. In a differential amplifier, the CMRR is limited mostly by the

a. CMRR of the op amp
b. Gain-bandwidth product
c. Supply voltages
d. Tolerance of the resistors

275. The input signal for an instrumentation amplifier usually comes from
a. An inverting amplifier
b. A resistor
c. A differential amplifier
d. A wheat- stone bridge

276. In a nonlinear op-amp circuit, the

a. Op amp never saturates
b. Feedback loop is never opened
c. Output shape is the same as the input shape
d. Op amp may saturate

277. To detect when the input is greater than a particular value, use a
a. Comparator
b. Clamper
c. Limiter
d. Relaxation
 278.The voltage out of a Schmitt trigger is
a. A low voltage
b. A high voltage
c. Either a low or a high voltage
d. A sine wave

279. Hysteresis prevents false triggering associated with

a. A sinusoidal input
b. Noise voltages
c. Stray capacitances
d. Trip points

280. If the input is a rectangular pulse, the output of an integrator is a

a. Sine wave
b. Square wave
c. Ramp
d. Rectangular pulse

281. When a large sine wave drives a Schmitt trigger, the output is a
a. Rectangular wave
b. Triangular wave
c. Rectified sine wave
d. Series of ramps

282. A comparator with a trip point of zero is sometimes called a

a. Threshold detector
b. Zero-crossing detector
c. Positive limit detector
d. Half-wave detector

283. A Schmitt trigger uses

a. Positive feedback
b. Negative feedback
c. Compensating capacitors
d. Pull up resistors
 284. A Schmitt trigger
a. Is a zero-crossing detector
b. Has two trip points
c. Produces triangular output waves
d. Is designed to trigger on noise

285. The trip point of a comparator is the input voltage that causes
a. The circuit to oscillate
b. Peak detection of the input signal
c. The output to switch states
d. Clamping to occur

286. An active half-wave rectifier has a knee voltage of

a. VK
b. 0.7 V
c. More than 0.7 V
d. Much less than 0.7 V

287. In an active peak detector, the discharging time constant is

a. Much longer than the period
b. Much shorter than the period
c. Equal to the period
d. The same as the charging time constant

288. A window comparator

a. Has only one usable threshold
b. Uses hysteresis to speed up response
c. Clamps the input positively
d. Detects an input voltage between two limits

289. Zener diode, when used in voltage stabilization circuit is biased in

a. Reverse bias region below the breakdown region.
b. Reverse breakdown region.
c. Forward biased region.
d. Forward biased constant current mode.
 290. In a Zener diode
a. Only the P-region is heavily doped
b. Only the N-region is heavily doped
c. Both P and N region are heavily doped
d. Both P and N region are lightly doped [GATE 1989]

291. Which of these has highly doped p and n region?

a. PIN diode
b. Tunnel diode
c. Schottkey diode
d. Photo diode

292. Which of these diodes has the layer of intrinsic semiconductor

a. Zener diode
b. PIN diode
c. Photo diode
d. Schottkey diode

293. In which of the following diodes the width of junction barrier is very large
a. Tunnel diode
b. Photo diode
c. PIN diode
d. Schottkey diode

294. Which of these diodes has degenerate p and n material

a. Zener diode
b. PIN diode
c. Tunnel diode
d. Photo diode

295. Consider the following assertions. S1: For Zener effect to occur, a very abrupt
junction is required S2: For quantum tunneling to occur, a very narrow energy
barrier is required Which of the following is correct?
a. Only S2 is true
b. S1 and S2 are both true but S2 is a not a reason for S1
c. S1 and S2 are both true but S2 is a reason for S1
d. Both S1 and S2 are false
 296. Which of these diodes is also called hot carrier diode.
a. PIN diode
b. LED
c. Photo diode
d. Schottkey diode

297. In which of these diode the reverse recovery time is nearly zero.
a. Diode
b. Tunnel Diode
c. Schottkey Diode
d. PIN Diode

298. In which of the following diodes, the negative resistance region exists, in v-I
characteristics
a. PIN diode
b. Schottkey diode
c. Tunnel diode
d. Zener diode

299. The of doped regions in PIN diode are

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

300. Which of the following diode is a voltage controlled capacitor

a. Zener diode
b. p n diode
c. Varactor diode
d. LED

301. In LED light is emitted because

a. Recombination of charge carriers take place
b. Diode gets heated up
c. Light falling on gets amplified
d. Light gets reflected due to lens action
302. GaAs LED emits radiation in
a. Ultraviolet region
b. Violet, blue, green, range of visible region
c. Visible region
d. Infrared region

303. Which of these diodes is used in seven segment display

a. PIN diode
b. LED
c. Photo diode
d. Tunnel diode

304. The barrier potential of Schottkey diode is

a. 0.25V
b. 0.7V
c. 0.3V
d. 1.7V

305. The diode which has zero breakdown voltage is

a. Zener diode
b. Schottkey diode
c. Breakdown diode
d. Tunnel diode

306. The I- V characteristic solar cell lies in

a. I quadrant
b. II quadrant
c. III quadrant
d. IV quadrant

307. The light emitted by LASER diode is

a. Monochromatic
b. Coherent
c. Visible
d. Both (a) and (b)
308. The LASER diode sources require
a. Spontaneous emission
b. Absorption
c. Stimulated emission
d. None of the above

309.What gives the colour of an LED?

a) The plastic it is encased in
b) The active element
c) The type of gas used inside it
Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 121

310.A germanium diode is used for

a) rectification
b) voltage stabilization
c) modulation
311.Why is a diode put in parallel with an LED?
a) To protect it from AC
b) So it will work only above a certain voltage
c) So it will work only below a certain voltage
312.When testing the forward bias of a diode with a multimeter
a) the positive lead of the ohmeter is placed on the cathode
b) the positive lead of the ohmeter is placed on the anode
c) it does not matter which terminal the positive lead of the ohmeter is
placed
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 113
313.In an NPN transistor the P is the
a) collector
b) base
c) emitter
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 116
314.The output of a tachogenerator is
a) proportional to speed of rotation
b) proportional to position
c) proportional to acceleration
315.This is a diagram of

a) a TRIAC
b) an SCR
c) a Schottky diode
316.Which of the following describes the characteristics of a Thyristor?

a) High voltage handling

b) High current handling

c) High power handling

317.A semiconductor doped with an element having a valency of 5 will produce

a) an N type material

b) a P type material
 c) either an N type or a P type depending on what type of semiconductor
material is used

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 110

318.What are the ideal characteristics of an Op Amp?

a) Infinite gain, infinite input Impedance and infinite output impedance

b) Low gain, infinite input Impedance and zero output impedance

c) Infinite gain, infinite input Impedance and zero output impedance

319.How is the amplifier in the diagram shown wired?

a) Common base

b) Common emitter

c) Common collector

320.What gate does the following Boolean expression represent

F = A.B.C

a) AND

b) OR

c) NOT
321.What gate does the following Boolean expression represent

F = A+B+C

a) NOT

b) NOR

c) OR

322.To decrease the voltage gain of a common emitter amplifier you would
increase the resistance in the

a) base circuit

b) collector circuit

c) emitter circuit

323.A FET when compared to a junction transistor is

a) low impedance

b) high impedance

c) current operated
324.What type of diode would be used to stop voltage spikes across a coil of a
relay?

a) Gunn diode

b) Schottky diode

c) Double acting diode

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 121

325.A silicon diode, when compared to a germanium diode has

a) a higher forward bias voltage

b) less forward bias voltage

c) the same forward bias voltage

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 111

326.A zener diode is used for

a) rectification

b) voltage stabilization

c) modulation

327.What is this circuit?

 a) Half wave rectifier

b) Full wave rectifier

c) Flywheel diode

328.This symbol is

a) a diode

b) a triac

c) a transistor

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 384

329.One characteristic of the emitter follower is

a) low resistance output

b) low current amplification

c) high voltage amplification

330.The correct answer is a The emitter follower (common collector) has the
lowest output resistance of all three configurations.

This is a diagram of a
 a) differentiator

b) integrator

c) adder

331.This symbol is

a) an LED

b) a laser diode

c) a photodiode

332.When a positive voltage is applied to the base of a normally biased n-p-n

common emitter amplifier

a) the emitter current decreases

b) the collector voltage goes less positive

c) the base current decreases

333.An amplifier current gain will be slightly less than 1, but its voltage gain will
be high, if it is connected in the

a) common base configuration

b) common emitter configuration

c) common collector configuration

334.This is a diagram of a
 a) differentiator

b) integrator

c) adder

335.A zener diode

a) stabilizes voltage at a predetermined level

b) allows current to flow in one direction

c) acts like a switch

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 385

336The common collector amplifier is sometimes called the emitter follower

circuit because

a) the emitter current follows the collector current

b) the emitter voltage follows the base voltage

c) the emitter voltage follows the collector voltage

337.A non-inverting op-amp

a) has a non-inverting input and an inverting output

b) has an inverting input and a non-inverting output

c) a non-inverting input connection only

338.Amplifiers may be classified as

a) common emitter or common collector amplifiers

b) voltage amplifiers or impedance amplifiers

c) voltage amplifiers or power amplifiers

339.What is a shottky diode used for?

a) Very high frequency applications

b) Stabilsation

c) Rectification

340.An amplifier can provide both voltage gain and current gain when it is
connected in the

a) common base configuration

b) common emitter configuration

c) common collector configuration

341.How do you increase voltage gain of an amplifier?

a) decrease base circuit bias

b) decrease input resistance

c) increase input resistance

342.When a hole diffuses from a p-region to the n-region it

a) becomes a minority carrier in the n-region

b) lowers the potential barrier

 c) raises the potential barrier

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 111

343.How are the pins numbered on an op-amp IC?

a) counter clockwise from the dot

b) clockwise from the dot

c) from left to right from the dot

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 140

344.If forward bias is increased from zero on a p-n junction, a rapid increase in
current flow for a relatively small increase in voltage occurs

a) only after the forward bias exceeds the potential barrier

b) when the flow of minority carriers is sufficient to cause an avalanche

breakdown

c) when the depletion layer becomes larger than the space charge area

345.A diode connected across a relay coil is used to

a) allow the coil to energize with only one polarity

b) cause a delay in switching on

c) dissipate coil spikes on switch off

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 121

346.What is resistor R used for?

 a) Amplification

b) Bias

c) Stabilisation

347.To check the forward resistance of a diode with a multimeter, the lead
connected to the positive terminal is put to the

a) anode

b) cathode

c) either anode or cathode

348.The input and output signals of a common emitter amplifier are

a) equal

b) out of phase

c) in phase

349.A common base transistor circuit is so called because

a) the base region is located between the emitter and collector region

b) the base is n-type material

c) the base is common to the emitter and collector circuits

350.Which way does conventional current flow in a PNP junction?

a) Collector to emitter

b) Emitter to base

c) Collector to base
351.In an operational amplifier, the two input waves are the same amplitude,
same frequency, but exactly anti-phase. What would the output be?

a) Double

b) Zero

c) Half

352.A thyristor has which of the following?

a) High resistance when switched on

b) High resistance when switched off

c) A positive temperature coefficient

353.On an integrated circuit the hole in the top left corner is pin 1. The pins are
counted

a) clockwise

b) anticlockwise

c) from left to right

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 140

354.With reference to the circuit shown below, how is the transistor configured?
 a) Common emitter

b) Common collector

c) Common base

355.in the circuit diagram above, R1 and R2 are used to

a) set the transistor gain

b) set the DC bias level

c) increase the base voltage

356.In the following Boolean algebra statement, which gate is described?

F=A+B+C

a) Or

b) Not

c) And

357.In a FET, the junction connections are called

a) drain, source and gate

b) base, collector and emitter

c) drain, collector and junctions

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 120

358.In the Boolean algebra statement below, the gate described is

F = A.B.C

a) Nand

b) Nor
 c) And

359.With a small amplitude voltage, what type of diode would you use to produce
the output waveform?

a) Shottky

b) Gunn

c) Zener

359.An increase in negative feedback to the servo amplifier

a) increases amplifier stability

b) decreases amplifier stability

c) has no effect

360.How is a push-pull transistor arrangement connected?

a) emitter to emitter

b) collector to collector

c) base to base
361.Thermal runaway in a transistor is caused by

a) excessive heat causing maximum current flow

b) excessive heat causing minimum current flow

c) low heat causing minimum current flow

362.A single integrated circuit Op Amp has how many pins?

a) 4

b) 7

c) 8

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 140

363.What is the output of the amplifier shown below?

a) 0V

b) 3V

c) 5V

364.A thyristor is commonly used for

a) voltage regulation

b) overvolts regulation

c) rectification

365.A diode which emits photons when conducting is a

a) zener
 b) varactor

c) light emitting

366.Avalanche breakdown occurs when

a) forward bias becomes excessive

b) forward bias exceeds a certain value

c) reverse bias exceeds a certain value

367.The electrodes of an SCR are

a) anode, cathode, source

b) source, drain, gate

c) gate, cathode, anode

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 120

368.What gives an LED its colour?

a) A gas

b) The cover

c) Composition and impurity of the compound

369.For conduction of a transistor the emitter junction is

a) fwd biased

b) reverse biased

c) fwd or reverse as appropriate to the input signal

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 116

370.In a PNP transistor which way does conventional current flow

a) base to emitter
 b) collector to emitter

c) emitter to collector

371.Infinite gain, infinite input impedance & zero output impedance is

characteristic of a

a) Class A amp

b) Class B amp

c) Op amp
372.Forward voltage of a silicon diode is

a) 0.6V

b) 0.2V

c) 1.6V

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 111 or 113

373.An advantage of a common emitter is

a) it is a voltage follower

b) it has high power gain

c) it has high voltage gain

374.What amplifier is biased at cut off

a) A

b) B

c) C

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 281

375.When testing a transistor with an ohmmeter, what is the resistance of the

emitter/collector?

a) High resistance one way

b) High resistance both ways

c) Low resistance both ways

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 119

376.What is the typical volts drop across an LED

a) 1.6V
 b) 0.2V

c) 0.4V

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 121

377.What diode gives off light photons when forward biased

a) LED

b) Shottky diode

c) Gunn diode

378.A logic circuit with more than one gate will have

a) one of 2 states of logic output

b) 2 or more outputs

c) an analogue output

379.

This is a diagram of

a) an SCR

b) a transistor

c) a photo diode

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 385

380.In a PNP transistor, conventional current will flow when

a) the emitter is more positive than the base

b) the base is more positive than the emitter

c) the collector is more positive than the emitter

381.In a common collector circuit the output and input are

a) out of phase by 90o

b) in phase

c) out of phase by 60o

382.In velocity feedback the signal is

a) in phase

b) out of phase

c) equal to the error signal

383.A junction diode

a) has one p-n junction

b) is similar to a vacuum diode but cannot rectify

c) can handle only small currents

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 111

384.A germanium diode

a) has a lower forward bias voltage than a silicon diode

b) has a higher forward bias voltage than a silicon diode

c) has the same forward bias voltage as a silicon diode

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 111

385.A germanium diode is used for

a) voltage stabilisation

b) rectification

c) signal detection

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 110

386.a VLSIC has

a) less than 1000 gates

b) more than 1000 gates

c) more than 10,000 gates

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 138

387.A momentary input at the reset input of a flip flop will

a) reset the true output to 0

b) reset the true output to 1

c) clock in new data from the data inputs

388.Which type of flip flop has only 1 data input

a) RS

b) JK

c) D

389.A low pass filter has

a) a capacitor in series and an inductor in parallel

b) a capacitor in parallel and an inductor in series

c) both capacitor and inductor in parallel

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 143

390.When you use an op amp as a buffer it has

a) high input impedance and low output impedance

b) low input impedance and high output impedance

c) the same input an output impedance

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 288

391.What switches off a thyristor?

a) Remove the gate voltage

b) Remove supply voltage

c) Reverse bias gate

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 120

392.When an SCR is switched on it has

a) high resistance

b) low resistance

c) no change in resistance

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 120

393.What is required for the switching of a monostable multivibrator

a) one trigger pulse to switch on and another to switch off

b) one trigger pulse to both switch on and off

c) one trigger pulse to switch on and two trigger pulses to switch off
394.A transistor at saturation has

a) high resistance

b) low resistance

c) zero resistance

395.A capacitor resistor coupled multistage amp lets

a) AC and DC pass to the next stage

b) AC pass only

c) DC pass only

396.An oscillator operating at its natural frequency has feedback which is

a) inphase

b) 90 degrees out of phase

c) 180 degrees out of phase

397.What type of diode when forward biased holes and electrons recombine
producing photons?

a) gunn

b) LED

c) photodiode

398.What type of pulse is required to switch on a SCR

a) positive

b) negative

c) positive and negative

399.Which mathematical operation is performed by a modulator amplifier?

a) Addition

b) Subtraction

c) Multiplication

400.What is meant by a bistable circuit?

a) The circuit has 2 stable states and will stay in which one it is put

b) The circuit has 2 stable states and will stay in both at the same time

c) The circuit has 1 stable state and it can be negative or positive

401.A zener diode is designed to operate

a) above its breakdown voltage

b) below its breakdown voltage

c) either above or below its breakdown voltage

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 120

402.A JFET is

a) voltage sensitive

b) current sensitive

c) either of the above depending on resistance in the circuit

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 119

403.A triac is a type of

a) thyristor

b) thermistor

c) transistor

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 120

404.A piece of pure Germanium

a) has a deficit of electrons

b) is electrically stable

c) has an excess of electrons

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 110

405.If a junction diode is reverse biased too far, the output current would

a) cease to flow

b) increase

c) reverse direction

406.An RC connected amp has

a) no AC across

b) no DC across

c) even amounts of d.c and a.c across

407.When a PN junction is forward biased, it conducts via

a) majority carrier

b) minority carrier
 c) intrinsic carrier

408.Thermal runaway in a transistor refers to

a) high current flow when temperature increases

b) low current flow when temperature increases

c) high current flow when temperature decreases

409.When is maximum voltage induced into the rotor of a control synchro

transformer?

a) 90 degrees (null position)

b) 0 degrees

c) When spinning fast

410.Resistors and capacitors are used to couple stages of amplifiers so that

a) only d.c can be applied

b) equal amounts of a.c and d.c can be applied

c) only a.c can be applied

411.An astable multivibrator is a

a) free running vibrator

b) one which requires an input to switch on and off

c) one which requires no input whatsoever

412.Op amps use what power supply?

a) 26v a.c

b) 5v - 15v d.c
c) 26v d.c
413.A D.C. signal converted to a phase sensitive A.C. is

a) demodulation

b) phase conversion

c) modulation

414.A device which has a high input impedance, low output impedance and high
voltage gain is a

a) Class A amp

b) Class B amp

c) Op-Amp

415.In an integrated circuit, the components are mounted by

a) wires connecting them using conformal coating

b) a three dimensional process with no connections between them

required

c) metal oxide film etched onto surface

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 138

416. For a NPN transistor to conduct the collector circuit has to be

a) more positive than the emitter

b) more positive than the base

c) less positive than the emitter

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 116

417.The amount of rate feedback from a tachogenerator is

a) proportional to speed

b) inversely proportional to speed

c) constant for all servo speeds

418. When forward biased, current flow is mainly due to the

a) majority carriers

b) minority carriers

c) germanium bias junction

419.When forward biased the

a) positive lead is connected to the N type and negative to the P type

b) positive lead is connected to the P type and negative to the N type

c) positive lead is connected to both N and P type

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 117

420.In a PNP transistor, which way does conventional current flow?

a) Base to emitter

b) Collector to emitter

c) Emitter to Collector

421.In the Zener Diode suppressor shown, point X in respect to point Y should be
 a) more negative

b) more Positive

c) either positive or negative

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 138

422.In an integrated circuit, the components are inserted

a) manually

b) automatically

c) by doping in successive layers

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 121

423.The typical voltage drop across an L.E.D is

a) 2V

b) 4V

c) 6V

424. In an electronic circuit with an operational amplifier connected in the push-

pull configuration, the circuit

a) decreases impedance

b) utilizes both sides of the input signal

c) blocks half of the input signal

425.Pin 3 on an op-amp has a + symbol. This designates

a) positive offset null

b) positive input DC pin

c) non-inverting input

426.An advantage of a FET when compared to a bi-polar transistor is

a) the input resistance is lower

b) the switching time is quicker

c) the input resistance is higher

427.The semiconductor substrate used in 'chips' is most commonly

a) germanium

b) silicon

c) phiidide

428.Point X compared to point

a) Z is more positive

b) Y is more negative

c) Z is more negative

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 116/117

429.The typical bandwidth for an audio frequency amplifier is shown by line

a) X

b) Y

c) Z

430.What are the majority carriers for a forward biased PN junction device?

a) Electrons

b) Holes

c) Electrons and holes

431.The resistance measured using an AVO between the Collector and Emitter of
a transistor is

a) same both ways

b) smaller Collector to Emitter

c) higher Collector to Emitter

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 119

432.Germanium in its pure state is

a) neutral

b) positively charged

c) negatively charged

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 110

433.Common Collector has the following characteristics

a) Medium Voltage Gain, High Current Gain, Non-Inverted Output

b) Low Voltage Gain, High Current Gain, Inverted Output

c) Medium Voltage Gain, Low Current Gain, Inverted Output

434.Two push-pull transistors have what commoned?

a) Bases

b) Collectors

c) Emitter

435.In a Common Emitter Amplifier RE is used for

a) biasing

b) stabilisation

c) load control

436.If the reverse bias voltage across a diode is too high

a) load current increases rapidly

b) load current reverses

c) load current reduces to zero

437.A transistor is used in

a) current amplifier

b) voltage amplifier

c) both

438. An LED which emits green light uses

a) gallium arsenide phosphide

b) gallium phosphide

c) gallium arsenide

http://www.oksolar.com/led/led_color_chart.htm

439.An LED which emits red light uses

a) gallium arsenide phosphide

b) gallium phosphide

c) gallium arsenide

http://www.oksolar.com/led/led_color_chart.htm

440. A photodiode is operated under

a) reverse bias conditions

b) forward bias conditions

c) reverse or forward bias conditions

http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/electronic/photdet.html#c2

441.To increase capacitance of a varactor diode

a) reverse bias voltage is increased

b) forward bias voltage is decreased

c) reverse bias voltage is decreased

http://www.tpub.com/content/neets/14179/css/14179_131.htm

442. Which diode has a lower forward bias voltage?

a) silicon

b) germanium

c) both the same

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 111

443.A Zener diode is used for

a) rectification

b) voltage stabilisation

c) voltage regulation

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 120

444.In the above diagram the phase of the input to the output is

a) in phase
 b) 180 degrees out of phase

c) 90 degrees out of phase

445.The above diagram shows a

a) voltage doubler

b) half wave rectifier

c) full wave rectifier

http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/electronic/voldoub.html

446. A thyristor SCR is a

a) unidirectional device

b) bi-directional device

c) multidirectional device

http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/electronic/diac.html
447. bi-directional TRIAC has two SCRs connected in

a) series parallel

b) parallel series

c) inverse parallel

448.A thyristor can be forward biased by

a) positive pulse

b) negative pulse

c) positive or negative pulse

449.'N' type materials are doped with

a) acceptors

b) donors

c) acceptors and donors

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 110

450.A junction diode if reverse biased too far, the output will

a) increase

b) stop

c) reverse

451.The input of this circuit will be

a) integrated

b) differentiated

c) logarithmic
452.The most suitable class of amplifier for a radio transmitter is

a) A

b) B

c) C

453.Under normal operating conditions X will be

a) negative with respect to Z

b) positive with respect to Z

c) negative with respect to Y

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page 116/117

454.What does the output voltage of an op-amp depend upon?

a) The resistors in the circuit

b) The op amp bandwidth

c) The gain of the op-amp

456.In which direction does the current flow on a PNP transistor when forward
biased?

a) Emitter to collector

b) Collector to emitter
 c) Emitter to base

457.In a full wave bridge rectifier

a) the output is pure DC. Frequency is 0 Hz

b) the output voltage is twice the input voltage

c) the output frequency is twice the input frequency

Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Printing
circuit board
1. Instead of copper sometimes the conducting material used for PCB is ____.
a. Aluminium
b. Silicon
c. Germanium
d. Only b is correct
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page no. 122.

2. Cupric chloride, chromic acid, alkaline ammonia are the example of _____.
a. Etchant
b. Flux
c. Only b is correct
d. Both a & b
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page no. 122.

3. To save the space on PCB ____ mounting is to be carried out.

a. Vertical
b. Horizontal
c. Axial
d. Center
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page no. 122.

4. Solder with ____mm to ____ mm diameter can be used for PCB work.
a. 0.75mm-1mm
b. 0.075mm-1mm
c. 0.075mm-0.1mm
d. 1mm-10mm
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page no. 122.

5. _____ soldering is most common method of attaching surface mount components to a circuit board.
a. Dip soldering
b. Wave soldering
c. Reflow soldering
d. Both a & b
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page no. 122.

6. ____ gives green or brown colour to PCB.

a. Etching
b. Solder mask
c. Silk screen
 d. Both b & c
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page no. 122.

7. In single layer PCB component mounting is done on …… to the conductor track.

a. Opposite side
b. Same side
c. Both a & b
d. Top side
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page no. 122.

8. How PCB is protected after manufacture?

a. It has non conductive varnish
b. With the help of wax
c. Conformal coating/Solder mask
d. Both a & b
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page no. 122.

9. A multilayer PCB has

a. Two or more layer connected in series
b. Two or more layer on one or both sides
c. One layer on either side
d. Both a & b
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page no. 122.

10. In Double side PCB

a. The circuit is etched on both sides
b. Space is not important than the cost of PCB
c. It has less cost
d. None of these
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page no. 122.

11. Flexible PCB is used in___

a. Cameras
b. Satellites
c. Only b is correct
d. Both a & b
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page no. 122.

12. Ferric chloride is widely used because ___

a. It has long etching time
b. Stored for long time
c. Both a & b
d. Stored for short time
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page no. 122.

13. When compared to a system that is constructed on one board, a modular system using
Printed Circuit Boards (PCBs) is
a. Harder to fault find
b. More expensive for spares
 c. Easier to fault find.
d. Both a & b
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page no. 122.

14. A Printed Circuit Board (PCB) is constructed of a plastic laminate which has bonded to one
or both sides.
a. A thin sheet of copper.
b. Various thicknesses of copper.
c. A thick sheet of copper.
d. BOTH a & b
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page no. 122.

15.How is a PCB protected after manufacture?

a. By conformal coating
b. With non-conductive varnish.
c. With wax.
d. Both a & c
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page no. 122.
16.A decoupling capacitor in a PCB is used to. Option
a. minimize transient currents
b. Pass DC only.
c. Pass AC only.
d. Pass AC & DC
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page no. 122.

17.What is the base material of a PCB?.

a. Insulator.
b. Semiconductor.
c. Conductor.
d. Both a & b
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page no. 122.
18. What are printed circuit boards made of
a. Fiberglass board coated with copper in which circuits are etched.
b. Synthetic resin board etched with copper.
c. Matrix board with components soldered on.
d. Both a & b
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page no. 122.
19.What is the ratio of tin & lead in soldering metal alloy?
a. 50% & 50%
b. 20% & 80%
 c. 10% & 90%
d. 60% & 40%
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page no. 122.

20. PCB stands for

a. Printed circuit board
b. Proper circuit board
c. Prepare circuit board
d. Both a & b
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Edition Eismin Page no. 122.

21. How is a PCB protected after manufacture?

a) With non-conductive varnish

b) With wax

c) By conformal coating
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
SERVOMECHANISM
1. Synchronous is the name given to
a. Rotary devices
b. Electromechanical devices
c. Position sensing devices
d. All of the above

2. Which devices are used by servomechanism to control the power

a. Electronic devices
b. hydraulic devices
c. mechanical devices
d. All of the above

3. Servomechanism are classified on the basis of

a. information sampled at the output of the system for comparison with the input
instructions
b. construction of the open and close loop system
c. operation of the open and close loop system
d. All of the above

4. When error feedback is included in the design that system is called

a. open loop control system
b. Closed loop control system
c. both a and b is correct
d. NOTA

5. In servomechanism with positive feedback the returning signal

a. increases the original signal
b. decreases the original signal
c. depends on situation
d. both b and c is correct

6. In open loop system control elements control

 a. magnitude of the input to power amplifier
b. direction of the input to power amplifier
c. magnitude and direction of the input to motor
d. both a and b is correct

7. Which control system has less accuracy

a. open loop control system
b. closed loop control system
c. positive feedback control system
d. negative feedback control system

8. In which system variations or faults in load can be detected

a. open loop control system
b. closed loop control system
c. positive feedback control system
d. negative feedback control system

9. In servomechanism feedback can be classified as

a. positive feedback
b. negative feedback
c. both a and b
d. None of the above

10. In close loop system what are the advantages of replacing the human operator with automatic
system as
a. get quicker and less accurate reading
b. automatic system is subject to fatigue
c. manpower saving
d. AOTA

11. What is the basic principle of transformer

a. mutual induction
b. electromagnetic induction
c. lenz’s law
d. left hand rule

12. voltage transformer is also know as

a. power transformer
b. current transformer
c. step-up transformer
d. step-down transformer

13. which formula is used to prove that tha power in transformer is constant
a. P=IE
b. P=I²R
c. P=E²/R
 d. All of the above

14. In step up transformer winding ratio (primary winding/secondary winding) is 1:5 then what is the
ratio of voltage
and current in primary and secondary
a. 1:5 and 5:1 respectively
b. 5:1 and 1:5 respectively
c. voltage and current ratio will be same 1:5 only
d. voltage and current ratio will be same 5:1 only

15. When the rotor and magnetic lines of force are perpendicular to each other then the amount of emf
produced is
a. minimum
b. maximum
c. 90%
d. 10%

16. Synchronous system falls into two clasess

a. Direct current synchronous system
b. alternating current synchronous system
c. Both A and B correct
d. conventional current synchronous system

17. Which one of the following is correct

a. transmitter located at the source of measurement
b. reciever is used to position the indicating element
c. reciever is fitted at the source of measurement
d. both a and b is correct

18. the basic desynn system is a type of

a. DC synchro system
b. AC synchro system
c. Both a and b is correct
d. only b is correct
19. Which one of the following system provides the information about the position and liquid contents
a. the basic desynn system
b. slab desynn system
c. micro desynn system
d. torque synchro system

20. resistor wound on circular former is called

a. toroidal resistor
b. fixed resistor
c. variable resistor
d. All of the above
21. Which one of the following is not a part of alternating-current synchronous system
a. resolver
b. basic desynn system
c. torque synchro
d. control synchro

22. the value of induced emf is depend upon

a. number of turns in winding
b. angle between magnetic lines of force and rotor
c. both a and b correct
d. None of the above

23. Torque synchro system provides information about

a. linier position
b. angular position
c. both a and b correct
d. only a is correct

24. In torque synchro system which one of the following winding works as a secondary winding
a. rotor winding
b. stator winding
c. both a and correct
d. only a is correct

25. the rotor of TR is always try to align with

a. the rotor of TX
b. the stator of TR
c. the stator of TX
d. All of the above

26. When a system is said to be in “null”

a. when the rotors of TX and TR occupy the same angular position
b. equal and opposite voltage is produced
c. Both a and b correct
d. both a and b false

27. Which one of the following system produces error voltage signal in receiving element
a. torque synchro
b. control synchro
c. differential synchro
d. resolver

28. Control synchro system used in which one of the following instrument
a. ASI
b. VSI
c. turn and slip indicator
 d. attitude director indicator

29. The receiver of the control synchro system is designated by

a. TR
b. CR
c. CT
d. CX

30. which of the following synchro system is used to detect and transmit error signals representative of
two angular position,
a. torque synchro
b. control synchro
c. differential synchro
d. resolver

31. differential synchro

a. indicates the difference of two angles
b. indicates the sum of two angles
c. both a & b correct
d. None of the above

32. when differential synchros used with torque synchro it is denoted by

a. TDX
b. CDX
c. TCX
d. CTX

33. when differential synchros used with control synchro it is denoted by

a. TDX
b. CDX
c. TCX
d. CTX

34. in differential synchro if tx rotor is at 60 degree and tdx rotor moves 15 degree clockwise, then what
will be the position of the TR rotor?
a. 45 degree
b. 60 degree
c. 105 degree.
d. None of the above

35. in differential synchro if tx rotor is at 60 degree and tdx rotor moves 15 degree anticlockwise, then
what will be the position of the TR rotor?
a. 45 degree
b. 60 degree
c. 105 degree
d. 75 degree
36. if the tdx rotor moves in clockwise direction then TR rotor moves in
a. clockwise direction
b. anti-clockwise direction
c. only b is correct
d. None of the above

37. In resolver synchros

a. cartesian coordinates can be converted into polar coordinates
b. polar coordinates can be converted into Cartesian coordinates
c. only b is correct
d. both a & b correct

38. how many terminals are there in resolver synchro?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8

39. typical use of resolver synchro is in

a. flight director system
b. integrated instrument system
c. both a & b
d. None of the above

40. while converting from polar to Cartesian which winding is unused

a. R1-R2
b. S1-S2
c. S3-S4
d. R3-R4

41. rotor winding R3 and R4 is short-circuited because

a. to improve accuracy
b. to limit spurious response
c. both a and b correct
d. None of the above

42. in resolver synchro EMF induced in stator windings depends on

a. angle of the rotor R1-R2
b. angle of the rotor R3-R4
c. angle of the ststor S1-S2
d. None of the above

43. in resolver synchro when EMF induced in stator winding S1-S2 is maximum that time emf induced in
S3-S4 is
a. maximum
 b. minimum
c. 40 V
d. None of the above

44. in resolver synchro when EMF induced in S3-S4 maximum then angle of the rotor R1-R2 with stator
S1-S2 is
a. 90 degree
b. 60 degree
c. 70 degree
d. 180 degree

45. the EMF induced in stator windings is in phase with voltage applied to rotor R1-R2 at the angle of?
a. 0 to 90 degree
b. 270 to 360 degree
c. both a & b correct
d. None of the above

46. the EMF induced in stator windings is out of phase with voltage applied to rotor R1-R2 at the angle
of?
a. 90 to 270 degree
b. 270 to 360 degree
c. 180 to 360 degree
d. All of the above

47. damping is force which

a. increases the oscillations of pointer
b. decreases the oscillations of pointer
c. neutralises the pointer
d. None of the above

48. types of oscillations are

a. mechanical damping
b. electrical damping
c. both a and b correct
d. only a is correct

49. Which one is the most accurate damping method

a. mechanical damping
b. electrical damping
c. Air damping
d. All of the above

50. which one of the transducer converts linear motion into electrical signals ?
a. LVDT
b. RVDT
c. AVDT
 d. None of the above

51. What is constructional difference between TX and TR?

a. Rotor of the TX are mechanically coupled to an input shaft
b. TX rotor is free to rotate
c. TR is free to rotate
d. Both a and b is correct

52. When the rotors of TX and TR occupy the same angular positions, and power is applied equal and
opposite the amount of voltage produced or that situation is called?
a. Null position
b. Electrical zero position
c. Damping position
d. None of the above

53. The currents are more in the circuit where,

a. Voltage unbalance is more
b. Voltage unbalance is less
c. No difference in voltage at both end
d. All of the above
54. Control synchro is used in which one of the following instrument?
a. Altimeters
b. Air speed indicator
c. Vertical speed indicator
d. Both a and b correct

55. in which one of the following system at electrical zero position there in a diffreenece of 90 degree
between rotor of transmitter and rotor of the receiver?
a. Torque synchro
b. Control synchro
c. Differential synchro
d. Resolversynchro
56. In control synchro if difference between both rotor 90 degree is maintened then error voltage
produced is?
a. zero
b. infinity
c. maximum
d. none of the above
57. device which converts one form of energy into another form is called ?
a. transducer
b. amplifier
c. rectifier
d. none of the avove
58. E and I is a transformer which is used in servomechanism system for the purpose of
a. Error detector
b. Error amplifier
 c. Error rectifier
d. Error transducer
59. In E and I transformer if the I bar (armature) is at centre position then emf induced in secondary
coils
a. it will vary
b. it will be equal
c. it will change in very small amount
d. none of the above
60. What are the two major components of synchro
a. The rotor and the stator
b. The housing and the stator
c. The rotor and the shaft
d. The housing and the shaft
61. How does the stator of TX receive voltage
a. By physical connection with the rotor
b. By magnetic coupling with the another stator
c. By a magnetic coupling with the rotor
d. By a physical connection with the source
62. A synchro receiver has which of the following characerstics that is not found in any ordinary
transformer?
a. A primary that can rotate in relation to the secondary
b. A primary magnetically coupled to the secondary
c. A step-up turns ratio
d. An air-core
63. The primary purpose of damping is to reduce which of the following conditions in a synchro device
a. Reading 180 degree out of phase
b. Overheating
c. Oscillating
d. None of the above
64. What type of synchro can accept two signals simultaneously and add or subtract
a. Transmission
b. Differential
c. Automatic
d. Shiftless
65. What are the common defects can occur in servo system
a. Short circuit
b. Incorrect wiring
c. Power failure
d. All of the above
66. If power failure occurred in servo system then will come to know it by checking
a. Ac volts across rotor winding
b. Ac volts across stator winding
c. Both a and b correct
d. None of the above
67. If short circuit occur in the servo system then what will happen?
a. Operation will stop
 b. It will operate sluggish
c. Operation normal
d. None of the above
68. What are the indications of short circuit in servo system?
a. will cause fuse to blow
b. component and wiring will burn
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
69. rotor winding will cause the receiver synchro to stck in one position is the indication of?
a. Power failure
b. Open circuit
c. Short circuit
d. Incorrect wiring
70.AC power is supplied to
a) torque receiver only
b) torque transmitter only
c) both the torque receiver and torque transmitter

71. A differential synchro

a) can only be used as a transmitter

b) can only be used as a receiver

c) can be used as either a transmitter or a receiver

72. The output of a tachogenerator is

a) proportional to speed of rotation

b) proportional to position

c) proportional to acceleration

73. AC power is supplied to

a) torque receiver only

b) torque transmitter only

c) both the torque receiver and torque transmitter

74. A differential synchro

a) can only be used as a transmitter

 b) can only be used as a receiver

c) can be used as either a transmitter or a receiver

75.A resolver has

a) 2 coils on the rotor and 2 coils on the stator

b) 3 coils on the rotor and 2 coils on the stator

c) 2 coils on the rotor and 3 coils on the stator

76.The 'null' point on a control synchro is when the two rotors are

a) at 90o to each other

b) parallel to each other

c) wired in series

77.When a servomotor overshoots after a step input and oscillates it is

a) over damped

b) under damped

c) critically damped

78.The rotor of a desynn indicator is

a) an electromagnet

b) a permanent magnet

c) an AC magnet

79.The position feedback from a potentiometer is

a) anti-phase

b) in phase

c) 90 degrees out of phase

80.A differential synchro has

a) 3 phase stator, 3 phase rotor

b) single phase stator, 2 phase rotor

 c) 3 phase stator, single phase rotor

81.When a servomotor has stopped, the rate feedback from a tachogenerator is

a) zero

b) maximum and in phase

c) maximum and anti-phase

82. A tachogenerator is usually used for

a) rate feedback

b) angular feedback

c) position feedback

83 . Differential synchros have

a) a transmitter only

b) a receiver only

c) a transmitter and a receiver

84 . in a torque synchro system, the power supply is connected to

a) the rotor windings of the transmitter only

b) the rotor windings of both the transmitter and receiver

c) the stator windings of the transmitter

85 . The phase difference between the supplies of a two phase induction motor is

a) 180o

b) 90o

c) 0o

86. To reduce overshoot errors in a synchro

a) the system will have position feedback

b) the system will have velocity feedback

 c) the gain of the amplifier is increased

87. A synchro transformer is used to

a) derive an error voltage from a synchro transmitter signal and a shaft position

b) obtain a 26 volt AC reference

c) add the output of two synchro transmitters

88.Reversal of the complete power to a torque synchro system will

a) have no effect

b) cause reverse rotation of the receiver rotor

c) displace the receiver rotor by 180o

89. The power supply to a torque synchro system is

a) AC

b) DC

c) AC or DC

90.Mechanical friction in a servo results in

a) reduced gain

b) increased damping

c) increased inertia

91. The position feedback signal is

a) in phase with the input demand signal

b) in anti-phase with the demand signal

c) phase advanced by 90o with respect to the input signal

92. A servo system that overshoots and oscillates is

a) under damped

b) over damped
 c) critically damped

93.. The power supply to a torque synchro system is connected to

a) the transmitter stator

b) the transmitter rotor only

c) the transmitter and receiver rotors

94. If the rotor of the receiver in a torque synchro system was prevented from aligning with the
transmitter rotor, then

a) the transmitter rotor will turn to align with the receiver rotor

b) the receiver will overheat

c) a high current will flow in the stator windings

95. in a toroidal resistance transmitter indicator system, the power supply is connected to

a) the brushes

b) the resistor slab

c) the rotor

96.When a servo has reached its null and stopped, the velocity feedback is

a) zero

b) maximum and anti-phase

c) maximum and in phase

97.The primary purpose of rate feedback in a positional servo system is to

a) ensure minimum response time

b) prevent excessive overshoot

c) ensure system linearity

98.in an AC rate servo, a steady input will result in the servomotor

a) oscillating about a new datum

 b) rotating at a constant speed

c) rotating to a new datum position

99. An E&I bar output at datum has

a) no induced voltage in the secondary windings

b) an imbalance of voltages in the secondary windings

c) equal and opposite voltages induced in the secondary

100.The result of cross connecting two of the transmission leads in a torque synchro system and the
turning the rotor of the transmitter 60o clockwise would be

a) the receiver would move 60o clockwise

b) the receiver would move 120o anti-clockwise

c) the receiver would move 60o anticlockwise

101.The control windings of a two phase servomotor is supplied with AC voltage of

a) constant amplitude

b) variable phase

c) variable amplitude, variable phase

102. In a torque synchro that includes a differential synchro the power supply is connected to

a) the transmitter rotor only

b) the transmitter and receiver rotors only

c) all three rotors

103. A differential synchro rotor has

a) three windings

b) two windings
 c) one winding

104. If the rotor of a control synchro sticks

a) the system hunts

b) high current will flow

c) the position feedback will oscillate

105. with the reversal of the connections to the rotor of the transmitter of a torque synchro, the
position of the receiver rotor will be

a) unchanged

b) changed by 120o

c) changed by 180o

106. The application of a 'stick-off' voltage to a control synchro servo system is

a) to overcome the effect of static friction

b) to overcome the effect of viscous friction

c) to prevent alignment to a false null

107. When removing a microprocessor

a) no damage is done by static discharge

b) considerable damage can be done by static discharge

c) ensure the power is OFF to avoid static discharge

108.In a resolver synchro the stator windings are electrically displaced by

a) 90o

b) 120o

c) 180o
109.A servo system may include a brake, an automatic trim system is one example where a brake is
used. The brake is

a) applied during trimming to prevent oscillations about the demand position

b) applied when trimming is complete to prevent stabilizer creep

c) applied during trimming to prevent servo runaway

110.A resolver synchro output is obtained from a rotor with

a) one single coil

b) three coils at 120o

c) two coils at 90o

111. In a control synchro the stator current ceases to flow when

a) the CT rotor is at null

b) when the two rotors are aligned

c) when power is removed

112. In a speed control servo system (rate control), the purpose of the tachogenerator is

a) to make the velocity proportional to servo demand

b) to make the deflection proportional to servo demand

c) to make it run at constant speed

113. The result of reversing the rotor connections to the receiver of a torque synchro system is that the
rotor position

a) is unchanged

b) is changed by 120o

c) is changed by 180o
114. The rotor of a torque synchro indicator is

a) supplied with an excitation voltage

b) short circuited

c) connected in series with the transmitter stator coil

115. a two phase induction motor used in a servomechanism

a) will always require a starter

b) is self starting under light loads

c) runs with no slip

116. A servomotor having only a tachogenerator as a feedback device will

a) vary its speed with input error voltage

b) have a constant speed for any given input voltage

c) null out at a position dependant upon input error voltage

117. A hysteresis servo motor is used in a servomechanism because

a) it has good starting characteristics

b) good speed/voltage relationship

c) low inertia

118. The null position of a torque synchro system is when

a) the TX and TR rotors are parallel to each other

b) the TX and TR rotors are 90o to each other

c) the TX and TR rotors are 120o to each other

119. Reversal of two of the stator connections on a torque synchro receiver would cause

a) the transmitter to become the receiver

 b) the output to move the same direction as the input

c) the output to move the reverse direction to the input

120. An AC tachogenerator stator has

a) two windings 180o apart

b) three windings 120o apart

c) two windings 90o apart

121. A junction diode

a) has one p-n junction

b) is similar to a vacuum diode but cannot rectify

c) can handle only very small currents

122. When the rotor of an AC tachogenerator is stationary, the rotor has

a) no circulating currents

b) low circulating currents

c) no magnetic fields

123. The output of a tachogenerator should be

a) sinusoidal

b) exponential

c) linear

124. with a constant input to a speed control servo, the servo motor

a) moves to a certain position

b) moves at a constant speed

c) oscillates, but otherwise does not move

125. A closed loop servomechanism

a) must only have position feedback

b) must have both position and velocity feedback

c) can have either position or velocity feedback

126. Critical damping in a servomechanism is

a) the point which allows just one overshoot before the load comes to rest

b) the amount of damping that results in the load just not oscillating

c) the critical damping required for the optimum damping of the servomechanism

127. In a control synchro system the power supply is connected to the

a) transmitter rotor and amplifier

b) receiver rotor and amplifier

c) transmitter and receiver rotors

128. Reverse rotation of a control transformer rotor can be caused by

a) connections between the transformer rotor and the amplifier reversed

b) connections to the transmitter rotor reversed

c) short circuit between two transmission lines

129. Velocity feedback

a) opposes the demand input

b) assists the demand input

c) prevents dead space errors

130. Velocity lag can be decreased by

a) introduction of an integrator

b) keeping the error detector (summing point) output as low as possible

c) decreasing the coulomb friction in the system

131. A two phase motor will stop when

a) the reference phase is reversed

b) the control phase is reversed

c) the control phase is zero

132. A tachogenerator output is

a) variable frequency, constant voltage

b) variable voltage, constant frequency

c) variable frequency, variable voltage

133. Rate feedback can be obtained from a

a) synchro

b) tachogenerator

c) potentiometer

134. Positional feedback can be obtained from a

a) synchro

b) tachogenerator

c) potentiometer

135. The frictional force in a servomechanism that is proportional to speed is called

a) stiction

b) coulomb friction
 c) viscous friction

136. The 'null' point in a control synchro is when the two rotors are

a) at 90o to each other

b) parallel to each other

c) wired in series

137. If two of the stator leads are cross connected in a control synchro system, a 25o clockwise rotation
of the input rotor would result in the output rotor

a) moving 25o clockwise

b) moving 25o anticlockwise

c) moving 180o to rectify the defect

138. Damping in a servomechanism is easier to apply if

a) the mechanism is light and has low inertia

b) the mechanism is heavy and has high inertia

c) the mechanism is light and has high inertia

139. An increase in servo amplifier gain

a) reduces the speed of the system

b) increases system response

c) reduces tendency to hunt

140. In a control synchro the stator current ceases to flow when the

a) CT rotor is at null

b) two rotors are aligned

c) power is removed
141. The term 'velocity lag' refers to a

a) speed error

b) position error

c) acceleration error

142. the rotor of an AC tachogenerator

a) has skewed slots

b) has a copper, brass or aluminium cylinder

c) rotates at constant speed

143. A servo system with transient negative velocity feedback

a) is damped with little velocity lag

b) is damped with high velocity lag

c) is underdamped with high velocity lag

144. To reverse the direction of rotation of a two phase induction motor

a) reverse the polarity of the control phase

b) reverse the polarity of both the control phase and reference phase

c) shift the reference by 90o

145. In a rate servo (speed control) the signal into the servo amplifier is

a) input voltage plus tachogenerator output

b) input voltage minus tachogenerator output

c) input voltage plus position feedback voltage

146. Loss of DC to a servo amplifier causes the motor to

a) run continuously

b) stop

c) reverse

147. An AC servo demand can be converted to drive a DC motor by the introduction of a

a) rectifier

b) modulator

c) demodulator

148. Synchro indicator systems are used when the indication is required to move

a) a fraction of the input distance

b) slower than the input rate

c) at the same rate as the input

149. A linear variable differential transformer is used to measure position feedback where

a) 360o of rotation and high angular accuracy is required

b) accuracy is of limited importance but robust construction and reliability is important

c) an output whose phase is related to direction of movement and amplitude linear over a wide
range

150. A low frequency sinusoidal input will cause a closed loop servomechanism load to

a) move to a demand position with no overshoot

b) move backwards and forwards at the input frequency

c) move to the demand position and then return to the datum position without any overshoot

151. To reduce oscillations about a demand position

 a) the amount of velocity feedback would be decreased

b) the amount of velocity feedback would be increased

c) the amount of position feedback would be increased

152. If a servo amplifier is suffering from drift

a) the load would move to a new position, proportional to the drift and stay there

b) the load would move to a new position, proportional to the drift and then return back to the
datum position

c) the load would oscillate about the datum position

153. in a transient velocity feedback circuit, the tachogenerator output is summated with the demand
voltage

a) only when the load is slowing down

b) at all times when the load is moving

c) only when the load is speeding up or slowing down

154. Positive feedback applied to a servomechanism

a) decreases the response of the system

b) opposes the demand signal

c) increases the response of the system

155. A differential synchro rotor consists of

a) one winding parallel to the transmitter rotor

b) two windings at 90o apart

c) three windings at 120o apart

156. A differential synchro transmitter used for addition has

 a) the TDX S1 and S3 connections cross connected to the TX

b) the TDX S1 and S3 connections cross connected to the TR

c) the TDX R1, R3 and S1, S3 connections cross connected to the TX

157. An LVDT has

a) an output winding which is wound in series opposition

b) an input winding whose voltage will change with load movement

c) an output winding whose voltage and frequency is linear to load angular movement

158. A diode connected across a relay coil is used to

a) allow the coil to energize with only one polarity

b) cause a delay in switching on

c) dissipate coil spikes on switch off

159. Differential transmitters are used to

a) add or subtract two electrical signals

b) add or subtract a mechanical signal to an electrical synchro signal

c) increase the operating speed of the synchro receiver

160. To convert a differential synchro from subtraction to addition you would

a) reverse the reference phase supply

b) change over two rotor and stator connections

c) change over all three stator windings

161. A resolver synchro output is obtained from a rotor with

a) one single coil

 b) two coils at 90o to each other

c) three coils at 120o to each other

162. The output of a resolver synchro is

a) dependant upon the position of the rotor only

b) proportional to the speed of input rotation

c) a function of the rotor position and excitation voltage

163. The rotor of an autosyn position indicating system is

a) a permanent magnet

b) an electromagnet

c) spring controlled

164. The rotor of a magnesyn transmitter is

a) a dc electromagnet

b) a permanent magnet

c) an ac electromagnet

165. In general the accuracy of a synchro system increases if the

a) stator current is high

b) stator current is low

c) rotor current is high

166. Torque synchro systems are normally used when the

a) mechanical load is low

b) mechanical load is high

 c) system accuracy is of extreme importance

167. In a resolver synchro the stator windings are electrically disposed by

a) 90o

b) 120o

c) 180o

168. The induced signal in the output coils of the magnesyn system

a) de-saturates the soft iron core

b) damps the pointer oscillations

c) is of a value of 800 Hz

169. The direction of the induced (secondary) magnetic field in a synchro transmitter

a) is 90o to the primary magnetic field

b) in the same direction as the primary field

c) is in the opposite direction to the primary field

170. The cogging effect in synchros is rectified by

a) using carbon brushes

b) using an elliptical cog

c) skewing the rotor

171. Torque synchro systems are normally used when the

a) mechanical load is low

b) mechanical load is high

c) system accuracy is of extreme importance

172. Electrical power is supplied to a synchro rotor

a) directly

b) through slip rings

c) through a commutator

173. The purpose of a flywheel incorporated in a synchro is to

a) increase the driving force

b) prevent oscillations

c) prevent insect ingress

174. in a synchro system, if two stator lines are crossed the receiver will

a) not be affected

b) be 180o out

c) reverse direction

175. in a synchro resolver, the stator coils are at what angle in relation to one another?

a) 45 degrees

b) 80 degrees

c) 90 degrees

176. in a synchrotel, the

a) rotor is fixed and the stator moves

b) rotor and stator is fixed

c) stator is fixed and the rotor moves

177. An increase in negative feedback to the servo amplifier

a) increases amplifier stability

b) decreases amplifier stability

c) has no effect