Key word: SPICY 2.

TURGEON: Refusal by the patient to have blood

Ang Turn Around Time (TAT).. drawn. The response to this problem is to politely
Pre-analytical, Analytical or Post-analytical excuse yourself from the patient’s room, note the
variable? refusal on the requisition, and notify the
-post ana hematology supervisor.
3. McCALL: There are times when a phlebotomist is

CONCENTRATION OF FIBRINOGEN THAT WILL CAUSE not able to collect a specimen from a patient even

PROLONGED APTT OR PT.. before attempting venipuncture. Occasionally, a

Malaki na kayo.. RODAK OR BROWN patient will refuse to have blood drawn. Other

1. From Rodak times, the patient may be unavailable because he or

a. PT is prolonged in congenital single-factor she has gone to surgery or for another test, as in

deficiencies of factor X, VII, or V; prothrombin radiology. Whatever the reason, if the specimen

deficiency; and fibrinogen deficiency when the cannot be obtained, notify the patient’s nurse or

fibrinogen level is 100 mg/dL or less. physician. You may be required to fill out a form

b. PTT/APTT, the factors whose deficiencies are stating that the specimen was not obtained and the

associated with hemorrhage and are reflected in reason why. The original form is placed in the

prolonged PTT results, taken in the order of patient’s chart and the laboratory retains a

reaction, are XI, IX, VIII, X, and V; prothrombin; copy. (ANSWER from McCall, Chapter 8, no. 6 is B)

and fibrinogen, when fibrinogen is 100 mg/dL or The following are the most common and generally

less. accepted reasons for inability to obtain a specimen:

• Phlebotomist attempted but was unable to draw

2. From Brown blood.

a. PT will also be prolonged when the fibrinogen • Patient refused to have blood drawn.

concentration is less than 80 mg/dL and in cases of • Patient was unavailable.

dysfibrinogenemia.
b. APTT is sometimes insensitive to decreases in KEY WORD: SPICY

fibrinogen in which only levels of 60 to 80 mg/dL or HENRY vs. STRASINGER. Malaki na kayo..

lower will cause a prolonged APTT. 1. HENRY

Urine sediment may be “telescoped,” that is, may

KEY WORD: SPICY display all types of cells and casts in lupus

HEMATOLOGY AND PHLEBOTOMY BOOKS nephritis or with a hypersensitivity reaction.

RODAK, TURGEON OR McCALL TAYO? Telescoped Sediment. This term is used to describe

1. RODAK: The patient has the right to refuse to the simultaneous occurrence of elements of

give a blood specimen. If gentle urging does not glomerulonephritis and those of nephrotic syndrome

persuade the patient to allow blood to be drawn, the in the same urine specimen. A telescoped sediment

phlebotomist should alert the nurse, who will either might therefore include red cells, red cell casts,

talk to the patient or notify the physician. The cellular casts, broad waxy casts, lipid droplets,

phlebotomist must not try to force an uncooperative oval fat bodies, and fatty casts. Such sediment may

patient to have blood drawn; it can be unsafe for be found in collagen vascular disease (notably lupus

the phlebotomist and for the patient. In addition, nephritis) and subacute bacterial endocarditis.

forcing a patient of legal age and sound mind to 2. STRASINGER

have blood drawn against his or her wishes can An abundance of granular, waxy, and broad casts,

result in charges of assault and battery or unlawful often referred to as a telescoped urine sediment.

restraint.
KEY WORD: SPICY
CONCENTRATION OF FIBRINOGEN THAT WILL CAUSE
PROLONGED APTT OR PT.. Tests for fecal occult blood are in general use as a
Malaki na kayo.. RODAK OR BROWN screening test for which of the following?
1. From Rodak A. Breast cancer
a. PT is prolonged in congenital single-factor B. Colorectal cancer
deficiencies of factor X, VII, or V; prothrombin C. Enteric infection of the colon
deficiency; and fibrinogen deficiency when the D. Malabsorption syndrome
fibrinogen level is 100 mg/dL or less.
b. PTT/APTT, the factors whose deficiencies are In a person with normal glucose metabolism, the
associated with hemorrhage and are reflected in blood glucose level usually increases rapidly after
prolonged PTT results, taken in the order of carbohydrates are ingested but returns to a normal
reaction, are XI, IX, VIII, X, and V; prothrombin; level after:
and fibrinogen, when fibrinogen is 100 mg/dL or A. 30 minutes
less. B. 45 minutes
2. From Brown C. 60 minutes
a. PT will also be prolonged when the fibrinogen D. 120 minutes
concentration is less than 80 mg/dL and in cases of
dysfibrinogenemia.
Pyuria:
b. APTT is sometimes insensitive to decreases in
A. Protein in urine
fibrinogen in which only levels of 60 to 80 mg/dL or
B. Glucose in urine
lower will cause a prolonged APTT.
C. WBCs in urine

D. Casts in urine
KEY WORD: SPICY

"Suicide sac" within the cell:

From Rodak:
A. Mitochondria
1. PRP: centrifuged at 50 g for 30 minutes
B. Golgi bodies
2. PPP: centrifuged at 1500 x g for 15 minutes in a
C. Lysosome
swinging bucket centrifuge
D. Nucleus

Sent from Yahoo Mail for iPad Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is most
often associated with which of the following types
of acute leukemia?

On Monday, June 19, 2017, 8:41 PM, Armeena Rosa A. Acute myeloid leukemia without maturation

Garcia <[email protected]> wrote: B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia

C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia

KEY WORD PEANUT D. Acute monocytic leukemia

What is the most abundant amino acid in the body, Which genera are positive for phenylalanine
being involved in more metabolic processes than any deaminase?
other amino acid? A. Enterobacter, Escherichia, and Salmonella
A. Alanine B. Morganella, Providencia, and Proteus
B. Glutamine C. Klebsiella and Enterobacter
C. Serine D. Proteus, Escherichia, and Shigella
D. Tyrosine
Point-of-care testing (POCT) refers to: C. Tyrosine
A. All testing done to the patient to save time D. Histidine
B. All lab testing done in the central lab
C. Any clinical lab testing done at the patient’s Of the total serum calcium, free ionized calcium
bedside normally represents approximately what percent?
D. Satellite lab testing A. 10
B. 40
Which order of events should be followed at the C. 50
conclusion of a laboratory worker’s shift in order D. 90
to prevent the spread of bloodborne pathogens?
A. Remove gloves, disinfect area, wash hands, remove Of the total serum osmolality, sodium, chloride, and
lab coat bicarbonate ions normally contribute approximately
B. Disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat, what percent?
wash hands A. 8
C. Disinfect area, remove gloves, wash hands, remove B. 45
lab coat C. 75
D. Remove gloves, wash hands, remove lab coat, D. 92
disinfect area

Which of the following characterizes Crigler-Najjar

In addition to performing hemoglobin syndrome?
electrophoresis, a solubility test may be performed A. Inability to transport bilirubin from the
to detect the presence of what hemoglobin? sinusoidal membrane to the microsomal region
A. A, B. Deficiency of the enzyme system required for
B. C conjugation of bilirubin
C. F
C. Inability to transport bilirubin glucuronides to
D. S
the bile canaliculi
D. Severe liver cell damage accompanied by necrosis
Which specimen is the sample of choice for lead
screening? What condition is characterized by an elevation of
A. Whole blood total bilirubin primarily due to an increase in the
B. Hair conjugated bilirubin fraction?
C. Serum A. Hemolyticjaundice
D. Urine B. Neonatal jaundice
C. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
Select the most appropriate single screening test D. Obstructive jaundice
for thyroid disease.
A. Free thyroxine index Which of the following reagent systems contains the
B. Total T3 assay components sulfanilic acid, hydrochloric acid, and
C. Total T4 sodium nitrite?
D. TSH assay A. Jaffe
B. Zimmerman
Thyroid hormones are derived from the amino acid: C. Diazo
A. Phenylalanine D. Lowry
B. Methionine
What term is used to describe the accumulation of During chemotherapy for leukemia, which of the
bilirubin in the skin? following analytes would most likely be elevated in
A. Jaundice the blood?

B. Hemolysis A. Uric acid

C. Cholestasis B. Urea
D. Kernicterus C. Creatinine
D. Ammonia
If elevated, which laboratory test would support a
diagnosis of congestive heart failure? Which of the following red cell precursors is the
A. Homocysteine last stage to undergo mitosis?
B. Troponin A. Pronormoblast
C. Albumin cobalt binding B. Basophilic normoblast
D. B-type natriuretic peptide C. Polychromatophilic normoblast

D. Orthochromatophilic normoblast
Which of the following enzymes does not belong to
the class of enzymes known as the hydrolases? The most mature cell that can undergo mitosis is
A. Alkaline phosphatase the:
B. Aldolase A. Myeloblast

C. Amylase B. Promyelocyte

D. Lipase C. Myelocyte

D. Metamyelocyte
To what class of enzymes does lactate dehydrogenase
belong? Paragonimus westermani infection is acquired by:
A. Isomerases A. Drinking contaminated water
B. Ligases B. Eating infected crustacea
C. Oxidoreductases C. Eating infected fish
D. Transferases D. Eating infected water chestnuts

Which test may be performed to assess the average In which of the following sets of nematodes can each
plasma glucose level that an individual maintained organism cause a pneumonia-like syndrome in a person
during a previous 2- to 3-month period? exposed to heavy infection with any of the three
A. Plasma glucose parasites?
B. Two-hour postprandial glucose A. Ascaris lumbricoides, Trichuris trichiura, or
C. Oral glucose tolerance Onchocerca volvulus
D. Glycated hemoglobin B. Enterobius vermicularis, Dracunculus medinensis,
or Trichuris trichiura

What does hydrolysis of sucrose yield? C. Strongyloides stercoralis, Wuchereria bancrofti,

A. Glucose only or Angiostrongylus costaricensis

B. Galactose and glucose D. Necator americanus, Ascaris lumbricoides, or

C. Maltose and glucose Strongyloides stercoralis

D. Fructose and glucose

In the collection and transport of stool specimens
for parasites, which parasitic stage is most
affected by the length of time from collection to Which one of the following anaerobes is inhibited by
examination? sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS)?
A. Cysts A. Bacteroides fragilis
B. Trophozoites B. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

C. Oocysts C. Propionibacterium acnes

D. Helminth larvae D. Veillonella parvula

Consumption of the infective larval stage encysted The mycobacteria that produce a deep yellow or
on aquatic plants that have not been cooked results orange pigment both in the dark and light are:
in infection with: A. Photochromogens
A. Clonorchis sinensis B. Scotochromogens
B. Fasciola hepatica C. Nonchromogens
C. Heterophyes heterophyes D. Rapid growers
D. Paragonimus westermani
The Epstein-Barr virus is associated with which of
Which of the following can cause toxic shock the following?
syndrome? A. Chickenpox
A. C. difficile and C. perfringens B. Hodgkin lymphoma
B. M. pneumoniae and M. tuberculosis C. Burkitt lymphoma
C. N. gonorrhoeae and E. coli D. Smallpox
D. S. aureus and S. pyogenes

The examination of sputum may be necessary to

All the following antimicrobial agents work by diagnose infection with:
inhibiting cell wall synthes is except: A. Paragonimus westermani
A. cephalosporins B. Trichinella spiralis
B. chloramphenicol C. Wuchereria bancrofti
C. penicillin D. Fasciola hepatica
D. vancomycin
Examination of 24-hour unpreserved urine specimen is
What components may not be prepared if whole blood sometimes helpful in the recovery of:
is spun at 1-6C? A. Trichomonas vaginalis trophozoites
A. Packed red cells B. Schistosoma haematobium eggs
B. Leukocyte-poor red cells C. Enterobius vermicularis eggs
C. Platelets D. Strongyloides stercoralis larvae
D. FFP
Gram stain from a gum lesion showed what appeared to
One of these disease-causing organisms is killed by be amoebae. A trichrome smear showed amoebae with a
refrigeration of stored blood. Which one is it? single nucleus and partially digested PMNs. The
A. Cytomegalovirus correct identification is:
B. Hepatitis B virus A. Trichomonas tenax
C. Plasmodium vivax B. Entamoeba histolytica/E. dispar
D. Treponema spirochete C. Entamoeba gingivalis

D. Entamoeba polecki
Parasitic organisms that are most often transmitted D. Dracunculus medinensis
sexually include:
A. Entamoeba gingivalis Which of the following is the vector for Babesia?
B. Dientamoeba fragilis A. Fleas
C. Trichomonas vaginalis B. Lice

D. Diphyllobothrium latum C. Ticks

D. Mosquitoes
Charcot–Leyden crystals in stool may be associated
with an immune response and are thought to be formed Hematuria is a typical sign of human infection
from the breakdown products of: caused by
A. Neutrophils A. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Eosinophils B. Trichinella spiralis

C. Monocytes C. Trichomonas vaginalis

D. Lymphocytes D. Schistosoma haematobium

Which of the following pairs of helminths cannot be Which of the following nematode parasites is
reliably differentiated by the appearance of their acquired from eating inadequately cooked, infected
eggs? pork?
A. Ascaris lumbricoides and Necator americanus A. Strongyloides stercoralis
B. Hymenolepis nana and H. diminuta B. Taenia saginata
C. Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale C. Taenia solium

D. Diphyllobothrium latum and Fasciola hepatica D. Trichinella spiralis

A 15-um pear-shaped flagellate with a visible Which species of Plasmodium can have exoerythrocytic
parabasal body and "falling leaf" motility in a stages capable of causing relapses months or years
direct saline mount of a diarrheal stool specimen is after initial infection?
most probably A. P. falciparum
A. Balantidium coli B. P. ovale
B. Chilomastix mesnili C. P. malariae
C. Giardia lamblia D. P. cynomolgi
D. Trichomonas hominis
Which of the following is the largest intestinal
Which stage of Taenia saginata is usually infective protozoa infecting humans?
for humans? A. Balantidium coli
A. Cysticercus larva B. Dientamoeba fragilis
B. Embryonated egg C. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Filariform larva D. Giardia lamblia
D. Rhabditiform larva
Which stage of Trichuris trichiura is infective for
Chagas disease (American trypanosomiasis) is caused humans?
by A. Proglottid
A. Tiypanosoma brucei B. Filariform larva
B. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Rhabditiform larva

C. Leishmania braziliensis D. Embryonated ovum

 C. S. mansoni
A free-living ameba that causes primary amebic D. S. mekongi
meningoencephalitis is
A. Dientamoeba fragilis
B. Entamoeba coli Sent from Yahoo Mail for iPad
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Naegleria fowleri On Monday, June 19, 2017, 8:40 PM, Armeena Rosa
Garcia <[email protected]> wrote:

Which species of Plasmodium may readily be

POPCORN
identified when crescent-shaped gametocytes are
found in stained blood films?
It can be used in the treatment of burn patients to
A. P. falciparum
replace colloid pressure:
B. P. malariae
A. Whole blood
C. P. ovale
B. Packed red blood cells
D. P. vivax
C. Cryoprecipitate
D. Albumin
For which of the following diseases is close contact
with an infected human host the most important
45 seconds reading time:
mechanism of transmission?
A. Glucose
A. Schistosomiasis
B. Ketone
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Specific gravity
C. Trichinosis
D. Trichomoniasis D. pH

Normally, measurable amounts of this substance DO

This parasitic infection may result in vitamin B12
NOT appear in the urine:
deficiency, and individuals
A. Ketones
with pernicious anemia are predisposed to more
severe symptoms. B. Protein

A. Diphyllobothrium latum C. Urobilinogen

D. All of these
B. Echinococcus granidosus
C. Hymenolepis diminuta
Second most prevalent CSF protein:
D. Taenia saginata
A. Albumin
B. Prealbumin
Elephantiasis is a complication associated with
which of the following? C. Transferrin

A. Cysticercosis D. IgG

B. Guinea worm
C. Hydatid cyst disease Assay for uric acid that requires the use of mercury

D. Filariae vapor lamp and quartz cuvet:

A. Colorimetric
B. Enzymatic: UV
Which Schistosoma species has a large terminal
spine? C. Enzymatic: H2O2

A. S. haematobium D. None of these

B. S. japonicum
This is used to determine whether there is a between tubular structures, such as blood vessels or
statistically significant difference between the loops of intestine.
standard deviations of two groups of data. A. Anastomosis
A. Mean B. Network
B. Median C. Matrix
C. f-test D. Reticulum
D. t-test
Aminoethylcarbazole (AEC), which is __________ in
Convert 0.4 mg/dL urobilinogen to Ehrlich units. color, is a common chromogen for peroxidases which
A. 0.4 should be made fresh immediately before use.

B. 4 A. Red

C. 40 B. Brown
D. 400 C. Orange
D. Pink
How many WBCs can be counted in a differential when
the WBC count is below 1.0 x 10 9th/L? Lysostaphin susceptibility is a test used to
A. 50 differentiate:

B. 100 A. Staphylococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.

C. 150 B. Streptococcus spp. from Staphylococcus spp.

D. 200 C. Staphylococcus spp. from Pseudomonas spp.
D. Streptococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.
In an automated instrument, this parameter is
calculated rather than directly measured: Characteristically, species from the genus
A. RBC count Enterococcus are:
B. WBC count A. Unable to grow in 6.5% NaCl
C. Hemoglobin B. Bile esculin positive
D. Hematocrit C. Relatively sensitive to penicillin
D. Sodium hippurate negative
The activity of this antibody is enhanced in an
acidic environment. Oligoclonal banding in cerebrospinal fluid but not
A. Anti-S in serum, except:
B. Anti-U A. Multiple myeloma
C. Anti-N B. Encephalitis
D. Anti-M C. Neurosyphilis
D. Guillain-Barre disease
He invented the Cambridge microtome:
A. Minot When encountering a patient with a fistula, the
B. Adams phlebotomist should:
C. Trefall A. Apply the tourniquet below the fistula

D. Queckett B. Use the other arm

C. Collect the blood from the fistula

It is a surgical connection between two structures. D. Attach a syringe to the T-tube connector
It usually means a connection that is created
Physician approval is required when collecting blood C. Dce
from: D. DCe
A. Patients with diabetes
B. Lower arm veins The presence of distinct "drumstick" appendage on
C. Foot and leg veins the nucleus of a mature neutrophil indicates:
D. Pediatric patients A. Reaction to a toxic material
B. Reaction to bacteria in the blood or tissues
Sperm motility grading: "no forward progression" C. A genetic defect in nuclear maturation
A. 0 D. The presence of a second X chromosome (female
B. 1 sex)

C. 2
D. 3 High levels of ketones are usually accompanied by
marked:
Positive control for Simmons Citrate test: A. Albuminuria
A. E. coli B. Glycosuria
B. K. pneumoniae C. Cylindruria
C. P. aeruginosa D. Pyuria
D. S. aureus
Decreased production of erythropoietin by the
Positive for the cyanide nitroprusside test: damaged kidney:
A. Uric acid crystals A. Anemia of chronic disease
B. Cystine B. Anemia of renal insufficiency

C. Tyrosine C. Anemia in liver disease

D. Leucine D. Anemia in endocrine disease

In galactosuria: It reflects decreased marrow production due to

A. Positive copper reduction and reagent strip smaller tissue oxygen requirement and subsequent
glucose reduced erythropoietin production:
B. Negative copper reduction and reagent strip A. Anemia of chronic disorders
glucose B. Anemia of renal insufficiency
C. Positive copper reduction, negative reagent strip C. Anemia in endocrine disease
glucose D. Anemia in liver disease
D. Negative copper reduction, positive reagent strip
glucose The crystal associated with ethylene oxide poisoning
has which characteristic appearance:
Centrifugation time for microhematocrit: A. Envelope, pyramidal
A. 3 minutes B. Dumbbell
B. 5 minutes C. Coffin lid
C. 10 minutes D. Hexagonal
D. 30 minutes
A laboratory worker splashes concentrated HCl in his
Common among Asians: eyes. The best safety measure is to:
A. dce A. Wash the eye with dilute NaOH and call physician
B. dCe STAT
B. Wash the eye with distilled water and call a B. Immune because of natural infection
physician STAT C. Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination
C. Wash the eye with dilute acetic acid and call a D. Chronically infected
physician STAT
D. Call the physician and wait for his advice. For albumin assay, absorbance at 630 nm is less
likely to be affected by bilirubin or hemoglbin in
Media that contain factors (e.g., carbohydrates) the sample. Which dye gives a much greater
that give colonies of particular organisms absorbance change at 630 nm than it would at 500
distinctive characteristics are called: nm?
A. Enrichment media. A. HABA (Hydroxyazobenzene-benzoic acid)
B. Differential media. B. BCG (Bromcresol green)

C. Supportive media.
D. Selective media. Minor lipoproteins:
A. LpX and HDL
Colorless dumbbell crystals in an alkaline urine: B. HDL and LDL
A. Calcium phosphate C. VLDL and chylomicrons
B. Calcium carbonate D. IDL and Lp(a)

C. Triple phosphate
D. Ammonium biurate Dilution for WBC count in automated cell counters:
A. 1: 10,000
Absence of Philadelphia chromosome in patients with B. 1: 100
CML: C. 1: 50,000
A. Better prognosis of the disease D. 1: 500
B. Poor prognosis of the disease

C. It varies Disorders involving the macrophages and monocytes,

D. No effect except:
A. Gaucher
Effect of decreased temperature to fluorescence: B. Pelger-Huet
A. No effect C. Niemann-Pick
B. Variable D. Alder-Reilly
C. Decreased fluorescence
D. Increased fluorescence In automated cell counters based on electrical
impedance, these parameters are directly measured:
Mistaken as Blastomyces in sputum: A. WBC and RBC
A. Eosinophil B. WBC, RBC, and hemoglobin
B. Lymphocyte C. WBC and hemoglobin
C. Myelin globules D. RBC only
D. Pigmented cells
A component of acetest tablet:
What could be the possible interpretation? A. Copper sulfate
HBsAg: negative B. Sodium hydroxide
Anti-HBc: positive C. Lactose
Anti-HBs: positive D. Sodium carbonate
A. Recovering from acute HBV infection
 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
All are components of CLINITEST tablet, except:
A. Copper sulfate Not included in the Code of Ethics:
B. Sodium hydroxide A. Reliability
C. Lactose B. Integrity

D. Sodium carbonate C. Honesty

D. Humility

Hyperproteinemic or hyperlipidemic specimen:

A. Hyponatremia WBC casts without bacteria:
B. Hypernatremia A. Cystitis
C. Pseudohyponatremia B. Acute glomerulonephritis

D. Pseudohypernatremia C. Acute pyelonephritis

D. Acute interstitial nephritis

Common among Ashkenazi Jews:

A. Parahemophilia DONOR CRITERIA FOR PLASMAPHERESIS
B. Hemophilia A Frequent plasma donors have a total serum protein of
C. Hemophilia B at least ___ g/dL:
D. Hemophilia C A. 2 g/dL
B. 3 g/dL

A result of 4.5 Ehrlich unit is equivalent to: C. 6 g/dL

A. 0.45 mg/dL D. 10 g/dL

B. 4.5 mg/dL

C. 45 mg/dL Rouleaux formation can be observed in all of the

D. 450 mg/dL following, EXCEPT:

A. Reverse ABO typing

To evaluate urine color and clarity: B. Autologous control

A. Check the urine with a white background C. AHG phase

B. Check the urine with a newsprint D. None of these

C. Check the urine with a black background

D. Check the urine with a polarizing light A unit containing 405 mL blood should weigh:
(answer, and give us the factor)

What is the the most widely used sedimentation A. 405 grams

technique? B. 416 grams

Zeibig: Formalin–ethyl acetate sedimentation C. 429 grams

procedure. D. 583 grams

Diluents for synovial fluid cell count: Enzyme with moderate specificity for the heart,

1. Normal saline (0.9%) with methylene blue skeletal muscles, brain:

2. Hyptonic saline (0.3%) CK

3. Saline with saponin

4. Acetic acid Enzyme with moderate specificity for the liver,
A. 1 and 3 heart, skeletal muscles:
B. 2 and 4 AST
C. 1, 2 and 3
 Calculation of the anion gap is useful for quality
What is the substrate used in the classic Cherry- control for:
Crandall method for lipase determination? A. Calcium
Olive oil B. Tests in the electrolyte profile (sodium,
potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate)*

Alcohol level: Decreased inhibitions, loss of C. Phosphorus

critical judgment, memory impairment, diminished D. Magnesium
reaction time:
A. 0.09 – 0.25 All are variables needed in the Cockroft and Gault

B. 0.18 – 0.30 formula except:

C. 0.27 – 0.40 A. Age

D. 0.35 – 0.50 B. Body weight in kilograms

C. Serum creatinine

Decreased aldosterone: D. Urine creatinine

A. High serum sodium and potassium

B. Low serum sodium and potassium Proportional systematic error
C. Low serum sodium, high serum potassium A. t test

D. High serum sodium, low serum potassium B. f test

C. Y intercept

A major advantage of POCT is: D. Slope

A. Faster turnaround time

B. Lower cost When culturing Cryptococcus on Sabouraud's dextrose

C. Ease of use agar, which of the following should not be in the

D. Both A and B medium?

A. Trimethoprim

The National Cholesterol Education Program (NCEP) B. Cycloheximide

has established cutoffs for total cholesterol and C. Vancomycin

LDL cholesterol to define persons at high risk for D. Aminoglycoside
coronary heart disease later in life. What is the
cutoff for a desirable LDL cholesterol Broad-spectrum antibiotics act against:
concentration? 1. Gram-negative bacteria
A. <130 mg/dL 2. Gram-positive bacteria

B. <160 mg/dL 3. Bacterial and non-bacterial organisms

C. <200 mg/dL A. 1 and 2

D. >130 mg/dL B. 1 and 3

C. 2 and 3

Ninety percent (90%) of the carbon D. 1, 2 and 3

dioxide present in the blood is in the form of:

A. Bicarbonate ions* CYTOKINES are produced by many cell populations

B. Carbonate (endothelial cells, fibroblasts, epithelial cells,

C. Dissolved CO2. and others), they are MAINLY THE PRODUCTS OF:

D. Carbonic acid A. B cells

B. Macrophages
C. B cells and macrophages
D. T cells and macrophages A. Acetamide
B. Citrate

Susceptibility to Autoimmune Diseases is usually C. Urea

linked to: D. Ammonia

A. HLA Class I alleles

B. HLA Class II alleles Effect of overanticoagulation on Hemoglobin

C. HLA Class III alleles (Cyanmethb method) determination:

D. NOTA A. Increased
B. Decreased

All of the following are metallic mordants, except: C. No effect

A. Iron D. Variable
B. Iodine Decreased ESR at hematocrit but NOT Hb

C. Alum
D. Copper Roundworn that inhabits the small intestines and
usually demonstrated as rhabditiform larva in

Macrocytes sediment ____ than microcytes stool:

A. Faster A. A. lumbricoides
B. N. americanus
B. Slower
C. T. spiralis
C. Same
D. S. stercoralis
D. No effect

Cortisol level in PM is ______ than in AM Reagent used in APT test:

(morning). A. Sulfuric acid

A. Higher B. Hydrochloric acid

B. Lower C. Potassium hydroxide

D. Sodium hydroxide
C. Same
D. Variable
PEAK 8 am to 9 am Possible problem if sperm clumping was observed:

TROUGH (low) 10 pm to 11 pm A. Sperm vitality

B. Lack of support medium

Urine microscopic examination reveals 4+ bacteria, C. Male antisperm antibodies

but nitrite reagent pad is negative. Culture reveals D. Female antisperm antibodies
growth of E.coli. What is the most probable reason
for the negative nitirite result? The clarity of a urine sample should be determined:
A. E. coli lacks the reductase enzyme a. Using glass tubes only, never plastic
B. Number of bacteria not enough to produce a (+) b. Following thorough mixing of the specimen
nitrite c. After addition of salicylic acid
C. Further reduction of nitrite to nitrogen d. After the specimen cools to room temperature
D. Improperly preserved urine sample
Which of the following locations is not a site of
In the acetamide test, the production of _____ extramedullary hematopoiesis?
results in an alkaline pH, A. Bone marrow
causing the medium to change color from green to B. Liver
royal blue.
C. Spleen A. Sodium cyanide
D. Thymus B. Mercuric iodide
C. Ammonium molybdate
Laboratory professionals are at special risk for D. Neocuproine
disease transmission. The majority of cases of
laboratory-related infections are associated with: Colorless dumbbell and spherical crystals in an
A. Contamination of abraded skin alkaline urine:
B. Puncture of wounds A. Ammonium biurate
C. Ingestion of infectious material B. Calcium carbonate
D. Infectious areosols
C. Triple phosphate
E. Bite of a laboratory test animal D. Amorphous phosphate

Association with AIDS is most characteristic of: All laboratory procedures and policies must be
A. M. avium-intracellulare reviewed and documented at least:
B. M. marinum a. Monthly or when authorized changes are made
C. M. bovis b. Annually or when authorized changes are made
D. M. xenopi c. Whenever the personnel make changes in procedure
d. Quarterly or when authorized changes are made
Anemia characterized by accumulation of iron in the
mitochondria of the eythroid precursors due to a Indirect cost or overhead:
defect in HEME synthesis: 1. Reagents, consumables
A. Iron deficiency anemia 2. Technologists' time, MT labor cost
B. Sideroblastic anemia 3. QC necessary to ensure test accuracy
C. Aplastic anemia 4. Maintenance and repairs to equipment
D. Pure red cell aplasia A. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4
The blood bank reports that samples of banked blood C. 1, 2 and 4
stored at refrigerator temperature have become D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
contaminated with a nonfermentative gram-negative
bacillus. The organisms known to be implicated in KEY WORD: CALBREATH
such cases are: Which of the following characterize iron-deficiency
A. Pseudomonas fluorescens and Pseudomonas putida anemia?
B. Alcaligenes faecalis and Alcalignes odorans A. Decreased serum iron and decreased TIBC
C. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus spp anitratus and B. Decreased serum iron and increased TIBC *
lwoffi C. Increased serum iron and decreased TIBC
D. Pseudomonas cepacia and Pseudomonas stutzeri D. Increased serum iron and increased TIBC

First morning urine, except: KEY WORD: CALBREATH

A. Pregnancy test The total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) test is
B. Evaluation of orthostatic proteinuria performed to assess the blood level of:
C. Nitrate determination A. Ferritin
D. Urobilinogen determination B. Hemopexin
C. Iron
A chemical that confirms phosphate stones: D. Transferrin
 C. Potassium
KEY WORD: CALBREATH D. Sodium
Which protein is produced in decreased amount in
Wilson's disease? Decreased neutral α-glucosidase in seminal fluid
A. Albumin indicates disorder involving the:
B. Ceruloplasmin A. Testes
C. Haptoglobin B. Epididymis
D. Hemopexin C. Bulbourethral gland
D. Urethra
KEY WORD: CALBREATH
Which electrolyte plays a major role in the
regulation of water balance in the body?
A. Chloride Sent from Yahoo Mail for iPad
B. Phosphorus
C. Potassium On Monday, June 19, 2017, 8:40 PM, Armeena Rosa
D. Sodium Garcia <[email protected]> wrote:

KEYWORD: HASHBROWNS (continuation)

KEY WORD: CALBREATH
The androgen that is the most biologically active
1051. The chief extracellular anions are chloride
is:
and bicarbonate, and there is a RECIPROCAL
A. Androstenedione
relationship between them: A DECREASE IN THE AMOUNT
B. Androsterone
OF ONE PRODUCES AN INCREASE IN THE AMOUNT OF THE
C. Dehydroepiandrosterone
OTHER.
D. Testosterone
1052. Serum calcium and phosphorus generally
maintain a reciprocal relationship.
KEY WORD: CALBREATH
a. Primary hyperparathyroidism or some cases of
The physiologically active from of calcium is:
malignancy: INCREASED CALCIUM, DECREASED PHOSPHATE
A. Complexed
b. BUT if calcium increase is due to renal failure,
B. Ionized
phosphate values also rise; both calcium and
C. Lipid-bound phosphate values are elevated in cases of multiple
D. Protein-bound myeloma and vitamin D overdose, as well as in cases
of cancers that metastasize to bone.
KEY WORD: CALBREATH 1053. Parathyroid effect on serum calcium: (1) Bone,
Which trace metal accumulates in Wilson's disease? (2) Kidney and (3) Intestines
A. Cobalt a. Bone: Resorption of calcium and phosphate
B. Copper b. Kidney: Direct enhancement of calcium and
C. Nickel magnesium tubular reabsorption; direct blockage of
D. Zinc phosphate tubular reabsorption; increased vitamin D
metabolite formation
KEY WORD: CALBREATH c. Intestine: Stimulation of vitamin D metabolite
An integral part of the transmission of nerve synthesis – leads to enhanced gastrointestinal
impulses: uptake of calcium
A. Iron 1054. Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)
B. Phosphorus
a. This common disorder can present in many ways: 1057. Urine specimens with high specific gravity
infertility, hirsutism, chronic anovulation, glucose greater than the refractometer or urinometer scale
intolerance, hyperlipidemia or dyslipidemia, and can be diluted and retested.
hypertension. a. Only the decimal portion of the observed SG is
b. Investigations for this disorder involve multiplied by the dilution factor.
estimation of free testosterone, SHBG, FSH, LH, b. For example, a specimen diluted 1:2 with a
fasting glucose, insulin, and lipid levels. reading of 1.025 would have an actual specific
c. Ovarian ultrasound reveals multiple cysts in many gravity of 1.050.
patients (about 30% of patients do not have ovarian c. For example, a specimen diluted 1:5 with a
cysts). reading of 1.008 would have an actual specific
d. Most patients with this disorder are overweight; gravity of 1.040
however, patients with polycystic ovary syndrome 1058. Renal threshold for glucose is 160 to 180
(PCOS) of eastern Asian or South American descent mg/dL.
are of normal weight. 1059. Positive result for ketone (sodium
1055. HIRSUTISM is abnormal, abundant, androgen- nitroprusside) pad is PURPLE.
sensitive terminal hair growth in areas in which 1060. Major ketone body in urine is BHA.
terminal hair follicles are sparsely distributed or 1061. Ketone not detected with sodium nitroprusside
not normally found in women. Most commonly, reagent pad is BHA.
hirsutism is idiopathic in etiology (60% of cases), 1062. Largest cell in the urine sediment is SQUAMOUS
with PCOS the next most common cause (35%). EPITHELIAL CELL.
1056. ARTERIAL BLOOD GAS PATTERN 1063. Lead poisoning – elevated ALA, protoporphyrin
a. MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION: Low pO2 and metabolic 1064. Normal value for CSF protein is 15 to 45
acidosis. mg/dL.
The drop in PO2 is caused by diminished circulation 1065. Gastric Acidity:
times – that is, the rate of oxygenation of venous a. Parietal cells – produces HCl and intrinsic
blood is reduced. The acidosis is caused by low factor
perfusion of oxygenated blood due to compromised b. Chief cells – produces pepsinogen that is
cardiac output. activated by HCl to pepsin
b. In PULMONARY EMPBOLISM: Low pO2 and metabolic c. Specialized G cells – produces gastrin that
acidosis. stimulates parietal cells to produce HCl.
The low pO2 is caused by direct blockage of blood 1066. Bile solubility test (+S. pneumoniae)
flow into the pulmonary circuit. The acidosis is a. Positive: Colony disintegrates; an imprint of the
caused by low oxygen saturation in the lungs with lysed colony may remain in the zone
subsequent diminished oxygen delivery to tissues. b. Negative: Intact colonies
c. Both conditions, MI and PE, result in tissue 1067. Bile esculin test (+Group D)
hypoxia. a. Positive: Growth and blackening of the agar
slant
b. Negative: no blackening. no growth
1068. Group A / S. pyogenes - Large zone of beta
hemolysis on BAP
1069. Group B / S. agalactiae – Narrow zone of beta
hemolysis on BAP
1070. DCIS and LCIS Breast Cancer STAGE 0
a. DCIS – ductal carcinoma in situ
b. LCIS – lobular carcinoma in situ
 21. Microanatomical fixatives should never contain
osmic acid/osmium tetroxide because it inhibits
Sent from Yahoo Mail for iPad hematoxylin.
22. Nuclear fixatives should contain glacial acetic
On Monday, June 19, 2017, 8:31 PM, Armeena Rosa acid due to its affinity for nuclear chromatin.
Garcia <[email protected]> wrote:
23. Cytoplasmic fixatives (Flemming's without HAc,
Regaud's, Orth's, Helly's and formalin with post-
HASHBROWNS
chroming). They should never contain Glacial Acetic
Acid because it destroys the mitochondria and Golgi
1.Double embedding: Infiltrated with CELLOIDIN then bodies.
embedded with PARAFFIN. 24. Manual paraffin wax infiltration and embedding:
2. Flotation waterbath: 45 to 50 C At least four (4) changes of wax are required at 15
3. To remove formalin pigments: Picric acid minutes interval to ensure complete removal of the
4. To remove mercurial deposits: Iodine clearing agent from tissue. The specimen is then
5. Explosive when dry: Picric acid immersed in another fresh solution of melted
6. Function of alum in hematoxylin: Mordant paraffin for approximately 3 hours to ensure
7. Primary importance of Frozen Sections: RAPID complete embedding or casting of tissue.
DIAGNOSIS 25. Cambridge/Rocking microtome: invented by
8. Enzyme histochemistry: Frozen section Paldwell Treffall.
9. Second best choice for routine cytologic 26. Bond between Best carmine and glycogen:
examination after Papanicolau: Phase contrast Coulombic attraction/electrostatic bonds, hydrogen
microscopy bonds
10. NOT SUITABLE for kidney structures: Bouin's 27. Routine H and E: Regressive staining, it
11. Cell death due to ischemia (loss of blood involves a differentiation step
supply) is known as infarction, and is manifested by 28. Stains for the glomerular basement membrane:
caharacteristic histologic appearance: COAGULATION PAS, Azocarmine stain
NECROSIS 29. Postmortem clotting: immediately after death,
12. Pseudomembranous colitis and diarrhea: rubbery consistency
Clostridium difficile 30. Antemortem thrombi: friable, characterized by
13. Corynebacterium amycolatum: Most frequently fibrin precipitation
recovered Corynebacterium species from human 31. Leadership: DIRECTING
clinical material. It is part of the normal skin 32. COMPONENTS OF FIBRIN GLUE: cryoprecipitate
microbiota. (fibrinogen) and topical thrombin
14. Primary fungal pathogen in HIV patients: Candida 33. Donor deferral, measles (rubeola) vaccination: 2
albicans. weeks
15. Doublewalled, wrinkled cyst form: Acanthamoeba 34. Donor deferral, German measles (Rubella)
castellanii vaccination: 4 weeks
16. Intracellular form of blood and tissue 35. When stained with Sternheimer-Malbin stain,
flagellates: leishmanial form GLITTER CELLS stain LIGHT BLUE as opposed to the
17. Normal stool pH: pH 7 to 8 VIOLET COLOR usually seen with NEUTROPHILS.
18. Stool pH associated with CHO disorders: pH 5.5 35. After episodes of hemoglobinuria, yellow-brown
or less granules may be seen in renal tubular epithelial
19. Microhematocrit: 10,000 g for 5 minutes cells and casts or free-floating in the urine
20. Standing plasma test: creamy layer sediment. To confirm that these granules are
(chylomicrons); turbid (VLDL) hemosiderin, the Prussian blue stain for iron is
used and stains the hemosiderin granules a blue 58. Hirsutism: male-pattern hair growth in women;
color. (RTE cells with HEMOSIDERIN). most common cause is PCOS (polycystic ovary
36. Second most prevalent protein in CSF: Prealbumin syndrome, Marshall)
(transthyretin) 59. Primary male hypogonadism
37. MECONIUM, which is usually defined as a Decreased testosterone
newborn’s first bowel movement, is formed in the Increased LH and FSH
intestine from fetal intestinal secretions and 60. Secondary male hypogonadism
swallowed amniotic fluid. It is a dark green, mucus- Decreased testosterone
like material. It may be present in the amniotic Decreased LH and FSH
fluid as a result of fetal distress. 61. BASAL STATE: early morning before the patient
38. Blood should NEVER be drawn from a vein in an has eaten or become physically active. This is a
arm with a cannula (temporary dialysis access good time to draw blood specimens because the body
device) or fistula (a permanent surgical fusion of a is at rest and food has not been ingested during the
vein and an artery). night.
39. Adverse reaction of Aminoglycosides: 62. ACID: substance than can yield a hydrogen ion or
Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity hydronium ion when dissolved in water
40. TETANY: neuromotor irritability accompanied by 63. BASE: substance than can yield hydroxyl ions
muscular twitching and eventual convulsions; (OH-)
generally due to low calcium levels (hypocalcemia) 64. COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES: properties of osmotic
41. Reagent for the APT test: 1% NaOH pressure, freezing point, boiling point and vapor
42. APT test: fetal blood, pink solution pressure
43. APT test: maternal blood, yellow-brown 65. t-test: compare accuracy, mean (TAM)
supernatant 66. f-test: compare precision, SD (SPF)
44. Florence test: test for choline 67. Random error: 1:2SD, 1:3SD, R:4S (ODD NUMBERS)
Iodine, KI/ dark brown rhombic crystals 68. Systematic error: 2:2SD, 4:1SD, 10:x (EVEN
45. Barbiero's test: test for spermine NUMBERS)
Picric acid, TCA/ yellow leafshaped crystals, 69. ZERO-ORDER KINETICS: reaction rate is dependent
needles on enzyme concentration only
46. Blondheim's test: test to differentiate 70. FIRST-ORDER KINETICS: reaction rate is directly
hemoglobin from myoglobin, ammonium sulfate will proportional to substrate concentration
precipitate hemoglobin 71. Arteriosclerosis: thickening or hardening of the
47. Nanometer is also millimicron walls of arteries
48. Embedding medium for EM is Plastic 72. Atherosclerosis: accumulation of lipid in the
49. Best vital stain is neutral red veins and arteries
50. Vital stain for mitochondria is Janus Green 73. Azotemia: elevated urea in blood
51. Ferning: Early pregnancy 74. Addison’s disease: deficiency of adrenocortical
52. Pap's consists of 3 stains: Harris hematoxylin, hormones
OG 6 and EA 75. Conn’s syndrome: aldosterone-secreting adrenal
53. Total renal BLOOD flow is 1200 mL/min adenoma
54. Total renal PLASMA flow is 600 to 700 mL/min 76. Cushing’s syndrome: excessive production of
55. Most potent estrogen is Estradiol glucocorticoids (cortisol) by adrenal cortex
56. Most important androgen in terms of potency and 77. Phaeochromocytoma: tumors of the adrenal medulla
amount secreted is testosterone (Marshall) or symphatetic ganglia that produce and release
57. Conn syndrome: primary aldosteronism large quantities of catecholamines
78. Amenorrhea: cessation of menstruation
79. Cirrhosis: Greek work YELLOW; irreversible identification marker in paternity testing and
scarring process by which normal liver architecture criminal investigation (Harmening)
is transformed into abnormal nodular architecture 96. AMORPH: gene that does not appear to produce a
80. Gilbert’s syndrome: hereditary disorder in which detectable antigen; a silent gene
there is DECREASED BILIRUBIN TRANSPORT into the 97. ANASTOMOSIS: connection between two blood
hepatocytes. vessels, either direct or through connecting
81. Crigler-Najjar syndrome: hereditary DEFICIENCY channels
of the UDPG-TRANSFERASE ENZYME 98. ANTI-A1 LECTIN: DOLICHOS BIFLORUS
82. Dubin-Johnson syndrome is associated with 99. ANTI-B LECTIN: BANDEIRAEA SIMPLICIFOLIA
increased plasma conjugated bilirubin, inborn error 100. ANTI-H LECTIN: ULEX EUROPAEUS
of metabolism 101. ANTI-M LECTIN: IBERIS AMARA
83. Rotor syndrome, possibly of viral origin, where 102. ANTI-N LECTIN: VICIA GRAMINEA
there is also a block in the excretion of conjugated 103. DOSAGE: phenomenon whereby an antibody reacts
bilirubin but without liver pigmentation more strongly with a red blood cell carrying a
84. Wilson’s disease is a defect of copper transport double dose (homozygous inheritance of the
from the liver resulting in overload of copper in appropriate gene) than with a red blood cell
liver and brain carrying a single dose (heterozygous inheritance) of
85. Menkes disease is an X-linked recessive disorder an antigen
in which defective transport of copper from mucosal 104. EPITOPE: portion of the antigen molecule that
cells results in copper deficiency. is directly involved in the interaction with the
86. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis: chronic autoimmune antibody; the ANTIGENIC DETERMINANT
thyroiditis; it is the most common cause of primary 105. PRIVATE ANTIGEN: antigenic characteristic of
hypothyroidism the red blood cell membrane that is unique to an
87. Graves’ disease: diffuse toxic goiter individual or a related family of individuals and
88. Kwashiorkor: acute protein calories malnutrition therefore is not commonly found on all cells
89. Marasmus: caused by caloric insufficiency (usually less than 1% of the population)
without protein insufficiency so that the serum 106. PUBLIC ANTIGEN: antigen characteristic of the
albumin level remains normal; there is considerable red blood cell membrane found commonly among
loss of body weight individuals, usually more than 98% of the population
90. Leydig cells: cells of the testicles that 107. Apoptosis: programmed cell death
produce testosterone 108. Ecchymosis: small hemorrhagic spot, LARGER THAN
91. CD34: cell membrane marker of stem cells PETECHIA, in the skin or mucous membrane, forming a
92. GRANULAR, DIRTY, BROWN CASTS representing rounded or irregular blue or purplish patch; also
hemoglobin degradation products such as known as bruise
methemoglobin: ACUTE TUBULAR NECROSIS 109. Koilonychia: fingernails are thin, flattened
93. ADSORPTION: Providing an antibody with its and concave; associated with iron deficiency anemia
corresponding antigen under optimal conditions so 110. Leptocyte: thin, flat red cell with hemoglobin
that the antibody will attach to the antigen, at periphery and increased central pallor;
thereby removing the antibody from the serum hypochromic cell
94. ELUTION: process whereby cells that are coated 111. Reed-Sternberg cell: presence is definitive
with antibody are treated in such a manner as to histologic diagnosis of HODGKIN’S DISEASE
disrupt the bonds between the antigen and antibody 112. Alder-Reilly anomaly: leukocytes of the
95. ACID PHOSPHATASE (ACP) and ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE myelocytic series, and sometimes all leukocytes
(ALP): red blood cell enzyme used as an contain coarse azurophilic mucopolysccharide
granules
113. Auer rod: needle-shaped or round inclusion in 167. Studies have shown that although everyone who
the cytoplasm of myeloblasts and promyelocytes; eats ASPARAGUS produces a urine odor, ONLY certain
composed of condensed primary granules genetically predisposed people can smell the odor.
114. Chediak-Higashi anomaly: congenital, autosomal 168. CABBAGE urine odor: METHIONINE MALABSORPTION.
recessive disorder, characterized by partial 169. The heme portion of MYOGLOBIN IS TOXIC TO RENAL
albinism, photophobia and the presence of abnormally TUBULES and high concentrations can cause acute
large blue granules in leukocytes renal failure.
115. May-Hegglin anomaly: autosomal dominant 170. CASTS have tendency to locate NEAR THE EDGES OF
inherited blood cell disorder characterized by THE COVERSLIP.
thrombocytopenia and granules containing cytoplasmic 171. ETHYLENE GLYCOL (anti-freeze) poisoning:
inclusions similar to Dohle bodies MONOHYDRATE CAOX
116. Sezary syndrome: cutaneous T CELL LYMPHOMA 172. TRIPLE PHOSPHATE: coffin-lid or FEATHERY
characterized by exfoliative erythroderma, APPEARANCE (as they disintegrate)
peripheral lymphadenopathy and Sezary cells present 173. MAKLER COUNTING CHAMBER provides a method for
in the skin, lymph nodes and peripheral blood counting UNDILUTED seminal fluid. Sperms are
117. Gaucher’s disease: rare disorder of fat immobilized by heating part of the specimen prior to
metabolism caused by deficiency of charging the chamber.
glucocerebrosidase 174. COMPUTER-ASSISTED SEMEN ANALYSIS (CASA)
118. Bernard-Soulier syndrome: mutations to platelet provides OBJECTIVE determination of both SPERM
GP IB or GP IX, defect of platelet adhesion VELOCITY and TRAJECTORY (DIRECTION OF MOTION).
119. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia: mutations to 175. A maximum of 30 mL AMNIOTIC FLUID is collected
platelet GP IIb or IIIa; defect of fibrinogen- in sterile syringes. The first 2 to 3 mL collected
dependent platelet aggregation can be contaminated by maternal blood, tissue fluid
120. Lactoferrin: protein produced by the neutrophis and cells and are discarded.
and stored in the secondary granules that is able 176. OSMOTIC DIARRHEA: increased RETENTION of water
bind iron and solutes in the large intestine associated with
161. DOH SECRETARY: DR. PAULYN JEAN B. ROSELL-UBIAL MALABSORPTION AND MALDIGESTION.
162. DRIVING FORCE of the bicarbonate buffer system 177. SECRETORY DIARRHEA: increased SECRETION of
is CARBON DIOXIDE. water and electrolytes into the large intestine
163. TURNAROUND TIME (TAT): time from ordering a caused by BACTERIAL ENTEROTOXINS.
test through analysis in the laboratory to the 178. Plasmapheresis donor, total protein at least 6
charting of the report. g/dL.
164. Hazardous chemicals should be labeled with a 179. Packed red blood cells LEAK POTASSIUM into the
description of their particular hazard, such as plasma or additive solution of the blood component
POISONOUS, CORROSIVE OR CARCINOGENIC. during storage. Rapid infusion of a large volume of
165. Information contained in the Material Safety packed red blood cells may put patient populations
Data Sheets (MSDS) includes the following: physical such as neonates and patients with cardiac, hepatic,
and chemical characteristics, fire and explosion or renal dysfunction at risk of developing
potential, reactivity potential, health hazards and hyperkalemia. The transient hyperkalemia related to
methods for safe handling. massive transfusion appear to be related to the
166. Urinometer is placed with a SPINNING MOTION. patient’s acid base balance, ionized calcium levels,
The scale reading is then taken at the BOTTOM OF THE and rate of infusion of the packed red blood cells.
URINE MENISCUS. 180. Significant Antibody titer in HDN:
HARMENING
4th edition: significant is 32
5th edition: significant is 16 to 32 197. Platelets on top of the red cell should not be
6th edition: critical titer is 16 — with Christian confused with RBC inclusion body. There is generally
Cammayo and Shy Valbuena. a nonstaining halo surrounding the platelet when it
181. BENCHMARKING: individual facility COMPARE ITS is positioned on top of the RBC.
RESULTS WITH THOSE OF ITS PEERS 198. ESR: bubbles and fibrin clots, invalid results
182. MEAN: average value 199. HYGROMETERS: measure HUMIDITY
183. MODE: most frequently occurring value 200. ALCOHOL FIXATIVE CONCENTRATIONS; 70% to 100%
184. MEDIAN: middle value within range because less concentrated solutions will produce
185. CONSTANT systematic error - y-intercept lysis of cells.
186. PROPORTIONAL systematic error - SLOPE 201. Ethanol and methanol, including Carnoy’s
187. Fungi (dermatophyte) produces macroconidia that solution are commonly used fixatives for nucleic
are large, multicellular, and club-shaped with acids.
smooth walls: EPIDERMOPHYTON FLOCCOSUM 202. MICROWAVE: physical agent similar in mechanism
188. In pancreatic adenocarcinoma, 96% of tumors to vacuum oven (heat) and agitation to increase
with CA 19-9 levels >1,000 U/mL are considered movement of molecules and accelerate fixation. It is
UNRESECTABLE (cannot be removed completely through also used to accelerate staining, decalcification,
surgery). immunohistochemistry and electron microscopy.
189. Reporting Mixed Lymphocyte Reaction: either * The processing time depends on the thickness and
Stimulation Index (SI) or percent relative response density of the specimen. Reagents used for microwave
(%RR) processing include ethanol, isopropanol and
190. ASCHOFF BODIES are nodules found in the hearts proprietary mixtures of alcohol, and paraffin.
of individuals with RHEUMATIC FEVER. Graded concentration of solutions is not required.
191. MERCURY: must NOT GO through drain disposal Clearing agents are not necessary because the
192. FORMALDEHYDE WASTES: can be recycled by temperature of the final paraffin step facilitates
distillation or by drain disposal, can be detoxified evaporation of the alcohols from the tissue. Xylene
by commercial product, or can be disposed of by and formalin are not used in this process, which
licensed waste hauler. eliminates toxic fumes and carcinogens.
193. BARR (sex chromatin) BODY or DRUMSTICK: * Disadvantages of the system include the fact that
represent the second X chromosome in females and may the process is labor intensive because the solutions
be seen in 2 to 3% of neutrophils in FEMALES. The are manually manipulated, temperatures must be
number of Barr bodies in a cell is one less than the maintained between 70 and 85°C, and the size of
number of X chromosomes present in a cell. tissue sample is critical (2 mm). Also the cost of
194. DOHLE BODIES: rough endoplasmic reticulum laboratory-grade microwaves may be prohibitive, and
containing RNA and may represent localized failure proper use of the microwave oven requires careful
of the cytoplasm to mature. They are found in calibration and monitoring.
infections, poisoning, burns and following 203. LAST ALCOHOL BATH FOR DEHYDRATION SHOULD BE
chemotherapy. PURE ETHANOL. A blue discoloration of COPPER SULFATE
195. CHEDIAK-HIGASHI: granulocytes usually contain crystals will indicate FULL SATURATION WITH WATER.
several very large, reddish-purple or greenish-gray Alcohol is then discarded and changed with fresh
staining granules in the cytoplasm; in the monocytes solution.
and lymphocytes they stain bluish purple and may be 204. Skeletal muscle contains bundles of very long,
present singly, or there may be several in one cell. multinucleated cells with cross-striations. Their
These granules represent ABNORMAL LYSOSOMES. contraction is quick, forceful, and usually under
196. Sickling of the RBCs is maximal at 37C and voluntary control. STRIATED, VOLUNTARY
decreases as the temperature lowers.
205. Cardiac muscle also has cross-striations and is 219. Longest expiration date: FROZEN RBCs
composed of elongated, often branched cells bound to 220. Component of choice for vWD: CRYOPRECIPITATE
one another at structures called intercalated discs 221. Transfusion of BUFFY COAT IS BEST INDICATED
that are unique to cardiac muscle. Contraction is for: NEWBORNS with severe infections
involuntary, vigorous, and rhythmic. STRIATED, 222. Test performed on blood that will be transfused
INVOLUNTARY to an acidotic or hypoxic infant: HEMOGLOBIN S
206. Smooth muscle consists of collections of 223. CD marker responsible for E-rosette formation
fusiform cells that lack striations and have slow, between T cells and sheep RBCs: CD2
involuntary contractions. NONSTRIATED, INVOLUNTARY 224. Joining (J) chain: IgM and secretory IgA
207. CASEOUS NECROSIS: cell death produced by the 225. Ig that helps initiate the classical complement
Tubercle Bacillus. In gross state, the necrotic pathway: IgM and IgG
tissue has the appearance of soft, friable CHEESE. 226. Primary immune response: IgM
208. Three (3) major changes that are observed in 227. Highest titer in secondary response: IgG
the NUCLEUS: PYKNOSIS, KARYORRHEXIS (segmentation 228. Immunoglobulin crosslinks mast cells to release
and fragmentation) and KARYOLYSIS (dissolution of histamine: IgE
the nucleus). 229. Substance detected by RPR and VDRL test: REAGIN
209. Four (4) phases or stages of CELL DEGENERATION: 230. Test for HIV infection in infants who are born
CLOUDY SWELLING, FATTY DEGENERATION, CELL DEATH OR to HIV-positive mothers: PCR
NECROSIS and CALCIFICATION. 231. Best indicator of early acute HBV infection:
210. BM aspiration is performed by a physician and HBsAg
may be obtained by: 232. First antibody detected in serum after
* Needle biopsy: most frequently performed method infection with HBV: anti-HBc
* Surgical biopsy 233. Blood products are tested for which virus
* Percutaneous (entering through the skin) TREPINE before being transfused to newborns: CMV
(small object used to remove circular section of 234. Anti-smooth muscle (ASMA) antibodies: chronic
tissue) biopsy (core of bone with accompanying active hepatitis
marrow is obtained) 235. Nuclear matrix protein (NMP-22): urinary
bladder cancer
ISBB HEMATOLOGY
211. Antibody enhanced by ACIDIFYING THE PATIENT 236. Last stage in the erythrocytic series capable
SERUM: anti-M of mitosis: POLYCHROMATOPHILIC NORMOBLAST
212. Most common cause of transfusion reactions: 237. Last nucleated stage in the erythrocytic
CLERICAL ERRORS series: ORTHOCHROMATOPHILIC NORMOBLAST
213. Donor unit SEAL HAS BEEN BROKEN: DISCARD THE 238. Appearance of primary/nonspecific granules:
UNIT PROMYELOCYTE
214. Noticeable clots in RBC unit: DO NOT ISSUE THE 239. Appearance of secondary/specific granules:
UNIT, indication of contamination or bacterial MYELOCYTE
growth 240. Last stage in the granulocytic series capable
215. FIRST STEP in laboratory investigation of of mitosis: MYELOCYTE
transfusion reaction: CHECK FOR CLERICAL ERRORS 241. Youngest cell in the granulocytic series to
216. SAGM, ADSOL shelf life: 42 days NORMALLY appear in peripheral blood: BAND
217. REJUVENATION or red blood cells may be 242. Preferable site for BM aspiration and biopsy in
performed up to 3 days after the red cell expire adult: ILIAC CREST
218. Preparation of leukopoor RBCs: filtering, 243. Miller disc is an ocular device to facilitate
centrifugation and washing counting of: RETICULOCYTES
244. Organ that removes erythrocyte inclusions 272. Zenker’s fluid: LIVER, SPLEEN, CONNECTIVE
without destroying the cell: SPLEEN TISSUE FIBERS and NUCLEI
245. Megaloblastic anemia: MACROCYTIC, NORMOCHROMIC 273. Zenker’s-formol (Helly’s): PITUITARY GLAND, BM,
246. Anemia in sickle cell disease: NORMOCYTIC, BLOOD-CONTAINING ORGANS SUCH AS SPLEEN AND LIVER
NORMOCHROMIC 274. Heidenhain’s susa solution: TUMOR BIOPSIES
247. Iron deficiency anemia, thalassemia: ESPECIALLY SKIN
MICROCYTIC, HYPOCHROMIC 275. Regaud’s (Moller’s/Muller’s) fluid: CHROMATIN,
248. AUTOSPLENECTOMY occurs in SICKLE CELL ANEMIA MITOTIC FIGURES, GOLGI BODIES, RBC and colloid-
249. PCH: Anti-P, DONATH-LANDSTEINER ANTIBODY containing tissues
250. Major leukocyte in aplastic anemia: LYMPHOCYTES 276. Orth’s fluid: study of early degenerative
251. BITE CELLS in G6PD deficiency process and tissue necrosis, demonstrates rickettsia
252. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia: schistocytes and other bacteria
and nucleated RBCs 277. LEAD FIXATIVES: ACID MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES
253. ANTIBIOTIC implicated in aplastic anemia: 278. BOUIN’S: fixation of embryos and pituitary
CHLORAMPHENICOL biopsies
254. Type of anemia in acute leukemia: NORMOCYTIC, 279. Bouin’s is NOT SUITABLE FOR FIXING KIDNEY
NORMOCHROMIC structures, lipid and mucus
255. Hodgkin’s disease: REED-STERNBERG CELLS 280. Glacial acetic acid solidifies at 17C.
256. Myelofibrosis: TEARDROP RBCs SEVENTEEN
257. DIC is most often associated with M3: acute 281. Carnoy’s fluid: CHROMOSOMES, LYMPH GLAND AND
promyelocytic leukemia URGENT BIOPSIES
258. Peripheral smear of patient with MULTIPLE 282. Newcomer’s fluid: fixing of mucopolysaccharides
MYELOMA: ROULEAUX and nuclear proteins
259. Franklin’s disease: GAMMA HEAVY CHAIN DISEASE 283. NITRIC ACID: most common and fastest
260. TRAP: Hairy cell leukemia decalcifying agent
261. CD 10: Common ALL (CALLA) 284. PERENYI’S FLUID: decalcifies and softens
262. PT and APTT result in patient with tissues at the same time
polycythemia: BOTH PROLONGED 285. X-ray or radiological method: most ideal, most
263. PRIMARY INHIBITOR OF FIBRINOLYTIC SYSTEM: sensitive method for determining the extent of
ALPHA2-ANTIPLASMIN decalcification
264. Lupus anticoagulant is directed against: 286. Embedding medium for electron microscopy: EPON
PHOSPHOLIPID (PLASTIC MEDIUM)
265. ASPIRIN inhibits CYCLOOXYGENASE 287. Manual H and E staining: REGRESSIVE STAINING
288. Flotation water bath: 45 to 50C, approximately
HISTOPATH 6-10C lower than the mp of wax
266. Primary importance of FROZEN SECTIONS: RAPID 289. ORCEIN: vegetable dye extracted from LICHENS
DIAGNOSIS 290. IODINE: probably the oldest of all stains
267. 3Fs: FATS/FORMALIN/FROZEN SECTIONS 291. JANUS GREEN: demonstrating MITOCHONDRIA
268. Carbohydrate fixation: ALCOHOLIC FIXATIVES 292. Stain for the basement membrane: PAS,
269. Protein fixation: NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALDEHYDE AZOCARMINE
OR FORMALDEHYDE VAPOR 293. Stain for Helicobacter pylori: TOLUIDINE BLUE,
270. Glycogen fixation: ALCOHOL-BASED such as CRESYL VIOLET ACETATE
Rossman’s fluid or cold absolute alcohol 294. Mountant refractive index should be as close as
271. MERCURIC CHLORIDE: fixative of choice for possible to that of the glass slide which is 1.518
TISSUE PHOTOGRAPHY
295. POLYCLONAL ANTIBODIES: most frequently used 319. Stain to determine SEPRM VIABILITY: EOSIN
animal is the RABBIT followed by goat, pig, sheep, 320. Serum GASTRIN levels would be greatest in:
horse, guinea pig and others ZOLLINGER-ELLISON SYNDROME
296. MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES: MICE
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY HISTOPATH
297. In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is: 266. Primary importance of FROZEN SECTIONS: RAPID
CONSISTENTLY ALKALINE DIAGNOSIS
298. Daily loss of protein in urine, normally does 267. 3Fs: FATS/FORMALIN/FROZEN SECTIONS
not exceed: 150 mg 268. Carbohydrate fixation: ALCOHOLIC FIXATIVES
299. Renal threshold for glucose is: 160 to 180 269. Protein fixation: NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALDEHYDE
mg/dL OR FORMALDEHYDE VAPOR
300. Hemoglobin differentiated from myoglobin: 270. Glycogen fixation: ALCOHOL-BASED such as
ammonium sulfate (BLONDHEIM’S TEST) Rossman’s fluid or cold absolute alcohol
301. Sternheimer-Malbin stain: CRYSTAL VIOLET AND 271. MERCURIC CHLORIDE: fixative of choice for
SAFRANIN TISSUE PHOTOGRAPHY
302. Pseudocasts: formed by amorphous urates 272. Zenker’s fluid: LIVER, SPLEEN, CONNECTIVE
303. Moderate hematuria and RBC casts: ACUTE TISSUE FIBERS and NUCLEI
GLOMERULOPNEPHRITIS 273. Zenker’s-formol (Helly’s): PITUITARY GLAND, BM,
304. Pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts: BLOOD-CONTAINING ORGANS SUCH AS SPLEEN AND LIVER
PYELONEPHRITIS 274. Heidenhain’s susa solution: TUMOR BIOPSIES
305. Crystals appears in urine as long, thin ESPECIALLY SKIN
hexagonal plate, and is linked to ingestion of large 275. Regaud’s (Moller’s/Muller’s) fluid: CHROMATIN,
amounts of benzoic acid: HIPPURIC ACID MITOTIC FIGURES, GOLGI BODIES, RBC and colloid-
306. Oval fat bodies: lipid-containing RTE cells containing tissues
307. GREATEST PROTEINURIA: NEPHROTIC SYNDROME (Heavy 276. Orth’s fluid: study of early degenerative
Proteinuria >4 g/day) process and tissue necrosis, demonstrates rickettsia
308. Whewellite and weddellite kidney stones: and other bacteria
CALCIUM OXALATE 277. LEAD FIXATIVES: ACID MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES
309. Struvite: TRIPLE PHOSPHATE/magnesium ammonium 278. BOUIN’S: fixation of embryos and pituitary
phosphate biopsies
310. Apatite: CALCIUM PHOSPHATE 279. Bouin’s is NOT SUITABLE FOR FIXING KIDNEY
311. Limulus lysate test: Gram negative bacterial structures, lipid and mucus
endotoxin 280. Glacial acetic acid solidifies at 17C.
312. Amoeba in CSF: characteristic pseudopod SEVENTEEN
mobility in WET PREP ON PRE-WARMED SLIDE 281. Carnoy’s fluid: CHROMOSOMES, LYMPH GLAND AND
313. GOUT: uric acid or monosodium urate URGENT BIOPSIES
314. PSEUDOGOUT: calcium pyrophosphate 282. Newcomer’s fluid: fixing of mucopolysaccharides
315. BEST TEST for determining the status of the and nuclear proteins
fetoplacental unit: SERUM FREE ESTRIOL 283. NITRIC ACID: most common and fastest
316. SPERM with SMALL OR ABSENT HEADPIECE: acrosomal decalcifying agent
deficiency 284. PERENYI’S FLUID: decalcifies and softens
317. Most common cause of male infertility: tissues at the same time
VARICOCELE 285. X-ray or radiological method: most ideal, most
318. Stain of choice for SPERM MORPHOLOGY: Pap’s sensitive method for determining the extent of
stain decalcification
286. Embedding medium for electron microscopy: EPON 311. Limulus lysate test: Gram negative bacterial
(PLASTIC MEDIUM) endotoxin
287. Manual H and E staining: REGRESSIVE STAINING 312. Amoeba in CSF: characteristic pseudopod
288. Flotation water bath: 45 to 50C, approximately mobility in WET PREP ON PRE-WARMED SLIDE
6-10C lower than the mp of wax 313. GOUT: uric acid or monosodium urate
289. ORCEIN: vegetable dye extracted from LICHENS 314. PSEUDOGOUT: calcium pyrophosphate
290. IODINE: probably the oldest of all stains 315. BEST TEST for determining the status of the
291. JANUS GREEN: demonstrating MITOCHONDRIA fetoplacental unit: SERUM FREE ESTRIOL
292. Stain for the basement membrane: PAS, 316. SPERM with SMALL OR ABSENT HEADPIECE: acrosomal
AZOCARMINE deficiency
293. Stain for Helicobacter pylori: TOLUIDINE BLUE, 317. Most common cause of male infertility:
CRESYL VIOLET ACETATE VARICOCELE
294. Mountant refractive index should be as close as 318. Stain of choice for SPERM MORPHOLOGY: Pap’s
possible to that of the glass slide which is 1.518 stain
295. POLYCLONAL ANTIBODIES: most frequently used 319. Stain to determine SEPRM VIABILITY: EOSIN
animal is the RABBIT followed by goat, pig, sheep, 320. Serum GASTRIN levels would be greatest in:
horse, guinea pig and others ZOLLINGER-ELLISON SYNDROME
296. MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES: MICE
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY CM: 4th Edition Strasinger
297. In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is: CEREBROSPINAL FLUID (CSF)
CONSISTENTLY ALKALINE 386. Approximately 20 mL of CSF is produced every
298. Daily loss of protein in urine, normally does hour in the choroid plexuses and reabsorbed by the
not exceed: 150 mg arachnoid villi
299. Renal threshold for glucose is: 160 to 180 387. CSF Total volume in adult:
mg/dL 6th edition: 90 to 150 mL
300. Hemoglobin differentiated from myoglobin: 4th edition: 140 to 170 mL
ammonium sulfate (BLONDHEIM’S TEST) 388. Total volume in neonate: 10 to 60 mL
301. Sternheimer-Malbin stain: CRYSTAL VIOLET AND 389. Normal adult CSF 0 to 5 WBCs/uL
SAFRANIN 390. Neonates 0 to 30 WBCs/uL
302. Pseudocasts: formed by amorphous urates 391. Reactive lymphocytes in CSF, viral infections
303. Moderate hematuria and RBC casts: ACUTE 392. Moderately elevated WBC count (less than 50
GLOMERULOPNEPHRITIS WBCs/uL) with increased normal and reactive
304. Pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts: lymphocytes and plasma cells may be indicative of MS
PYELONEPHRITIS or other degenerating neurologic disorders
305. Crystals appears in urine as long, thin 393. Increased eosinophils in CSF: parasitic
hexagonal plate, and is linked to ingestion of large infections, fungal infections primarily COCCIDIOIDES
amounts of benzoic acid: HIPPURIC ACID IMMITIS
306. Oval fat bodies: lipid-containing RTE cells 394. CSF glucose is approximately 60 to 70 percent
307. GREATEST PROTEINURIA: NEPHROTIC SYNDROME (Heavy that of plasma glucose
Proteinuria >4 g/day) 395. Normal CSF protein: 15 to 45 mg/dL
308. Whewellite and weddellite kidney stones: 396. Normal concentration of glutamine in CSF: 8 to
CALCIUM OXALATE 18 mg/dL
309. Struvite: TRIPLE PHOSPHATE/magnesium ammonium
phosphate SEMINAL FLUID
310. Apatite: CALCIUM PHOSPHATE 397. Liquefaction within 30 to 60 minutes
398. Volume 2 to 5 mL 419. Pleural fluid cholesterol greater than 60 mg/dL
399. pH 7.2 to 8 or a pleural fluid to serum cholesterol ratio
400. Sperm morphology: at least 200 sperms should be greater than 0.3 provides a reliable information
evaluated that the fluid is an exudate
401. Sperm viability, eosin-nigrosin stain, counting 420. Fluid to serum total bilirubin ratio of 0.6 or
number of dead cells in 100 sperms more also indicates the presence of an exudate
402. Motility is evaluate in approximately 20 high- 421. Pleural fluid pH lower than 7.3 may indicate
power fields the need for chest-tube drainage, in addition to
403. Sperm concentration 20 M to 160 M per mL antibiotics in cases of pneumonia. The finding of pH
404. Sperm count ≥ 40 M per ejaculate* as low as 6 indicates esophageal rupture that is
405. Most common dilution is 1:20 prepared using a allowing the influx of gastric fluid
MECHANICAL (positive-displacement) rather than a
Thoma pipette PERITONEAL FLUID
406. Minimum motility of 50% with a rating of 2.0 422. RBC counts GREATER THAN 100,000/uL are
after 1 hour is considered normal indicative of BLUNT TRAUMA INJURIES
407. Fructose ≥ 13 umol per ejaculate 423. Normal WBC counts are less than 500 cells/uL
408. Specimens for fructose should be tested within and the count increases with bacterial peritonitis
2 hours or FROZEN to prevent fructolysis and cirrhosis
409. RAPE, presence of sperm: (1) enhancing specimen 424. CA 125 antigen, source is from OVARIES,
with XYLENE and examining under PHASE MICROSCOPY (2) FALLOPIAN TUBES or ENDOMETRIUM
ACP (3) seminal glycoprotein p30 (prostatic
specific antigen [PSA]), which is present even in FECALYSIS
the absence of sperm (4) ABO, DNA 425. Large intestine is capable of absorbing
410. Motile sperm can be detected for up to 24 hours approximately 3,000 mL of water
after intercourse, whereas nonmotile sperm can 426. Most representative, for fecal fats; 3-day
persist for 3 days. As the sperm die off, only the stool collection
heads remain and may be present for 7 days after 427. Muscle fibers: slide is examined for 5 minutes.
intercourse. Only undigested fibers are counted, and the presence
of more than 10 is reported as increased
SYNOVIAL FLUID 428. Bleeding in excess of 2.5 mL/150 gram of stool
411. Volume less than 3.5 mL is considered pathologically significant
412. Normal: clear and pale yellow 429. Normal stool pH is between 7 and 8
413. Able to form 4 to 6 cm string 430. pH below 5.5 in cases of CARBOHYDRATE DISORDERS
414. Less than 2,000 RBCs/uL
415. Less than 200 WBCs/uL BARBARA BROWN
416. Glucose less than 10 mg/dL lower than the blood COMPLETE BLOOD COUNT
glucose 431. SCREENING PROCEDURE that is helpful in the
diagnosis of many diseases, it is one indicator of
SEROUS FLUID: TRANSUDATES AND EXUDATES the body’s ability to fight disease, it is used to
417. Most reliable differentiation: Fluid-to-blood MONITOR the effects of drug and radiation therapy,
ratios for protein and LD and it may be employed as an INDICATOR OF PATIENT’S
418. WBC counts greater than 1,000/uL and RBC counts PROGRESS in certain diseased states such as
greater than 100,000/uL are indicative of an exudate infection or anemia.

PLEURAL FLUID HEMATOCRIT

432. TRAPPED PLASMA: amount of plasma that still diluting in order to ensure against platelet
remains in RBC portion after the microhematocrit has DISINTEGRATION
been spun. Increased in macrocytic anemias, 447. 1% ammonium oxalate, the dilution is stable for
spherocytosis, thalassemia, hypochromic anemia and 8 hours
sickle cell anemia
433. When comparing spun hematocrit results obtained ERTHROCYTE SEDIMENTATION RATE
on an electronic cell counter, the spun hematocrit 448. Macrocytes tend to settle more rapidly than
results vary from 1 to 3% HIGHER because of this microcytes
trapped plasma (unless cell counter has been 449. Anisocytosis and poikilocytosis: falsely lower
calibrated). ESR
434. Anticoagulated blood should be centrifuged 450. Agglutination: more rapid sedimentation rate
within 6 hours of collection when the blood is 451. In severe anemia: ESR IS MARKEDLY INCREASED
stored at room temperature.
435. Overanticoagulation: FALSELY LOW due to SUGAR WATER TEST
shrinkage of cells 452. Citrated whole blood
436. Air bubbles denote poor technique but do not 453. In anemia, the hemolysis may be slightly
affect the results increased in PNH negative specimens
437. Incomplete sealing of the microhematocrit 454. Use of defibrinated blood may cause positive
tubes: FALSELY LOW results due to the hemolysis of traumatized RBCs
438. Inadequate centrifugation of the 455. Test should be performed WITHIN 2 HOURS of
microhematocrit tubes or allowing the tubes to stand obtaining the specimen
longer than several minutes after centrifugation:
FALSELY ELEVATED SUCROSE HEMOLYSIS TEST
439. Hematocrit may be expressed in either of two 456. Citrated whole blood
ways (1) as percentage, e.g., 42% or (2) as a 457. Increased hemolysis (<10%) may be found in
decimal point, e.g., 0.42. leukemia or myelosclerosis
458. PNH: 10% to 80% hemolysis
WHITE BLOOD CELLS COUNT
440. Count above 11 x 10 9th/L is termed ACID SERUM TEST
LEUKOCYTOSIS 459. Whole blood defibrinated
441. Mix the Thoma pipet for approximately 3 minutes 460. When patient has received blood transfusions,
to ensure hemolysis and adequate mixing less lysis occurs because of the presence of normal
442. Manual counts, no more than 10-cell variation transfused red blood cells
between the four squares
461. Thyroxine (µg/dL to nmol/L) 12.9
PLATELET COUNT 462. X-axis: HORIZONTAL, ABSCISSA, INDEPENDENT
443. Prolonged BT and poor clot retraction are found VARIABLES
when there is marked thrombocytopenia 463. Y-axis: VERTICAL, ORDINATE, DEPENDENT VARIABLES
444. EDTA: decreased platelet clumping but increased 464. UREA: Colorimetric: diacetyl [ inexpensive,
MPV lacks specificity]
445. If concentration of EDTA exceeds 2mg/mL of 465. UREA: Enzymatic: NH3 formation [greater
whole blood, platelets may SWELL AND THEN FRAGMENT, specificity, more expensive]
causing invalidly higher count 466. CREATININE: Colorimetric: end point [simple,
446. Using Rees-Ecker diluting fluid, the platelet nonspecific]
count must be completed within 30 minutes of
467. CREATININE: Colorimetric: kinetic [rapid, 488. CLINITEST tablets contain copper sulfate,
increased specificity] sodium carbonate, sodium citrate, and sodium
468. CREATININE: Enzymatic [measure ammonia hydroxide
colorimetrically or with ion-selective electrode] 489. ACETEST provides sodium nitroprusside, glycine,
469. URIC ACID: Colorimetric [problems with disodium phosphate, and lactose in tablet form. The
turbidity, several common drugs interfere] addition of lactose gives better color
470. URIC ACID: Enzymatic: UV [need special differentiation. Acetest tablets are hygroscopic; if
instrumentation and optical cells] the specimen is not completely absorbed within 30
471. URIC ACID: Enzymatic: H2O2 [interference by seconds, a new tablet should be used.
reducing substances] 490. Bence Jones protein coagulates at temperatures
472. Constituents of a number of common foods, between 40°C and 60°C and dissolves when the
including BANANAS, VANILLA, TEA AND COFFEE, may temperature reaches 100°C.
react in the test for HMMA. HMMA is also VMA. 4- 491. Automated reagent strip readers: REFLECTANCE
Hydroxy-3-Methoxymandelic acid (HMMA) PHOTOMETRY
473. Laboratory personnel should be aware of the 492. Casts have a tendency to locate NEAR THE EDGES
MECHANICAL HAZARDS of equipment such as CENTRIFUGES, OF THE COVER SLIP
AUTOCLAVES, and HOMOGENIZERS. 493. Squamous epithelial cells: Rare, few, moderate,
474. Third Taenia: Taenia asiatica or the Taiwan or many per LPF
Taenia 494. Transitional epithelial cells: Rare, few,
475. Fungal elements fluoresce green with acridine moderate, or many per HPF
orange 495. RTE CELLS: AVERAGE NUMBER PER 10 HPFS
476. Reporting of normal urine crystals: reported as 496. MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES: Acid-albumin and the CTAB
rare, few, moderate, or many per hpf tests (+) thick, white turbidity
477. Abnormal crystals may be averaged and reported 497. MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES: Metachromatic staining
per lpf spot test: BLUE SPOT
478. Reagent for APT test: 1% NaOH 498. Very slight amount of OXYHEMOGLOBIN: PINK CSF
479. Infective stage of Leishmania to man: 499. Conversion of oxyhemoglobin to unconjugated
PROMASTIGOTE bilirubin: YELLOW CSF
480. Infective stage of Trypanosoma to man: 500. Heavy hemolysis: ORANGE CSF
TRYPOMASTIGOTE 501. Red or brown seminal fluid: BLOOD
481. Infective stage of Plasmodia to man: 502. Normal appearance of gastric fluid: PALE GRAY
SPOROZOITES with mucus
482. Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis: 503. Amniotic fluid OD 450: When BILIRUBIN is
ANGIOSTRONGYLUS CANTONENSIS present, a rise in OD is seen at 450 nm because this
483. When an accident involving electrical shock is the wavelength of maximum bilirubin absorption.
occurs, the ELECTRICAL SOURCE MUST BE REMOVED 504. Rare: 0–10 bacteria/hpf
IMMEDIATELY. 505. Few: 10–50 bacteria/hpf
484. URINARY MEATUS: external urinary opening 506. Moderate: 50–200 bacteria/hpf
485. POLYURIA: greater than 2.5 L/day in adults 507. Many: >200 bacteria/hpf
486. OLIGURIA: less than 400 mL/day in adults 508. First layer of spun hematocrit: FATTY LAYER
487. Yellow-orange specimen caused by the 509. Second layer of spun hematocrit: PLASMA
administration of phenazopyridine (brand name 510. Third layer of spun hematocrit: BUFFY COAT
Pyridium) or azo-gantrisin compounds to people who 511. Bottom layer of spun hematocrit: PACKED CELLS
have urinary tract infections [drug for UTI: orange 512. Patients with CML negative for the Philadelphia
and viscous urine] chromosome: POOR PROGNOSIS
513. LEUKOCYTOSIS >11 x 10 9th/L 531. The standard screening method for HIV antibody
514. Forward light scatter: CELL SIZE has been the ELISA, and the standard confirmatory
515. Side light scatter: CELL GRANULARITY test is the Western blot.
516. KERATOCYTES: helmet cells/with horn-like 532. Aside from Western blot, other confirmatory
projections tests, including indirect immunofluorescence assay
517. ANTI-dsDNA: most specific antibody for SLE (IFA), radioimmunoprecipitation assay (RIPA), line
518. Anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA): CHRONIC immunoassays, and rapid confirmatory tests, have
ACTIVE HEPATITIS also been developed.
519. Polymerase chain reaction: MOLECULAR 533. HBs ag: active infection
520. Restriction fragment length polymorphism: 534. HBe ag: active hepatitis B with HIGH DEGREE OF
MOLECULAR INFECTIVITY
521. Enhanced by acidifying patient serum: anti-M 535. IgM anti-HBc: current or recent acute hepatitis
522. Wiener and coworkers gave a name to one such B
agglutinin, calling its antigen I for 536. Total anti-HBc: current or past hepatitis B
“individuality.” The ANTIBODY REACTED WITH MOST 537. Anti-HBe: recovery from hepatitis B
BLOOD SPECIMENS tested. 538. Anti-HBs: immunity to hepatitis B
523. For patients with history of FEBRILE 539. HBV DNA: acute, atypical, or occult hepatitis
NONHEMOLYTIC TRANSF REACTION: LEUKOPOOR RBCs B; viral load may be used to monitor effectiveness
524. Irradiation of blood components: CESIUM of therapy
525. CORDOCENTESIS, or PERCUTANEOUS UMBILICAL BLOOD 540. ITIS: inflammation
SAMPLING (PUBS), results in a fetal blood specimen
that can be used for rapid karyotyping or molecular SEVEN BASE SI UNITS
studies. 541. Length: METER
526. Nuclear matrix protein (NMP-22): URINARY 542. Mass: KILOGRAM
BLADDER CANCER 543. Time: SECONDS
527. CARD PREGNANCY/POSITIVE: Two separate black or 544. Quantity of mass: MOLE
gray bands, one at T and the other at C, are visible 545. Electric current: AMPERE
in the results window, indicating that the specimen 546. Thermodynamic temperature: KELVIN
contains detectable levels of hCG. Although the 547. Luminous intensity: CANDELA
intensity of the test band may vary with different 548. Main cause of TREND is DETERIORATION OF
specimens, the appearance of two distinct bands REAGENTS
should be interpreted as a positive result. 549. Main cause of SHIFT is IMPROPER CALIBRATION OF
528. CARD PREGNANCY/NEGATIVE: If no band appears at THE INSTRUMENT
T and a black or gray band is visible at the C 550. POCT: near-patient testing, decentralized
position, the test can be considered negative, testing, bedside testing and alternate-site testing
indicating that a detectable level of hCG is not 551. POCT: usually by nonlaboratorian personnel
present. (nurses, respiratory therapists, etc)
529. CARD PREGNANCY/INVALID: If no band appears at C 552. Absorbance (A) = abc = 2-log%T
or incomplete or beaded bands appear at the T or C 553. The bacteriological examination of water
position, the test is invalid. The test should be consists of (1) total plate counts (2) detecting the
repeated using another Card Pregnancy Test device. presence or absence of coliforms and the estimation
530. CARD PREGNANCY: If the test band appears VERY of MPN (MOST PROBABLE NUMBER)
FAINT, it is recommended that a new sample be 554. Water analysis, presumptive test: FORMATION OF
collected 48 hours later and tested again using GAS IN THE LACTOSE BROTH
another Card Pregnancy Test device.
555. Water analysis, confirmed test: FORMATION OF 623. One control value exceeds +2s and another
GAS IN BGBL BROTH or TYPICAL COLIFORM COLONIES ON exceeds -2s: R4s
EMB/ENDO AGAR 624. 2 consecutive ctrl values exceed the same mean
556. Water analysis, completed test: FORMATION OF +2s or -2s: 2:2s
ACID AND GAS IN THE LACTOSE BROTH and the 625. Fixed-angle centrifuge advantages over the
DEMONSTRATION OF GRAM NEGATIVE NONSPOREFORMING horizontal centrifuge: Lesser air friction, smaller
BACILLI increase in sample temperature, quicker
557. Herpesviruses: cardinal feature of the group is sedimentation of small particles, and operated over
LATENCY higher speed
558. Reoviruses: derivation of the word: 626. Used to determine whether there is
R(respiratory), E(enteric), O(orphan) statistically significant difference between the SD
559. ASCHOFF BODIES: rheumatic fever of 2 groups of data: f-test
560. CREOLA BODIES: cluster of columnar cells, 627. Used to determine whether there is
bronchial asthma statistically significant difference between the
561. ELEMENTARY BODIES: infectious particles of means of 2 groups of data: t-test
Chlamydia 628. Sample of known quantity with several
562. SCLEROTIC BODIES: dark brown-black organisms, analytes.: Control
chromoblastomycosis 629. Anticoagulant for cardiopulmonary bypass:
563. ASTEROID BODIES: concentric radiating Heparin
eosinophilic material (ag-ab reaction), 630. Basal state collection: Early morning blood
sporotrichosis collection
564. NEGRI BODIES: rabies 631. Uses 2 monochromators, affected by quenching:
565. GUARNIERI BODIES: poxvirus Fluorometry
566. OWL’S EYE INCLUSION BODIES: cytomegalovirus 632. Uses 2 photodetectors, for the sample beam and
567. PSAMMOMA BODIES: elements with concentric reference beam: Double – beam in space
striations of collagen-like materials, benign 633. Obsolete blood glucose methodologies: Folin-
conditions, ovarian or thyroid carcinoma Wu, Nelson Somogyi
568. KOPLIK’S SPOTS: MEASLES 634. Chemical method for glucose, still widely used:
569. Hand, foot and mouth disease: COXSACKIEVIRUS Ortho-toluidine, condensation method
570. In CYSTIC FIBROSIS of the pancreas, the 635. Test for chylomicrons, creamy layer on top:
increase IN NEUTRAL FATS confer the greasy “BUTTER- Standing plasma test
STOOL” appearance. 636. Apolipoprotein component of VLDL: Apo-B100
637. Transports exogenous triglycerides:
616. Iron conversion factor from conventional to SI Chylomicrons
(µmol/L): 0.179 638. Transports endogenous triglycerides: VLDL
617. Bilirubin conversion factor from conventional 639. Highest cholesterol content: LDL
to SI (µmol/L): 17.1 640. One step method for cholesterol determination:
618. Thyroxine conversion factor to SI (µg/dl to Liebermann - Burchardt
mmol/L): 12.9 641. Cholesterol esterase: Used in enzymatic method
619. Specimen collection & processing: Pre- of cholesterol determination
analytical QA 642. CV of HDLc (NCEP Guidelines for Acceptable
620. Long term accuracy of analytical methods: Measurement Error):≤ 4%
External QC 643. Assay for Uric acid that uses mercury arc vapor
621. Abrupt change: Shift lamp: Enzymatic: UV
622. Gradual change: Trend
644. Greater specificity and more expensive BUN 668. Dissociable substance that accepts hydroxyl
assay: Enzymatic: ammonia formation ions: Acid
645. Simple, Nonspecific test for Creatinine 669. Comparing patient’s results with previous
determination : Colorimetric: end point results: Delta check
646. Categories of Azotemia: Pre-renal, Renal, Post- 670. POCT is most often performed by nurses,
renal perfusionists (who operate heart-lung machine during
647. Test used to assess the ability to conjugate open heart surgery), respiratory therapists and
bilirubin and secrete bile: Total and Direct physician themselves.
Bilirubin assay
648. Gamma spike/ Monoclonal gammopathy: Multiple 671. Expressed in Ehrlich units (mg/dl):Urobilinogen
myeloma 672. Used to differentiate myoglobin and hemoglobin:
649. Beta-gamma bridging: Hepatic cirrhosis Blondheim’s test
650. Reaction rate is directly proportional to 673. Degree of Hazard 1:Slight hazard
substrate concentration: First-order kinetics 674. Degree of Hazard 2:Moderate hazard
651. Enzyme specific for both pancreas and salivary 675. Degree of Hazard 3:Serious hazard
glands: Amylase 676. Degree of Hazard 4:Extreme hazard
652. Clinically significant if decreased: 677. Handwashing: Clean between fingers 15 sec (or
Cholinesterase 20 sec , 6th ed), downward
653. Substrate used in Bowers-McComb method for ALP 678. When skin or eye contact occurs, the best first
activity measurement: p-nitrophenylphosphate aid is to immediately: Flush the area with water for
654. Chief counterion of sodium: Chloride at least 15 minutes and then seek medical attention
655. Driving force of bicarbonate buffer system: 679. Preservative of choice for urine cytology
CARBON DIOXIDE studies: Saccomano’s fixative
656. Chloride and Bicarbonate relationship: 680. Urine specimen for Urobilinogen: Afternoon
Reciprocal sample (2-4pm)
657. Confirmatory test for Acromegaly: Glucose 681. Storage conditions for reagent strip: Cool, dry
suppression test place
658. Increased in Hypothyroidism (primary): TSH 682. Reagent incorporated in Ketone pad: Sodium
659. T3 uptake levels in Hypothyroidism : Decreased nitroprusside
660. Begins with patient identification and 683. Hoesch Test: Ehrlich’s reagent in 6M HCl
continues until testing is completed and the results 684. Speckled pattern on blood parameter: Hematuria
are reported : Chain of custody 685. Principle of Automated Reagent Strip Reader:
661. Requires whole blood EDTA sample: Cyclosporine Reflectance photometry
and Tacrolimus tests 686. Soluble in dilute acetic acid: Red blood cells,
662. Method of choice for measuring antidepressants: amorphous phosphates, carbonates
HPLC 687. Soluble in ether: Lipids, chyle, lymphatic
663. Gold standard for drug testing: GC-MS fluid
664. Inhibits acetylcholinesterase: Organophosphates 688. Appear microscopically as yellow brown-granules
& Carbamates and produce a characteristic pink sediment (brick
665. Dissociable substance that yields hydrogen dust), uroerythrin: AMORPHOUS URATES
ions: Acid 689. Cause a white precipitate following specimen
666. Dissociable substance that yields hydroxyl refrigeration :Amorphous phosphates
ions: Base 690. Tubular injury: 2 or more RTE cells per HPF
667. Dissociable substance that accepts hydrogen 691. Telescoped sediment: Elements of
ions: Base glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome
692. Glitter cells: Neutrophils seen in hypotonic 714. Microviscosity test for fetal lung maturity:
urine measured by FLUORESCENCE POLARIZATION
693. Formation of casts: 715. Green amniotic fluid: MECONIUM
Hyaline→cellular→granular→waxy 716. Dark red-brown color of amniotic fluid: FETAL
694. Hyaline cast consists entirely of: Uromodulin DEATH
695. Crystals seen in liver disease: Bilirubin, 717. Normal Gastric fluid appearance: PALE GRAY WITH
tyrosine, leucine MUCUS
696. Forms of Struvite: Coffin-lid, Feather-like, 718. Noninvasive test to determine gastric acidity:
Fern-leaf, Prism, Colorless sheets, Flakes DIAGNEX TUBELESS TEST
697. Ethylene glycol poisoning: Monohydrate Calcium 719. Collagen-like material with concentric
Oxalate (oval, dumbbell) striations seen in ovarian and thyroid carcinomas:
698. Most frequent parasite encountered in urine: PSAMMOMA BODIES
Trichomonas vaginalis 721. Laminar flow: Biosafety Cabinet class II
699. Fecal contaminant in urine: Pinworm ova 722. HEPA filter: Removes org > 0.3 um (bacteria,
700. Diluent for CSF WBC Count: 3% Glacial HAc with fungi)
methylene blue 723. Blood culture collection: 2-3 samples (Max 3-4)
701. Precipitation test for CSF total protein: TCA at least 1 hour apart in 24 hours
and SSA 724. Grade A milk: <75,000 bacteria per mL when raw,
702. Positive for pellicle clot formation: and <15,000 bacteria once pasteurized
Tubercular meningitis 725. Enteric agar: XLD, EMB, HEA
703. Oligoclonal bonding in CSF bonding but not in 726. Rickettsial stains: Gimenez, Macchiavello
serum → Multiple sclerosis, encephalitis, Guillain- 727. Concentration of Hydrogen Peroxide as
Barre syndrome and neurosyphilis disinfectant: 3% H2O2
704. Semen fructose test is not tested within 2 728. MIO medium: Motility Indole Ornithine
hours: Specimen must be FROZEN 729. Quaternary ammonium compounds are inactivated
705. Reagent used in Florence test which detects by: Organic substances
choline: Potassium iodide, Iodine 730. Fite-Faraco stain: Hematoxylin as counterstain
706. Used to assess sperm cell velocity and instead of methylene, AFB
trajectory: Computer-assisted semen analysis (CASA) 731. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate: Anti-phagocytic,
707. Normal volume of synovial fluid: less than 3.5 anti-complement
ml 732. Bromthymol blue as indicator: HEA, TCBS,
708. Normal synovial fluid glucose:<10mg/dl lower Simmon’s citrate agar
than blood glucose 733. Nasopharyngeal swabs: H. influenzae, N.
709. Cells seen in synovial fluid which resembles meningitidis, B. pertussis
polished rice macroscopically: Rice bodies 734. Inhibits gram-positive bacteria: Crystal violet
710. Type of effusion caused by congestive heart and sodium desoxycholate (bile salt)
failure: Transudate 735. Inhibits gram-negative bacteria: Sodium azide,
711. Sputum: Not a normal body fluid, phenylethyl alcohol
tracheobronchial secretions 736. Detects gram-negative endotoxin: Limulus lysate
712. Important diagnostic test for Pneumocystic test
carinii in immunocompromised patients: 737. Protein A: Staphylococcus aureus,
Bronchoalveolar lavage coagglutination
713. Tests for Neural Tube defects: AFP, 738. Slime layer production: Staphylococcus
acetylcholinesterase epidermidis
739. Protein M: Streptococcus pyogenes
740. Colonies with ground glass appearance: 768. Trophozoite with ingested WBC: Entamoeba
Legionella (Mahon) gingivalis
741. Increased resistance of Pseudomonas aeruginosa 769. Gay bowel syndrome: Giardiasis
to aminoglycosides: Increased calcium and magnesium 770. Cercaria minus a tail: Schistosomule
742. Smallest free-living organism: Mycoplasma 771. Infective stage of Diphyllobothrium latum:
743. Benchmarking: Comparison with peers Plerocercoid larva
744. Histoplasma crossreacts with: Blastomyces, 772. Resembles Diphyllobothrium latum adult:
Aspergillus and Coccidioides Spirometra
745. Aman medium stain: Lactophenol cotton blue 773. Passing of proglottids of Taenia: Irritated by
746. Czapek’s medium: Isolation of Aspergillus ALCOHOL
747. African histoplasmosis: Histoplasma duboisii 774. Taenia spp. eggs: Hexacanth embryo with thick
748. Test for Candida albicans that uses serum: Germ radial striations
tube test 775. Cercarial dermatitis: Schistosomes
749. Chlamydospore production of Candida albicans: 776. Length of needle in routine phlebotomy: 1.0 –
Cornmeal agar 1.5 inches
750. Candidiasis infection affecting the oral 777. Angle of draw in venipuncture: 15 to 30 ° angle
cavity: Thrush (15 degree angle)
751. General isolation media for fungi: Saboraud’s 778. The distance of drop of blood from the edge of
dextrose agar the slide: 1 cm
752. Major biologic hazard to laboratory personnel: 779. Blood production outside the bone marrow:
Coccidioides immitis EXTRAmedullary hematopoiesis
753. Sensitive fungal (fluorescent) dye that binds 780. Hematopoietic stem cell marker: CD 34
to cell wall: Calcofluor white 781. Common acute lymphocytic leukemia antigen: CD
754. Chromoblastomycosis: Sclerotic bodies 10
755. Rose gardener’s disease: Sporotrichosis 782. Test for Hemoglobin S which uses black line:
756. Eosinophilic material due to antigen-antibody Dithionate solubility test
reaction in cases of sporotrichosis: Asteroid body 783. Starry sky pattern under low power imparted by
757. Largest DNA virus: Poxvirus numerous macrophages with apoptotic debris:
758. Smallest DNA virus: Parvovirus Burkitt’s lymphoma
759. Largest RNA virus: Paramyxovirus 784. Granules (tertiary granules) present in
760. Smallest RNA virus: Enterovirus Neutrophil: Alkaline phosphatase
(Picornaviridae) 785. Euglobulin clot lysis time: Screening test for
761. Cross reactive antigen in all human fibrinolysis
adenoviruses: Hexon 786. Screening test for PNH: Sugar water screening
762. Gastroenteritis in children during winter test
months: Rotavirus 787. Derived from RBC Histogram: MCV, RDW
763. Nonbacterial gastroenteritis in adults: 788. Derived from Platelet Histogram: MPV, PDW
Norovirus 789. In cyanmethemoglobin method, all hemoglobin are
764. Toxic to HSV: Calcium alginate measured, except: Sulfhemoglobin
765. Isolation medium for Cytomegalovirus: Human 790. Color of blood in sulfhemoglobinemia: Mauve
fibroblast cells lavender
766. True amoeba: GENUS Entamoeba 791. Patient with PNH received blood transfusion:
767. Trophozoite with ingested red blood cell: Less lysis due to the presence of normal RBCs
Entamoeba histolytica transfused
792. Positive instrumental errors: Bubbles in the 814. General purpose fixative: 10% neutral buffered
sample, extraneous electrical pulsesand aperture formalin
plugs (most common) 815. Protein fixation: Neutral buffered formol
793. Negative instrumental error: Excessive lysing saline or formaldehyde vapor
of RBCs 816. Fixatives for nucleic acids: Ethanol, methanol
794. Instrumental error that is either a positive or and Carnoy’s solution
negative error: Improper setting of aperture current 817. Amount of fixative used has been 10 to 25 times
or threshold the volume of tissue to be fixed. Recently, the
795. Purplish red pinpoint hemorrhagic spots: maximum effectiveness of fixation is noted to be 20
Petechiae times the tissue volume.
796. Blood escapes into SMALL areas of skin and 818. Recommended ratio of fluid to tissue volume for
mucous membrane: Purpura DECALCIFICATION is 20 to 1
797. Blood escapes into LARGE areas of skin, mucous 819. Amount of dehydrating agent should not be less
membrane, and other tissues: Ecchymosis than 10 times the volume of tissue
798. Primary hemostasis: Vasoconstriction 820. Dehydration: Low grade to high grade alcohol
799. Outer surface of platelet: Glycocalyx 821. Absence of water: WHITE anhydrous copper
800. Contains microtubules that maintains platelet sulfate
shape: Sol-gel zone 822. Presence of water: BLUE anhydrous copper
801. Platelet estimate of 100,000 to 149,000/µL: sulfate
Slight decrease 823. Clearing: Dealcoholization
802. Platelet estimate of 150,000 to 199,000/µL: Low 824. Most rapid embedding technique: Vacuum
normal embedding
803. Labile factors: Factors V and VIII 825. Automated tissue processor: Fix, dehydrate,
804. Prematurely activates at cold temperature: clear, and infiltrate
Factors VII FXI 826. Histochemical demonstration of ENZYMES: FROZEN
805. Vitamin K-dependent factors: Factors II, VII, SECTION
IX, X 827. ACRIDINE ORANGE is the most commonly used
806. Normal value for TEMPLATE bleeding time:6 – 10 fluorochrome to demonstrate DNA and RNA in fresh or
minutes fixed tissues.
807. Christmas factor: Factor IX 828. Von Kossa’s silver nitrate method: Calcium
808. Rosenthal syndrome: Factor XI deficiency salts = black
809. Platelet estimate of 401,000 to 829. Red chromogen for peroxidases:
599,000/µl: Slight increase Aminoethylcarbazole (AEC)
810. Platelet estimate of 600,000 to 800,000/µL: 830. Brown chromogen for peroxidases:
Moderate increase Diaminobenzidine (DAB)
811. A surgical connection between to structures, it 831. Administrative investigation:2 members of board
usually means a connection that is created between + 1 legal officer
tubular structures, such as blood vessels or loops 832. Policies and guidelines for Med Tech Education:
of intestines: ANASTOMOSIS CMO no. 14 s. 2006
812. Polyclonal antibodies used in 833. Accreditation of clinical lab for training MT
immunohistochemical techniques are frequently interns: CMO no. 6 s. 2008
derived from: RABBIT 834. STAT, STATIM: Immediately
813. Most rapid of the common freezing agents: 835. Biodegradable wastes: Green bag
LIQUID NITROGEN 836. Urine for routine urinalysis: 10 to 15 ml urine
(50 ml-container capacity)
837. Urine for drug testing: 30 to 45 ml (60 ml- 855. Floating beta lipoprotein: β-VLDL
container capacity) 856. Sinking pre-beta lipoprotein: Lp (a)
838. Urine for cytology: at least 50 ml urine 857. Triglycerides, LDLc: FASTING 12 to 14 hours
(Gregorios) 858. Formula for LDLc: Total cholesterol – HDL –
839. Venipucture: 15 to 30 degree angle VLDL
840. Arterial puncture: 45 to 60 degree angle (90 859. Friedewald VLDLc (mmol/L): Triglycerides/2.175
degrees for femoral artery) 860. De Long VLDLc (mmol/L): Triglycerides/2.825
841. Before blood is collected from the radial 861. Friedewald VLDLc (mg/dL): Triglycerides/5
artery in the wrist, one should do a MODIFIED ALLEN 862. De Long VLDLc (mg/dL): Triglycerides/6.5
TEST to determine whether the ulnar artery can 863. ONE-STEP direct method for cholesterol:
provide collateral circulation to the hand after the LIEBERMANN-BURCHARDT (L-B)
radial artery puncture. 864. One-step method for cholesterol: Colorimetry
842. Central Venous Assess (CVA) collection: (Pearson, Stern and MacGavack)
eliminates multiple phlebotomies and surgical 865. Two-step method for cholesterol: C + Extraction
situations. Five (5) ml of blood must be drawn and (Bloors)
discarded to eliminate contaminants. CVA is not 866. Three-step method for cholesterol: C+ E +
recommended for bacteriology (organisms can Saponification (Abell-Kendall)
contaminate specimen) 867. Four-step method for cholesterol: C + E + S +
843. Order of draw from CATHETER LINES: First 3 to 5 Precipitation (Schoenheimer, Sperry, Parekh and
ml blood is discarded THEN, blood culture, Jung)
anticoagulated tubes and clot tubes. 868. CDC reference method for cholesterol: Abell,
844. Donor bleeding: 45 degree angle to the skin, Levy and Brodie method
make a quick clean puncture; once in the skin, 869. Modification of the ABELL-KENDALL method
reduce the angle of the needle to about 10 to 20 continues as the REFERENCE METHOD for cholesterol
degrees used by the CDC (Henry)
845. Anaerobic and require ICE slurry (immediate 870. TANGIER’S DISEASE: HDL is abnormal and
cooling): Lactic acid, ammonia, blood gas (if not significantly reduced
analyzed within 30 min = ↓ pH, and po2), iCa+2 871. Activated at cold temperature: Factors VII and
(heparinized whole blood if not analyzed within 30 XI (seven, eleven)
min) 872. Labile factors, decrease on storage: Factors V
846. C-Peptide test: evaluates hypoglycemia and and VIII (five, eight)
continuous assessment of beta cell function 873. Wintrobe tube: 11.5 cm long, 3 mm bore
847. Increased C-peptide: Insulinoma, type 2 DM, 874. Westergren tube: 30 cm long, 2.5 mm bore
ingestion of hypoglycemic drugs 875. Capillary tube: 7 to 7.5 cm (70-75 mm) long, 1
848. Decreased C-peptide: Type 1 DM mm bore (1.2 mm)
849. Colorimetric method for Triglycerides: van 876. Macrohematocrit: Centrifuge at 2,000 to 2,300 g
Handel and Zilversmith for 30 minutes
850. CDC reference method: Modified van Handel and 877. Microhematocrit: Centrifuge at 10,000 to 15,000
Zilversmith g for 5 minutes (five minutes)
851. Fluorometric method for Triglycerides: Hantzch 878. Normocytic, normochromic: Acute blood loss,
condensation hemolytic anemia, aplastic anemia
852. Largest and least dense: CHYLOMICRONS 879. Microcytic, hypochromic: Anemia of chronic
853. Smallest but the most dense: HDL disease, thalassemia, IDA and sideroblastic anemia
854. Found in obstructive jaundice and LCAT 880. Macrocytic, normochromic: MEGALOBLASTIC ANEMIA
deficiency: Lipoprotein X 881. Poikilocytosis: DECREASED ESR
882. Correction for WBC count, Adult: 5 or more 904. Bernardo T. Tabaosares "Celebration of the
nucleated RBCs/100 WBC differential Practice" (1971-1973)
883. Correction for WBC count, Neonate: 10 or more 905. Angelina R. Jose "Career Advocacy" (1973)
nucleated RBCs/100 WBC differential 906. Venerable C.V. Chua (Venerable OCA)
884. Increased EDTA: Decreased hematocrit, decreased "Educational Enhancement" (1977-1981)
ESR 907. Carmencita P. Acedera "Image Building" (1982-
885. Hemoglobinopathies: QUALITATIVE defect in 1991)
hemoglobin 908. Marilyn R. Atienza "Proactivism" (1992-1996)
886. Thalassemia: QUANTITATIVE defect in hemoglobin 909. Norma N. Chang "International Leadership"
887. Responsible for clot retraction: THROMBOSTHENIN (1997-2000)
888. Electromechanical detection of fibrin clot: 910. Agnes B. Medenilla "Organizational Dynamism"
FIBROMETER (2001-2002, 2005-2006)
889. Photo-optical detection: Electra, COAG-A-MATE, 911. Shirley F. Cruzada "Interdisciplinary
Ortho-Koagulab Networking" (2003-2004)
890. Complement-dependent cytotoxicity: INVERTED 912. Leila M. Florento "Beyond Expectations" (2007-
PHASE CONTRAST microscope 2012)
891. Stains for the BASEMENT MEMBRANE: PAS and 913. Romeo Joseph J. Ignacio "Soar Higher through
azocarmine V.O.I.C.E." Visibility, Oneness, Integrity,
892. Fixatives for H & E: All fixatives can be used Commitment and Excellence (2013 - 2015)
except those that contain osmic acid. Osmic acid 914. Ronaldo E. Puno (2015-present)
(like Flemming’s) inhibits hematoxylin ----------------------------------------------------
893. Manual H & E staining: REGRESSIVE STAINING, it --------
includes a differentiation step 915. FATHER OF PAMET: CRISANTO ALMARIO
894. Harris hematoxylin: Primary/Basic/Nuclear stain 916. PAMET was originally organized on SEPTEMBER 15,
895. Eosin: Secondary/Counterstain/Acid/Cytoplasmic 1963
stain 917. PAMET HYMN Music: Francis Jerota Pefanco
896. Stain of choice for cytology: ORIGINAL Pap’s 918. PAMET HYMN Lyrics: Hector Gentapanan Gayares,
stain Jr.
897. Pap’s stain consists of 3 stains: Harris 919. Current PAMET President: Ronaldo E. Puno
hematoxylin, Orange green (OG6) and Eosin Azure (EA) 920. Current PASMETH President: Bernard U. Ebuen
898. Harris hematoxylin: stains the nucleus 921. Board of MT Head: Dr. Marietta Baccay
899. OG 6: stains the cytoplasm of mature cells 922. Board of MT Member: Marilyn Atienza
(superficial cells) 923. Board of MT Member: Marian Tantingco
900. EA 36/50/65: stains the cytoplasm of immature 924. PRC CHAIRPERSON: TEOFILO S. PILANDO, JR.
cells (parabasal, intermediate cells) 925. DOH SECRETARY: DR. PAULYN JEAN B. ROSELL-UBIAL

-------------------------------------------- 926. BIPHASIC MEDIUM/CASTANEDA BOTTLES: BRUCELLA

LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS 927. CIN medium: Y. enterocolitica
901. FIRST PRESIDENT: Charlemagne T. Tamondong 928. CCFA: C. difficile
"Emergence of the Profession" (1963-1967) 929. BCYE medium: Legionella
902. Nardito D. Moraleta "Professional Recognition" 930. HBT medium: Gardnerella
(1967-1970) 931. ssDNA: Parvovirus
903. Felix E. Asprer "Legislative Agenda" (1970- 932. dsRNA: Reovirus
1971, 1973-1976) 933. Smallest RNA virus: Enterovirus
(Picornaviridae)
934. Acid-resistant: Enterovirus
935. Acid-sensitive: Rhinovirus 960. OSMOLALITY
936. KOPLIK’S SPOTS: MEASLES a. Osmolality = 2Na + (Glucose/20) + (BUN/3)
937. Measles: RUBEOLA b. Osmolality = 1.86Na + (Glucose/18) + (BUN/2.8) +
938. German measles: RUBELLA 9
939. Chickenpox: VARICELLA 961. Anion gap
940. Odor of bitter almonds: CYANIDE a. AG = Na - (Cl + HCO3)
941. Garlic on breath, metallic taste on mouth: b. AG = (Na + K) – (Cl + HCO3)
ARSERNIC ----------------------------------
942. Legally intoxicated: Blood alcohol greater than NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS
100 mg/dL (0.10%) 962. Uric acid is alkali soluble
943. Potentiometry: measurement of pH and pCO2 963. Amorphous urates - soluble in alkali and heat
944. Amperometry: measurement of pO2 964. CaOx - soluble in dilute HCl
945. High affinity to keratin: ARSENIC 965. Amorphous phosphates - soluble in dilute acetic
946. Visible region: 400 to 700 nm acid
947. UV region <400 nm 966. Calcium phosphate - soluble in dilute acetic
948. Infrared region > 700 nm acid
949. Cholesterol, acceptable CV ≤ 3% 967. Triple phosphate - soluble in dilute acetic
950. Triglyceride, acceptable CV ≤ 5% acid
951. HDLc, LDLc acceptable CV ≤ 4% 968. Ammonium biurate - soluble in acetic acid with
952. OBESE BMI ≥ 30 kg/sq.m. heat
953. Overweight BMI 25 to 29.9 kg/sq.m. 969. Calcium carbonate - forms gas from acetic acid
954. Underweight BMI < 18.5 kg/sq.m.
955. BASAL STATE: early morning before the patient ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS
has eaten or become physically active. 970. Cystine is soluble in ammonia, dilute HCl
956. STAT for the Latin word statim meaning 971. Cholesterol is soluble in chloroform
immediately. Tests that fall into this category 972. Leucine is soluble in hot alkali or alcohol
include: 973. Tyrosine is soluble in alkali or heat
a. Glucose in diabetic ketoacidosis 974. Bilirubin is soluble in acetic acid, HCl, NaOH,
b. Some drug levels such as theophylline ether and chloroform
c. Amylase in suspected pancreatitis 975. Sulfonamides soluble in acetone
d. CK in suspected MI 976. Radiographic dye soluble in 10% NaOH
e. Hematocrit 977. Ampicillin crystals form bundles when
f. Blood gases refrigerated
g. Potassium -------------------------------------
978. F. tularensis is a very small, strictly
957. CRITICAL VALUES or PANIC VALUES: list of aerobic, coccoid to pleomorphic rod-shaped, gram-
analytes that truly do have the potential to be negative bacillus that requires CYSTINE or CYSTEINE
lethal if unchecked for a short period. for growth
958. SCHILLING TEST: Laboratory determination of 979. Legionella spp. may be isolated on BCYE agar
vitamin B12 absorption supplemented with growth factors, including L-
CYSTINE, FERRIC SALT, AND Α-KETOGLUTARATE.
959. Hemostatic mechanisms comprise four (4) main 980. Bordetella spp. are strictly aerobic,
systems: the vascular system, platelets, coagulation nonfermentative, catalase-positive, minute
system and fibrinolytic system.
coccobacilli requiring NICOTINIC ACID, CYSTEINE, and 990. HBeAg indicates HIGH INFECTIVITY.
usually METHIONINE, for growth. 991. CORDOCENTESIS, or percutaneous umbilical blood
981. MEDICAL MALPRACTICE is misconduct or lack of sampling (PUBS).
skill by a health-care professional that results in SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES
injury to the patient. 992. Formaldehyde – for Addis count
982. NEGLIGENCE, which is defined as failure to give 993. Conc, HCl – for epinephrine, norepinephrine,
reasonable care by the health-care provider, must be catecholamines, vanillylmandelic acid
proven in a malpractice suit. 994. Glacial acetic acid pH 4.5 – for aldosterone
983. SERUM or PLASMA is the specimen of choice for 995. Sodium carbonate – for porphyrins and
the determination of circulating concentrations of urobilinogen (to ensure alkalinity)
most drugs. THERAPEUTIC DRUGS, BISHOP 996. Glacial acetic acid pH 2.0 – for serotonin
984. Analysis for the presence of ABUSED SUBSTANCES 997. Conc. HCl – for steroids, ammonia, urea, total
has focused primarily on the use of URINE as the nitrogen
test sample of choice. The urine specimen represents 998. Chloroform – for aldosterone
the net load of the drug over a long period, whereas 999. Sulfuric acid – preserves calcium and other
the blood sample provides only a quick picture of inorganic constituents
the drug level at a specific time. DRUGS OF ABUSE, 1000. Sodium fluoride or benzoic acid – ideal for
CALBREATH glucose analysis, prevents glycolysis
985. CHAIN OF CUSTODY 1001. REAGENT LOG should be kept to indicate DATE IN
Processing steps for such specimens—initial USE and EXPIRATION DATE of the reagent. This log
collection, transportation, storage, and analytical should also note the lot numbers of controls. After
testing— must be documented by careful record the reagent has been checked, this is indicated on
keeping. Documentation ensures that there has been the label, and the solution can be used for
no tampering with the specimen by any interested laboratory testing.
parties, that the specimen has been collected from 1002. ACID
the appropriate person, and that the results a. Dissociable substance that yields hydrogen (H)
reported are accurate. ions
Each step of the COLLECTION, HANDLING, PROCESSING, b. Dissociable substance that accepts hydroxyl (OH)
TESTING, AND REPORTING PROCESSES must be documented; ions
this is called the chain of custody. 1003. BASE
986. RICE BODIES are fragments of degenerating a. Dissociable substance that yields hydroxyl (OH)
proliferative synovial cells or microinfarcted ions
synovium. b. Dissociable substance that accepts hydrogen (H)
987. OCHRONOTIC SHARDS, ground pepper appearance ions
from pigmented cartilage fragments may be the result 1004. A MOHR PIPET does not have graduations to the
of a metabolic disorder (i.e., ochronosis). tip. It is a self-draining pipet, but the tip should
988. PROBLEMS: RBCs appear gray, WBCs are too dark, not be allowed to touch the vessel while the pipet
eosinophil granules are gray, not orange. CAUSES: is draining.
Stain or buffer too alkaline (most common), 1005. A SEROLOGIC PIPET has graduation marks to the
inadequate rinsing, prolonged staining, heparinized tip and is generally a blowout pipet.
blood sample. 1006. A MICROPIPET is a pipet with a total holding
989. PROBLEMS: RBCs are too pale or are RED, WBCs volume of less than 1 mL; it may be designed as
are barely visible. CAUSES: Stain or buffer too either a Mohr or a serologic pipet.
acidic (most common), underbuffering (too short), 1007. GLUCOSE MEASUREMENTS
over-rinsing. a. Reference method, enzymatic: HEXOKINASE
b. Chemical method for glucose, still widely used: 1016. Human infection with F. hepatica also called
Ortho-toluidine, condensation the sheep liver fluke is now considered a global
c. Obsolete chemical blood glucose methods: Folin- zoonosis. In countries like Bolivia, Ecuador,
Wu, Nelson Somogyi Islamic Republic of Iran and Yemen, human
1008. SCREENING FOR BIRTH DEFECTS fascioliasis usually parallel the prevalence of
a. Triple test: AFP, HCG and ESTRIOL infection in SHEEP and other ruminants like GOATS,
b. QUAD screen: AFP, HCG, ESTRIOL and INHIBIN-A CATTLE, BUFFALOES and HORSES.
1009. Regulation of aldosterone secretion via the 1017. Diphyllobothrium latum egg: OVA are usually
renin/angiotensin system is achieved as follows. yellowish brown, with a moderately thick shell and
Decreased blood volume or blood pressure induces the an inconspicuous operculum. Opposite the operculum
release of kidney renin, which induces the is a small knob-like thickening (aboperculum).
production of angiotensin I and II. Angiotensin II 1018. LIFE CYCLE OF ECHINOCOCCUS GRANULOSUS: The
affects release of aldosterone from the adrenal adult E. granulosus resides in the small bowel of
gland, which ultimately causes the kidney distal the definitive hosts, dogs or other canids. Gravid
tubule to RETAIN SODIUM, thereby raising blood proglottids release eggs that are passed in the
volume and blood pressure. feces. After ingestion by a suitable intermediate
1010. THREE (3%) PERCENT HYDROGEN PEROXIDE: In a 3% host (under natural conditions: sheep, goat, swine,
solution, hydrogen peroxide is a harmless but very cattle, horses, camel), the egg hatches in the small
weak antiseptic whose primary clinical use is in the bowel and releases an oncosphere that penetrates the
cleansing of wounds. intestinal wall and migrates through the circulatory
1011. ANAEROBES usually cannot grow in the presence system into various organs, especially the liver and
of O2, and the atmosphere in anaerobe jars, bags, or lungs. In these organs, the oncosphere develops into
chambers is composed of 5% to 10% hydrogen (H2), 5% a cyst that enlarges gradually, producing
to 10% CO2, 80% to 90% nitrogen (N2), and 0% O2 protoscolices and daughter cysts that fill the cyst
1012. Aerosol-induced sputum are collected by interior. The definitive host becomes infected by
allowing the patient to breathe aerosolized ingesting the cyst-containing organs of the infected
droplets, using an ultrasonic nebulizer containing intermediate host. After ingestion, the
NaCl or until a strong cough reflex is initiated. protoscolices evaginate, attach to the intestinal
1013. ASCARIS EGGS: In the soil, it takes about two mucosa, and develop into adult stages. (CDC)
to three weeks for eggs to develop into the a. Definitive host: DOGS (infective stage to DH,
infective stage (embryonation) under favorable hydatid cyst)
conditions with suitable temperature, moisture and b. Intermediate host: SHEEP (Infective stage to IH,
humidity. The embryonated eggs can survive in moist eggs)
shaded soil for a few months to about two years in c. Accidental intermediate host: MAN
tropical and subtropical areas, but for much longer d. APOLLON: Found in the IH: HYDATID CYST
in temperate regions. (Belizario) 1019. Increased casts in ATHLETIC PSEUDONEPHRITIS
1014. The mode of transmission of Fasciola hepatica and in some diuretic therapies.
and F. gigantica is by ingestion of metacercaria 1020. All types of casts may occur in the broad
encysted on edible aquatic plants or by drinking form. However, considering the accompanying urinary
water with floating metacercariae. stasis, the most commonly seen broad casts are (1)
1015. FASCIOLA GIGANTICA is the dominant species in granular and (2) waxy.
the PHILIPPINES, affecting CATTLES and water 1021. Bile-stained broad, waxy casts are seen as the
buffaloes. There are only few human cases reported result of the tubular necrosis caused by VIRAL
locally. HEPATITIS.
1022. CHRONIC RENAL FAILURE OR ENDSTAGE RENAL 1030. RA 10912: Continuing Professional Development
DISEASE: Act of 2016
a. Marked decrease in the glomerular filtration rate a. It lapsed into law without P’Noy’s signature on
(less than 25 mL/min) July 21, 2016
b. Steadily rising serum BUN and creatinine values b. Under President Aquino, Senator Trillanes
(azotemia) c. MANDATORY for the renewal of the PRC cards of all
c. Electrolyte imbalance registered and licensed professionals under PRC
d. Lack of renal concentrating ability producing an d. 45 units for 3 years for Registered Medical
isosthenuric (SG 1.010) urine Technologists (RMTs)
e. Proteinuria and renal glycosuria e. 30 units for 3 years for Registered Laboratory
f. Abundance of (1) GRANULAR, (2) WAXY, and (3) TECHNICIANS (RLTs)
BROAD casts, often referred to as a TELESCOPED URINE f. Under this law, OFWs are NOT exempted. They can
SEDIMENT earn CPD units abroad provided that you have
1023. SMOOTH AND RAPID WEDGE SMEAR: Keep the supporting documents to prove it. The CPD council
spreader slide at a 30 to 40 degree angle and the for your profession will dictate the equivalency of
edge of the slide firmly against the horizontal such seminars. (PRC Resolution No. 2016-990 series
slide, push the spreader slide rapidly over the of 2016)
entire length of the slide. (push spreader slide g. PRC amended few provisions in the Resolution
RAPIDLY). The tail of the film should be No. 2013-774 Series of 2013 or the Revised
SMOOTH. Barbara Brown Guidelines on the Continuing Professional
1024. RBC indices are used to define the size and Development (CPD) program for all Registered and
hemoglobin content of RBCs. They consists of MCV, Licensed professionals through Resolution No. 2016-
MCH and MCHC. The indices are commonly used as an 990 series of 2016.
aid in diagnosing and differentiating anemias. PS.
(Brown) 1. ALL TYPES of casts can be a broad cast.
1025. The MCH is much less valuable to the clinician 2. Most common type of broad casts are GRANULAR and
than the MCV and MCHC. WAXY casts.
1026. Although CYTOKINES are produced by many cell 3. But if asked about TELESCOPED SEDIMENTS:
populations (endothelial cells, fibroblasts, abundance of (1) GRANULAR, (2) WAXY and (3) BROAD
epithelial cells, and others), they are MAINLY THE casts.
PRODUCTS OF HELPER T CELLS (TH) AND MACROPHAGES. 4. Wedge smear should be SMOOTH and RAPID.
(Henry) 5. Cytotoxicity testing is under HLA testing;
1027. CROHN’S DISEASE: inflammatory bowel disease. therefore anticoagulant is ACD or heparin. — with
Immune reaction against intestinal bacteria. Kelly Kinyoun and 49 others.
1028. POLARIZING MICROSCOPY: Polarized light is 1031. ALLELE - one of two or more different genes
obtained by using TWO POLARIZING FILTERS. The light that may occupy a specific locus on a chromosome.
emerging from one filter vibrates in one plane, and 1032. ANTITHETICAL - referring to antigens that are
a second filter placed at a 90-degree angle blocks the product of allelic genes (e.g., Kell [K] and
all incoming light, except that rotated by the Cellano [k]).
birefringent substance. 1033. Amorph - gene that does not appear to produce
1029. TISSUE BLOCK, FIXATION a detectable antigen; a silent gene, such as Jk, Lu,
Electron microscopy: 1 to 2 sq. mm. O.
Light microscopy: 2 sq.cm (2 cm x 1 cm) x 0.4 cm 1034. Recessive - type of gene that, in the presence
(thickness or thinness) of its dominant allele, does not express itself;
expression occurs when it is inherited in the 1047. ICTERUS - condition characterized by yellowish
homozygous state. skin, whites of the eyes, mucous membranes, and body
1035. Dominant - trait or characteristic that will fluids caused by increased circulating bilirubin
be expressed in the offspring even though it is resulting from excessive hemolysis or from liver
carried on only one of the homologous chromosomes. damage due to hepatitis. Synonym is jaundice.
1036. Codominant - pair of genes in which neither is 1048. KERNICTERUS - form of icterus neonatorum
dominant over the other—that is, they are both occurring in infants, developing at 2 to 8 days of
expressed. life; prognosis poor if untreated. This condition is
1037. Phenotype - OUTWARD EXPRESSION OF GENES (e.g., due to an increase in unconjugated bilirubin.
a blood type). On blood cells, serologically 1049. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE - can result from a
demonstrable antigens constitute the phenotype, deficiency of an enzyme that transfers glucuronate
except those sugar sites that are determined by groups onto bilirubin or from liver immaturity; can
transferases. result in jaundice that occurs in some infants
1038. Genotype - individual’s actual genetic makeup. during the first few days of life; also called
1039. Adsorption - providing an antibody with its NEONATAL JAUNDICE.
corresponding antigen under optimal conditions so 1050. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE of the newborn is a
that the antibody will attach to the antigen, result of a deficiency in the enzyme glucuronyl
thereby removing the antibody from the serum; often transferase, one of the last liver functions to be
used interchangeably with absorption. activated in prenatal life since bilirubin
1040. Elution - process whereby cells that are processing is handled by the mother of the fetus.
coated with antibody are treated in such a manner as a. Kernicterus often results in cell damage and
to DISRUPT THE BONDS BETWEEN THE ANTIGEN AND death in the newborn, and this condition will
ANTIBODY. continue until glucuronyl transferase is produced.
1041. Bombay Phenotype - occurring in individuals b. Infants with this type of jaundice are usually
who possess normal A or B genes but are unable to treated with ultraviolet radiation to destroy the
express them because they lack the gene necessary bilirubin as it passes through the capillaries of
for production of H antigen, the required precursor the skin. In extreme cases, some infants require an
for A and B. These persons often have a potent anti- exchange transfusion.
H in their serum, which reacts with all cells except c. Because this condition is so serious, bilirubin
other Bombays. Also known as Oh. levels are carefully and frequently monitored so the
1042. The PARABOMBAY phenotypes are those rare dangerously high levels of unconjugated bilirubin
phenotypes in which the RBCs are completely devoid (approximately 20 mg/dL) can be detected and
of H antigens or have small amounts of H antigen treated.
present.54 RBCs of these individuals express weak
forms of A and B antigens, which are primarily
detected by adsorption and elution studies.
1043. Ficoll-Hypaque - density-gradient medium used
to separate and harvest specific white blood cells,
most commonly lymphocytes.
1044. LISS contains glycine or glucose in addition
to saline.
1045. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is a common drug used to
treat hypertensi on; frequently the cause of a
positive direct Coombs’ test result.
1046. RETICULOCYTE or the NEOCYTE (young RBCs).