Posted: Mon Jun 21, 2010 4:02 pm Post subject: DENTAL MCQS:

Previous year Paper

September 2004 Paper 1

MCQs
1. In the preparation of Premolar class I cavity what is the
best way of getting retention,
A. Slightly done undercut of the mesial and distal walls
B. Slightly done undercut of the buccal and lingual walls
C. The convergence of the cavity walls

2. In respect to Class V
A. it occurs on the buccal groove (fissure)
B. it occurs on the lingual groove (fissure)
C. it is a result of bad oral hygiene

3. After the placement of a class I amalgam the patient comes

back to you
complaining of pain on masticating and biting; what is the first
thing you would
look at,
A. Occlusal height
B. Contacts areas

4. Child comes to your clinic with a fractured incisor 3 mm

super-gingival, how would you treat the case,
A. Formocretasol pulpotomy
B. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy
C. Pulpectomy
D. Direct capping
E. Indirect capping

5. What is Ante’s Law about,

A. The relation between the span of the bridge and the poetics

B. The periodontal area of the abutment teeth

C. The relation between the length of the root and the
abutment.

6. What is the best way to cement Maryland bridge,

A. GIC
B. Resin
C. High compression restorative resin
D. Zinc Phosphate cement
E. Oxide Zinc and eugenol
7. The ideal length of core in the fabrication of crown and core
of endodontically treated tooth is,
A. 1.5 of crown length
B. The length of the crown
C. 2/3 tooth/root length
D. ½ root length

8. If aesthetic is not a concern what is the first thing to do to

treat soreness under dentures,
A. Take the denture off for a week
B. Rinse the denture in nystatin
C. Apply tissue conditioner

9. While you finishing a class I cavity, the enamel is sound but

you noticed in the dentine and on the Dento-enamel junction
a brown line, what is your response,
A. You leave it and complete the final restoration
B. You extend you preparation and clean it
C. You apply a cover of varnish

10. Dental caries of the proximal surfaces are usually start at,
A. Somewhere between the ridge and the contact area
B. Just gingival to contact areas
C. Just about the gingival margin

11. What is the property of high copper amalgam

A. Reduced physical creep
B. Higher retention

12. In regards to colours what is Chroma stands for,

A. Degree of saturation of hue
B. Brightness
C. Value
D. Contrast

13. Frankfort plane extends from,

A. horizontally from Sella to nasion
B. Sagittal from ….
C. Horizontally from point on superior aspect of external
auditory meatus to orbitale

14. Which of the following local anaesthetic is indicated in

case of the need to long acting one after a surgical operation,
A. Lidocaine
B. Mepivacaine
C. Bupivacaine (Marcaine)
15. In respect to Lidocaine 2% with 1:100000 vasoconstrictor,

A. The toxic threshold is 22ml

B. 8.8 ml is the maximum you can give in one session

16. Which one of this restorative method will be LEAST

compromised by a core,
A. Amalgam
B. Composite
C. GIC
D. Cast gold

17. In preparing a very small proximal amalgam cavity on a

molar tooth what would consider,
A. Extend the cavity to the gingival margin
B. Extend the cavity beyond the contacts areas
C. Achieve at least 2mm in dentine
D. Extend cavity just beyond dento enamel junction

18. What is true about partial dentures,

A. They cause an immediate changes in the oral plaque
behaviour
B. Night wearing of dentures reduces plaque accumulation
C. Relieving the gingival area reduces the gingival
enlargement.

19. The biting load of denture base to tissues compared to

teeth are,
A. Ten times more
B. Ten times less
C. Equal

20. Compound is,

A. Very accurate compression material
B. Thermoplastic material

21. the different between normal stone and the dye stone is,
A. In the particles size
B. The amount of water

22. What sort of reaction happens in the GIC restorations,

A. Acid Base reaction

23. A patient comes to you with medium pain of tooth filled

with Composite resin as a result of cold or hot drinks, what
your initial management will be,
A. Remove the restorative material and start an Endontic
treatment
B. Remove the restorative material and place a sedative
temporary material
C. Place a coat of bonding material on the old composite

24. Throbbing pain increases with heat and cold stimuli, the
MOST probable diagnosis is,
A. Cyst
B. Occlusal trauma
C. Advanced pulpitis

25. In making your custom trays which of the following is

true,
A. A uniform thickness is required
B. Perforation is better
C. Only adhesive is better than perforation

26. The beam that leaves the target is called,

A. The primary X-ray
B. The electrons
C. The secondary rays
D. X-rays photons

27. The most common cause of caries in children is,

A. Soft diet
B. High intake of carbohydrate
C. Poor oral hygiene

28. The best storage media for avulsed tooth is,

A. Saline
B. Milk
C. Water
D. Saliva

29. An occlusal approaching clasp TIP,

A. Should occupy a predetermined undercut
B. Contact the tooth under the survey line
C. Rigid

30. In the construction of partial denture the surveyor is not

used to,
A. Contour the wax as part of the fabrication of the working
cast
B. Locate the guide planes
C. Determine the location of indirect retainers
D. Identify any undesirable undercuts
31. The advantage of the silicone in soft relining material over
….. rubber is,
A. Retains high flow
B. Prevents the colonization of Candida albicans
C. Resilient in long run
D. Better bond strength

32. The main purpose of finishing the enamel walls is,

A. Remove loose enamel rods
B. Provide a better surface for the adoption of restorative
material

33. A female patient comes to you complaining of persistent

pain in heavily
restored central incisor; you suspect pulpitis and you have
been told that she
is in transit leaving by plane next day. Your treatment will be,
A. Remove filling and place a sedative dressings
B. Pulp extirpation and obturate with Ledermix dressings
C. Prescribe analgesics and systemic antibiotic

34. which of the following is true regarding TMJ dysfunction,

A. It is always due to arthritis, should be treated with NSAIDS
before attempting surgery
B. Raising bite increases the space in the joint and should be
attempted before surgery
C. It is mostly due to the medial movement of the condylar
head over the glenoid fossa

35. the location of Class V is in,

A. The buccal pit /fissure/
B. The occlusal surface
C. The cervical third

36. Occlusal cavity with extension of the buccal fissure is

classified as,
A. Class II
B. Class III
C. Class I

37. Which of the following does not affect the elasticity of

retentive clasp?
A. Length of the arm
B. The cross section shape
C. The material used
D. The undercut area
38. Following calcium hydroxide pulpotomy, the dentist would
expect dentine bridge to form at,
A. The exact level of amputation
B. Level some where below the amputation
C. Half way between amputation and apex
D. At the apical region of the tooth

39. In the construction of a full veneer gold crown, future

recession of gingival tissue can be prevented or at least
minimised by,
A. Extension of the crown 1 mm under the gingival crevice
B. Reproduction of normal tooth incline in the gingival one
third of the crown
C. Slight over contouring of the tooth in the gingival one fifth
of the crown
D. Slight under contouring of the tooth in the gingival one fifth
of the crown

40. A partial denture that seats on the master cast but fails to
seat correctly in the mouth is a result of,
A. Contraction of the metal framework during casting
B. Insufficient expansion of the investment material
C. Distortion of impression
D. Failure to block out unwanted undercuts

41. Which of the following muscles may affect the borders of

mandibular complete denture?
A. Mentalis
B. Lateral pterygoid
C. Orbicularis oris
D. Levator oris
E. Temporalis

42. Jaw relations for edentulous patient have been

established. The maxillary cast
has been mounted on the articulator without face-bow and
you decided to
increase the occlusal vertical dimension by 4 mm. this will
necessitate,
A. Opening the articulator 4 mm
B. A new centric relation record
C. Changes in the condylar guide settings
D. Increase in the vertical dimension

43. What is correct in regards to high copper amalgam,

A. Reacts and strengthens the amalgam by its dispersion
properties
B. Reacts to form copper-tin phase thereby eliminating the
tin-mercury phase
C. Reacts to form copper-silver phase thereby eliminating the
silver mercury phase
D. Reacts and strengthens the amalgam by its grain diffusion

44. What is the best way to get optimum adoption of ceramic

to metal,
A. Slow firing
B. High compression

45. What is the main purpose of using corticosteroids in pulpal

obturation material?
A. For their antibiotic action
B. For their antiinflammatory action
C. To relief pulp pressure

46. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding

Smoker’s Keratosis?
A. Typically affects the hard palate
B. Minor mucous glands are swollen with red orifices
C. There is a little regression if smoking is stopped

September 2004 Paper 2

MCQs
1. The blood supply to the denture bearing areas of the
maxilla
A. Superior Maxillary artery
B. Grand/greater palatine artery

2. What could be MOST cariogenic,

A. Consuming a lot of carbohydrate with meals
B. Consuming a lot of elective sweets during meals
C. Excessive consumption of sugar soft drinks all day
D. Consumption of elective sweets between meals

3. 13 years old boy comes to you with excessive hyperplasia

of the gingiva as a result of Phenytoin what is your
management,
A. Stop the medication
B. Force a strict oral hygiene and surgical removal of excess
gingival tissues
C. Debridement and conservative approach

4. During swallowing, a) suprahyoid muscles relax b)

masseter contract c) tongue touches the palate
A. a and b
B. a and c
C. b and c
D. none of the above
E. all of the above

5. White man 56 years old comes to you with a brown spot on

his gingiva and
another one on his oral mucosa, when taking the history he
mentioned a weight
and memory lost. He as well complains of headaches. What is
your most
probable diagnosis,
A. Addison’s disease
B. Hyperthyroidism

6. While removing the second primary molar of 9 years old

child, the apical ¼ of the root fracture and stay in the socket,
A. You will just leave it and observe it
B. You take surgically by a lingual flap
C. You try to take out by using a root apex elevator
D. You use a fine end forceps to take it out

7. Subgingival plaque changes from,

A. gram positive to gram negative
B. gram negative to gram positive

8. What is the most important factor to reduces dental

irradiation,
A. Speed of film

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niharika Posted: Mon Jun 21, 2010 4:10 pm Post subject:

AIPPG
Experienced
1)tympanoplasty is an operation aimed at:
Senior a)correction of hearing in porceptive deafness
Member
b)eradication of infection & correction of hearing
c)drainage of mastoid abcess
Joined: 22
d)correction of hearing in otosclerosis
Jan 2003
Posts: 917
Location:
2)surgical emphysema after trachestomy is corrected by:
Goin To US!
29672 a)taking more stitches of the wound
b)cold compresses
Credits
c)widening of the wound by removal of some stitches
d)antihistaminic intake

3)commonest cause of septal perforation is:

a)trauma
b)syphilis
c)lupus
d)blood disease

4)stapedectomy is the operation of choice for:

a)otosclerosis
b)bell's palsy
c)meniere's disease
d)cholesteatoma

5)saddle nose may be due to the following except:

a)overresection of septal cartilage
b)nasal trauma
c)septal abcess
d)rhinosceleroma

6)the best treatment of mild epistaxis from little s area is:

a)anterior nasal pack
b)cautery of the bleeding point
c)posterior nasal pack
d)blood transfusion

7)referred otalgia may be due to the following except:

a)acute suppurative otitis media
b)quinsy
c)dental infection
d)maxillary sinusitis

8 ) a 3 years old boy complained of suuden acute respiratory distress, with spasmodic
cough, cyanosis & acting accessory respiratory muscles is most probably due to :
a)acute follicular tonsillitis
b)foreign body inhalation
c)adenoid hypertrophy
d)vocal cord nodule

9)proptosis may be due to the following except:

a)frontoethmoidecele
b)osteomata of the frontoethmoid
c)antrochoanal polyp
d)nasopharyngeal fibroma

10)the most serious complication after tonsillectomy:

a)respiratory obstruction
b)reactionary haemorrhage
c)incomplete removal
d)infection

11)otoscopic manifestation of chronic secretory otitis media may include the following
except:
a)perforation at pars flaceida
b)transverse handle of malleous
c)absent cone of light
d)air bubbles behind the tympanic membrane

12)tonsillectomy is absolutely contraindicated in:

a)chronic tonsillitis
b)quinsy
c)haemophilia
d)below five years

13)a newly born infant with respiratory distress & different feeding is more likely to be due
to:
a)laryngeal web at the anterior half of vocal cords
b)bilateral posterior choanal atresia
c)congenital subglottic stenosis
d)congenital meatal atresia

14)unilateral offensive blood tinged purulent rhinorrhea in a 3 years old is more likely due
to:
a)rhinosceleroma
b)lupus
c)foreign body
d)adenoid

15)the following are manifestations of meinere's disease except :

a)vertigo
b)posterior reservoir sign
c)sensory hearing loss
d)tinnitus

16)examination of the chest is more important in :

a)fixed right vocal cord
b)fixed left vocal cord
c)singer's nodules
d)laryngemalacia

17)manifestations of otogenic facial nerve paralysis may include the following except:
a)deviation of
the mouth to the same side of lesion
b)inability to show the teeth on whistle
c) inability to close the eye
d)inability to raise the eyebrow

18 )conservative septoplasty is:

a)surgical correction of deviated septum above 17 years b)surgical correction of deviated
septum below 17 years c) closed reduction of fractured septum by ash's forceps

19)a 20 years old man c/o fever & increasing sore throat with drippling of saliva &trismus
for only 2 days on examination( the right tonsil pushed medially & forward ) no response to
antibiotics ..rapid relief can be obtained by : a)short course of radiotherapy
b)assurance & rest
c)antidephtheric serum
d)incision & drainage

20)the most common cause of conductive deafness is:

a)otosclerosis
b)secretory otitis media
c)congenital ossicular fixation
d)collection of wax

21)anosmia may be caused by:

a)peripheral neuritis
b)nasal obstruction
c)atrophic rhinitis
d)all of the above

22)posterior nasal pack may be used in :

a)nasopharyngeal carcinoma
b)epistaxis from little's area
c)CSF rhinorrhea
d)post_ adenoidectomy bleeding

23)ottitic barotraumas is charactarised by:

a)attic perforation
b)middle ear effusion
c)mucopurulant discharge
d)central drum perforation

24)otosclerosis mean:
a)congenital fixation of incus
b)fixation of stapes by fibrous tissue
c)ossicular disruption
d)none of the above

25)all of the followings are absoulute contraindications for tonsillectomy except:

a)rheumatic fever
b)heamophilia
c)advanced renal disease

26)unilateral clear watery nasal discharge reducing fehling's solution is suggestive of:
a)CSF rhinirrhea
b)allergic rhinitis
c)viral rhinitis
d)nasal dipheteria

27)the most common cause of oroantral fistula is:

a)acute sinusitis
b)car accident
c)dental extraction of upper second premolar tooth
d)radical antrum operation

28)ear wash is indicated in the following conditions except:

a)wax
b)otomycosis
c)impacted F.B in the ear
d)caloric test

29)post-tonsillectomy otalgia is mediated through:

a)vagus nerve
b)glossolaryngeal nerve
c)trigeminal nerve
d)second & third cervical nerve

30)nasopharyngeal carcinoma is managed by:

a)surgical resection
b)surgical resection followed by radiotherapy
c)radiotherapy

31)trotter's triad include the followings except:a)otalg ia

b)epistaxis
c)deafness
d)deviation of the septum

32)the medial wall of the middle ear shows all the following anatomical features except:
a)eustichian tube orifice
b)horizontal part of facial nerve
c)promontory
d)oval & round windows

33)the most common cause for posterior septal perforation is:a)T B

b)syphilis
c)leprosy
d)scleroma
34)moure's sign is:
a)presence of laryngeal click
b)absence of laryngeal click
c)external neck swelling
d)internal pharyngeal swelling

35)sridor is characteristic feature of the following diseases except:

a)laryngeal dipheteria
b)angioneurtic edema
c)adenoid hypertrophy
d)bilateral abductor vocal cord paralysis

36)laryngeomalicia is a disease due to:

a)voice abuse
b)soft larynx
c)vocal cord nodule
d)acute laryngitis

37)achalasia of the cardia is charactarised by the followings except:

a)dysphagia is more marked for solids than fluids
b)dysphagia is more marked for fluid than solids
c)treated by cardiotomy
d)regurgition of undigested food

38)subglottic stenosis may be caused by all the followings except:

a) laryngeoscleroma
b) high trachestomy
c)post traumatic
d)unilateral recurrent laryngeal N paralysis

39)quinsy is due to:

a)blood disease
b)peritonsillar infection
c)pharyngoscleroma
d)retropharyngeal suupuration

40)retracted tympanic membrane is characterized by the following except:

a)prominent lateral process of malleus
b)fragmentation of cone of light
c)hyper mobility of tympanic membrane
d)accentuation of malleolar folds

41)the following symptoms are true of primary atrophic rhinitis except:

a)bad odour felt by the patient
b) bad odour felt by others
c)epistaxis
d)sense of nasal obstruction

42)sever headache, vomiting, dysphagia ,&visual field defects in a patien with

cholesteatoma indicate:
a)secretory otitis media
b)otogenic facial paralysis
c)distant metastasis
d)temporal lobe abcess

43)unilateral malignant tumor of the vocal cord with subglottis ectension & lymph node
metastasis
is best treated by: a)unilateral cordectomy
b)total laryngectomy with neck dissection
c)cheomotherapy
d)tracheostomy only

44)the commenst presentation of laryngeascleroma is:

a)vocal cord paralysis
b)stridor & hoarsness
c)pain & night sweating
d)metastatic lymph node

45)the commenst nasal polyps are: a)ethmoidal polyp

b)antrochoanal polyps
c)bleeding polyp
d)inverted papilloma

46)ludwig's angina is manifested by:

a)unilateral submandibular swellings
b)parotid abcess
c)parapharyngeal abcess
d)sublingual & submental cellulites

47)forign body nose in a child is better extracted:

a)under local anaethesia
b)under spinal anaethesia
c)without anaeathesia
d)under general anaethesia

48)the following are possible complications of ear wash except:

a)perforation of the tympanic
membrane
b)paralysis of facial nerve
c)caloric reaction
d)syncope

49)suppurative labyrinthitis may complicate:

a)salicylate toxicity
b)streptomycin toxicity
c)cholesteatoma
d)otomycosis

50)the followings are common symptoms of nasopharyngeaol carcinoma except:

a)nasal obstruction
b)cranial nerve paralysis
c)recurrent sever epistaxis
d)a mass in the neck

answers
1) b
2) c
3) a
4) a
5) d
6) b
7) a
8)b
9) c
10) a
11) a
12) c
13) b
14) c
15) b
16) b
17) a
18 ) b
19) d
20) d
21) c
22) d
23) b
24) b
25) a
26) a
27) c
28 ) c
29) b
30) c
31) b
32) a
33) b
34) b
35) c
36) b
37) a
38 ) d
39) b
40) c
41) a
42) d
43) b
44) b
45) a
46) d
47) d
48 ) b
49) c
50) c

_________________
Niharika here....