HC Verma Solution
HC Verma Solution
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SOLUTIONS TO CONCEPTS
CHAPTER 6
m
Final velocity v = 0 m/s
2 mg
a = –1m/s (deceleration)
co
v 2 u2 0 10 2 100
S= = = = 50m
2a 2( 1) 2
y.
It will travel 50m before coming to rest.
3. Body is kept on the horizontal table.
da
If no force is applied, no frictional force will be there
mg
f frictional force p
to
F Applied force
From grap it can be seen that when applied force is zero, R
es
Again, R + ma ? mg sin = 0
R
w
(5 / 3 ) =1 = 1/ (5 / 3 ) = 0.11 mg
4N
Co-efficient of kinetic friction between the two is 0.11.
4kg
5. From the free body diagram
4 ? 4a ? R + 4g sin 30° = 0 …(1) 30°
R ? 4g cos 30° = 0 ...(2)
R = 4g cos 30° R
R
Putting the values of R is & in equn. (1)
4 ? 4a ? 0.11 × 4g cos 30° + 4g sin 30° = 0
4 ? 4a ? 0.11 × 4 × 10 × ( 3 / 2 ) + 4 × 10 × (1/2) = 0
2
ma
4 ? 4a ? 3.81 + 20 = 0 a 5 m/s
2
For the block u =0, t = 2sec, a = 5m/s mg
2 2
Distance s = ut + ½ at s = 0 + (1/2) 5 × 2 = 10m
The block will move 10m.
6.1
m
R
R = mg cos + F sin ...(1)
co
And mg sin + R ? F cos = 0 30°
F
mg sin + (mg cos + F sin ) ? F cos = 0
R
y.
mg sin + mg cos + F sin ? F cos = 0 30°
(mg sin mg cos )
F=
( sin cos )
da mg
2 10 (1 / 2) 0.2 2 10 ( 3 / 2) 13.464
to
F= = = 17.7N 17.5N
0.2 (1/ 2) ( 3 / 2) 0.76
es
8. m mass of child R
R
R ? mg cos 45° = 0
di
45°
= mg sin 45° - mg cos 45° mg
.s
= m [(5/ 2 ) ? 0.6 × (5 / 2 )]
= m(2 2 )
w
Force m(2 2 ) 2
w
acceleration = = = 2 2 m/s
mass m
9. Suppose, the body is accelerating down with acceleration ?a?.
From the free body diagram R
R ? mg cos = 0 R
R = mg cos ...(1)
ma + mg sin – R = 0
ma
mg(sin cos )
a= = g (sin – cos )
m mg
For the first half mt. u = 0, s = 0.5m, t = 0.5 sec.
So, v = u + at = 0 + (0.5)4 = 2 m/s
S = ut + ½ at2 0.5 = 0 + ½ a (0/5)2 a = 4m/s2 ...(2)
For the next half metre
2
u` = 2m/s, a = 4m/s , s= 0.5.
2 2
0.5 = 2t + (1/2) 4 t 2 t + 2 t ? 0.5 =0
6.2
F R –1
tan = tan tan
m
R R
11. From the free body diagram
co
A B
T + 0.5a ? 0.5 g = 0 ...(1) 1kg 1kg
R + 1a + T1 ? T = 0 ...(2) =0.2 =0.2 a
y.
R + 1a ? T1 = 0
0.5kg 0.5g
R + 1a = T1 ...(3)
From (2) & (3) R + a = T ? T1
da 0.5g
R R
to
T ? T1 = T1
T = 2T1
es
T1 1a R
Equation (2) becomes R + a + T1 ? 2T1 = 0
1a
R
R + a ? T1 = 0
di
1g
T1 = R + a = 0.2g + a ...(4) A 1g
tu
2
w
2
a) Accln of 1kg blocks each is 0.4m/s
b) Tension T1 = 0.2g + a + 0.4 = 2.4N
c) T = 0.5g ? 0.5a = 0.5 × 10 ? 0.5 × 0.4 = 4.8N a
0.5 m/s2
12. From the free body diagram
4kg
1 R + 1 ? 16 = 0 2
1 (2g) + (?15) = 0 2kg 30°
1 = 15/20 = 0.75 1
2 R1 + 4 × 0.5 + 16 ? 4g sin 30° = 0
2R
2 (20 3 ) + 2 + 16 ? 20 = 0
2 1 2×0.5
2 = = = 0.057 0.06 16N 4×0.5
20 3 17.32 R1
16N=T
Co-efficient of friction 1 = 0.75 & 2 = 0.06
4g
6.3
m
14. s = 5m, = 4/3, g = 10m/s2
co
u = 36km/h = 10m/s, v = 0,
v 2 u2 0 10 2 2 the max.
a= = = –10m/s angle
y.
2s 25 velocity
From the freebody diagrams,
R ? mg cos = 0 ; g = 10m/s
2 da a
R = mg cos ?.(i) ; = 4/3.
to
Again, ma + mg sin - R = 0
ma + mg sin – mg cos = 0
es
R
a + g sin ? mg cos = 0
R
10 + 10 sin - (4/3) × 10 cos = 0
di
30 + 30 sin ? 40 cos =0
tu
3 + 3 sin ? 4 cos = 0 ma
4 cos - 3 sin = 3
.s
mg
4 1 sin2 = 3 + 3 sin
w
18 18 2 4(25)( 7 ) 18 32 14
sin = = = = 0.28 [Taking +ve sign only]
w
2 25 50 50
–1
= sin (0.28) = 16°
Maximum incline is = 16°
15. to reach in minimum time, he has to move with maximum possible acceleration. R
Let, the maximum acceleration is ?a?
a
ma ? R = 0 ma = mg ma R
2
a = g = 0.9 × 10 = 9m/s
a) Initial velocity u = 0, t = ?
2
a = 9m/s , s = 50m mg
100 10 R
2 2
s = ut + ½ at 50 = 0 + (1/2) 9 t t = = sec.
9 3 a
R ma
b) After overing 50m, velocity of the athelete is
V = u + at = 0 + 9 × (10/3) = 30m/s
2
He has to stop in minimum time. So deceleration ia ?a = ?9m/s (max) mg
6.4
R ma
ma R(max frictional force )
a g 9m / s2 (Decelerati on)
1 1
u = 30m/s, v =0
v 1 u1 0 30 30 10
t= = = = sec.
a a a 3
16. Hardest brake means maximum force of friction is developed between car?s type & road.
Max frictional force = R a
From the free body diagram
R
R ? mg cos =0
R
R = mg cos ...(i)
and R + ma ? mg sin ) = 0 …(ii)
mg cos + ma ? mg sin = 0
g cos + a ? 10 × (1/2) = 0
m
ma
2 mg
a = 5 ? {1 ? (2 3 )} × 10 ( 3 / 2 ) = 2.5 m/s
co
2
When, hardest brake is applied the car move with acceleration 2.5m/s
S = 12.8m, u = 6m/s
y.
S0, velocity at the end of incline
V= u2 2as = 6 2 2(2.5)(12.8) = da
36 64 = 10m/s = 36km/h
Hence how hard the driver applies the brakes, that car reaches the bottom with least velocity 36km/h.
to
17. Let, , a maximum acceleration produced in car.
R a
ma = R [For more acceleration, the tyres will slip]
es
2
ma = mg a = g = 1 × 10 = 10m/s
For crossing the bridge in minimum time, it has to travel with maximum R
di
acceleration
u = 0, s = 500m, a = 10m/s2
tu
2
s = ut + ½ at
2 mg
500 = 0 + (1/2) 10 t t = 10 sec.
.s
2
If acceleration is less than 10m/s , time will be more than 10sec. So one can?t drive through the bridge
w
a
R = 4g cos 30° = 4 × 10 × 3 / 2 = 20 3 ...(i)
w
2kg
2 R + 4a ? P ? 4g sin 30° = 0 0.3 (40) cos 30° + 4a ? P ? 40 sin 20° = 0 ?(ii) 4kg
P + 2a + 1 R1 ? 2g sin 30° = 0 …(iii)
30°
R1 = 2g cos 30° = 2 × 10 × 3 / 2 = 10 3 ...(iv)
Equn. (ii) 6 3 + 4a ? P ? 20 = 0 R
R
2a
Equn (iv) P + 2a + 2 3 ? 10 = 0 a P 1 R1
6.5
T T
m
The blocks (system has acceleration g(sin – cos )
co
The force exerted by the rod on one of the blocks is tension.
Tension T = ? M1g sin + M1a + M1g sin
y.
T = ? M1g sin + M1(g sin – g cos ) + M1g cos
T= 0
20. Let ?p? be the force applied to at an angle
From the free body diagram
da
to
R
R + P sin ? mg = 0
P
R = ? P sin + mg ...(i)
es
R
R ? p cos ...(ii)
Equn. (i) is (mg ? P sin ) ? P cos = 0
di
mg
mg = sin ? P cos =
tu
sin cos mg
Applied force P should be minimum, when sin + cos is maximum.
.s
6.6
4g
2g
2g
m
R1 ? 2g = 0
R1 = 2 × 10 = 20 4a1 – R1 = 0
co
2a + 0.2 R1 ? 12 = 0 4a1 = R1 = 0.2 (20)
2a + 0.2(20) = 12 4a1 = 4
y.
2
2a = 12 ? 4 = 8 a1 = 1m/s
2
a = 4m/s da
2 2
2kg block has acceleration 4m/s & that of 4 kg is 1m/s
R1 a R1
to
2kg
12N R1 4a
es
4kg R1
12
2a
di
2g 4g
2g
tu
(ii) R1 = 2g = 20 4a + 0.2 × 2 × 10 ? 12 = 0
Ma – R1 = 0 4a + 4 = 12
.s
2a = 0.2 (20) = 4 4a = 8
w
a = 2m/s2 a = 2 m/s
2
23. 10N
w
2g 3g
1 = 0.2 A 2 kg
w
10N
1 = 0.3 B 3 kg R1=4N 15N
10N
1 = 0.5 C 7 kg
R1 R2=5g
a) When the 10N force applied on 2kg block, it experiences maximum frictional force
R1 = × 2kg = (0.2) × 20 = 4N from the 3kg block.
So, the 2kg block experiences a net force of 10 ? 4 = 6N
2
So, a1 = 6/2 = 3 m/s
But for the 3kg block, (fig-3) the frictional force from 2kg block (4N) becomes the driving force and the
maximum frictional force between 3kg and 7 kg block is
2R2 = (0.3) × 5kg = 15N
So, the 3kg block cannot move relative to the 7kg block. The 3kg block and 7kg block both will have
same acceleration (a2 = a3) which will be due to the 4N force because there is no friction from the floor.
2
a2 = a3 = 4/10 = 0.4m/s
6.7
2g
4N
3g
A 2 kg 10N
B 3 kg 10N
3kg
C 7 kg
15N
R=5g
b) When the 10N force is applied to the 3kg block, it can experience maximum frictional force of 15 + 4
= 19N from the 2kg block & 7kg block.
So, it can not move with respect to them.
As the floor is frictionless, all the three bodies will move together
a1 = a2 = a3 = 10/12 = (5/6)m/s2
c) Similarly, it can be proved that when the 10N force is applied to the 7kg block, all the three blocks will
move together.
2
Again a1 = a2 = a3 = (5/6)m/s
2
24. Both upper block & lower block will have acceleration 2m/s R
m
R1
R1 T
co
T R1 m
F M
y.
mg
R1
mg
R1 = mg ...(i)
da T – R1 = 0
F – R1 ? T = 0 F ? mg ?T = 0 ...(ii) T = mg
to
F = mg + mg = 2 mg [putting T = mg]
es
R a
a R1
di
ma T
2F T R1 ma R1
tu
mg
.s
mg
R1
b) 2F ? T ? mg ? ma = 0 ?(i) T ? Ma ? mg = 0 [ R1 = mg]
w
T = Ma + mg
Putting value of T in (i)
w
2f ? Ma? mg – mg ? ma = 0
w
a
T R1 F
F R1 T
a m
M
mg T = mR1
mg
R1 = m (mg–ma)
ma ma
R1 + ma ? mg =0
R1 = m(g?a) = mg ? ma ...(i)
T – R1 = 0 T = m (mg ? ma) ...(ii)
Again, F ? T ? R1 =0
6.8
mg
m
R1
ma
R1 = mg ? ma ...(i) T – R1 ? M a1 = 0
2F ? T ? R1 ? ma1 =0 T = R1 + M a1
2F ? t ? mg + a ? ma1 = 0 ...(ii) T = (mg ? ma) + Ma1
T = mg – ma + M a1
Subtracting values of F & T, we get
m
2(2m(g ? a)) ? 2(mg – ma + Ma1) – mg + ma – a1 = 0
co
2m( g a)
4 mg ? 4 ma ? 2 mg + 2 ma = ma 1 + M a1 a1 =
Mm
y.
Both blocks move with this acceleration but in opposite directions.
26. R1 + QE ? mg = 0
R 1 = mg ? QE
F ? T ? R1 = 0
...(i) da F
m E
to
F ? T (mg ? QE) = 0 M
T - R1 = 0 R1
R2
T = R1 = (mg ? QE) = mg – QE
di
R2
R1 T
Now equation (ii) is F ? mg + QE – mg + QE = 0 T R1
F
tu
F ? 2 mg + 2 QE = 0 mg
m
F = 2mg ? 2 QE R1
.s
QE
F= 2(mg ? QE)
R
w
R = mg m
F – R = 0 F = R = mg
But the table is at rest. So, frictional force at the legs of the table is not R1. Let be mg R
f, so form the free body diagram.
R
o – R = 0 o = R = mg.
Total frictional force on table by floor is mg.
28. Let the acceleration of block M is ?a? towards right. So, the block ?m? must go down with an acceleration ?2a?.
T1 R2
R1
R1 ma Ma
R1 R1
M T
m
a mg R2 Mg
2a
(FBD-1) (FBD-2)
As the block ?m? is in contact with the block ?M?, it will also have acceleration ?a? towards right. So, it will
experience two inertia forces as shown in the free body diagram-1.
From free body diagram -1
6.9
m
[2m 2 (M m)]g
a=
co
M m[5 2(1 2 )]
29. Net force = *(202 + (15)2 ? (0.5) × 40 = 25 ? 20 = 5N
y.
tan = 20/15 = 4/3 = tan–1(4/3) = 53°
So, the block will move at an angle 53 ° with an 15N force
30. a) Mass of man = 50kg. g = 10 m/s
2
da
Frictional force developed between hands, legs & back side with the wall the wt of
to
man. So he remains in equilibrium. R R
He gives equal force on both the walls so gets equal reaction R from both the walls. If
es
he applies unequal forces R should be different he can?t rest between the walls.
40g
Frictional force 2R balance his wt.
di
R + R = 40g 2 R = 40 × 10 R = = 250N
2 0 .8
.s
M a1
Here, a1 > a2 so that m moves on M a2
w
2 2
For ?m? to m to ?m? separate from M. vt + ½ 1 ta = vt + ½ a2 t +l ...(1)
Again from free body diagram R a1
a1
Ma1 + /2 R = 0
Ma2 R
ma1 = ? (/2) mg = ? (/2)m × 10 a1= –5
mg
R
< 2 2
Again, M+mg