SSC Stenographer 8th Feb 2019 Shift-II

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 Reasoning
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 1

Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose
the odd one.

A Festoon

B Garnish

C Adorn

D Demolish

Answer: D

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Question 2

Find the unlike pair of words

A tomcat : queen cat

B chick : hen

C ant : queen ant

D stag : doe

Answer: B

Question 3

In a distinct code language ATISH is written as AHIST and MAHEK is written as AEHKM. In that language,
how will NARGIS be written ?

A ANIGRS

B ANGIRS

C AGINRS

D AGNIRS

Answer: C

Question 4

A, B, C, D, E,F, G and H are sitting in a circle in the same order for lunch at equal distances. Their
positions are clockwise. If C is sitting in the cast, then what is be the position of G?

A South-east

B West

C North-east

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D East

Answer: B

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Question 5

Find the odd letter.

A N

B I

C B

D P

Answer: B

Question 6

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the
first term.
Humble : Courteous :: Destitute : ?

A Poor

B Sufficient

C Well off

D Rich

Answer: A

Question 7

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the
first term.
EK : MS :: AG : ?

A IO

B IJ

C IM

D JP

Answer: A

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Question 8

Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
43, 48, 58, 73, ...........

A 83

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B 78

C 88

D 93

Answer: D

Question 9

Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
GJM, KLN, ONO, ..........

A SRS

B SOP

C SPP

D SQQ

Answer: C

Question 10

Select the term that is related to third term in the same way as second term is related to first term.
17 : 306 : : 13 : ?

A 275

B 182

C 144

D 169

Answer: B

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Question 11

Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series would complete
it?
ybb _ byy _ y _ byb _ yby

A yybb

B ybby

C ccyc

D ybyb

Answer: B

Question 12

Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
16, 15, 12, 7,.......

A 0

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B -2

C 1

D 2

Answer: A

Question 13

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the
first term.
3 : 90, 5 : 130 ::7: ....., 9 : 738

A 2540

B 2450

C 2504

D 2405

Answer: B

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Question 14

In a code language. DRONE is written as WILMV How will DONKEY be written in that code language?

A WLPVMB

B WLVMPB

C WLPMVB

D WLMPVB

Answer: D

Question 15

Choose the alternative which most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word when mirror is
placed at XY line.

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B

Answer: D

Question 16

Six friends - A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a circle facing center. F is sitting immediate left of A and B is
sitting opposite to E. A and D is sitting opposite to each other. Who is sitting opposite to F?

A A

B E

C C

D F

Answer: C

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Question 17

Find out the two signs to be interchanged for making following equation correct.
18 − 2 × 7 ÷ 6 + 10 = 67

A − and ÷

B × and ÷

C + and ×

D + and −
Answer: A

Question 18

Select the option that will fill in the blank and complete the given series.
ZCC, XEE, VGG, ...., RKK

A TII

B RGG

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C SII

D SGG

Answer: A

Question 19

Rahman went from his office to the district headquarters. He started his journey facing West. First, he
went 20 km straight; then he turned to his left and went 9 km; finally, he turned right and went 20 km to
reach the district headquarters.
What is the shortest distance between Ftahman's office and the district headquarters?

A 24.5 km

B 49 km

C 41 km

D 34.5 km

Answer: C

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Question 20

Select the option that will come next in the given series.

Answer: A

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Question 21

In a morning after sunrise, a boy rode his bicycle 4 km towards West. Then he took right turn and rode 6
km then he took right turn and rode 6 km to reach his school. In which direction the School is form the
starling point?

A North-West

B North-East

C South-East

D South-West

Answer: B

Question 22

Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to the
second term.
Kind : Altruistic :: ? : Lamenting

A Anger

B Sad

C Truth

D Joy

Answer: B

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Question 23

Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner. while one is different. Choose
the odd one.

A Gold

B Platinum

C Silver

D Ruby

Answer: D

Question 24

Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
AKT, BLU, CMV, DNW, ......

A FOY

B FOX

C EOY

D EOX

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 Answer: D

Question 25

Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes.
Ostriches, Snakes, Frogs

Answer: D

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Question 26

If '+' is '×', '−' is '+', '×' is '÷' and ' ÷' is '−',then what will be the value of the following expression?
2 1 3
6+ 3 − 2 ÷ 4 ×9

35
A 21

53
B 12

35
C 12

53
D 21

Answer: B

Question 27

Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose
the odd one.

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A Temple

B House

C Park

D School

Answer: B

Question 28

Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
6, 11, 20, 45, 134, .......

A 497

B 749

C 479

D 794

Answer: C

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Question 29

Choose the odd number pair.

A 32 : 19

B 43 : 95

C 21 : 51

D 58 : 26

Answer: D

Question 30

If '÷' means ' +', '−' means ' ÷', '×' means ' −', and '+' mean ' ×' then find the value of
24−8÷6+4×7
8+3×19

A 5

B 1

C 4

D 7

Answer: C

Question 31

Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
4, 5, 14, 39, 88, 169, .........

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A 209

B 200

C 290

D 299

Answer: C

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Question 32

Choose the odd number pair.

A 2564 : 21

B 3797 : 42

C 1479 : 83

D 4632 : 23

Answer: D

Question 33

Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner. while one is different. Choose
the odd one.

A Scurvy

B Rickets

C Phosphorus

D Goitre

Answer: C

Question 34

Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
16, 2, 15, 4, 13, 7, 10, 11, 6, .........

A 17

B 14

C 15

D 16

Answer: D

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Question 35

In a code language. SWEET is written as RXDFS. and PLATE is written as OMZUD. How will TRAIN. be
written in that code language?

A USBJO

B UQBHO

C SSZJM

D SQZHM

Answer: C

Question 36

Select a flame from amongst the four alternatives; which when placed in the blank space (?) of figure
would complete the pattern (rotation is NOT allowed).

Answer: B

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Question 37

The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in
the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which
conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements.
Statements:

All books are grapes.

Some grapes are fruits.
Conclusions:
I. No grape is a book.
II. Some grapes are books.

A Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.

B Only conclusion II follows.

C Only conclusion I follows.

D Both conclusions I and II follow.

Answer: B

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Question 38

Choose the odd number pair.

A 123 : 49

B 912: 144

C 324 : 100

D 813 : 169

Answer: B

Question 39

Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
BPCW, DPEW, FPGW, ........., JPKW

A IPHW

B HPIW

C HPJW

D IPJW

Answer: B

Question 40

Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes.
Social Science, Psychology, Sociology

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A

Answer: B

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Question 41

In a class, five children wrote aptitude test.

In the result report, it was noted that the child A got less marks than the child B. The child C got less
marks than the child D. The child B is got less mark than the child C and child A got more marks than the
child E. which child got the second highest marks?

A D

B B

C C

D A

Answer: C

Question 42

Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
22, 4, 16, 24, 6, 36, 26, 8, 64, 28, 10, ......

A 3

B 100

C 30

D 9

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 Answer: B

Question 43

Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
3, 7, 11, 15, .....

A 19

B 18

C 21

D 23

Answer: A

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Question 44

Kedar starts from his house and travels 25 km towards the south by bicycle and reaches the bus stand.
Then he takes a left turn and travels 15 km, take takes a left turn again and travels 25 km more. How far
is he from his original position?

A 10 km

B 15 km

C 25 km

D 20 km

Answer: B

Question 45

Select the option that will come next in the given series.

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C

Answer: C

Question 46

The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in
the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which
conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements.
Statements:
All whites are pink.
All greens are pink.
Conclusion:
I. Some pinks are green.
II. Some pinks are white.

A Only conclusion I follows.

B Only conclusion II follows.

C Both conclusions follow.

D Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.

Answer: C

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Question 47

Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
JBKA, LBMA, NBOA, ........

A PQBA

B PBQA

C PABQ

D PAQB

Answer: B

Question 48

If moon is called sea, sea is called water, water is called air, air is called sun and sun is called river, then
what gives us light and heat?

A Sun

B Water

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C River

D Sea

Answer: C

Question 49

Out of the given four words, three words are similar in some way whereas one word is different. Choose
the different word.

A Hole : Driller

B Cut : Knife

C Photo : Frame

D Paint : Brush

Answer: C

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Question 50

Choose the alternative which most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word when mirror is
placed at XY line.

Answer: A

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General knowledge
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 51

The folk dance LAVANI is associated with the state of ........

A Gujarat

B Maharashtra

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C Madhya Pradesh

D Rajasthan

Answer: B

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Question 52

Thar desert is also known as ...........

A Great desert of South Asia

B The great Indian desert

C Desert of Asia

D Desert of the East

Answer: B

Question 53

Most rivers in India pour their water into the .........

A Indian Ocean

B Bay of Bengal

C Lakshadweep Sea

D Arabian Sea

Answer: B

Question 54

Who was Dantidurga?

A Travancore chief

B Mysore chief

C Rashtrakuta chief

D Malabar chief

Answer: C

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Question 55

Which Governor General decided that Bahadur Shah Zafar would be the last Mughal king and after his
death, none of the descendants would be recognized as kings?

A Irvin

B Hastings

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C George

D Canning

Answer: D

Question 56

In which year was the first battle of Tarain fought?

A 1100

B 1291

C 1391

D 1191

Answer: D

Question 57

Hand gestures used in Indian classical dances are called .........

A Mudra

B Karah

C Padah

D Vadanam

Answer: A

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Question 58

Pedapalli district, which is ranked as the third cleanest district in India as per Swachh Survekshan
Grameen 2018, is in which State?

A Sikkim

B Manipur

C Telangana

D Karnataka

Answer: C

Question 59

The first shooter from India to claim a gold medal at the Youth Olympic Games is ........

A Rahi Sarnobat

B Manu Bhaker

C Jitu Rai

D Sanjeev Rajput

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 Answer: B

Question 60

Awarded with the Tagore Award for cultural harmony in 2016, Ram Vanji Suthar is a famous ______

A Musician

B Dancer

C Sculptor

D Painter

Answer: C

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Question 61

The ......... Constitution is the longest in the world.

A American

B Indian

C Canada

D New Zealand

Answer: B

Question 62

As per the ranking undertaken by Swachh Survekshan Grameen 2018, which district is the second
cleanest in India?

A Dehradun

B Agra

C Rewari

D Cochin

Answer: C

Question 63

As on 2018 which is the longest river bridge in India?

A Dunila-Solahpur

B Godavari Sethu

C Diga- Sonpur

D Dhola- Sadiya

Answer: D

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Question 64

In 2018, who received the prestigious Hridaynath award for Life time achievement?

A Asha Bhonsle

B K J Yesudas

C K S Chitra

D Mohammed Zahur Khayyam

Answer: D

Question 65

Name the National park in which 23 lions reportedly died in 2018?

A Jim Corbett National Park

B Ranthampore National Park

C Gir Sanctuary

D Kanha National Park

Answer: C

Question 66

Who developed the binomial nomenclature for living organisms?

A Alexander

B Carlson

C Flemming

D Carolus Linnaeus

Answer: D

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Question 67

Who was the captain of India's first World Cup winning cricket team?

A Lala Amarnath

B Kapil Dev

C Mansoor Ali Khan Pataudi

D MS Dhoni

Answer: B

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Question 68

Who among the following is Justice Dipak Misra's successor as the Chief Justice of India?

A Venugopal

B Ranjan Gogoi

C Chelameswar

D Manjula

Answer: B

Question 69

Which of the following is not a kingdom of living organisms?

A Albumina

B Monera

C Fungi

D Protista

Answer: A

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Question 70

Latent heat of vaporization of steam is ............

A 423 cat/g

B 267 cal/g

C 324 cal/g

D 540 cal/g

Answer: D

Question 71

Which of the following represents the reproductive part of a plant?

A Twig

B Flower

C Scales

D Wood

Answer: B

Question 72

How many gold medals did India win at the 18th Asian games in Jakarta?

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A 11

B 15

C 9

D 7

Answer: B

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Question 73

What is India's fiscal deficit target, as a percentage of GDP, for the financial year 2018-19?

A 3.1 per cent

B 3.0 per cent

C 3.2 per cent

D 3.3 per cent

Answer: D

Question 74

The heat energy absorbed or released at constant temperature per unit mass for change of state is called
by what name?

A Forced heat

B Latent heat

C Sublime heat

D Vapour heat

Answer: B

Question 75

Among the following kings, who performed Hiranya-garbha?

A Marthanda Varma

B Raja Ravi Varma

C Dantidurga

D Parashurama

Answer: C

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Question 76

Who is the Governor of Andhra Pradesh as on January 2019?

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 Kummanam Rajasekharan
A

B E S Lakshmi Narasimhan

C Thambidurai

D Oomen Chandy

Answer: B

Question 77

Who is the President of NASSCOM?

A Debjani Ghosh

B Indra Nooyi

C Ravi Jain

D Kumar Manglam Birla

Answer: A

Question 78

Other than India. how many other countries are associated with Chabahar port project?

A 5

B 3

C 2

D 4

Answer: C

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Question 79

Mr. Kummanam Rajasekharan is the Governor of which State as on January 2019?

A Manipur

B Kerala

C Bihar

D Mizoram

Answer: D

Question 80

Who designed the Statue of Unity in Gujarat?

A Jakanachari

B V Balan

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C Ram Vanji Sutar

D Sankho Chaudhri

Answer: C

Question 81

Water freezes at ......

A -1°C

B 10°C

C 1°C

D 0°C

Answer: D

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Question 82

Which city was excavated in 1922 in Larkana district on the banks of Indus?

A Mohanjodaro

B Dhanushkodi

C Kanchi

D Harappa

Answer: A

Question 83

Who is known as the Father of Zoology?

A Aristotle

B Socrates

C Plato

D Alexander Flemming

Answer: A

Question 84

Name the device that measures the distance travelled by a vehicle.

A Odometer

B Ammeter

C Barometer

D Spinometer

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 Answer: A

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Question 85

Which state of India has the highest per capita income?

A Haryana

B Arunachal Pradesh

C Maharashtra

D Goa

Answer: D

Question 86

Which of the following is not a stringed musical instrument ?

A Veena

B Sitar

C Tamboura

D Tabor/Drum

Answer: D

Question 87

Latent heat of fusion of ice is ..........

A 65 cal/g

B 54 cal/g

C 12 cal/g

D 80 cal/g

Answer: D

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Question 88

A massive temple, dedicated to the Sun God is situated in .........

A Karnataka

B Odisha

C Gujarat

D Madhya Pradesh

Answer: B

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Question 89

What is the full form of PMFBY?

A Pradhan Mantri Fasal BimaYojana

B Prime Minister's Fast Benefit Yojana

C Prime Minister's Food and Beverages Scheme

D Pradhan Mantri Fukhri Bhavishya Yojna

Answer: A

Question 90

The Government of India has set the target of doubling farmers' income by which of the following years?

A 2013

B 2022

C 2020

D 2021

Answer: B

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Question 91

With which doubles partner Leander Paes has won Santo Domingo open trophy in 2018?

A Martina Hingis

B Sania Mirza

C Miguel Angel Rayyes Varela

D Rohan Boppana

Answer: C

Question 92

Which of the following techniques is not relevant in the context of determining the age of earth, minerals
and rocks?

A Uranium Lead dating

B Radiocarbon dating

C Potassium Argon Dating

D Digging

Answer: D

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Question 93

In which place was the 32nd edition of India-Indonesia coordinated patrol held?

A Belawan

B Dehradun

C Pataya

D New Delhi

Answer: A

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Question 94

What is the period in which Khasi Uprising occurred?

A 1876-1891

B 1891-1896

C 1911-1915

D 1829-1833

Answer: D

Question 95

.......... is the harvest festival of South India.

A Diwali

B Thrissur Pooram

C Hampi

D Pongal

Answer: D

Question 96

Which of the following rivers does not drain into the Arabian Sea?

A Tapi

B Godavari

C Narmada

D Indus

Answer: B

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Question 97

In 2018, ESIC received ISSA Good Practice Award. ISSA was founded in 1927 under the auspices of
...........

A World Bank

B Indian Labour Organization

C International Labour Organization

D CII

Answer: C

Question 98

In India. the President holds office for a period of ........

A 7 years

B 5 years

C 6 years

D 4 years

Answer: B

Question 99

What is the total number of votes secured by Harivansh Narayan Singh in the 2018 Deputy chairman
Rajya Sabha election?

A 125

B 176

C 146

D 159

Answer: A

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Question 100

Indira Point was formerly known as ............

A Barsaat Point

B Pyramidal point

C Python Point

D pyamalion Point

Answer: D

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 Download SSC General Knowledge PDF

English
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 101

Select the correct direct form of the given sentence.

The weatherman said that rain is expected the next day.

A The weatherman said, "Rain is expected the next day."

B The weatherman said. "Rain can be expected tomorrow."

C The weatherman said, "Rain was expected tomorrow."

D The weatherman said, "Rain is expected tomorrow."

Answer: D

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Question 102

Given below are four sentences, three of which, are jumbled. Pick the option that gives the correct order.
A. The clock struck quarter past nine as Mamta hurried into the big block of offices.
B. She resolved to leave home earlier from the next day.
C. So she was a few minutes late on the first day of her job.
D. The bus had crawled through the dense traffic.

A ACDB

B ABDC

C ABCD

D ADCB

Answer: D

Question 103

Select the correct direct form of the given sentence.

My fiends told me that they would go home for Pongal the following Sunday.

A My friend said to me, "We will go home for Pongal the coming Sunday."

B My friend said, "We go home for Pongal the coming Sunday."

C My friend told me, "We are going home for Pongal the coming Sunday."

D My friend said, "We would go home for Pongal next Sunday."

Answer: A

Question 104

Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.

Mary asked her husband, "Why have you been avoiding me since yesterday?"

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A Mary wanted to know from her husband the reason he is avoiding her since the previous day.

B Mary questioned her husband as to why he has been avoiding her since the previous day.

C Mary wanted to know from her husband as to why he had been avoiding her since the previous day.

D Mary asked her husband as to why he had been avoiding her since yesterday.

Answer: C

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Question 105

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

KNOWLEDGE

A illiteracy

B goodness

C ignorance

D eccentricity

Answer: C

Question 106

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.
Ever since Mary won the election, she has been behaving as if she was a queen.

A has been behaving

B since

C was

D the election

Answer: C

Question 107

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

DASHED

A weakened

B destroyed

C produced

D encouraged

Answer: D

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Question 108

Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom given below:

Do something at the drop of the hat

A do something without wearing a hat

B do something without having planned beforehand

C do something that requires great planning

D do something wearing a hat

Answer: B

Question 109

Select the correct direct form of the given sentence.

Maria complained that though there were many shopping centers in Dubai, they were all expensive.

A Maria said, "Though there are many shopping centers in Dubai, they are all expensive."

B Maria said, -There were many shopping centers in Dubai, but they are all expensive."

C Maria said, "There have been many shopping centers in Dubai, but they are expensive."

D Maria said, "The many shopping centers that are there in Dubai, but they are all expensive."

Answer: A

Question 110

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.
Raja was elected as Secretary of the Housing Society by members present and voting.

A as Secretary

B and voting

C was elected

D members present

Answer: B

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Instructions

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.

Two hundred years ago, the treadmill was invented in England as a prison rehabilitation device. It was meant to cause
the .........(1) to suffer and learn from their sweat. It would mill a bit of corn or ............(2) some water as a bonus.
William Cubitt, a civil engineer raised in a family of millwrights, created the treadmill—which was also called a
treadwheel in the early days—in 1818. Cubitt's early attempts at the treadmill's ............(3) took many forms, including
two wheels you walked on, whose cogs interlocked. But his most popular .............(4), which was installed at Brixton
Prison in London, ...........(5) a wide wheel. Prisoners pressed down with their feet on steps ...........(6) in the wheel,
which moved it, presenting them with the next step. The Brixton treadmill was hooked up to subterranean machinery
that ..............(7) corn. This treadmill could keep as many as 24 prisoners .............(8), standing side-by-side along the
wheel. Some devices at other prisons were smaller, and most treadmills soon ............(9) partitions, so convicts could
not socialize. They ............(10) for 10 hours a day in summer, and a mere seven in winter.

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Question 111

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 1.

A intimidated

B inculcated

C internalized

D incarcerated

Answer: D

Question 112

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 2.

A Pump

B Pipe

C Tap

D Save

Answer: A

Question 113

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 3.

A design

B decline

C proposal

D strategy

Answer: A

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Question 114

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 4.

A version

B hoax

C type

D process

Answer: A

Question 115

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 5.

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A absolved

B involved

C revolved

D evolved

Answer: B

Question 116

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 6.

A entrenched

B adorned

C embellished

D embedded

Answer: D

SSC CHSL Free Mock Test (Latest Pattern)

Question 117

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 7.

A grew

B planted

C packed

D ground

Answer: D

Question 118

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 8.

A Happy

B Busy

C Jailed

D Dormant

Answer: B

Question 119

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 9.

A resided

B examined

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C divided

D included

Answer: D

SSC Stenographer Previous Papers (Latest Pattern)

Question 120

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 10.

A slogged

B gagged

C dragged

D talked

Answer: A

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 121

Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom given below:

Take with a pinch of salt

A not believe completely something that you are told

B not eat something until you add salt to it

C completely disbelieve anything that you are told

D immediately accept something that is not salted

Answer: A

Question 122

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.
Lupin is one of the least important person in the opposition and can never hope to become a minister.

A in the opposition

B become

C least important person

D can never

Answer: C

SSC GD Constable Free Mock Test (Latest Pattern)

Question 123

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

ALTERATION

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A modification

B conciliation

C adjudication

D modulation

Answer: A

Question 124

Select the alternative that will improve the underlined part of the sentence; if no improvement is
required, select "No improvement".
I agreed to meet him at the cafeteria at 9.00.

A I agreed to have met him

B I agreed meeting him

C No improvement

D I agreed meet him

Answer: C

Question 125

Select the alternative that will improve the underlined part of the sentence; if no improvement is
required, select "No improvement".
I liked the violin but found it rather expensive to buy.

A found it somewhere expensive to buy

B No improvement

C found it so expensive to buy

D found it hardly expensive to buy

Answer: B

SSC MTS Free Mock Test (Latest Pattern)

Question 126

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

NUMEROUS

A scarce

B uncountable

C several

D occasional

Answer: A

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Question 127

Given below are four sentences, three of which, are jumbled. Pick the option that gives the correct order.
A. It is impossible to know all the rules of any language.
B. It takes both time and patience.
C. Advertisements that claim to teach a language in 60 days are all lies.
D. Learning a language is a life-long job.

A ADCB

B ABCD

C ACBD

D ADBC

Answer: D

Question 128

Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.

John said, "When I am bored, I cook."

A John said that when he is bored, he will cook.

B John said that when he was bored, he cooked.

C John says that when he is bored, he cooks.

D John said that when he cooked he was bored.

Answer: B

Current Affairs Questions & Answers (Download pdf)

Question 129

Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.

Computer networks can easily predict our on-line behavior.

A Our on-line behavior easily be predicted by computer networks.

B Our on-line behavior was easily predicted by computer networks.

C Our on-line behavior can easily be predicted by computer networks.

D Our on-line behavior can easily be predict by computer networks.

Answer: C

Question 130

Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.

The ideology of our time has embraced the idea of trying to hold things stable and static.

A The idea of trying to hold things stable and static will be embraced by the ideology of our time.

B The idea of flying to hold things stable and static have been embraced by the ideology of our time.

C The idea of trying to hold things stable and static has been embraced by the ideology of our time.

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D The idea of trying to hold things stable and static has embraced by the ideology of our time.

Answer: C

Question 131

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

DISPARATE

A collected

B calm

C indifferent

D similar

Answer: D

Daily & Monthly Current Affairs (Download pdf)

Question 132

Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.

He questions the ability of markets to survive without state intervention.

A The ability of markets to survive without state intervention questioned by him.

B The ability of markets to survive without state intervention is questioned by him.

C The ability of markets to survive without state intervention are questioned.

D The ability of markets to survive without state intervention was being questioned by him.

Answer: B

Question 133

Select the alternative that will improve the underlined part of the sentence; if no improvement is
required, select "No improvement".
She will say she has money to spare. What was the use of asking her?

A No improvement

B What is the use

C What must be the use

D What were the use

Answer: B

Question 134

Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.

Researchers have found that employees who have friends at the office are generally happier in their job.

A It was found by researchers that employees who have friends at the office are generally happier in their job.

B It could be found by researchers that employees who have friends at the office are generally happier in their job.

C It is being found by researchers that employees who have friends at the office are generally happier in their job.

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D It has been found by researchers that employees who have friends at the office are generally happier in their job.

Answer: D

SSC Stenographer Important Questions (Download PDF)

Question 135

Select the alternative that will improve the underlined part of the sentence; if no improvement is
required, select "No improvement".
"We need a cardigan. Are you able to knit?"

A No improvement

B Will you be able to knit?

C Are you knitting?

D Can you knit one?

Answer: D

Question 136

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.
The teacher had hardly left the room than the pupils started enjoying.

A The teacher

B had hardly left

C started enjoying.

D than

Answer: D

Question 137

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.
Baghdad remains a profoundly damaged place, and for all its newness, Dream City echo many of the
city's continuing issues.

A echo

B newness

C continuing issues

D a profoundly damaged

Answer: A

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Question 138

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Scientists have said that understanding past changes in ocean heat was ........ for predicting the future
impact of climate change.

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A cynical

B circular

C critical

D cyclical

Answer: C

Question 139

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.
Many a girl were influenced by the inspirational lecture given by the Nobel laureate.

A Nobel laureate

B inspirational lecture

C Many a girl

D were influenced

Answer: D

Question 140

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Napping can do as much to improve someone's ........... as a balanced diet and exercise can.

A deficiency

B knowledge

C familiarity

D efficiency

Answer: D

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Question 141

Select the alternative that will improve the underlined part of the sentence; if no improvement is
required, select "No improvement".
If you are ever in Chennai you come and see me.

A No improvement

B come see me.

C come and see me.

D you came and see me.

Answer: C

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Question 142

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.
The Life-cycle hypothesis holds that individuals seek to smooth consumption over the course of a lifetime
— borrowing in times of low-income and saving during period of high income.

A in times

B to smooth

C over the course

D period of

Answer: D

Question 143

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

PROHIBITION

A assertion

B exclusion

C decree

D declaration

Answer: B

SSC Stenographer Expected Cuttoff

Question 144

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.
Scientists have discovered a new tree frog species, with an extraordinary, enlarged claw-like structure
located at the base of the thumb, that live on a remote tabletop mountain in the Andes.

A with an extraordinary

B live on a remote tabletop mountain

C have discovered

D located at

Answer: B

Question 145

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The line between work and life is so ........ that for millennials, the idea of a work-life balance has never
been an aspiration, let alone a reality.

A blurred

B steamy

C ambiguous

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D cloudy

Answer: A

Question 146

Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom given below:

Barking up the wrong tree

A unable to guess the right type of tree

B chasing a false trail

C misunderstanding the origin of a problem

D creating a problem by teasing dogs

Answer: B

SSC Stenographer Syllabus PDF

Question 147

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.
A number of points of resemblance between the Australian and Dravidian languages is discovered,
despite the fact that the homes of the two races are so far apart.

A so far apart

B points of resemblance

C is discovered

D despite the fact

Answer: C

Question 148

Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.

Air travel can spread a pandemic worldwide within days.

A A pandemic shall be spread worldwide within days by air travel.

B A pandemic can be spread worldwide within days by air travel.

C A pandemic is spread worldwide within days by air travel.

D An air travel can be spread within days by worldwide pandemic.

Answer: B

Instructions

Read the following passage and answer the questions.

Passage:

As a toddler growing up in the 1950s. Richard Wawro threw violent tantnuns. Often, he would tap the same piano key
for long stretches of time. When he was three, his parents took him for testing at a nearby hospital. They were told
that he was moderately to severely retarded. His family, however, never believed that his IQ was as low as the experts
claimed. A special education teacher began working with Richard when he was six She introduced him to drawing with
crayons, which he took to quickly. He began filling sketchbooks (and the wallpaper of his Scotland home) with
startlingly accurate depictions of cartoon characters like Yogi Bear. When Richard was 12. his artwork astounded a

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visiting artist who said that his drawings were created "with the precision of a mechanic and the vision of a poet."
Richard could never read or write well. His speech remained limited. But his involvement with the art world spurred his
social development. He participated in dozens of exhibitions and became a well-known artist. His artwork was
celebrated by the media and in a documentary. "With Eyes Wide Open." Both Margaret Thatcher and Pope John Paul II
owned Wawro's oritaials.
Richard was a savant, an individual with a spike in a particular ability combined with an impairment or disability. In
Richard's case, that underlying condition was autism. Autism is a condition characterized by social and conununication
challenges, like difficulty making eye contact or making conversation, along with repetitive behaviors or intense
interests. It turns out that many savants have autism. But when the astounding abilities are there. they are often
rooted in extreme memory, excellent attention to detail and passionate interests — traits also linked to autism. In
many ways, prodigies look a lot like savants. They have the same preternatural abilities. They have the same prolific
output. But there's a key difference between the two. While in savants, these extreme abilities are paired with an
underlying impairment or disability, prodigies don't typically have any such disability. Even though prodigies are not
typically autistic, they have the same excellent memories, extreme attention to detail, and passionate interests linked
to autism and autistic savants.

Question 149

Which ONE of the options makes the meaning of `savant' as it emerges in the passage clear?

A an autistic who exhibits exceptional skill or brilliance in some limited field

B an autistic with preternatural abilities, exhibiting exceptional skill or brilliance in a special field

C an autistic who exhibits exceptional skill or iN brilliance in all fields

D a person of learning, especially one with detailed knowledge in some specialized field

Answer: B

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Question 150

Which ONE of the statements sums up what the passage is about?

The case of Richard, a savant, illustrates the discovery that the dividing line between a prodigy and a savant is
A
just the presence of a disability.

Kids with autism, if encouraged, could turn out to be a savant as they share a range of extraordinary abilities with
B
prodigies.

When the instance of an autistic is examined closely, it is found that some diagnosed as autistic might be a savant
C
with a 'spiked' extra-ordinary ability.

Rather than conclude that autistic patients have limited IQ, we must make the effort to discover the special ability
D
each autistic patient has.

Answer: B

Question 151

Which ONE of the statements given as options is TRUE?

A Some savants have some (or other) disabilities while all prodigies suffer none.

B All savants suffer from certain disabilities while all prodigies suffer from none.

C Some savants have no disabilities while some prodigies might suffer from a disability.

D All savants have no disabilities while all prodigies suffer from some (or other) disability.

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 Answer: B

Question 152

Which ONE of the following statements about Richard is FALSE?

A Richard was an illiterate.

B Richard was a renowned artist.

C Richard received special education.

D Richard was communicatively challenged.

Answer: A

SSC CHSL Previous Question papers (download pdf)

Question 153

Why does the author bring in the topic of prodigies in a discussion of autistic savants?

A Because it would reorient people who treat autisn with contempt

Because comparing abilities of both prodigies and autistic savants would help us appreciate the capabilities of the
B
latter.

C Because he sees the two as related to the same topic.

D Because their abilities are often rooted in extreme memory, excellent attention to detail and passionate interests

Answer: B

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 154

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Literature does not exist only to provoke feelings of happiness or to ......... us with its pleasure; it should
also challenge and perturb us.

A placate

B cloy

C trouble

D reconcile

Answer: A

Question 155

Select the correct direct form of the given sentence.

The students wanted to know whether they could postpone the test until Monday.

A "Shall we postpone the test until Monday?" the students asked.

B "Will we postpone the test to Monday?" the students protested.

C "Can we postpone the test until Monday?" the students asked.

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D "Could they postpone the test until Monday?" the students asked.

Answer: C

SSC CPO Previous Question papers (download pdf)

Question 156

Select the alternative that will improve the underlined part of the sentence; if no improvement is
required, select "No improvement".
If you don't like mathematics at school you don't like it at college too.

A you are not liking it at college too

B No improvement

C you haven't liked it at college too

D you may not like it at college too

Answer: D

Question 157

Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.

The bookie said, "Alas! I have lost all my fortune."

A The bookie accepted that he have lost all his fortune.

B The bookie said alas he had lost all his fortune.

C The bookie lamented that he had lost all his fortune.

D The bookie observed that he has lost all his fortune.

Answer: C

Question 158

Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.

Their emotionally intense collaboration maximized their creative potential.

A Their creative potential maximize their emotionally intense collaboration.

B Their creative potential is being maximized by their emotionally intense collaboration.

C Their creative potential was maximized by their emotionally intense collaboration.

D Their creative potential is maximizing by their emotionally intense collaboration.

Answer: C

SSC GD Previous Question papers (download pdf)

Question 159

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

COMPREHENSIVE

A enjoyable

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B enclosed

C restricted

D pleasant

Answer: C

Question 160

Select the alternative that will improve the underlined part of the sentence; if no improvement is
required, select "No improvement".
Denmark has been long celebrated as a land of law and order.

A has been all along celebrated

B No improvement

C has been far too long celebrated

D has been celebrating

Answer: B

Question 161

Select the correct direct form of the given sentence.

Standing in front of the Taj Mahal, Raju said that he had always wanted to see the Taj Mahal

A Standing in front of the Taj Mahal Raju wondered, "I have always wanted to see the Taj Mahal."

B Standing in front of the Taj Mahal Raju told me, "I have been always wanting to see the Taj Mahal."

C Standing in front of the Taj Mahal Raju said, "I have always wanted to see the Taj Mahal."

D Standing in front of the Taj Mahal Raju said, "I had want to see the Taj Mahal."

Answer: C

SSC MTS Previous Question papers (download pdf)

Question 162

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

COMPLICATED

A jumbled

B complex

C disorganized

D lengthy

Answer: B

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Question 163

Given below are four sentences, three of which, are jumbled. Pick the option that gives the correct order.
A. My brother was looking forward to his first Metro ride.
B. But he is the kind of person who never listens to any advice.
C. He had heard a great deal about it from his friends in Delhi.
D. They all told him not to travel alone the first time.

A ABDC

B ACBD

C ACDB

D ADBC

Answer: C

Question 164

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

OVERWHELMING

A awesome

B impressive

C mortifying

D striking

Answer: A

SSC CHSL Free Mock Test

Question 165

Select the alternative that will improve the underlined part of the sentence; if no improvement is
required, select "No improvement".
After my graduation, my uncle suggested to me to get a job in a bank.

A suggested to me getting a job

B suggests me to get a job

C No improvement

D suggested me getting a job

Answer: C

Question 166

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Space exploration demands ........... human qualities: for astronauts, great bravery, but for everyone,
ingenuity, imagination, discipline, and even a sort of altruiism.

A normal

B common

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C weird

D extraordinary

Answer: D

Question 167

Select the alternative that will improve the underlined part of the sentence; if no improvement is
required, select "No improvement".
Have you got good teachers when you were at school?

A Did you have

B Haven't you got

C No improvement

D Hasn't you got

Answer: A

SSC CPO Free Mock Test

Question 168

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.
Dwarf galaxies have to hold clues that could help us to understand better the nature of dark matter.

A could help us

B have to hold

C understand better

D dark matter

Answer: B

Question 169

Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.

Are liberals and populists just searching for a new master?

A Was a new master being searched for by liberals and populists?

B Are liberals and populists being searched for by a new master?

C Is a new master searching for liberals and populists?

D Is a new master being searched for by liberals and populists?

Answer: D

Question 170

Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.

Innovators who are furthering the beneficent uses of advanced AI should avoid scenarios where a
machine 'takes over'

A Scenarios where 'taken over' by a machine should be avoided by innovators who have been furthering the
beneficent uses of advanced AI.

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 Scenarios where a machine 'takes over' should be avoided by innovators who are furthering the beneficent uses of
B advanced AI.

Scenarios where a machine is taken over' shall be avoided by innovators who are furthering the beneficent uses of
C
advanced AI.

Scenarios where a machine Stakes over' should have been avoided by innovatois who further the beneficent uses
D
of advanced AI.

Answer: B

SSC GD Free Mock Test

Question 171

Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom given below:

The graveyard shift

A the work shift during the night, often from midnight to 8 a.m.

B working at the time when everybody is resting

C an energy-sapping shift that fast tires you out

D working only at midnight everyday

Answer: A

Question 172

Select the coma passive form of the given sentence.

To understand global warming and the ozone hole you need science.

A Science was needed to understand global warming and the ozone hole.

B Science is being needed to understand global warming and the ozone hole.

C Science has been needed to understand global warming and the ozone hole.

D Science is needed to understand global warming and the ozone hole.

Answer: D

Question 173

Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.

Chettiar said to me. "You may return the money next month."

A Chettiar rejected that I might return the money the coining month.

B Chettiar acceded that I might return the money in the coining month.

C Chettiar acceded that I return the money the next month.

D Chettiar told me that I am to return the money the coming month.

Answer: B

SSC CGL Free Mock Test

Instructions

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Read the following passage and answer the questions.
Passage:
A new paper published by Rochman and her colleagues in February, in the journal Ecology, sifts through past research
on marine debris to assess the true extent of the environmental threat. Plenty of studies have sounded alarm bells
about the state of marine debris: Rochman and her colleagues set out to determine how many of those perceived risks
are real Often. Rochman says, scientists will wrap up a paper by speculating about the broader impacts of what
they've found. Maybe their study has shown that certain seabirds eat plastic bags, for example, and the paper goes on
to warn that whole bird populations are at risk of dying out. "But the truth was that nobody had yet tested those
perceived threats." Rochman says. "There wasn't a lot of information." Rochman and her colleagues examined more
than a hundred papers on the impacts of marine debris that were published through 2013. Within each paper. they
asked what threats scientists had studied-366 perceived threats in all and what they'd actually found. In 83 percent of
cases, the perceived dangers of ocean trash were proven true. In most of the remaining cases. the working group
found the studies too shoddy to draw conclusions from—they lacked a control group, for example. or used faulty
statistics.
Strikingly. Rochman says, only one well-designed study failed to find the effect it was looking for, an investigation of
mussels ingesting microscopic plastic bits. The plastic moved from the mussels' stomachs to their bloodstreams.
scientists found. and stayed there for weeks—but didn't seem to stress out the shellfish. A lot of ocean debris is
"microplastic," or pieces smaller than five millimetres. These may be the beads from a facial scrub. fibres shed by
synthetic clothing in the wash. or eroded remnants of larger debris. Compared to the number of studies investigating
large-scale debris. Roclunan's group found little research on the effects of these tiny bits. There are also, she adds, a
lot of open questions about the ways that ocean debris can lead to sea-creature death. Many studies have looked at
how plastic affects an individual animal or that animal's tissues or cells, rather than whole populations. And in the lab,
scientists often use higher concentrations of plastic than what's really in the ocean. None of that tells us how many
birds or fish or sea turtles could die form plastic pollution or how deaths in one species could affect that animal's
predators, or the rest of the ecosystem. "We need to be asking more ecologically relevant questions." Rothman says.
Usually, scientists don't know how disasters like oil spills or nuclear meltdowns will affect the environment until after
they've happened. she says. "We don't ask the right questions early enough." But if ecologists can understand how the
slow-moving disaster of ocean garbage is affecting ecosystems. they might be able to prevent things from getting
worse.

Question 174

Which ONE of the following conclusions based on the examination of the hundred-odd papers on marine
debris and its ecological impact by Rachman and her colleagues is NOT CORRECT?

A Researchers tend to overgeneralize while discussing the implications of their findings.

B That ocean garbage endangers ecosystems has not been fully understood.

C More than fifty percent of the past ecological studies failed to perceive the threats posed by marine debris.

D Issues with the focus, scope and findings of previous research inform future studies.

Answer: C

Question 175

Select the option to complete the statement below.

According to the passage, the significant difference between natural disasters and ecological disasters,
especially with reference to marine debris, is that ...........

A the latter can be predicted and prevented

B we study the former after they happen and the latter before they happen

C ocean debris does not cause natural disasters but could become more dangerous

D ecological disasters are not natural and man-made.

Answer: A

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Question 176

Select the option that describes the central theme developed in the passage:

A Papers published up to 2013 employ proper research methods.

B Current research on the impact of marine debris is not defective.

C Future ecological research on marine debris must understand the nature of ecological disaster and prevent it.

D Research has to only include studies on the effects of microplastic on ecology.

Answer: C

Download SSC General Knowledge PDF

Question 177

Select the option to complete the statement below.

The perceived dangers of ocean trash for marine life are, in a majority of cases ............

A valid

B exaggerated

C false

D premature

Answer: A

Question 178

What according to the author is the problem with papers reporting seabirds eating plastic?

A These scientists do not ask ecologically relevant questions.

B Generalizations about whole populations getting affected lack verifiable data.

C The scientists use concentrated plastic to generate data.

D We agree with the perceptions of the scientists but not their methods,

Answer: B

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 179

Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.

When big tech companies owned your phones, they could make money on all sorts of services.

A When your phones were owned by big tech companies, they could make money on all sorts of services.

B When your phones are owned by big tech companies, they could make money on all sorts of services.

C When your phone were being owned by big tech companies, they could make money on all sorts of services.

D When your phones owned big tech companies, they could make money on all sorts of services.

Answer: B

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 SSC GD 10 Mock Tests for Rs. 117
Question 180

Select the alternative that will improve the underlined part of the sentence; if no improvement is
required, select "No improvement".
"We have so many to do, and so little time."

A No improvement

B so much

C such many

D as much

Answer: B

Question 181

Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.

"I am not happy about the announcement," Bob Tilman said.

A Bob Tilman confessed that he was not happy about the announcement.

B Bob Tilman confessed that he is not happy about the announcement.

C Bob Tilman told that he was not happy about the announcement.

D Bob Tilman says that he was not happy at the announcement.

Answer: A

Question 182

Given below are four sentences, three of which, are jumbled. Pick the option that gives the comet order.
A. Jainshed ji Tata was born in 1839 in a traditional Parsi family.
B. Then worked in trading for some years in China and UK.
C. He was a great believer in technology and revolutionized the Tata Textile Mills.
D. He started his career as an apprentice in his father's store.

A ACBD

B ACDB

C ADCB

D ADBC

Answer: D

SSC CHSL Prevoius Papers (DOWNLOAD PDF)

Question 183

Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom given below:

Straight from the horse's mouth

A hear something from someone who has many followers on social media

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B hear something from someone who has direct, personal knowledge

C get information from a popular television channel

D believe someone who is very confident

Answer: B

Question 184

Given below are four sentences, three of which, are jumbled. Pick the option that gives the correct order.
A. The Quilt Minar is one of the most important monuments in Delhi.
B. Was it just built by a king to please himself or is there a reason behind its construction?
C. It towers over the city like a sentinel.
D. But if we look at its height, one wonders why it was built.

A ADBC

B ACDB

C ABDC

D ACBD

Answer: B

Instructions

Read the following passage and answer the questions.

Passage:

Where is this going?' That is the question at the heart of River of Life, River of Death, as author Victor Mallet travels
the length of the Ganges. Beginning at its ice cave source in the Himalayan foothills. he follows the water through the
holy confluence at Allahabad. the spindly banks of Varanasi city and onwards to the delta in Bangladesh. where 'in its
parting gift to the land. the river spews millions of tons of fertile silt on to the rice fields of Bengal and the mangroves
of the Sundarbans.'
It is the same question he asks about the treatment of the Ganges. both good and bad. The river leads a double life.
being the most worshipped waterway in the world and also one of the most polluted. The Ganges and its tributaries
are now subject to sewage pollution that is 'half a million times over the Indian recommended limit for bathing' in
places. not to mention the unchecked runoff from heavy metals, fertilizers. carcinogens and the occasional corpse.
As Mallet observes. the danger of contamination does not put off the millions of revellers at Kuinbh Mela. It is a Hindu
pilgrimage 'thought to be the largest gathering of people anywhere'. described to him as 'a spiritual expo... where you
will be talking one moment to a visiting Mumbai businessman and the next to a marijuana-stoned yogi. He suggests
the pollution might never deter them. He is told by one bather: 'we do believe that anyone who takes in this water. he
becomes pure also. because it is always pure.' There is a collective sense that the spirit of the Ganges is so sacred that
she can never be spoiled.
He informs the reader in the preface — 'almost everyone knows the problems are real'. His journey down the Ganges is
one of investigation rather than discovery. Mallet investigates the potential of the river to become a cradle for
antibiotic-resistant infections — or superbugs' — that could be exported to other regions by global travel. He points out
that some 450 million people depend on the Ganges water basin for survival, and many more for its religious and
cultural importance. The Ganges is a goddess and a mother to everyone from the politician in the north, to the
humblest Hindu living in the far south or running a motel in the United States.
There is hope. Mallet draws some parallels to clean-ups of the Rhine and the Thames. He points to the design feat of
Ktunbh Mela, which as 'a pop-up megacity' for two million pilgrims has better infrastructure and waste treatment than
many Indian cities. 'In the minds of both Indians and foreigners. this raises important questions... if the authorities can
build infrastructure so efficiently for this short but very large festival why can they not do the same for permanent
villages and towns?'

Question 185

Which ONE of the options fills in the blank and completes the statement below correctly?
The average believer is of the faith-driven conviction that the river Ganges

A shall never be the object of an investigation

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B can never be spoiled

C will never infect the believer

D may never die due to pollution

Answer: B

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Question 186

Which ONE of the options fills in the blank and completes the statement below correctly?
The Ganges is a mother to the devout Hindu; however, it is to the non-Hindu Indian ...... and .........

A an interesting tourist spot; a zone for adventure sports

B a spectacle: locus for the Khumb Melas

C a cultural icon; provider of life

D a source of water; a garbage bin

Answer: C

Question 187

Which ONE of the options faithfully sums up the 7 main ideas of the passage?

An objective assessment of the river Ganges, life-giving and death-threatening. fosters not only faith but also hope
A
among its admirers of its redemption in future.

The river Ganges is a river that gives life and hope to all but it is a pity that its abusers are not aware that they are
B
pushing it to its extinction.

The Ganges is multifaceted personality — venerated as a mother, it tolerates as a mother all the pollutants thrown
C
into it.

D The Ganges is a holy river for Hindus who venerate it, live off it but also pollute it.

Answer: A

Question 188

Which ONE of the options fills in the blank and completes the statement below correctly?
The river Ganges is "the most worshipped waterway in the world and also one of the most polluted" This
brings to light, in reality, .........

A the contrarian nature of the average Indian

B the democratic space it provides to the CEO and the Yogi

C the dangers of bathing in the river at any place

D the double life that the river leads

Answer: A

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Question 189

Which ONE of the statements below is FALSE?

A Victor Mallet asks the question 'Where is it going?' of the river Ganges which has a metaphorical relevance too.

B A clean River Ganges is as feasible as a clean River Thames or River Rhine

The Kumbh Mela is a witness not only to the X 3. devotion of a section of Indians but also their skills of crowd
C
management.

D The Ganges carries superbugs and it is a problem all Indians are aware of.

Answer: D

Instructions

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.

In literature, a tragedy is a plot in which the 'hero', because of some inherent flaw in his/her character, dies. Thus
Hamlet, Julius Caesar and Romeo and Juliet are tragedies. In each of these plays the ..........(1) is either a great man or
a man of great ...........(2) instead of fulfilling his ............(3) however, each one succumbs to his tragic flaw and
.............(4) dies. Caesar's flaw is ambition, Hamlet's is the inability to take action, and Romeo's is his tendency to love
too much. It might seem, from this highly .............(5) definition, that character and resolution are the keys to a
tragedy. But tragedy also ..............(6) a central action, a crisis which tests that flawed part of the protagonist's ............
(7) In Julius Caesar, the test comes when Mark Antony presents Caesar with the crown. Hamlet's test comes in the
chapel, after witnessing his uncle's reaction to the play. Mercutio's death tests Romeo. In all three cases the
protagonists are found ..........(8) Caesar accepts the crown after refusing it twice; Hamlet sheaths his sword instead of
executing Claudius; Romeo murders Tybalt in a vengeful rage. ..........(9) the test, the flaw might never ............(10).

Question 190

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 1.

A fool

B protagonist

C actor

D villain

Answer: B

Question 191

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 2.

A size

B promise

C riches

D style

Answer: B

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Question 192

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 3.

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A potential

B fate

C destiny

D luck

Answer: A

Question 193

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 4.

A generally

B ultimately

C crucially

D obviously

Answer: B

Question 194

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 5.

A undefined

B independent

C undeveloped

D simplified

Answer: D

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Question 195

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 6.

A implodes

B impinges

C imbibes

D implies

Answer: D

Question 196

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 7.

A Soul

B Heart

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C character

D Plot

Answer: C

Question 197

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 8.

A gambling

B wanting

C dreaming

D threatening

Answer: B

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Question 198

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 9.

A With

B Since

C Before

D Without

Answer: D

Question 199

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 10.

A develop

B surface

C reduce

D depose

Answer: B

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 200

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

DISTASTE

A neutral

B loathing

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C tasteless

D banal

Answer: B

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