OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES

An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be

equipped with at least:

1 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment

2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment
4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment

an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 10 seats must be

equipped with: one hand fire-extinguisher on the flight deck and one hand fire- extinguisher in
the passenger compartment

An aeroplane has a max approved seating configuration of 61 to 200. How many hand held fire
extinguishers are required to be carried?

One on the flight deck and two in the passenger cabin

One on the flight deck and four in the passenger cabin
three in the passenger cabin only
One on the flight deck and three in the passenger cabin

an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be

equipped with at least: 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger
compartment

an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 200 must be equipped
with: 3 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment

An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 201 to 300 seats must be
equipped with at least: 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger
compartment

an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 301 to 400 seats must be
equipped with at least: 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger
compartment

an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 401 to 500 seats must be
equipped with at least: 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger
compartment

an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 600 seats
must be equipped with at least: 8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger
compartment

an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 61 seats, must
have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 hand fire-extinguishers including:
2 Halon fire-extinguishers or equivalent
1 Halon fire-extinguisher or equivalent
3 Halon fire-extinguishers or equivalent
no Halon fire-extinguisher
For seating configuration of 31 to 60 --- 2 fire extinguishers are required --- 1 must
contain Halon 1211 or equivalent.

For seating configuration of 61 or More --- Out of the required fire extinguishers --- 2
must contain Halon 1211 or equivalent.

an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats
must be equipped (including flight deck) with at least:

4 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers or equivalent

2 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers or equivalent
3 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers or equivalent
1 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers or equivalent

Greater than 60 -- 2 Halon in the passenger compartment (as explaind above) and 1
for the flight deck

an aeroplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds 5,700 kg or whose maximum approved
passenger seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and less than 200 seats must be equipped with
a:

crash axe on the flight deck and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment
crash axe and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment
crash axe or a crow-bar on the flight deck
crow-bar on the flight deck and a crash axe in the passenger compartment

the minimum number of crash axes or crowbars on board an aeroplane, whose maximum approved
passenger seating configuration is more than 200, is:

4
1
3
2

With A MTOM greater than 5700 kg or More than 9 seats, 1 is required. If more than
200 seats then 2 are required

How many hand held fire extinguishers must be located in the passenger cabin of an aircraft with a
passenger seating configuration of 375? 5

An aircraft with a certificated MTOM of 232,000 kg and certificated to carry 350 passengers requires:

1.one crash axe or crowbar on the flight deck

2.one crash axe or crowbar in the rear galley area

3.one crash axe or crowbar in the mid galley area

(ii) only
(i) only
(i) and (ii)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
 at least one of the following hand fire extinguishers must be conveniently located on the flight deck:

a foam fire-extinguisher
a water fire-extinguisher
a powder fire-extinguisher
a halon fire-extinguisher or equivalent

After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot.
The fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres:

under no circumstances
only from left or right side
from any side
only from front or rear side

After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes you:

apply the parking brake and you approacoh the wheels either from fore or aft
release the parking brake and you approach the wheels sidewards
release the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from aft or fore
apply the parking brake and approach the wheels sidewards

The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is:

Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes

Water may only be used for minor fires
A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire
Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide

If you have a fire in a toilet, what fire extinguishers would you use:

All available liquids

Only toilet extinguishers
All available in sequence
All available simultaneously

Toilet Fire Extinguisher is fitted in the toilet compartment under the sink. The unit is
a small fire bottle which has two nozzles. One nozzle is directed into the waste bin
and one under the sink. The nozzle is sealed with a low melting point metal which
when heated melts and automatically discharges Freon or BCF. To fight a toilet fire,
use a BCF/Halon extinguisher. Open the door just enough to get the nozzle in, fully
discharge the extinguisher then close the door. After a few minutes check the fire is
out. Check the bin.

A fire in the toilet waste bin is extinguished with:

BCF
a liquid agent
2 types of extinguisher simultaneously
2 types of extinguisher one after the other

You see smoke coming from the air conditioning. Do you?

don your oxygen mask and smoke goggles
Turn all the air conditioning off
Investigate to find the source of the smoke
Do an emergency descent

all options are valid but getting the mask on is the primary thing to do

You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for:

1. a paper fire
2. a plastic fire
3. a hydrocarbon fire
4. an electrical fire.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1,2,3,4

CO2 could blast burning paper all over the place, thereby running the risk of
spreading any fire and it could also extinguish the flames on a plastic fire but the
heat will still be there, thereby running the risk of re-ignition.

Beneath fire extinguishers the following equipment for fire fighting is on board:

crash axes or crowbars

water and all type of beverages
a hydraulic winch and a big box of tools
a big bunch of fire extinguishing blankets

What items for use in fire fighting would you expect to see close to a fire extinguisher?

axe
gloves
breating equipment
blanket

A class A fire is a fire of:

liquid or liquefiable solid

solid material, generally of organic nature
electrical origin
metal or gas or chemical (special fares)

A class B fire is a fire of:

solid material usually of organic nature

liquid or liquefiable solid
electrical sources fire
special fire: metal, gas, chemical product

The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are:

1. H2O
2. CO2
3. dry-chemical
4. halon.

Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements? 1,2,3,4

To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:

useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions
useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen
useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions
possible and recommended

A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for:

1. a paper fire
3. a fabric fire
5. a wood fire

2. a hydrocarbon fire
4. an electrical fire

The combination regrouping of all the correct statements is:

2, 3, 4
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
1,3,5
2, 4, 5

Would you through water over an electrical fire! Ruling out option 4 is enough to get
this one right.

Hydrocarbon, any of a class of organic chemical compounds composed only of the

elements carbon (C) and hydrogen (H). The carbon atoms join together to form the
framework of the compound; the hydrogen atoms attach to them in many different
configurations. Hydrocarbons are the principal constituents of petroleum and
natural gas. They serve as fuels and lubricants as well as raw materials for the
production of plastics, fibres, rubbers, solvents, explosives, and industrial
chemicals.

H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:

electrical source fires

Class B fires
Class A fires
special fires: metals, gas, chemical products

Class A: Fires involving solid materials, usually of an organic nature, in which

combustion normally takes place with the formation of glowing

Class B: Fires involving liquids or liquefiable solids

 Class C: Fires involving gases

Class Fires involving metals

In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you fight the fire using:

1. a dry powder fire extinguisher

2. a water spray atomizer

3. a water fire-extinguisher
4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher to the maximum

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2
2, 3, 4
3, 4
1, 4

A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest extinguishant to
use is:

water
dry powder
CO2 (carbon dioxide)
foam

A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for:

1. a paper fire
2. a fabric fire
3. an electric fire
4. a wood fire
5. a hydrocarbon fire

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1,2,3,4,5

H "ALL" "ON"

In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you:

pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire-extinguishers
carry out a damp cranking
carry out a dry cranking
fight thenozzle fire with a water fire-extinguisher

You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for:

1 a paper fire
2 a plastic fire
3 hydrocarbon fire
4 an electrical fire

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1,2,3,4

 To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use:

3.a halon fire-extinguisher

4.a CO2 fire-extinguisher

1.a water fire-extinguisher

2.a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2, 3, 4
3, 4
1, 2
2, 3, 4

CO2 is not recommended for hand-held extinguishers for internal aircraft use. Older
aircraft with reciprocating engines used CO2 as an extinguishing agent, but all
newer aircraft designs with turbine engines use Halon or equivalent extinguishing
agent, such as halocarbon clean agents. CO2, Dry Powder, or Dry Chemical
extinguishers are not found on aircraft.

A fire extinguisher must be carried in the cockpit. It should contain:

BCF
CO2
Water
Foam

You will use a water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) on a fire of:

1. solids (fabric, carpet, etc)

2.liquids (ether, gasoline, etc)

3. gasmetals (sodium, etc).
4. electrical fires.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1

CO2 type extinguishers are fit to fight:

1.class A fires
2.class B fires
3.electrical source fires

4.special fires: metals, gas, chemical product

Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements: 1, 2, 3

To fight a fire in an air conditioned cargo hold:

Fire fighting is not necessary, since the transport of combustible goods in an air conditioned cargo hold
is forbidden
Extinguish fire and reduce air conditioning
Extinguish fire only
You turn off the cargo hold ventilation and extinguish fire
 An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-off handle will be
switched off when:

fire is no longer detected

the fire shut-off handle has been pulled
the fire-extinguisher has been triggered
all the fire-extinguishers connected to this engine have been triggered

A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for:

1.a paper fire

2.a hydrocarbon fire
3.a fabric fire
4.an electrical fire
5.a wood fire

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1,2,3,4,5

What action is required in flight for a fire in an air conditioned cargo hold?

Put out the fire

Reduce the airflow and put out the fire
Turn off the ventilation and put out the fire
Don't do anything because it is not permissible to have flammable or toxic materials in modern
aeroplane holds

The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are:

2.CO2
3.dry-chemical
4.halogen

1.H2O

Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements: 2,3,4

Halogen compounds and carbon dioxide are effective agents in fighting class C fires
and are also used against flammable liquids and small fires in solids. Halogen
compounds such as carbon tetrachloride turn into a vapor that settles over a fire,
smothering it. Unfortunately, most halogen vapors are both toxic and corrosive; but
for enclosed spaces where water damage would be as disastrous as fire damage, it
is the agent of choice. Halons are halogenated hydrocarbons.

A Halon fire extinguisher should preferably be used on which of the following types of fire:

Paper
Plastic
Hydrocarbon
Brake

CO2 type fire extinguishers are usable on:

1.Class A fires
2.Class B fires
3.Electrical fires
4.Special fires metal, chemical

1,2,3

Water fire extinguisher with a directed spray can be used on which fires?

Solid fires
Liquid fires
Gas fires
Special fires

A dry-chemikcal type fire extinguisher is fit to fight?

1.class A fires
2.class B fires
3.electrical source fires
4.special fires: metals, gas, chemicals

Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements? 1,2,3,4

What type of fire extinguisher do you use on a magnesium fire?

Water
Sand
Halon
Foam

The key to stopping a magnesium fire is to smother it so oxygen cannot come in

contact with it. Generally, that means coating it with a dry chemical extinguisher.
Halon is not efficient enough to remove all the oxygen, and it would not likely stop
the entire fire. And once there is no more halon, the oxygen just returns to flare up
the fire again. Therefore Halon is not a recommended extinguishing fire agent.

The principle of operation of a fire loop detector is an the temperature increases, the:

resistance decreases
reference current decreases
pressure decreases
pressure decreases

Halon or equivalent fire extinguishers can be used in case of fire fighting in an aeroplane:

in the fuel tanks and in the cargo holds

in the cockpit and cargo holds
in the wheel bays and lavatories
in the avionics bay and the wheel bays

To fight a fire in an air conditioned class E cargo hold, the correct initial action is to:

discharge the fire extinguishers in the affected compartment

shut off the ventilating airflow within the affected compartment
confirm visually the fire
evacuate the smoke

The engine fire warning system on a multi-engine aircraft consists of:

One warning light, individual bells
Individual warning lights, common bell
Individual warning lights, individual bells
One warning light, one bell

Which statement is most correct with regard to the use of fire extinguishers?

CO2 is best used in a cargo aeroplane on cargo fires

Water is best used on small fires
Halon is best used on fires within the passenger compartment
Dry powder is best used on cockpit fires

On what type of fire would you use a CO2 extinguisher?

Paper
Hydrocarbon
Plastic
Electrical

The correct colour for hand held fire extinguisher labels is

black for CO2

red for water
yellow for BCF
blue for foam

Engine fire warnings include:

a red light that can be cancelled and an audio warning that can be cancelled
a red light that cannot be cancelled and an audio warning that can be cancelled
a red light that can be cancelled and an audio warning that cannot be cancelled
a red light and an audio warning that cannot be cancelled until the fire is out

For aircraft specified before the 1 April 1998, cockpit voice recorder must keep the conversations and
sound alarms recorded during the last:

flight
25 hours of operation
30 minutes of operation
48 hours of operation

An aeroplane which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, shall be equipped with a
cockpit voice recorder capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:

30 minutes or 1 hour of its operation, certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, shall be equipped with a
cockpit voice recorder capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last .....

30 minutes or 2 hours of its operation, depending upon the date of the first issue of its
individual Certificate of Airworthiness

20 hours of its operation

25 hours of its operation

 For C of A issued on or after 1 April 1998: Multi-engine turbine powered with a
MAPSC of more than 9 or has a MCTOM over 5700 kgs must have a CVR which
records for 2 hours. If 5700 Kg or less than the time ins 30 minutes.

the cockpit voice recorder, when required, must start to record automatically:

prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power until the termination of flight when the parking brake
is set
when the parking brake is released until the termination of flight when the parking brake is set when full
thrust is applied until the termination of the flight
when the aeroplane is no longer capable of moving under its own power
prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power until the termination of the flight when
the aeroplane is no longer capable of moving under its own power

Regarding the FDR and CVR, which of the following statements is true:

All commercial aircraft above 15.000 kg have to carry both a FDR and CVR
The CVR monitors all human voice exchanges on the flight deck throughout the flight
keeping the last 30 minutes as a hard copy
A FDR shall be capable of retaining recorded information for at least the last 24 hours of operation
A Type 1 recorder retains information recorded during the last 30 minutes of operation

Which of the following combinations of statements describes what is recorded by a cockpit voice
recorder?

1.Radio communications transmitted from the aircraft

2.Speech on the flight deck
3.Communications through the intercom
4.Navigation aid identification heard through headphones
5.PA messages

All of the above

A modern aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its certified take-off gross weight
is greater than:

27,000 kg
5,700 kg
20,000 kg
14,000 kg

FDRs must keep data and parameters for at least the last:

30 hours of operation
48 hours of operation
25 hours of operation
The whole flight

for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, flight data recorders shall be
capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the last:

30 hours of operation
25 hours of operation
25 flights
10 flights

when a flight data recorder is required, it must start automatically to record the data:

when lining up
when taking-off
when the landing gear is retracted
prior to the aircraft being capable of moving under its own power

when the flight data recorder is required, it must stop automatically to record the data:

when the main gear shock strut compresses when touching the runway
after the aircraft is unable to move by its own power
when the landing gear is extended and locked
when the aircraft clears the runway

Before any flight is commenced, forms have to be completed certifying that the aeroplane is
airworthy. Who has to be satisfied that the aeroplane is airworthy? The Commander

Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that
any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? (Annex 6, Part ll). The Captain

Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:

from take off to landing

only during take off and landing
only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of
while at their station

Who shall provide the flight operations personal with an operations manual and also issue the
amendments to keep it up to date?

Owner of the aircraft

Aircraft producer
Aircraft operator
ATS authority of the state of registry

When are all flight crewmembers required to be at their stations?

Take-off and landing

Throughout the flight
At all times other than take-off and landing
As specified in the operations manual

Who is to ensure safe handling of flights?

The Operator
The Authority
The State of Registration
The Operations Officer
 Who is responsible for ensuring that the aeroplane is airworthy prior to flight?

Operator
State of Registration
Captain
State of the Operator

A pilot in command:

3.May deviate in an emergency

5.May request a new clearance if unsatisfied

1.Must comply with ATC instructions immediately

2.Is only responsible when airborne
4.May deviate from complying with rules of the air in order to comply with an ATC instruction

The correct combination is:

1, 3, 4, 5
3, 5
3, 4, 5
All of the above
Ruling out option 4 is enough to get it right

In an aeroplane, each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety belts and harnesses
provided

2. during take-off
3. during landing
4. whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety

1. during taxiing
5. during other phases of flight

1, 2, 3, 4
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
2, 3, 4
2, 3, 4, 5

Which of the following are the duties of a Flight Dispatch Officer?

(i) Assist the pilot-in-command in flight preparation and provide the relevant information required

(ii) Assist the pilot-in-command in preparing the operational and ATS flight plans, sign when applicable
and file the ATS flight plan with the appropriate ATS unit

(iii) Furnish the pilot-in-command while in flight, by appropriate means, with information, which may be
necessary for the safe conduct of the flight

(iv) In the event of an emergency, initiate such procedures as may be outlined in the operations manual

(i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

(ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
All statements are correct

When are flight crew allowed to leave their stations?

In the performance of their duties
At any time specified by the operations manual
When having lunch
Only when the captain allows it

All flight crew members are to be at their duty stations:

during take-off and landing

in an emergency
in turbulence
unless absence is necessary to satisfy physiological needs

If the commander of an aeroplane violates any local rule, regulation or procedure he is to report the
matter:

to the local Authority without delay

to the Authority of the State of the operator without delay
to the local Authority within ten days
to the Authority of the State of the operator within 14 days

If local regulations or procedures are violated the pilot-in-command must notify the
appropriate local authority without delay and the Authority in the state of
registration within ten days.

What are the rules on the carriage of PRMs?

Cannot impede the performance of crew duty

Must be seated away from emergency exits
No more than 5% of passengers may be PRMs
They must provide their own food

PRM = Passengers with Reduced Mobility

An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants (including pilot). The pilot
has a passenger load of six adults and two children (5 and 6 years old). The boarding of all passengers
is:

authorised, providing both children are sitting on the same seat, using the same seat belt with an adult
sitting on the seat next to them, in order to release their seat belt if necessary

authorised, providing both children are sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt. No other
particular precautions are necessary

forbidden

authorised, providing both children are of a similar stature, sitting on the same seat and using the same
seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them in order to release their seat belt

the children are above 2 years and need a seat

What is the definition of a damp runway?

Surface not dry but moisture does not give the surface a shiny appearance
Surface dry but moisture does not give the surface a shiny appearance
Surface not dry and moisture gives the surface a shiny appearance
Surface dry and moisture gives the surface a shiny appearance

For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination
aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:

0.5
0.7
0.6
0.8

Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full
stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:

80% of the landing distance available

70% of the landing distance available
60% of the landing distance available
50% of the landing distance available
Its the same for destination or alternate

For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance on at alternate
aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:

0.7
0.6
0.5
0.8

If airworthiness documents do not show any additional correction factor for landing performance
determination on a wet runway, the landing distance shall be increased by:

20%
15%
105
5%

Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet
runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the
estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by: 15%

What is VAT?

VSO x 1.3
VS1G x 1.3
The lesser of VSO or VSIG
VSO x 1.23

A runway covered with 4 mm thick water is said to be:

flooded
wet
contaminated
damp
 What is the definition of a wet runway?

25% contamination of the runway with water depth less than 3 mm

More than 25% coverage of water greater than 3 mm deep
Water standing on a runway without grooves or a porous pavement
Water standing on a runway with water depth less than 3 mm, appearing non-reflective

Which combination of statements describes a wet runway?

1.it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the
equivalent of 3 mm of water
3.the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does not create large
stagnant sheets of water

2.the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does not give it a shiny
appearance
4.it bears stagnant sheets of water

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1 and 3

A runway is considered to be contaminated when its surface is covered more than:

10% with ice

25% with compacted snow
20% with melted snow
15% with melted snow

When landing in heavy rain:

Decrease air speed on landing, area may be more slippery

Increase air speed as rain affects boundary layer
Keep the speed the same until landing
Decrease the landing speed to stick shaker
The "INCREASE APPROACH SPEED" is all to do with approach/landing in HEAVY RAIN.
Heavy rain will affect air flow in the boundary layer, hence there is a theoretical
argument for increasing approach speed in heavy rain. Now, I don't know of ANY
operator that adjusts approach speed for rain - although you will adjust speed for
wind and gust factor. In practice of course there are margins added when calculating
approach speeds - 1.3xVs etc.

The rain argument has found its way into the exam system - at one point I thought
they had removed all those questions - but in the latest version of the QB, it seems
they are back.

For these questions, I would select all the obvious options (firm landing .... ), and
cross out all the rubbish (land smoothly ... ). I'm pretty confident this will leave just
one answer - if it includes the approach speed one ... OK.

Final point - there have been a couple of incidents concerning ac on missed approach
(I think) in extreme conditions (VERY heavy rain) where controlability became an
issue - so the argument is not to be dismissed - however, in normal ops - you will not
be increasing speed for rain or even heavy rain .... normal margins will be OK.
Source: [http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=9861]
 In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain:

1.you increase your approach speed

2.you land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and
immediately land your nose gear
4.you use systematically all the lift dumper devices

3.you decrease your approach speed

5.you land as smoothly as possible
6.you brake energetically

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2, 4
3, 5
2, 3, 4
1, 4, 5, 6

Landing on a flooded runway in heavy rain:

2.Make a positive touch down on the main gear and lower the nose gear as soon as
practicable
5.Use all available lift dumpers in a systematic manner

1.Decrease your approach speed

3.Increase the approach speed
4.Make a smooth touchdown
6.Brake heavily

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

2, 4, 5, 6
2, 5
1, 2, 5
1, 4, 5

For a given aircraft and runway contamination, increased pressure altitude will:

maintains or increases the hydroplaning speed

decreases the hydroplaning speed
maintains the hydroplaning speed
increases the hydroplaning speed

Hydroplaning speed for a rotating tyre = 9 x square root of tyre pressure (7.7 for
non-rotating)

Increased Perssure Altitude = Decrease in Pressure.

Decrease in Pressure = Increase in effective pressure of the tyre.

Increase in pressure of the tyre = Increase in hydroplanning speed.

For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:

1.Water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves

2.Speed is greater than 96 kt

3.Water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves
4.Speed is greater than 127 kt

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1 and 2

You have to assume a rotating tyre unless the question says otherwise.

Hydroplaning speed for a rotating tyre = 9 x square root of tyre pressure

1 bar = 14.5 psi

Hydroplaning speed= 9 x square root of (8 x 14.5) = 96.93 or 97 knots

Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplanes mainwheel tyre pressure is 206 psi, the
approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur in the event of applying brakes is:

a) 80 kt
b) 114 kt
c) 100 kt
d) 129 kt

You have to assume a rotating tyre unless the question says otherwise.

Hydroplaning speed= 9 x square root of 206 = 129 knots.

a runway is referred to as contaminated when more than 25% of the required runway surface is
covered with the one of the following elements:

2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water

3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further)
4. ice, including wet ice

1. a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway

5. moist grass

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 3, 4
1, 2, 3, 4
2, 3, 4
1, 3, 4, 5

The braking efficiency is a piece of information presenting itself in the form of a:

letter falling between A and E

percentage varying from 10% to 100%
zero followed by two decimals
combination of the terms: poor, medium, good

A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is: poor

The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the:

aircraft's weight
depth of the standing water on the runway
strength of the head wind
amount of the lift off speed
 Dynamic Hydroplaning: As a tyre accelerates along a runway with standing water
(deeper than tyre tread), a bow wave of water builds up in front of the tyre. At
dynamic hydroplane speed, the pressure exerted by the water equals the pressure
created by the forward movement of the tyre. At this point, a wedge of water slides
between tyre and runway surface, lifting the tyre away from the surface.

The touch down areas located at both ends of the runways are typical for the appearance of:

rubber reversion hydroplaning

dynamic hydroplaning
viscous hydroplaning
rubber steaming hydroplaning

Viscous Hydroplaning: It is more likely on a smooth dirt surface, typically the

touchdown zones of the runway where a build up of rubber (black rubber deposit)
from landing aircraft occurs. A thin film of fluid on the smooth dirty runway surface
prevents the tyre making contact with the runway.

Reverted Rubber Hydroplaning: Typically occurs during heavy braking that

results in a prolonged locked-wheel skid. Only a thin film of water on the runway is
required for this type of hydroplaning. The tyre skidding generates enough heat to
cause the rubber in contact with the runway to revert to its original uncured state.
The reverted rubber acts as a seal between the tyre and the runway, and delays
water exit from the tyre footprint area. The water heats and is converted to steam
which supports the tyre off the runway.

Viscous hydroplaning is caused by:

a smooth and clear runway surface

a smooth and dirty runway surface
bald tyres
a rough runway surface

Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres if this is less than the published
length, how is this reported:

by a four figure group added to item D, which gives the length in metres
it is not reported
in plain language at item T (the final paragraph) of a SNOWTAM
as a percentage of the total length of the runway available as the final items of a SNOWTAM

Item "D" tells the cleared runway length (4 figure group in m) if it is less than the
published length.

Item "T" is a clear text-field. In this field information of significance is entered e.g.
First 300M RWY 10 covered by 50 mm.

Item "T" describes the SNOWTAM fields in plain language as well as the coverage of
the deposits, the treatments used, information on windrows or snowdrifts and
taxiway and apron conditions.

In a SNOWTAM, if the cleared length of runway is less than the published length, what and where
would the information be displayed?

Box D with the cleared length expressed as a percentage

Box D with the cleared length in metres
Box T explained in plain English
Box C with the runway designator

How is braking efficiency presented?

Decimal followed by two significant figures

Sequentially from A to E
Poor, medium, good
As a function of the length of the runway

Decimal followed by two digits e.g. 0.25 is the coefficient of friction

When there is a risk of hydroplaning the pilot of an aeroplane: should make a positive landing
and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible

The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is: 24 hours

At the planning stage for a Class B performance aircraft, what minimum climb gradient do you use?

300 ft min climb speed with one engine out

500 ft min climb speed with one engine out
300 ft min climb speed with all engines operating
500 ft min climb speed with all engines operating

JAR OPS 1.540

The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be operable on board any
aircraft of more than 5,700 kg or more than 9 passengers during at least:

15 minutes
60 minutes
30 minutes
2 hours

When must a radiation indicator be carried?

For flights above 29,000 ft

For flights above 39,000 ft
For flights above 49,000 ft
For flights above 59,000 ft

The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located at the tip
of the left wing is:

140°
110°
70°
220°

The coverage angle of the regulatory white position lights, continuously lit in flight and located at the
rear of the aircraft, is:

140°
100°
70°
220°

During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front
right will first see the: red steady light

From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite parallel
track. What Nav light will be observed: Red

Regarding an observer in the cockpit seeing an aeroplane coming from the forward left, what colour is
the first light seen (at night)? Steady green

An observer in the cockpit sees an aeroplane closing from the forward left, what colour is the first
light seen (at night)? Steady green

If you are squawking 3770 and have a transponder failure, what do you squawk?

0000
3770
4096
7600

When changing the transponder code for radar identification the selections to be made are:

ON then STBY then ON

ON then STBY
STBY
OFF

Aeroplanes with a take-off mass greater than 5.700 kg shall be fitted with an independent
automatically operated emergency power supply to operate and illuminate the artificial horizon for:

15 mins
30 mins
60 mins
2 hours

a public address system is required to operate an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger
seating configuration of more than:

61
30
9
19
 a single deck aeroplane, equipped with an approved seating capacity of 61 seats and carrying
passengers, must be equipped with at least:

1 megaphone
2 megaphones
2 megaphones if there are more than 31 passengers on board
3 megaphones
For each passenger deck with 61 to 99 seats, one megaphone is required. With 100
or more seats, two megaphones are required.

a windshield wiper or equivalent means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield during
precipitation is required at each pilot station to operate an aeroplane with a:

maximum approved passenger configuration of more than 6 seats

maximum certificated take-off mass of more than 15000 kg
maximum approved passenger configuration of more than 9 seats
maximum certificated take-off mass of more than 5700 kg

in an aeroplane in which fuses are used, the number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be
at least:

5% of the number of fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is the greater
10% of the number of fuses of each rating or 3 of each rating, whichever is the greater
10% of the number of fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is the greater
20% of the number of fuses of each rating or 2 of each rating, whichever is the greater

What must be ensured with respect to navigation equipment?

The failure of one piece does not affect another

All navigation equipment must be serviceable at the start of flight
All equipment must conform to ICAO specifications
if one piece of equipment fails there must be a spare available

During a flight, the chief steward informs the crew that a passenger is using a portable device
suspected to disturb the aircraft electronic systems. The captain:

authorises its use during the whole flight phase

authorises its use except during take-off and landing phases
must not authorise any person to use such a device on board
may authorise the use of this device, as an exception

A VFR aircraft used for flight in controlled airspace should have:

Bearing indicator, accurate barometric altimeter

Equipment necessary for VFR flight
One VOR, ADF, DME and ILS
2 radios and an SSR transponder

What is required for navigation in IMC?

Radio equipment and equipment for guidance until the visual point
Anti-icing equipment
A serviceable weather radar
One VHF box and one HF box

The NO SMOKING sign must be illuminated:

when oxygen is being supplied in the cabin

during climb and descent
in each cabin section if oxygen is being carried
during take-off and landing

On board a non-pressurised aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen
throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than:

12,000 ft
11,000 ft
10,000 ft
13,000 ft
The first three options do not cover all the passengers, since for non-pressurized
a/c, between 10,000 and 13,000 for more than 30 minutes, only 10% of the
passengers are covered.

Oxygen should be supplied for all crew members and some passengers above which altitude:

a) 10,000 ft
b) 12,000 ft
c) 13,000 ft
d) 11,000 ft

This one does not mention if the a/c is pressurized or not, so we have to evaluate
both conditions:

For non-pressurized:

Entire time above 10,000 ft ==> All flight crew.

Entire time above 13,000 ft ==> All cabin crew.

Entire time above 13,000 ft ==> All Passengers.

For Pressurized:

Entire time above 13,000 ft ==> All flight crew + Cabin Crew.

Entire time above 15,000 ft ==> All passengers.

The questions asks for "some passengers" that means it has to be below 13000 or
15000 depending on pressurization. This means option (c) is out.

Since 13,000 is out the only viable option left is (a) that should cater for all crew
and some passengers.
 Seems like the question is for a non-pressurized a/c and they forgot to mention that

An aeroplane flying at 30,000 ft would be required to provide oxygen dispensing units in the
passenger cabin for:

the total number of passengers + 10%

the total number of passengers
the total number of seats
the total number of seats + at least 10% additional units

For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurised
aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than:

13,000 ft
29,000 ft
10,000 ft
25,000 ft

On board a non-pressurised aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with oxygen throughout
the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the pressure altitude is between:

10,000 ft and 12,000 ft

10,000 ft and 13,000 ft
11,000 ft and 13,000 ft
11,000 ft and 12,000 ft

What is the oxygen requirement for the crew and 100% of the passengers in an un-pressurised
aircraft:

10,000 ft
11,000 ft
12,000 ft
13,000 ft

all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied
with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above:

15,000 ft
10,000 ft
13,000 ft
14,000 ft

for a non-pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen
during:

the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft

the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft
the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10000 ft but not exceeding
13000 ft
the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft and for any period exceeding 30 minutes at
pressure altitudes above 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft

for a non pressurised aircraft, all required cabin crew members shall be supplied with supplemental
oxygen during:

the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft and for any period exceeding 30
minutes at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft
the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft
the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft
the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10000 ft but not exceeding
13000 ft

10% of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for
the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than:

10,000 ft but not exceeding 15,000 ft

14,000 ft but not exceeding 15,000 ft
10,000 ft but not exceeding 13,000 ft
10,000 ft but not exceeding 14,000 ft

Supplemental oxygen is used to:

provide people on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurisation

protect a crew who fights a fire
provide with oxygen passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurisation
assist a passenger with breathing disorders

Differentiate between Supplemental and Therapeutic (First Aid) Oxygen.

On a pressurised aeroplane, supplemental oxygen is used to provide passengers on

board with oxygen following a cabin depressurisation.

For a non pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is required to operate at

pressure altitudes above 10,000 ft.

The first-aid oxygen is designed to provide undiluted oxygen for passengers who,
for physiological reasons, might require oxygen following a cabin depressurisation.

for a non pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is:

therapeutical oxygen specially carried for certain passengers

available for supply to passengers for physiological reasons
used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide
required to operate at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft

First Aid (therapeutic) oxygen is carried for which of the following:

All crew and passengers in the event of an unexpected rapid depressurisation

The crew in the event of noxious fumes entering the flight deck
30% of passengers between 10,000 ft and 13,000 ft
Any passengers who require it for pathological respiratory disorders

Therapeutic oxygen carried on a pressurised aircraft is used for:

passengers following a decompression

passengers or crew when required
crew only
passengers notified as having a medical condition
 the purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:

supply all the passengers in case of depressurisation

provide the cabin attendants with respiratory protection
provide undiluted oxygen to passengers for physiological reasons following a cabin
depressurisation
provide the flight crew with respiratory assistance after depressurisation

regarding the first aid oxygen, the supply of undiluted oxygen carried on board a pressurised
aeroplane with 8 passengers operated at pressure altitude 27000 ft, shall be sufficient for at least:

1 passenger for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin
altitude exceeds 8000 ft
2 passengers for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin altitude
exceeds 8000 ft
1 passenger for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin altitude only
exceeds 14000 ft
2 passengers for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin altitude only
exceeds 14000 ft

The amount carried shall be sufficient for at least 2% of passengers carried but in
no case shall be less than one. This is for the remainder of the flight after
depressurization when cabin altitude exceeds 8000 ft but does not exceed 15,000
ft.

An aeroplane with a seating capacity of 180 has a total of 47 passengers on board. According to JAR
OPS the required amount of First Aid Oxygen is:

Enough for 3 passengers for the duration of flight following a depressurisation when the cabin altitude is
between 10,000 ft and 14,000 ft
Sufficient for one passenger when the cabin altitude exceeds 8,000 ft but does not exceed
15,000 ft for the remainder of the flight following a depressurisation
Sufficient for one passenger for the duration of the flight above 8,000 ft cabin altitude
None required

2% of 47 = 0.94, but it cannot be less than 1 so it should be sufficient for 1

passenger

for a pressurised aeroplane, certificated to fly at altitudes more than 25000 ft, all occupants of flight
deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in no case
less than:

1 hour
30 minutes
2 hours
10 minutes

if the flight is to be carried out at FL 290, demonstration about oxygen equipment must be completed
before:

the aircraft reaches FL 100

take-off
the aircraft reaches FL 140
the aircraft reaches FL 250
 As cabin altitude increases, what happens to the differential pressure?

Decreases
Increases
Stays the same
None of the above

When does a pilot start to physically become affected due to lack of oxygen, above what level?

8,000 ft
14,000 ft
24,000 ft
6,000 ft

Hypoxia can affect night vision at 5000 feet. The effect of altitudinal hypoxia on
night vision is primarily one of an elevation of the rod and cone threshold. Although
decreased cone function is clearly demonstrated by the loss of color vision at
hypoxic altitudes, the decrement in central Visual Acuity is usually insignificant.
However, scotopic night vision at altitude can be significantly reduced. Scotopic
vision has been reported to decrease by 5% at 3,500 feet, 20% at 10,000 feet, and
35% at 13,000 feet, if supplemental oxygen is not provided. Thus, the use of
oxygen, even at low pressure altitudes, can be very important at night.

Following a rapid decompression, above what height does a lack of 02 affect performance:

14,000 ft
2,500 ft
8,000 ft
25,000 ft

An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31,000 ft. What is the initial action
by the operating crew?

Disconnect the autopilot

To put on oxygen masks
Transmit a MAYDAY message
Place the seat belts sign to ON

When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in
the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator
which will indicate:

a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm

a rate of climb
zero
a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure

The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during
and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that
the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is:

15,000 ft
14,000 ft
13,000 ft
25,000 ft
 After decompression and descent, there will be enough supplementary oxygen available for flight
crew for all flight time above: 13,000

(Refer to figure) Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 3
psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14,000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude
is approximately:

22,500 ft
24,500 ft
27,000 ft
29,000 ft

(Refer to above figure) Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is
limited to 2 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14,000 feet, the maximum achievable
flight altitude is approximately:

20,750 ft
12,000 ft
8,600 ft
2,900 ft

(Refer to figure above) Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is
limited to 2 psi. Assuming you don't want the cabin altitude being greater than 10,000 feet, the
maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:

12,000 ft
5,000 ft
15,100 ft
15,000 ft

The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40,000 ft is:
1 minute
30 seconds
12 seconds
5 minutes

Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand system, the
regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when the supply selector is at the
normal position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen
only?

25,000 ft
32,000 ft
14,000 ft
8,000 ft

Oxygen should be used after rapid decompression in an emergency descent until what altitude?

10,000 ft
15,000 ft
13,000 ft
14,000 ft

Flying at FL 390, before what cabin altitude must the Oxygen drop out masks be automatically
presented?

12,000 ft
13,000 ft
14,000 ft
15,000 ft

Passenger oxygen masks will drop when cabin altitude rises to between 13,200 and
14,000 feet, but the requirement is that the oxygen equipment must deploy
automatically by a cabin altitude of 15,000 ft.

A fast decompression is recognisable by the following elements:

1. mist in the cabin

2. blast towards the exterior of the aircraft
3. expansion of body gases
4. blast of air released violently from the lungs.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1,2,3,4

In a pressurisation malfunction:

1.Noise increase
2.Change in RCDI
3.Pressure differential decreases

1,2,3

RCDI = Rate of Climb and Descent Indicator (RCDI)

Gradual decompression is caused by:

1.Window leak
2. Door leak

3. Window blown
4. Emergency escape hatch open

(i), (ii)
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(iii), (iv)
(ii), (iii)

A slow decompression may be caused by:

1.a leak in a doorseal during normal pressurised flight

3.malfunction of all pressurised systems

2.loss of a cabin window

4.loss of a door

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1,3

following a decompression, the maximum pressure altitude at which each member of the flight crew
on flight deck duty are able to fly with no supplemental oxygen with no flight time limitation is: 10,000

A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This warning must be
triggered on reaching the following altitude: 10,000 feet (approx 3000 m)

for a pressurised aeroplane, the minimum requirement for supplemental oxygen needed to supply
100% of the passengers following a cabin pressurisation failure, is:

the entire flight time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 13,000 ft
30 minutes
the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15,000 ft, but in no case
less than 10 minutes
the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than 10,000 ft but not exceeding
13,000 ft

Mist in the cabin accompanied by a drop in pressure and temperature are indications of:

A rapid decompression
A slow decompression

Normal flow on a diluter demand oxygen system is obtained by selecting:

NORMAL
NORMAL and breathing in
100% and breathing in
EMERGENCY

On over-water flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land, which
is suitable for making a emergency landing greater than that corresponding to:
400 NM or 120 minutes at cruising speed
300 NM or 90 minutes at cruising speed
200 NM or 45 minutes at cruising speed
100 NM or 30 minutes at cruising speed

The minimum time track is a track defined for:

a period of 12 hours
a given travel
a period of 24 hours
aircraft flying in MNPS airspace

What is the definition of a minimum time route?

Closest diversion on route

Shortest distance between two points of a route
Shortest time between dest and dep adhering to ATC restrictions
Route using the least amount of fuel

Who compiles the MEL and where does it go? The operator and in the Operations Manual

Who makes up the MMEL? The manufacturer and it must be approved by the state of
certification

The field of application of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is defined by a phase of flight operation.
The commander must use the limitations provided by the MEL:

At any time during the flight

Prior to the aircraft take-off
At the parking area prior to the aircraft taxiing
Until the aircraft has come to a complete stop at the end of the flight

Following an indication of an unserviceability whilst taxiing to the holding point, what do

you consult first?

Flight manual
Operator
State of registration
MEL

A transport category aircraft suffers an unserviceability on the ground prior to take-off. What
document do you refer to?

Aircraft Operating Manual

Minimum Equipment List
CARS
Operations Manual relevant chapter

The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking
a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:
the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual
the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual
the operator, and it is appended to the flight manual
the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual

The operator will include in the operations manual a list of minimum required equipment approved by:
(Annex 6, Part l)

The country where the aircraft is operated

The country where the aircraft was manufactured
The country of the operator
It is not mandatory that such a book be approved by aviation authorities

The MMEL (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:

the operator
the manufacturer
the aircraft manufacturers list
the aircraft state of registry

Who accepts the MEL?

The country where the flight takes place

The country of the operator
The country of the designers
The country of the manufacturers

If there is unauthorised use of equipment that affects the aeroplane's system, the commander:

may authorise its use for take-off and landing

must not authorise its use
may authorise its use for the whole flight
may authorise its use at his discretion

The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must
not be less than:

6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days
3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90
days
6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months
3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months

To operate an aircraft as commander a pilot must have:

Carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings in an aeroplane of the same type or a flight ...
Carried out at least 5 take-offs and 3 landings in an aeroplane of the same type or a flight simulator in
the preceding 60 days
Carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings in an aeroplane of the same type or a flight
simulator in the preceding 90 days
Carried out at least 5 take-offs and 3 landings in an aeroplane of the same type or a flight simulator in
the preceding 90 days

To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing you must have:

acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days

acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days
acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days
been at the controls for landing in the same type recently

an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as pilot-in-command unless:

he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command in an aeroplane or an approved flight
simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days

he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or
an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days

a co-pilot does not serve at the flight controls during take-off and landing unless:

he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane in the preceding
60 days

he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane of the same
type/class or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be used in the preceding 60 days

he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane in the preceding
90 days

he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane of
the same type/class or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be used in the preceding
90 days

What is the co-pilot currency requirement?

3 flights in the last 90 days

3 take-offs and landings in the last 60 days
At the controls for 3 flights in the last 60 days
At the controls for 3 take-offs and landings in the last 90 days

minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at
night shall be:

5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 30 days on the type or
class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role
3 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type
class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role
5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type or
class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role
5 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days
on the type class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role
 When refuelling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is
necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I)

All the flight crew be on board

The aircraft's stairs be completely extended
Refuelling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking
Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on board

refuelling performed while passengers are embarking or disembarking the aircraft:

is acceptable provided that all the aircraft doors must be completely opened
is acceptable provided that the ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency
evacuation and slide deployment areas must be kept clear
is prohibited
is acceptable provided that all flight crew shall remain at their station

A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more
than:

100 NM
50 NM
200 NM
400 NM

What is the requirement for the carriage of life rafts?

30 mins or 120 nm whichever is less

50 nm from land
120 mins or 400 nm whichever is less
60 mins flying time at the one engine out cruise speed

An operator shall not operate an aeroplane, across an area in which search and rescue would be
especially difficult, without survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an
emergency landing at a distance greater than:

a) 60 minutes at cruising speed

b) 90 minutes at cruising speed
c) 120 minutes at cruising speed
d) 30 minutes at cruising speed
The question does not specify the type of aircraft. Other question banks show the
question as "An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certicated to JAR25 ...."

The rule is:

OPS 1.835 Survival equipment

An operator shall not operate an aeroplane across areas in which search and rescue
would be especially difficult unless it is equipped with the following:

(a) Signalling equipment to make the pyrotechnical distress signals described in

ICAO Annex 2;

(b) At least one ELT(S) is capable of transmitting on the distress frequencies

prescribed in ICAO Annex 10, Volume V, Chapter 2; and
 (c) Additional survival equipment for the route to be flown taking account of the
number of persons on board except that the equipment specified in subparagraph
(c) need not be carried when the aeroplane either:

(1) Remains within a distance from an area where search and rescue is not
especially difficult corresponding to:

(i) 120 minutes at the one engine inoperative cruising speed for aeroplanes capable
of continuing the flight to an aerodrome with the critical power unit(s) becoming
inoperative at any point along the route or planned diversions; or

(ii) 30 minutes at cruising speed for all other aeroplanes, or,

(2) For aeroplanes certificated to the Certification Specifications in CS-25 or

equivalent, no greater distance than that corresponding to 90 minutes at cruising
speed from an area suitable for making an emergency landing

Assuming 60 passengers on board a land aeroplane. The intended track will overfly water for a
distance of 80 NM from the shore, the minimum number of passenger life jackets to be on board is:

0
66
60
None if equipped with life rafts

if required, the number of life rafts to be carried on board an aeroplane must allow the transportation
of the entire aeroplane occupants:

in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity

plus 10%
plus 20%
plus 30%

An aeroplane door would be rendered inoperative for the following unserviceabilities:

1. External opening mechanism

2. Internal opening mechanism
3. The emergency lighting
4. Doors hold open device
5. The door open assist device
6. Slide unserviceable

all of the above

1, 2, 5, 6
2, 3, 4 , 6
1, 2, 3, 4

an operator shall not operate across areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult,
unless it is equipped with:

1. signalling equipment
2. at least one ELT
4. additional survival equipment

3. at least 2 ELTs
1, 3, 4
1, 2, 4
1, 4
2, 4

Assuming a multi-engine land aeroplane with 60 persons on board. The cruising speed is 180 kt. The
aeroplane is capable of continuing the flight with the critical power-unit becoming inoperative. The track
will overfly water for a distance of 380 NM from shore. The emergency equipment on board must
include:

1 lift raft of 30-seat capacity and 2 life rafts of 20-seat capacity

2 life rafts of 30-seat capacity
3 life rafts of 30-seat capacity
none, distance being less than 400 NM

For aircraft capable of continuing flight to an aerodrome with a critical engine

inoperative when either 120 minutes (at cruising speed) or 400 NM, whichever is
lesser, from land.

In this case 180 x 2 = 360. The track will overfly water for a distance of 380 NM
from shore so life rafts are required.

The liferaft capacity must be sufficient to carry all on board either assuming the life
raft of largest capacity fails to inflate or including a spare liferaft of the largest
capacity.

When is it compulsory to carry life jackets for each person on board?

1.Flight over water and at a distance of more than 50 nm from shore

4.Where a hazard exists during take-off or landing or ditching

2.Cruising speed unable to reach shore with one engine inoperative

3.flight over water more than 100 nm from shore

1, 4
2, 3
3, 4
1, 2, 3, 4

Ruling out 3 is enough to get this one right

When you have been unlawfully interfered with, the commander is required to inform certain people:

(i) State of the Operator

(ii) ICAO
(iii) State of registration of aircraft

(iv) CAA

(i), (ii) and (iii)

(ii), (iii) and (iv)
(i), (iii) and (iv)
all of the above
 You are the captain of a commercial airplane and you notice, after take-off, a flock of birds which may
present a bird strike hazard, you must:

inform the other aircraft by radio

immediately inform the appropriate ground station
inform the appropriate ground station within a reasonable period of time
draft a bird strike hazard report upon arrival and within at most 48 hours

The observations and studies conducted on the behaviour of birds on the ground, ahead of an aircraft
taking off and having reached an average speed of 135 kt, show that birds fly away:

about two seconds beforehand

about ten seconds beforehand
as soon as they hear the engines noise
from the beginning of the take-off roll

Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an aerodrome?

The extraction of minerals such as sand and gravel

Mowing and maintaining the grass long
A modern sewage tip in close proximity
A refuse tip in close proximity
Birds congregate naturally in areas where food is available (rubbish sites)

Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds?

Edible rubbish
Long grass
An area liable to flooding
Short gang-mown grass

As regards the detection of bird strikehazard, the pilot means of information and prevention are:

1.ATIS
2.NOTAMs
5.The report by another crew

3.BIRDTAMs
4.Weather radar

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1,2,5
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
1, 3, 4
2, 5

BIRDTAMs do exist. Their use varies widely and depends on individual States. In
general, not in wide useage. According to this question its not listed among the
correct options.

90% of bird strikes occur:

under 500 m
above 1000 m
between 500 and 1000 m
between 500 and 1500 m

An analysis of the bird strikes shows that the highest risk is encountered in a layer from:

from 0 to 150 m
from 500 to 1200 m
from 100 to 800 m
from 200 to 500 m

51% of birdsrikes occur below 100 ft

During take-off an aircraft hits a bird. Due to control vibrations a landing must be made immediately.
Following this icident the pilot:

must file an AIR PROX report: the Control Tower having given no warning
must file a Bird Strike report
must file a airworthiness report
is not obliged to report this incident

What is the best way of clearing birds from an airfield using modern methods?

Model predators
Shell crackers
Flashing lights
Recorded distress calls

The most efficient bird scaring technique generally available is:

the use of model predators, scarecrows, etc

broadcasting of recorded distress calls
firing shellcrackers
various visual methods

The abbreviation AOC stands for:

Aircrew operators certificate

Air operator competence
Aircraft operations certificate
Air operators certificate

What is the requirement for the issue of an AOC?

Not already hold an AOC issued by another authority

Have a fleet of serviceable aeroplanes
Have registered offices in all countries of operations
Have facilities for all maintenance

Is it necessary to carry the entire Operations Manual on each flight?

No, only the parts required for the conduct of the flight and those concerning crew duty
No, only the parts required for the conduct of the flight
Yes
No, only the parts concerning crew duty

A copy of which of the following documents must be kept on the ground by an operator for the
duration of each flight?

The journey log

The ATC (Air Traffic Control) flight plan
The operational flight plan
The meteorological forecast

What manuals are to be carried on board the aircraft?

Operations Manual in toto

Company instructions for all flight crew
All those specified in the Certificate of Airworthiness
Relevant parts of the ops manual and AFM

Which of the following forms or information are NOT required to be carried on all flight?

1. The Operational Flight Plan (OFP)

2. Mass and Balance Documentation
3. NOTAMS
4. The Technical Log
5. Maps and Charts

6. Passenger and Cargo Manifests

All except 1
All except 3
All except 6
All except 4

The operator is to provide an Operations Manual for:

Operations staff
All company personnel
Only for flight crew
For the Authority

After an accident, the operator of an airplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original
recordings for a minimum period of:

60 days
30 days
90 days
45 days

When requested by an Authority to produce the aircraft documentation required to be carried on

board, the commander:

can request a delay of 48 hours

shall comply within a reasonable period of time
can refuse to present them
shall only comply if authorised by the operator
 Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of information. The operator will
see that this file is kept on ground. It contains more particularly:

2. One copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the weight and balance sheet
3. Copies of the relevant parts of the aircrafts material report
4. The en-route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the operator
5. Notification for special loadings

1. The weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast at destination
6. For each flight, details of the days performances and limitations with completed charts

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

2, 3, 4, 5
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
1, 3, 5
2, 4
Certain key flight documents must be kept behind on the ground after the flight
departs. The following need to be kept:

• A copy of the operational flight plan where appropriate

• Copies of the relevant part(s) of the technical log

• Route specific NOTAM documentation if specifically edited by the Operator

• Mass and balance documentation

• Special loads (dangerous goods) notification

The information is retained until it has been duplicated at the place at which it will
be stored.

An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:

a copy of the weight and balance sheet

a copy of the calculated take-off performances
the calculation of the airborne fuel quantity
the aircraft equipment report (log book)

An operator must ensure that, for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground a copy of the:

operation flight plan

ATC (Traffic Control) flight plan
flight plan processing
flight route sheet

The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records:

1. the training
2. the test results
3. a log of flying hours
4. a summary of the training by reference period
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct answers?

1, 2, 3, 4
1, 2, 3
2, 3
3, 4

With reference to the retention of documents how long must command course records be kept by the
operator:

3 months
15 months
24 months
3 years

an operator shall ensure that a copy of the operational flight plan is stored in an acceptable form for
at least:

12 months
3 months
15 months
24 months

the operator must ensure that the mass and balance documentation of a flight is stored for a
minimum period of:

1 month
3 months
6 months
1 year

the operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a
minimum period of:

15 months
3 months
24 months
12 months

According to JAR OPS its 24 months whereas according to EU OPS its 36 months
after the date of the last entry

With reference to the retention of documents how long must journey logs be kept by the operator:

3 months
12 months
15 months
24 months

An operator is required to maintain certain records of flight crew training. These include:

1.Type Rating Courses

2.Conversion Courses
3.Recurrent Training
4.Command Courses
All of the above

An operator shall produce documents and records, when requested by the Authority, within:

ten days
24 hours
a reasonable time
14 days

What skills constitute pilot proficiency checks?

Simulator flying skills

The ability to land safely
Flying technique, emergency procedures and IFR
The ability to conform with set procedures

How often should pilot proficiency checks be performed?

No less than 6 months between checks

2 checks every 13 months
3 checks within the year with no less than 4 months between checks
2 within a year, more than 4 months between checks

The period of validity of an operator proficiency check is:

6 months
12 months
18 months
2 years

The period of validity of a line check is:

6 months
12 months
18 months
2 years

Destination alternate for a turbojet- what is the required fuel overhead?

30 minutes at cruise speed

30 minutes at 1,500 in standard conditions
2 hours at 1,500 in standard conditions
30 minutes at endurance speed

For an aeroplane powered by turbo-jet engines, the fuel and oil to be carried is at least the amount
sufficient to allow the aeroplane:

to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach, at the aerodrome to which the flight is
to have an additional amount of fuel sufficient to provide for the increased consumption on the
occurrence of any of the potential contingencies specified by the operator to the satisfaction of the State
of the operator; or

to fly to the alternate aerodrome via any predetermined point and thereafter for 30 minutes at 450m
(1500 ft) above the alternate aerodrome

All of the above

the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a final reserve fuel for:

45 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions
30 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard
conditions
30 minutes of flight at cruising speed at FL 140
45 minutes of flight at cruising speed at FL 140

In accordance with the fuel policy for isolated aerodromes, for aeroplanes with turbine engines, the
amount of Additional Fuel should not be less than the fuel to fly after arriving overhead the destination
aerodrome for:

2 hours at normal cruise consumption, including final reserve fuel

30 minutes at normal cruise consumption, including final reserve fuel
2 hours at holding consumption at 1500 ft (450m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions
30 minutes at holding consumption at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard
conditions

a commander shall ensure that the amount of usable fuel remaining in flight is not less than the fuel
required to proceed to an aerodrome where a safe landing can be made with:

fuel to fly 20 minutes at best range speed

15 minutes of remaining fuel
fuel to hold 30 minutes at 1500 ft above the aerodrome
final reserve fuel remaining
Question does not specify what kind of aeroplane. Holding for 30 minutes at 1500 ft
is for turbines. So "final reserve fuel remaining" is the best choice available.

The minimum flight crew for night transport of passengers according to the instrument flight rules is:

2 pilots for turbo-jet aircraft and turbo-prop aircraft with more than 9 passenger seats

2 pilots for any aircraft weighing more than 5.7 tons or having more than 9 passenger seats

2 pilots for any turbo-prop aircraft weighing more than 5.7 tons or for any turbo-jet aircraft

1 pilot for any aircraft weighing less than 5.7 tons, provided that the maximum certified number of
passenger seats is less than 9
Rule out the weight to get this one right
 The minimum crew for all turbo propeller aeroplanes is 2 when:

There are 9 or more passengers carried

The seating configuration is more than 9
The seating configuration is more than 19
There are more than 19 passengers carried

for operations under IFR or at night the minimum flight crew is 2 pilots for:

all turbo-propeller aeroplanes with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of

more than 9 and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes
all turbo-propeller aeroplanes and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes
all turbo-propeller aeroplanes with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than
19 and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes
all turbo-propeller aeroplanes and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes with a maximum approved passenger
seating configuration of more than 9

In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual indicates a minimum crew of one
pilot, when do the regulations require the presence of a second pilot?

If the flight lasts more than 3 hours

If the aircraft is a twin-engine
If part or all the flight is done at night
Never

What is a dry lease?

Where the person leasing the aeroplane is responsible fuel etc

Where the aeroplane is operated under the AOC of the person to whom it is leased
Where the aeroplane is operated under the AOC of the person from who it is leased
Where the leased aeroplane comes complete with flight crew

Damp lease is:

One operator leases out, or in, just the aeroplane no crew is involved
The aeroplane and a full crew
The lessor provides the aeroplane plus cockpit crew and the lessee provides the cabin crew
None of the above

Who has the responsibility to take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an
aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference until their journey can be continued?

CAA
Commander of the aircraft
Aeroplanes operator
Contracting State in which the unlawful interference occurs

Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the commander should
submit a report of the act to:

the Authority of the State of the operator only

the local authority only
both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator
the Authority of the State within which the aeroplane is operating at the time of the unlawful
interference

In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of
the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify
the:

State of the operator, the CAA and ICAO

State of Registry of the aircraft and the CAA
State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and ICAO
State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator only

when a commercial transport passenger airplane is equipped with a door in the flight crew
compartment area, this door must include:

a locking system to prevent any unauthorised access

a device preventing the flight crew from being locked in the cockpit
distinctive red or yellow coloured markings indicating the access area (in case of a blocked door)
a sealing system allowing the maintenance for as long as possible of the pressure in the cockpit in case
of a depressurisation in the compartment area

What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected
to unlawful interference: 7500

When you have been unlawfully interfered with, the state in which you land is required to inform
certain people:

1. State of the Operator

2. ICAO
3. State of registration of aircraft

4. CAA

According to ICAO Annex 17, following an unlawful interference, who shall take adequate measures
for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft, until their journey can be continued? The:

contracting State in which the unlawful interference occurs

CAA
Commander of the aircraft
aircraft's operator

A bomb alert is received at cruise altitude, fuel is not a problem that needs to be considered, what do
you do?

Descend to safety altitude

Go to the maximum altitude not affected by pressure
Go to cabin altitude pressure and remain clean until the final approach
Descend to cabin pressure altitude or safety altitude whichever is the higher, and go to
landing configuration as a safety measure

When a third pilot is carried on a public transport flight as cruise pilot the first officer must hold

a CPL
a CPL with theoretical exams passed at ATPL level
an ATPL
an ATPL and be certificated as Captain on type
 In a 4 engined jet transport aircraft, in order to gain the optimum performance, a cruise climb
technique is sometimes applied. This normally involves flying the aircraft at:

levels above the optimum altitude

the service ceiling
levels below the optimum altitude
about the optimum altitude

For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the optimum altitude and the lock-on altitude
increases. The most cost-effective flight plan will consist of choosing cruising levels which increase
during the flight in order to fly:

between the lock-on altitude and the optimum altitude

about the lock-on altitude
about the optimum altitude
just below the optimum altitude
Lock-on Altitude: May be they mean that altitude which gets captured by the
autopilot (locks-on) while approaching the level in a climb

a jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have:

increased manoeuvring limits

reduced range
increased flight envelope
increased Mach number stability

The number of emergency exits must be:

Dependent on aeroplane capacity

Enough to evacuate the passengers in 90 sec. with 50% of the emergency exits unavailable
chosen by the operator
Enough to evacuate the passengers in 120 sec with 50% of the emergency exits unavailable

Following an electrical failure, the emergency lighting unit must provide illumination for:

90 secs
5 mins
10 mins
30 mins

When a potentially hazardous condition is encountered in flight:

the appropriate ground station must be notified as soon as practicable

other aircraft should be informed without delay
the operator must be notified within two hours of landing
the Authority must be notified within ten days

the time for emergency evacuation where the seating capacity is more than 44 is: 90 sec with 50%
of the exits unavailable
 The safety position for adults looks like: seat belts fastened:

head placed on a knee cushion, arms around the thigh

head down as far as possible, grasp the passenger in front of you
head down as far as possible, grasp the legs with your arms
cross the arm in front of the face

In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants will:

2. have the passengers embark directly in the liferafts

3. prevent passenger movements which may impede the airplanes floatation ability
4. ensure the complete evacuation of the airplane.

1. evacuate women and children first

The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:

an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board
a landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no injuries will result to the occupants
a voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft and its
occupants
an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on
board or on the surface

Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you will:

1.Remain on the runway

4.Turn off all systems

2.Clear the runway using the first available taxiway

3.Keep one engine or the APU running in order to maintain the electrical power supply on

After ditching, when must a passenger inflate the lift jacket?

If the water is deep

Before leaving the aeroplane
On entering the water
When exiting the aeroplane

In case you have to assume the emergency brace position, do you:

1.legs together, feet flat on the floor

3.Head on forearms
4.Head on seat in front
5.Seat belt tight round waist

2.Arms on arm rests

The correct combination is:

All of the above

1, 2, 3, 4
1, 3, 4, 5
1, 2, 4, 5
Ruling out option 2 is enough to get this one right
 The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers, sitting in the travelling direction, in case of an
emergency landing are:

1.legs together and feet flat on the floor

4.seat belt very tightly fastened
5.head resting on the forearm

2.head resting against the back of the front seat

3.forearms on the armrests

a) 2, 3, 4
b) 2, 4, 5
c) 1, 4, 5
d( 1, 2, 3, 4

After an overweight landing on a short runway, do you check:

Pressure of tyres
pressure of hydraulic fluid
Temperature of hydraulic fluid
Temperature of brakes

After an accident or serious incident in flight, the state where the aeroplane lands should report to:

State of Registry/ICAO
State of Registry/State of the Operator
State of Registry/JAA
State of Registry/ State of the Operator/ICAO

Who is responsible for initiating the procedures outlined in the Operations Manual in the event of an
emergency?

In the air the aircraft commander, on the ground the flight dispatcher
In the air the pilot, on the ground the operator
In the air the flight crew, on the ground ATC
In the air the cabin crew, on the ground the handling agent

Wake Turbulence and Separation Minima

For Exam

Since exam questions do not include the Super category, learn the following abbreviated table and
reproduce it in the exam to save time and get the answers right.

For a given aeroplane, the wake turbulence increases when the aeroplane has a: "high mass and low
airspeed"

For a light aircraft following a medium what is the minimum time for wake turbulence separation
(assuming take-off from the same point)?

3 min
2 min
1 min
5 min

The radar separation between a medium aeroplane followed by a light aeroplane departing from or
arriving on the same, or parallel runway less than 760 m apart is:

4 nm
3 nm
5 nm
2 nm

For a medium then a light aeroplane on the approach, what is the required separation?

2 mins
3 mins
1 min
4 mins

According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be
applied to:

MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft

MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel runway
separated by less than 760 m
LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway

LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft

Except the first option, for all others it would be 3 mins

According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall
be applied:

to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a runway with a
displaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross

to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a runway with a
displaced landing threshold

to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel
runway separated by less than 760m

Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft
utilising an opposite-direction runway for take-off

When must wake turbulence be considered?

High rate roll manoeuvres over the runway

A heavy category landing with full lift enhancing devices employed
A heavy landing in a strong crosswind
A high landing in a light crosswind

What is the dispersal time for wake turbulence from a wide-bodied aircraft?

30 secs
1 nm
3 mins
10 mins

The wake turbulence category HEAVY applies to aircraft with a max certificated all up mass in pounds
in excess of:

299,200
275,000
136,000
125,000

Dont jump to conclusion, read the full question! Answer has to be in Pounds not Kgs

Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take-off:

separate on each side of the runway

stagnate on the runway
separate to the right side
separate to the left side

According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall
be applied to:

LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by less than 760m
(using whole runway)
LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same runway
MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft

To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuvre:

Below and downwind from the larger aircraft

Above and downwind from the larger aircraft
Above and upwind from the larger aircraft
Below and upwind from the larger aircraft

For the purposes of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance
if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same
runway?

9.3 km (5 NM)
7.4 km (4 NM)
11.1 km (6 NM)
3.7 km (2 NM)

The wake turbulence:

starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when retracting the drag devices
starts as soon as the aeroplane is running for take-off and stops as soon as it has come to a stop at
landing
starts when the airplane reaches a height of 300 ft above the ground and stops when it crosses this
height before landing
starts during the rotation and stops as soon as the airplanes wheels touch the ground

The wake turbulance caused by an aircraft is mainly the result of:

1.An aerodynamical effect (wing tip vortices)

2.The engines action (propellers rotation or engine gas exhausts)

3.The importance of the drag devices (size of the landing gear, of the flaps, etc).

According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be
applied to:

MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel separated by
less than 760m
MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway
LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft

For purposes of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation time if a
light aeroplane (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136,000 kg but more than
7,000 kg) on the approach to landing?

2 minutes
4 minutes
5 minutes
3 minutes
 For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is
permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the
same runway? 3 minutes

When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the left side, you adopt a path,
whenever possible?

distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the right of and under its path
distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the left of and above its path
identical to the one of the preceding airplane
distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its path

You have to be above and there is only one choice which mentions that

The wake turbulence is the most severe when the aircraft is:

1.slow
2.heavy
3.in a clean configuration

4.flying with a high thrust

Wake turbulence should be taken into account when:

a preceding aeroplane has performed low altitude high roll rate rolling manoeuvres over the runway
when just before the landing a much lighter aeroplane has landed with a strong crosswind on a long
runway
during cruise the vertical separation is reduced to 1000 ft
a much heavier aeroplane has landed just previously on the same runway, a light crosswind
condition exist and all high-lift devices are being used

In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft:

The runway will be clear of any hazard turbulence

The left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway
The right and left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway
The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway

When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off:

in front of the point where the aircrafts wheels have touched down
beyond the point where the aircrafts wheels have touched down
at the point where the aircrafts wheels have touched down and on the wind side of the runway
at the point where the aircrafts wheels have touched the ground and on the underwind side of the
runway

According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9.3 km (5.0 NM) shall
be applied when a:

LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1000 ft)
LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300m
(1000 ft)
HEAVY aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300m (1000 ft)
MEDIUM aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1000 ft)
 The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-
off is about:

3 minutes
30 seconds
1 minute
10 minutes

When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the right side, you adopt a path,
whenever possible?

identical to the one of the preceding airplane

distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the left of and under its path
distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the right of and above its path
different from the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its path

To which situation is 3 mins wake turbulence separation applied?

Light following a medium departing from a runway intersection on a parallel runway less
than 760m apart
A light taking off after a heavy has taken off in the opposite direction
A medium landing after a heavy aircraft
A light aircraft departing after a heavy on the same runway

Under what conditions is a radar separation of 5 nm required for wake turbulence spacing:

Heavy following a heavy

Medium following a heavy
Light following a heavy
Heavy following a medium

For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and
minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136,000 kg and more than 7,000 kg) is following
directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?

7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes

11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes
9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes
9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes

According to DOC 4444 (ICAO) a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be
applied:

to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a runway with a
displaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross

between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft
utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off

to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of parallel
runway separated by less than 760m

to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a runway with a
displaced landing threshold

You are a heavy aeroplane behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach. What is the required
separation? 7.4 km, 4 nm

For a light aircraft departing after a medium what is the minimum time for wake turbulence
separation? 2 min

What is the major factor causing wake turbulence?

1.Wing Tip Vortices

2.Engines
3.High Lift Devices
4.Size of the Landing Gear

A strongly swept back wing stalls. If the wake of the wing contacts the horizontal tail, the effect on the
stall behaviour can be:

tendency to increase speed after initial stall

nose up tendency and/or lack of elevator response
nose down tendency
increase sensitivity of elevator inputs

A strongly swept back wing tends to stall at the tip first. The loss of lift on this aft
portion of the wing causes pitch-up. The wake that contacts the horizontal tail will
be a turbulent, separated flow , which will tend to make the elevators ineffective. If
the aircraft stabilises in this situation it is in a deep stall.

In calm wind conditions, an aircraft at take-off creates tip vortices that: separate outwards on each
side of the runway

The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into
account:

1. equipment available for navigation

2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways
3. composition of the flight crew
4. obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas
5. facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

When is MDH referenced to the threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation?

The threshold is more than 2m above the ARP

The threshold is less than 2m above the ARP
The threshold is less than 2m below the ARP
The threshold is more than 2m below the ARP

Which of the following statements is true?

OCH is referenced to aerodrome elevation

OCA is referenced to threshold elevation
OCH is referenced to threshold elevation
Both OCA and OCH are referenced to aerodrome elevation

assuming the following circumstances:

- for a Category A aeroplane

- an aerodrome equipped with runway edge lighting and centre line lighting and multiple RVR
information
- an acceptable alternate aerodrome is available

What is the minimum RVR value for take-off?

200 m
150 m
250 m
300 m

For two-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be
located (in still air conditions) within:

two hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating
two hours flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed
one hour flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating
one hour flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed
 For three and four-engined aeroplanes, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air
conditions) within:

2 hours flight time at one-engine-inoperative cruising speed

2 hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating
1 hour flight time at one-engine-inoperative cruising speed
1 hour flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating

The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 knots. The aircraft is flown
by a single pilot. The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity runway centre lights and RVR
readings for threshold mid and end of runway. The approach minimums for runway 06 are: DH = 300
feet, horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 metres. The weather conditions are: horizontal visibility (HV) 900
metres and ceiling 200 feet, is take-off possible:

Yes, if there is an accessible airport within 75 NM

No, the ceiling being below the DH for the runways approach procedure
No, visibility being below 1,200 metres
Yes, visibility being higher than the horizontal visibility for the approach procedure
Under EU OPS

Under the current applicable regulation for commercial air transport, EU-OPS,
commercial air transport with single engine aeroplanes operated at night or in
instrument meteorological conditions except under special VFR (SE-IMC) is not
permitted mainly because of the risk involved with the level of engine reliability that
existed when the ICAO rules were originally promulgated. Nevertheless, some
Member States, including Finland, France, Greece, Norway, Spain and Sweden have
already approved, under derogation principles, domestic SE-IMC operations but for
cargo only and under specific conditions.

Under ICAO

Annex 6

5.4.1 In approving operations by single-engine turbine-powered aeroplanes at night

and/or in IMC, the State of the Operator shall ensure that the airworthiness
certification of the aeroplane is appropriate and that the overall level of safety
intended by the provisions of Annexes 6 and 8 is provided by:

a) the reliability of the turbine engine;

b) the operator’s maintenance procedures, operating practices, flight dispatch

procedures and crew training programmes;

and

c) equipment and other requirements provided in accordance with Appendix 3.

5.4.2 All single-engine turbine-powered aeroplanes operated at night and/or in IMC

shall have an engine trend monitoring system, and those aeroplanes for which the
individual certificate of airworthiness is first issued on or after 1 January 2005 shall
have an automatic trend monitoring system.

Takeoff Alternate for Single Engine Aircraft

Cant find any reference for aeroplanes. There is one for Helicopters that says:

Takeoff Minimums (Rotor Wing)

 A PIC (not designated as a High Minimums Captain) may takeoff from a runway
when the reported RVR for that runway is at, or above 800 feet or 1/8 statute mile
visibility, which ever is lower providing that:

• There exists a suitable takeoff alternate within 75 nm

An operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a non-precision approach procedure which is based
upon the use of a VOR is not lower than:

150 ft
200 ft
250 ft
300 ft

A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the
horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:

1,600 m
2,400 m
1,500 m
3,600 m

A category B aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the
horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:

2,400 m
1,500 m
3,600 m
1,600 m

MDH and meteorological visibility for a category C aircraft circling are respectively: 600 ft and 2,400
m

The minimum MDH and meteorological visibility for a category D aircraft circling are respectively: 700
ft and 3,600 m

The pilot of a category A aircraft is flying a non-precision direct IFR approach with the following
operational minimums: MDH 250 feet and visibility 750 metres. RVR for threshold, mid and end of the
runway are given by the controller:

the pilot may start the final approach if the three RVR are higher than 750 metres
the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold and mid-runway RVR are higher than 750 metres
the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold RVR is higher than 750 metres flying a
non-precision approach
the pilot may start the final approach only if he has a meteorological visibility higher than 750 metres.
RVR are to be taken into account only for precision approaches

An aircraft flies a VOR/DME direct approach for which the operational minima are:

MDH = 360 feet

Horizontal visibility = 1,500 metres
Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2,500 metres

The pilot may start the final approach:

if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 360 feet
whatever the ceiling given by ATC
if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet
if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet during the day and
360 feet at night
To take-off, both your destination and required alternates need to be at or above
planning minima for ETA +/- 1 hr.

At this stage, "planning min" for the destination is actually your operating minima.

e.g. If there is a CAT 2 approach, and you are qualified, the plannig minima for the
destination will be CAT 2 operating minima.

Planning minima for the detination alternate is to see what kind of approach is
available and go up a level.

e.g. If a CAT 1 approach is available, the weather must permit non-precision.

For a precision approach, the only weather you need to consider is RVR.

For a non-precision approach you must consider RVR, MDH and cloud ceiling.

After take-off - The rules change.

You can continue as long as destination or alternate is at or above the applicable

aerodrome operating minimums.

So even if your destination is below minima, you may continue, as long as your
 alternate is above minima.

Coming to the approach phase, let's say the destination visibility falls below
minima.

In this case we can begin the approach regardless of the RVR, but cannot continue
beyond the outer marker (or equivalent) unless the RVR is at or above the
applicable approach minimum.

At this stage, the decision to continue is based only on RVR - for both precision and
non-precision approaches, cloud are not considered.

The aerodrome operating minima for a VOR/DME approach are:

MDH = 360 ft
Required RVR = 1500 metres
Reported RVR is 1800 metres.

The pilot may continue the final approach:

regardless of the ceiling reported

if the ceiling reported is higher than 360 ft
if the ceiling reported is higher than 240 ft
if the ceiling reported is higher than 240 ft during the day and 360 ft at night

A VOR/DME Approach is a Non-Precision Approach. The only consideration for

continuation of an instrument approach is the RVR; the ceiling is of no consequence.
The RVR MUST be at least that specified in the approach minima by the Outer
Marker (or equivalent position) or where no such Outer Marker or position exists, no
lower than 1,000' AAL. Therefore, the approach can be commenced regardless of
the RVR but shall not be continued beyond the outer marker, or equivalent position,
if the reported RVR/visibility is less than the applicable minima. If the Outer Marker
or equivelent position has already been passed and the RVR then drops below
minima the approach may be continued down to DA/H or MDA/H.

The considerations for a non-precision approach are:

1.MDA (H)
2.DH
3.Ceiling
4.Horizontal visibility

a) 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 4

The question does not tell us whether its the planning stage or the approach phase.
So we'll have to think differently.

Since its a non-precision approach, option 2 (DH) is out. That rules out (a) and (d).

For a non-precision approach:

"Ceiling" is a consideration while planning but not in the air.

"Visibility" is a consideration during planning and in the air.

 So option 4 (visibility) has to be included. This rules out (c).

What is DH used for:

Visual manoeuvring
Circling to land
Precision approaches
Non-precision approaches

MDA is:

a specified height in a Non-precision Approach or Circling Approach below which the descent must not
be made without the required visual reference
a specified altitude in a Non-precision Approach or Circling Approach below which the
descent must not be made without the required visual reference
referenced to the Runway Threshold (THR) elevation
b and c are correct

What is the system minimum for an NDB approach?

200 ft
250 ft
300 ft
350 ft

In accordance with Aerodrome Operating Minima, an operator must ensure that system minima for
non-precision approach procedures, which are based upon the use of ILS without glide path (LLZ only),
VOR NDB, SRA, and VDF are no lower than MDH following value with:

NDB facility, lowest MDH = 300 ft

ILS facility without glide path (localiser) lowest MDH = 200 ft
VOR facility, lowest MDH = 250 ft
VOR/DME facility, lowest MDH = 300 ft

On an ILS, you are told that the weather has dropped below company minima. When must you abort
the approach?

Start of the glide slope descent

FAF
Inner Marker
Outer Marker

The ATIS reports destination weather as RVR 200 m, overcast at 100 ft throughout the approach. The
approach procedure is NDB to ILS with a locator NDB at the OM. The minima for the approach are DH
200 ft, RVR 600m. Which of the following statements is true?

The approach may not be commenced

The approach may be commenced but not continued beyond the OM
The approach may be commenced but not continued below 1000 ft
The approach may be commenced but not continued below DH unless the required visual references are
present

In accordance with Aerodrome Operating Minima for a Category III A approach, the RVR shall not be
less than: 200 m

An operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a non-precision approach procedure which is based
upon the use of an ILS (glide slope out) is not lower than:

150 ft
200 ft
250 ft
300 ft

where no outer marker or equivalent position exists, if the reported RVR/Visibility is less than the
applicable minima, the approach shall not be continued beyond:

1000 ft above the aerodrome/heliport

the FAF
the middle marker
the glide slope intersection

When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed
at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing
configuration at the maximum certified landing weight multiplied by a factor of:

1.3
1.45
1.5
1.15

Regarding all weather operations, if VAT is from 91 kt to 120 kt, the aeroplane is in: Category B

Regarding all weather operations, if VAT is from 121 kt to 140 kt, the aeroplane is in: Category C

In accordance with Aerodrome Operating Minima General, it is established, among other

considerations, that an Operator must take full account of Aeroplane Categories. The criteria taken into
consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat),
which is equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3.
Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kts to 165 kts is:

E
D
B
C

An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250¿ and minimum visibility of 750
metres. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When may the approach be started?

When threshold and mid-runway RVRs are greater than 750m

when all 3 RVRs are greater than 750m
When the met viz is greater than 750m. RVR is for precision approaches only
When threshold RVR is greater than 750m

ILS Categories

The Cat I minimum decision height is: 200 feet

A category 1 precision approach (CAT 1) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway
visual range of at least: 550 m

A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with: a decision height of at least 100 ft

A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway
visual range of at least: 200 m

a Category III B operations, is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with, a
decision height lower than 50 ft, or no decision height and a runway visual range lower than 200m but
no less than: 75 m

A Category III B precision approach (CAT III is an approach which may be carried out with a
runway visual range of at least?

150 m
150 m
75 m
200 m

The RVR for a Category III B operation with roll out guidance the minimum RVR is:

50 m
75 m
125 m
200 m

The RVR for a Category III B operation with roll out guidance or control systems that fail passive, the
minimum RVR is:

50 m
75 m
125 m
200 m
 Category III B - Fail Operational - 75 m

Category III B - Fail Passive - 125 m

A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is an approach with: no runway visual range limits

What is the minimum RVR for a CAT III C approach? No minimum

One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available
information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome
of alternative destination, are: (Annex 6, Part l)

a) At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required
for aerodrome use

b) At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time,
equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use

c) At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for
aerodrome use

d) At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use
The question (as mentioned) is based on Annex 6 part I, which does not specify the
time margin (i.e. a period before and after). Time margin has to be established by
the operator and approved the state of operator, for which guidance can be found
in Doc 9976 and not Annex 6 Part I. So option (b) is out.
 (c) is out because minima has to be equal to or above on "Arrival" not takeoff.

(d) is out because minima has to be "equal to or above" not only above.

Annex 6 Part I

4.3.5.2 A flight to be conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules shall
not:

a) take off from the departure aerodrome unless the meteorological conditions, at
the time of use, are at or above the operator’s established aerodrome operating
minima for that operation; and

b) take off or continue beyond the point of in-flight re-planning unless at the
aerodrome of intended landing or at each alternate aerodrome to be selected in
compliance with 4.3.4, current meteorological reports or a combination of current
reports and forecasts indicate that the meteorological conditions will be, at the
estimated time of use, at or above the operator’s established aerodrome operating
minima for that operation.

4.3.5.4 The State of the Operator shall approve a margin of time established by the
operator for the estimated time of use of an aerodrome.

Note: Guidance on establishing an appropriate margin of time for the estimated

time of use of an aerodrome is contained in the Flight Planning and Fuel
Management Manual (Doc 9976).

A flight under IFR should not be commenced unless the weather conditions at destination and a
nominated alternate are on:

a) arrival equal to or above, within a reasonable period of time before and after the
nominated time, the operating minima for aerodrome use

b) arrival equal to and above the operating minima for aerodrome use

c) departure equal to or above the operating minima for aerodrome use

d) or above the minima between departure and the ETA

Minima has to be "equal to OR above", cannot be "equal to AND above", so (b) is

out

(c) and (d) are out because minima has to be equal to or above on "Arrival"

Since the question does not mention Annex 6 Part I (like the question above) (a) is
correct with the statement "within a reasonable period of time before and after the
nominated time"

SVFR may not be commenced when the visibility is less than:

1.5 km
3 km
5 km
6 km
 Special VFR flights must not be commenced when the visibility is less than 3 km
(JAA/EASA) and not otherwise conducted when the visibility is less than 1.5 km
(ICAO).

To conduct a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required is:

3000 m
1500 m
2500 m
5000 m

So how do you know if the question is about JAA or ICAO minima? Take a clue from
the phrase "minimum visibility required"

When can special VFR be commenced?

Visibility greater than 1500 m

Greater than 3 km vis
Visibility no more than 3000 m
Greater than 5 km vis

the operator shall ensure that:

for VFR flights conducted in class E airspace, flight visibility at and above 3050m (10000 ft) is at least 5
km (clear of cloud)
for VFR flights conducted in class B airspace, horizontal distance from clouds is at least 1000m
for VFR flights conducted in class F airspace, vertical distance from clouds is at least 250m
special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km

on an IFR flight a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather conditions at
the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above:

the planning minima, during a period from hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of
arrival at the aerodrome

the aerodrome operating minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time
of arrival at the aerodrome

the planning minima, at the estimated time of arrival

the aerodrome operating minima, at the estimated time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before
and after such a predicted time

If you are flying IFR to a destination with no alternative, when must weather be good for you to
continue?

3 hours before to 3 hours after ETA

3 hours before to 1 hour after ETA
2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA
1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA

If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the operator must:

not take-off until obtaining destination meteorological forecast

take extra fuel to fly two hours at holding speed
take extra fuel to fly one hour at holding speed, 1500 ft above the alternate aerodrome
select two destination alternates

An operator must select two destination alternates when either:

a) The appropriate weather reports or forecasts for the destination, or any combination thereof, indicate
that during a period commencing 1 hour before and ending 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival,
the weather conditions will be below the applicable planning minima:

b) No meteorological information is available

c) Both A and B are correct

d) Neither A nor B are correct

During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro
North with respect to the:

compass North
grid North
magnetic North
true North

Astronomic precession:

causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the southern hemisphere
causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Southern hemisphere
is zero at the North pole
is zero at the South pole
Astronomic Precession = Earth Rate

If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro compass (which is assumed to be operating
correctly) and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device which is properly corrected by
astronomical precession, the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is a:

rhumb line
great circle
curve of some type or other
spherical flight segment
A constant gyro (grid) track will be a great circle ... a constant True track would be a
rhumb line.

The wording to these questions is always a little 'incomplete' ... in terms of the
'Exam' answers ... if it says (or implies) constant grid (gyro) .... great circle ... if it
says (or implies) constant true ... rhumb line. This should get you the right answer !!
Source: [http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=11815]

In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant
gyro heading, following a

great circle line

rhumb line
spherical flight segment
straight map line

The autopilot is coupled to a gyro-magnetic compass corrected for variation so that true headings
may be flown. What path would you follow over the ground?

a rhumb line
a great circle
a curve of pursuit
none of the above

An aircraft leaves point P (60oN 030oW) on a true heading equal to 090° while the gyro compass,
which is assumed to be operating perfectly and without an hourly rate corrector unit, indicates 000°.
The aircraft arrives at point Q (62oN 010oW) on a true heading equal to 095°. On the journey from P to
Q the gyro compass remains in free gyro mode. If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes, the gyro heading
at Q will be:

328°
345°
003°
334°

Total Drift = Real wander + Earth's rotation + Latitude nut + Transport wander

In this case there is no latitude nut and real wander, so just work out the earth rate
and transport wander.

Earth rate = 15 x sine mean latitude in degrees per hour

15 deg per hour or 22.5 deg in 1.5 hours

Earth rate = 22.5 x sine 61 OR 15 x sine 61 x 1.5 = 19.68

Being in Northern Hemisphere it will be -19.68

Transport wander = Change of longitude x sine mean latitude

Transport wander = 20 x sine 61 = 17.49

Being in Northern Hemisphere it will be -17.49

Total error = (-19.68 ) + (-17.49) = -37.17

Gyro heading before error was 000 or 360

Gyro heading after the error = 360 - 37.17 = 322.83

True heading at start was 090° and at the end was 095°, a difference of 5°.

So Gyro heading = 322.83 + 5 = 327.83 or 328°

You plan to fly from point A (60oN 010oE) to point B (60oN 020oE). The gyro North of the gyro
compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true
North of point A. The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from A given that the flight
time scheduled is 1h30 min with a zero wind, is equal to:
066
080
076
085

No latitude nut correction

Earth Rate = 15 x sin Lat x 1.5

Earth Rate = 15 x sin 60° x 1.5 = 19.4

Earth Rate = -19.4 (northern hemisphere)

Transport Wander = 10 x sin Lat

Transport Wander = 10 x sin 60° = 8.6

Transport Wander = -8.6 (northern hemisphere)

Total error = -28

At start (N60° E010°) Grid Track = 090°G

090°G - 28 (error) = 062°G

At the end (N60° E020°) Grid Track = 062°G

The required, average Grid Track = 076°G

An aeroplane is at 60oN 010oE and is to fly to 60oN 020oE. The flight time is 1.5 hours in still air. The
gyro is set with the reference to true north and not corrected in flight for precession. What is the
required initial heading if a constant gyro heading is to be maintained?

080o
076o
066o
086o

With the Control Display Unit (CDU) of an Inertial Navigation System (INS) you can read the following
information:

Desired track (DTK) = 100°

Track (TK) = 120°

You can conclude that the:

track Error Angle (TKE) is left (L)

track Error Angle (TKE) is right (R)
aircraft is converging towards its ideal course
aircraft is diverging from its ideal course

Track you are flying is 20°R of the required track

A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the
earth magnetic field is less than:
19 micro-tesla
6 micro-tesla
38 micro-tesla
10 micro-tesla

The tesla (symbol T) is the SI derived unit of magnetic-field strength or magnetic-

flux density, commonly denoted as T, (which is also known as "magnetic field"). One
tesla is equal to one weber per square metre, and it was defined in honour of Nikola
Tesla.

Posit: g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude of the tangent. The
transport precession is equal to:

g/2*sin Lm
15o/h*sin Lm
g*(sin Lm-sin Lo)
g*sin Lm

A more decent way of asking is: If g = longitude difference, Lm = average latitude,

Lo = latitude of the tangent. The Transport Precession is?

Transport Wander = Change of longitude (g) x Sine mean latitude (Lm)

If it creates confusion than read the question from right to left

A minimum time track is a:

spherical capable flight segment

great circle track
rhumb line
track determined according to weather conditions

When a course is plotted at minimum time route, one passes from the air isochrone to the
corresponding ground isochrone by applying to point K (original spot) a vector KK which is equal to:

none
wind at K
mean wind from the preceding ground isochrone
mean wind up to the next ground isochrone

Isochrone means "the same time" and in this case means "a line joining a set of
points representing the distance travelled in the same unit of time".

This question relates to an obscure technique for manually calculating a minimum

time track. Now its done by compters. Those states who have updated their
databases no longer ask for this question in the exam.

Astronomic precession is:

depending on the chart used

independent of the latitude
existing whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying
zero when the aircraft is on the ground
 Astronomic Precession or Earth Rate = 15 x sine mean latitude in degrees per hour

The chart being used is a polar stereographic chart and grid north is aligned with the Greenwich
Meridian. The gyro is aligned with grid North, heading 120°, at 1400 UTC at latitude 60°N. Take-off is
delayed until 1630 UTC, gyro not corrected for rate precession:

+130
-32.50
-73.50
+32.50

Earth Rate = 15 x sine mean latitude in degrees per hour

Earth Rate = 15 x sine 60 x 2.5 = 32.47

In northern hemisphere it will be -32.47

How do you calculate Conversion Angle?

½ Ch long x sin lat

Ch long x sin lat.
½ Ch long x cos lat.
Ch long x cos lat.

Astronomic precession:

causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the Northern hemisphere
causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Northern hemisphere
is zero at the North pole
is zero at the South pole

Astronomic precession:

causes an apparent wander on the axis of the directional gyro to the right in the southern hemisphere
causes an apparent wander on the axis of the directional gyro to the left in the southern
hemisphere
is zero at the North pole
is zero at the South pole

Minimum time route is a route calculated for:

a period of 12 hours
a given flight from departure to destination
a period of 24 hours
aircraft flying in MNPS airspace

How is VOR information in N Canada airspace referenced?

Magnetic north
Grid north
Gyro north
True north
GRID NAVIGATION

A polar stereographic chart has a grid printed over it which is parallel to the meridian 054°W, with
Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. An aircraft is following a true course of 330°. At
position 80°N 140°E, its grid heading (GH) with this system will be:

316°
276°
136°
164°

Convergence = 54 + 140 = 194

True Track = 330

Grid Track = 330 + 194 = 164

OR

Grid Track = 330 - 194 = 136

The Diagram shows Grid Track to be between 90 and 180

So Grid Track = 330 - 194 = 136°

In a polar Antarctic regions, the pilot uses a South polar stereographic chart whose printed over grid is
parallel with the zero meridian and Grid North in the direction of geographic North along this meridian.
The aircraft position is 80oS 130oE, its true route is 110o, the grid route at this moment is:

240
060
110
340
 Convergence = 0 + 130 = 130

True Track = 110

Grid Track = 110 + 130 = 240

OR

Grid Track = 110 - 130 = 340

The Diagram shows Grid Track to be between 180 and 270

So Grid Track = 110 + 130 = 240°

The chart is a South polar stereographic projection of the Antarctic regions. A grid, printed over it, its
aligned with meridian 180o, the grid North in the direction of the geographic North (non standard grid).
The grid course followed by the aircraft is Rg-280o, the position is 80oS 100oE. The true course followed
at this moment is:

000
260
080
100
 Convergence = 80

Grid Track = 280

True Track = 200 or 360

Diagram Shows its 360.

On a polar stereographic chart with a grid based on the Greenwich meridian, a track is drawn from
62oN 010oE to 66oN 050oW. If the initial True track was 305o, what was the initial grid track?

315
305
295
285

Grid Convergence = 10

True Track = 305

Grid Track = 315 or 295

If you draw a diagram it will show its 295.

On a polar stereographic chart with grid aligned with the prime meridian; you are heading 045oT;
your position is 76oN 180oW, what is your grid heading?

045
225
315
135

Grid Convergence = 180

True Track = 045

Grid Track = 045 + or - 180 = 225

No need of a diagram here.

 A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel to the zero meridian, with Grid North
in the direction of the North geographic pole. In polar regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro
mode after leaving the 6 microteslas zone, and the grid heading controlled by information from the
inertial navigation system (INS) is 045o. After switching to magnetic mode, the compass heading is
220o. The INS position at this moment is 76oN 180oW. The magnetic variation on the chart is 10oE. The
compass shift on this heading at this point in time is;

-15°
+5°
-5°
+15°

Grid Convergence at 180W = 180

Grid Track = 45

True Track = 225

True Heading = 225 (no wind)

Variation = 10E

Magnetic Heading = 215

Compass Heading = 220

Compass Shift = -5

In the 6 microteslas zone the magnetic compass is of no use. DG (Gyro) mode will
be in use. Leaving the 6 microteslas zone, MAG (Magnetic) mode will be in use
again. Switching back to MAG mode, the compass heading is 220°M. The compass
will now align correctly to 215°M, in other words by -5°.

During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving
aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the:

grid North for any chart

grid North for a given chart
true North for a given chart
true North for any chart

It can be Grid or True North, depending on how you interpret. Not properly worded,
please rely on your memory for the exam.

In the Southern Hemisphere (130oE, 80oS), grid is aligned with the Greenwich Meridian, aircraft is
heading 110oT, what is the grid heading?

240
110
340
080

Convergence = 130

True Track = 110

Grid Track = 240 or 340

 Diagram shows a Grid track of 340

At 18h40min UTC, a complete failure of the inertial systems of an aircraft flying on the LONDON-
ANCHORAGE line occurs in the geographic North pole region. The wind is nil, the grid heading at this
moment is 315o. The crew then uses the Sun to continue the flight. The bearing of the Sun on
occurrence of the failure is:

NOTE:The time equation is nil. The chart used is a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with
the zero meridian, the Grid North is in direction of the geographic North pole.

035°
325°
180°
000°

The same question asked in a much simpler way:

Q. What is the true bearing of sun from an aeroplane at the North Pole using a grid
track of 315° at 1840Z?

A. Imagine an aircraft in the geographic North pole region. At mid-day the sun would
be over Greenwich.

If the heading was 360 then sun would be exactly behind and the relative bearing
would be 180.

Since the heading is 315 (45 deg to the left), the relative bearing will be 180 + 45 =
225.

Since the time is 1840 (i.e. 6 hours and 40 minutes or 6.66 hrs past mid-day), the
sun would be further west and not over Greenwich.

Travelling @15 deg per hour the sun will be 15 x 6.66 = 100 degrees west of
Greenwich.

The Relative bearing would increase further i.e 225 + 100 = 325 degrees

On a polar stereographic chart, with a grid referenced on the Greenwich meridian and convergency of
10oW, true heading of 300o, what is grid heading?

310
300
010
290

Everything is given in the question you just have to remember the rhyme:

Convergency West True Track Best, Convergency East True Track Least.

In this case convergency is given as 10W so true track (given as 300) is 10 deg
more than Grid. That means Grid is 290.

On the diagram where:

Nt = True North
Nm = Magnetic North
Ng = Grid North

If the magnetic variation is equal to 65oW and if the grid variation is equal to 4oE, the correct
arrangement of the different north is: 3

Variation is west (65W) so magnetic north is to the west of true north. That rules out
option 1.

Grivation is the algebraic sum of variation and convergence.

It helps in converting magnetic track to grid track.

Grivation East Magnetic Least, Grivation West Magnetic Best

Grivation of 4 means grid will be close to magnetic not true. This rules out option 4.

In this case grivation is east (4E) so magnetic track is less than grid track.

If the magnetic track is 360 or 000 and is less than grid by 4 deg then grid track will
be 004.

So the 000 Magnetic track is also 004 Grid track.

That means Grid North is 4 deg left (or West) of Magnetic North.

The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:

90 NM between aircraft flying above FL 285

60 NM between all aircraft operating below MNPS airspace
60 NM between aircraft meeting minimum navigation performance specifications
90 NM between all aircraft flying in the NAT region
 Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace of the North Atlantic is defined
within:

flight levels 270 and 400 from the equator to the pole
flight levels 285 and 420 from the 27o North to the pole
flight levels 280 and 475 from 27o North to the pole
sea level and FL 660 from 27o North to the pole

The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from:

30o North to 90o North

27o North to 90o North
27o North to 70o North
30o North to 70o North

When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to:

maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the last position shown in the oceanic
clearance
take the Mach number specified in this initial flight plan
take any Mach number
take the Mach number provided for this type of flight by his airline

The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground
stations in NAT region is:

121.5 MHz
123.45 MHz
243 MHz
118.5 MHz

During a flight to Europe, planning in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace,
you expect to cross the 30oW meridian at 00H30 UTC, you will then normally be:

within the organised night-time flight track system

with the organised daytime flight track system
out of the organised flight track system
in a random space
Eastbound OTS is operational from 0100 to 0800 UTC

If both precision navigation systems of an aircraft are unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace,
and if you cannot establish communication with the air traffic control, you:

descend below the MNPS space

take an intermediate flight level
return to departure airport
land at the nearest airport

The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number
is:

15 minutes
5 minutes
10 minutes
20 minutes
 During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the
longitudinal spacing must be at least:

20 minutes
10 minutes
15 minutes
5 minutes

In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across
the direction of the prevailing NAT traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft
able to maintain its assigned flight level should:

If below FL 410, climb or descend 1,000 ft while turning towards the alternate aerodrome
If below FL 410, climb 500 ft or descend 1,000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome
If above FL 410, climb 1,000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome
If above FL 410, climb or descend 1,000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome

Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:

Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within uncontrolled airspace
Flying above 3000 ft
Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within controlled airspace
Operating at or above FL 60 or 2000 ft whichever is higher

A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great
circle. The flight must be planned to take place:

at flight level FL 280 or less

outside scheduled flight times
at a Mach number of 0.70 or less
at a constant airspeed of 480 kt

The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace
can be at the very least:

Two inertial navigation units and a DECCA

Two inertial navigation units
Three inertial navigation units
One inertial navigation unit

An aircraft flying at flight level 370 (FL 370) on MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in
accordance with its air traffic control clearance (degradation of navigational performance requirements,
mechanics troubles etc) but is able to maintain its assigned level (FL 370), and due to a total lost of
communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its
assigned route or track by turning 90o (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the
subsequent action will be turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by
30 NM from its assigned route and:

climb or descend 1000 ft or descent 500 ft

climb or descend 1000 ft
climb or descend 500 ft
climb 500 ft or descend 1000 ft

During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace,
you expect to cross the 30oW meridian at 11H00 UTC; you will then normally be:
in a random space
within the organised daytime flight track system
within the organised night-time flight track system
out of the organised flight track system

At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within NAT region?

Between FL 290 and FL 410

Between FL 275 and FL 400
Between FL 245 and FL 410
Below FL 290

An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic
control clearance (due to degradation of navigational performance requirements), but is able to
maintain its assigned level and due to a total loss of communication capability could not obtain a
revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90o (90
degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be turn to acquire
and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb
1000 ft or descent 500 ft, if:

at FL 410
above FL 410
below FL 410
at FL 430

An aircraft flying above flight level 410 on MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance
with its air traffic control clearance (degradation of navigational performance requirements, mechanics
troubles, etc), but is able to maintain its assigned level, an due to a total loss of communications
capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or
track by turning 90o (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent
action will be turn to acquire and maintain in either direction track laterally separated by 30 NM from its
assigned route and:

climb 500 ft or descend 1000 ft

climb or descend 500 ft
climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft
climb or descend 1000 ft
 An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic
control clearance (due to degradation of navigational performance requirements), but is able to
maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a
revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90o (90
degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be turn to acquire
and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb
or descend 500 ft, if:

below FL 410
at FL 410
above FL 410
at FL 430

Which errors in estimates minutes shall be reported by aircraft over-flying the North Atlantic? 3 or
more

Arriving at the point of entry into MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace
over the North Atlantic and not having yet received the oceanic clearance, the crew:

keeps flying in accordance with the air-filed flight plan

returns to base immediately
carries out a holding pattern
keeps flying deviating its course by 30 nautical miles from that of the air- filed flight plan

On reaching the Shanwick OCA to fly in MNPSA, you have not yet received your clearance:

Maintain a track 30 nm laterally spaced from your flight plan track

Maintain your flight plan track but 500 ft above or below your planned flight level
Stay outside controlled airspace until you have received your clearance
Enter on your flight planned track and flight level and await a late clearance

In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across
the direction of the prevailing NAT traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft
not able to maintain its assigned flight level should:

Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 90 NM from its assigned route or track
Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 60 NM from its assigned route or track
Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 30 NM from its assigned
route or track
Descend below FL 275

Contingency in MNPSA but cannot maintain assigned flight level:

Descend whilst turning off track to take up a separation of 90 nm

Descend whilst turning off track to take up a separation of 60 nm
Descend whilst turning off track to take up a separation of 30 nm
Descend below FL 275

The North Atlantic airspace is regulated accordance to:

the ICAO document 7030 (additional regional procedures)

rules issued by the bordering States (document 6530)
rules common to the bordering States, grouped in document 7050 (North Atlantic Ocean Airspace)
Canadian rules, because this country has the greatest surface area of territorial waters in this airspace
 A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS
(Organised Track System) must be done:

At or prior to entering the NAT region

Prior entering the NAT region
As soon as possible after entering the NAT region
When crossing the oceanic airspace boundary

An air traffic unit may request the aircraft to report position when flying east-west south of 70oN
between 5oW and 65oW, every:

5° of longitude
10° of longitude
20° of longitude
15° of longitude

An air traffic unit may request the aircraft to report position when flying east-west north of 70oN
between 10oW and 50oW, every:

10° of longitude
20° of longitude
15° of longitude
5° of longitude

In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification area, a pilot should first of all take the
following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:

notify Control and wait for a reply within a reasonable time

request authorisation from Control to track another aircraft
set a different heading approximately 45o from the previous one
immediately climb or descend 1000 ft

The validity period of a flight track system organised in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace during an Eastbound flight normally is:

11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC

10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC

In MNPS, at FL 370, you need to change your clearance but have no communications with ATC. You
turn left or right and get a 30 nm. Separation from your assigned track. Do you then:

Climb or descend 500 ft

Climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft
Climb or descend 1000 ft
Maintain your flight plan level

A flight crossing 030oW in MNPSA at 1100UTC will be:

in daytime OTS
in night time OTS
outside OTS
in random airspace

OTS timings are from 0100 to 0800 UTC and from 1130 to 1900 UTC
 The validity period of a flight track system, organised in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace during a westbound flight normally is: 1130 UTC to 1900 UTC at 30 degrees
West

Flying to Europe in MNPS at 1000 UTC crossing 030oW:

In flight route day system

In flight route night system
In random airspace
Out of organised route track system

What is the minimum required vertical separation in MNPS Airspace? 1000 ft

If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks, the intended
organised track should be defined in iteras of the FPL by:

using the abbreviation OTS followed by the code letter assigned to the track
inserting co-ordinates defining significant points with intervals of 10o of longitude
the abbreviation NAT followed by the code letter assigned to the track
inserting co-ordinates as detailed in the NAT track message

If the whole flight is in MNPSA on the organised track system, what should be entered on the flight
plan?

PTS plus daily code

Position at every 10 deg latitude
NAT plus daily code
OTS plus daily code

In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the: Mach Number

For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes unless otherwise specified, an
aircraft must be equipped with at least:

One Inertial Navigation System (INS)

Two Inertial Navigation System (INS)
Two independent long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS)
One Long Range Navigation System (LRNS)

Penetration into the North Atlantic ocean airspace is: subject to a mandatory clearance

When leaving MNPS airspace and you have lost communications, what Mach No. do you select? Your
last cleared Mach No

What Mach number do you maintain when leaving MNPS?

Flight Plan Mach number

Mach number complying with local regulations
Last cleared Mach number from MNPS
You revert to flight plan TAS
 Routing from Shannon to Canada, when not MNPS equipped, how are you able to fly:

Outside the times of OTS

Laterally displaced from the OTS
At FL 280 or below
You cannot fly the route

A flight to Europe is expected to be at 030oW at 0030UTC. Where will you be?

Inside the daytime organised track system

Random airspace
Outside the organised track system
Inside the night time organised track system

During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification)

airspace, you expect to cross the 30oW meridian at 0300 UTC; you will normally be:

in a day-time organised track system

outside the validity period of the organised track system
in a night-time organised track system
within the polar track system

In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance

Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air to air communications is: 123.45 MHz

The validity period of a day-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace is normally at 30oW between:

01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC

10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
11H30 UTC to 18H00 UTC
00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC

May be an old ruling if not wrong. The new timings are 1130 to 1900

The validity of NAT minimum time tracks for longitude 030oW is:

1.1130 to 1800 UTC

2.0100 to 0800 UTC

3.0800 to 1400 UTC

4.1800 to 0100 UTC

1 and 2 Correct

How does one define the planned tracks north of 70oN?

Latitude in degrees with meridians spaced at 10o

Latitude in degrees with meridians spaced at 20o
Longitude spaced at 5o intervals
Latitude spaced at 5o intervals

In the event of contingencies against the flow of NAT system, you can't get prior approval from ATC.
You: if above FL 410 climb or descend 1000 ft while turning to alternate
 When flying a non-MNPS aircraft, climb through MNPS Airspace is allowed: When under radar and
in VHF communications with a controller

Minimum time tracks in the NAT MNPS airspace are issued:

daily
twice daily
weekly
hourly

An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure must be anti-icing fluid free at the latest when:

leaving the icing zone

releasing the brakes in order to take-off
it is implementing its own anti-icing devices
it is rotating (before taking-off)

The application of a type II de-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a:

certain time of protection depending on its concentration

24 hours protection time
certain time of protection independent of the outside temperature
3 hours protection time

The application of a type II anti-icing fluid on an aircraft on the ground will provide a:

limited holdover time

protection time up to 24 hours
limited time of protection independent of the outside temperature
protection against icing for the duration of the flight

An aircraft having undergon an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the protection time of the
antiicing fluid:

must only undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off

must undergo a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid for take-off
need not to undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off
must only undergone a de-icing procedure for take-off

During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:

the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold

the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot
the anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied hot
the de-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing fluid is applied hot

The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the:

tuck under
value of the stall angle of attack
stalling speed
roll rate

The greatest possibility of ice buildup, while flying under icing conditions, occurs on:

The aircraft front areas

The upper and lower wing surfaces
The upper and lower rudder surfaces
Only the pilot and static probes

During the winter an aircraft is parked overnight prior to an early morning departure. The crew notice
a slight glistening ice deposit on top of the wings or blades which appears translucent. Under these
conditions:

the take off performance of the aircraft will not be affected

there is no risk of ice accretion
the aircraft should be sprayed with de-icing fluid of the correct type
a longer starting procedure will be necessary to warm up the aircraft

When planning a flight in icing conditions, what are the requirements?

Aircraft to be equipped with approved anti-icing equipment

Apply anti-icing fluid
A Met officer will decide if the flight can take place
Take off anyway and hope for the best

The terminal VOR transmits the following weather data. When do you expect carburettor icing?

Outside Air Temperature (OAT): + 15oC Dew Point (DEWP): -5oC

Outside Air Temperature (OAT): + 10oC Dew Point (DEWP): +7oC
Outside Air Temperature (OAT): + 25oC Dew Point (DEWP): +5oC
Outside Air Temperature (OAT): - 10oC Dew Point (DEWP): -15oC

For stable clouds:

1. The most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0°C and -10°C
3. Icing becomes rare at t < -18°C
5. The diameter of water droplets is between 0.002 and 0.03 mm

2. The most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0°C and -15°C
4. Icing becomes rate at t < -30°C
6. The diameter of water droplets is between 0.004 and 0.2 mm

Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements?

1, 3, 5

During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts:

at the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage)

at the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage)
at the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage)
at the end of the first stage (de-icing stage)

The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:

1. The type and intensity of the showers
2. The ambient temperature
3. The relative humidity
4. The direction and speed of the wind
5. The temperature of the airplane skin
6. The type of fluid, its concentration and temperature

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1,2,3,4,5,6

Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with icing conditions:

The aircraft shall be equipped with approved ice-protection systems

The flight should be planned so that a change of cruising level can be initiated rapidly
The aircraft shall before flight be sprayed with anti-iing fluid
A meteorologist shall decide whether the flight may be performed without ice-protection systems

Ice accretion depends on many factors including ambient temperature and type of precipitation.
Which of the following woule give the longest holdover time?

Steady snow
Freezing fog
Rain on a cold soaked wing
Frost

For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types
of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest?

Steady snow
Freezing fog
Frost
Freezing rain

In icing conditions and after the application of an anti-icing fluid on your airplane, you are waiting to
take-off by:

1. avoiding positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding aircraft
2. avoiding positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding aircraft

3. positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding aircraft

4. positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding aircraft

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 2

In icing conditions, the pilot in command must:

ensure sufficient anti-ice is still present on surfaces

ensure surfaces are free from build-up of ice within constraints allowed by the operations manual
ensure no ice more than 5mm in depth is on surfaces
ensure holdover time has not exceeded the time since de-icing started

If after anti-icing has been completed a pre-departure inspection reveals evidence of freezing, the
correct action is to:

switch on all the aeroplane anti-icing and de-icing systems and leave on until clear of icing conditions
when airborne
compelte departure provided that the recommended anti-icing holdover (protection) time for the
prevailing conditions and type of fluid used has not been exceeded
carry out a further de-icing process
complete departure as soon as possible to reduce the possibility

When taking off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following
effects:

1. An increase in the take-off distance

3. An increase in the stalling speed
5. A decrease of the climb gradient

2. A decrease of the take-off run

4. A decrease of the stalling speed

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 3, 5

In high ambient temperatures (30oC) and at relative humidities as low as 40%, in air free from cloud,
fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing

Can occur but only at low power settings

Cannot occur
Can occur at anyu power settings
Can occur, but only at full power and cruise settings

Holdover time can be considerably reduced by:

air temperature being slightly below 0 deg C

airframe temperature being slightly below 0 deg C
strong winds and effect of jet blast from other aeroplanes
effect of headwind

How long is holdover time for Type II anti-icing fluids?

24 hours
3 hours
A certain time dependent on concentration
A certain time independent of skin temperature

When anti-icing has been applied, when must you make sure it is still active?

When clear of icing conditions

On rotation
At brake release for take-off
Until one can use ones own anti-icing equipment

The commaner shall not commence take-off in icing conditions:

unless the external surfaces are free from any ice contamination greater than 5 mm
unless the external surfaces are clear of any contamination, except as permitted by Aircraft
Flight Manual
unless the external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid and the aircraft is not to be operated in
forecasted icing conditions greater than moderate icing
even if the ice contamination does not lead to an excedence of mass and balance limits
 If taking off in icing conditions, pilot-in-command must make sure:

Icing does not affect performance within the constraints of the operations manual
Icing does not affect the mass and balance of the aeroplane
Icing on the airframe is not greater than 5 mm
Anti-ice is still present on the airframe

After de-icing/anti-icing still in freezing conditions, how should you position the aircraft?

In prop and jet wash

In jet wash but not prop wash
In prop wash but not jet wash
In neither

When does the anti-icing holdover time begin on a 2 step procedure?

From the start of the anti-icing procedure

From the end of the anti-icing procedure
When all icing deposits have been removed from the airframe
From the start of the de-icing procedure

For a de-icing and anti-icing procedure, how are the fluids applied:

Both hot
Anti-icing hot, de-icing cold
De-icing hot, anti-icing cold
Both cold

According with the noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B, as established in DOC 8168 Ops
Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until reaching:

3000 ft
500 ft
1500 ft
1000 ft

Acording to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume
1 part V, data available indicates that the procedure which results in noise relief during the part of the
procedure close to the airport:

is procedure A
is procedure B
is either procedure A or B, because there is no difference in noise distribution
depends on the wind component
The former Noise Abatement Departure Procedures A and B are no longer part of
the ICAO PANS-OPS Doc. 8168.

Reference 5, the ICAO 'PANS-OPS' document giving guidance on aircraft operations,

describes two noise abatement take-off procedures, A and B, which it states "have
been designed to minimise the overall exposure to noise on the ground and at the
same time maintain the required levels of flight safety". It further states that
"Procedure A results in noise relief during the latter part of the procedures whereas
 Procedure B provides relief during that part of the procedure close to the airport.
The procedure selected for use will depend on the noise distribution required and
the type of aeroplane involved".

Procedure A involves climbing at take-off power and flap setting to 1500 ft where
power is then cut back to maximum climb thrust, but maintaining take-off flap
setting until 3000 ft is reached. Beyond that, the flaps are retracted as the aircraft
accelerates to a higher speed to continue its climb. Procedure B differs in that flap
retraction is initiated at a height of 1000 ft, while the engines are still at take-off
thrust. The aircraft then 'pitches over' to a lower climb gradient and accelerates to a
higher speed before thrust is cut back. If the flaps retract slowly, the cutback may
made while the flaps are at an intermediate angle.

Class B noise abatement procedures are used: Near airfield

In accordance with (ICAO) DOC 8168 OPS, noise preferential routes are established to ensure that
departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome
as far as practicable. In establishing noise preferential routes:

turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is limited to 20o
(climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 kt)

turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the aeroplane has reached and can
maintain throughout the turn a height of no less than 100m above terrain and the highest obstacle

no turns should be required coincident with a reduction of power associated with a noise
abatement procedure

turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is limited to 28o
(climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 kt)

ICAO PANS OPS 8168 … In establishing noise preferential routes: … turns during
take-off and climb should not be required unless: the bank angle for turns after
take-off is limited to 15° except where adequate provision is made for an
acceleration phase permitting attainment of safe speeds for bank angles greater
than 15° ... no turns should be required coincident with a reduction of power
associated with a noise abatement procedure.

According to the recommended noise abatement take-off and climb procedure A established in ICAO,
DOC 8168 Volume 1 part v, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to climb power, has to be done as soon as the
aircraft reaches:

2000 ft
3000 ft
1500 ft
1000 ft

When using ICAO noise abatement Procedure A the flap retraction is commenced at

1000 ft
2000 ft
1500 ft
3000 ft

According to ICAO Doc 8168, a noise abatement departure procedure is NOT to be initiated at less
than:
1500 ft above aerodrome elevation
1000 ft above aerodrome elevation
800 ft above aerodrome elevation
2000 ft above aerodrome elevation

According to the recommended noise abatement take-off and climb procedure NADP2, established in
ICAO Doc 8168, acceleration and flaps/slats retraction is initiated:

at 1500 ft
not below 1000 ft
at 3000 ft
not below 800 ft

Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during
instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the:

operator
state of the operator
state in which the aeroplane is operating
commander

When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power reduction shall be
allowed is:

600m (2000 ft)

450m (1500 ft)
150m (500 ft)
300m (1000 ft)

Thats out of the given options, otherwise it can be 800 feet according to NADP 1

About procedures for noise attenuation during landing:

They are applied in the case of an instrument approach only

They prohibit the use of reverse thrust
Such procedures do not exist
Such procedures will not involce the prohibition of using reverse thrust

Noise abatement for landing:

Precludes the use of thrust reverse

Should not preclude the use of thrust reverse
Stop use of thrust reverse before the threshold
Allows limited use of thrust reverse

Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the
following circumstances:

1.When cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots

2.When the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots
3.When the runway is not clear or dry

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1,2,3

 Following take-off, the noise abatement climb procedures specified by the operator is:

different according to airports and airplane types

for all airplane types, the same for a specific airport
different for a same airplan type, according to airports
for the same airplane type, the same for all airports

the take-off climb procedures for noise abatement to be specified by the operator should be:

for all aeroplane types, the same for a specific aerodrome

for any one aeroplane type, the same for all aerodromes
for all aeroplane types, the same for all aerodromes
different according to aerodromes and aeroplane types

Which one of the following factors should prevent a runway being chosen as the preferential landing
runway for noise abatement purposes in visual meteorological condition (VMC)?

It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance

Cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt
It has a tail wind component of any value
It has a tail wind component of 3 kts and a cross wind, including gusts, of 12 kt

Who is responsible for establishing and distribution amendments to noise abatement procedures?

The country where the aeroplane is operated

The country where the aeroplane is registered
The country of the operator of the aerodrome
The operator of the aerodrome

When would you not have to turn on a noise abatement procedure?

Below 1000 ft
When changing radio frequencies
When reducing power
when raising flap

What conditions can the choice of runway preclude noise abatement procedures?

1.Cross wind > 15 knots

2.Tail wind > 5 knots
3.Windshear and thunderstorm reported

(i), (ii) and (iii)

At take-off the maximum mass of the aeroplane shall be:

not more than the basic empty mass plus the payload
not more than the maximum landing mass
equal to or less than that at which the take-off run can be completed under ISA conditions and nil
headwind
not more than that which would enable compliance with any noise abatement procedure
 During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing head wind. In the
absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:

1. Flies above the glide path

3. Has an increasing true airspeed

2. Flies below the glide path

4. Has a decreasing true airspeed.

The combination of correct statements is: 1,3

During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the
absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:

2. Flies below the glide path

4. Has a decreasing true airspeed.

1. Flies above the glide path

3. Has an increasing true airspeed

The combination of correct statements is: 2,4

During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing tail wind. In the
absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:

2. Flies below the glide path

4. Has a decreasing true airspeed.

1. Flies above the glide path

3. Has an increasing true airspeed

The combination of correct statements is: 2,4

During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing tail wind. In the
absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:

1. Flies above the glide path

3. Has an increasing true airspeed

2. Flies below the glide path

4.Has a decreasing true airspeed.

The combination of correct statements is: 1,3

An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a
microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of:

60 kt
40 kt
80 kt
20 kt
40 kt headwind as you fly into it is likely to turn into a 40 kt tailwind as you fly out
of it --- Windshear of 80 kt

In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong down wind which forces you to go
around.
1.maintain the same aircraft configuration (gear and flaps)
3.gradually increase the attitude up to triggering of stick shaker

2.reduce the drags (gear and flaps)

4.avoid excessive attitude change

The combination of correct statements is: 1,3

A horizontal tailwind gust may cause an aeroplane to:

climb
climb or descend depending on gust strength
descend
have no effect on the flight path

If you encounter a microburst just after take-off, at the beginning you will have:

1. a head wind
3. better climb performance

2. a strong rearwind
4. a diminution of climb gradient
5. an important thrust drop

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1,3

On the approach you hit windshear and have to go around. Do you:

Do nothing to your gear and flaps

Take gear and flap in
Pitch up to the stick shaker
Avoid excessive attitude manoeuvres

Though the first option is also valid but perhaps (out of the two) pitching up is more
important

What do you do in a microburst?

1. Apply engine power

2. Retract speed brakes
5. Pitch up to stick shaker

3. Retract flaps and gear

4. Retract all drag devices

While approaching the outer-marker, the tower informs you about the presence of a microburst. You
will expect to encounter:

windshears (vertical and horizontal)

wake turbulence
supercooled water
convection motion of air mass

Wind shear is:

a vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance
a horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance
a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and/or wind direction over a short distance
a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and/or wind direction over a large distance

How can the direction of wing tip vortices be described?

Both clockwise
Both counter clockwise
From above the wing to below the wing
From below the wing to above the wing

In a mountainous region you encounter windshear and see an increase in airspeed. You:

reduce power to stay on the glidepath

reduce power to 1.2VS and make a precision landing
bring to level flight, allow speed to fall and intercept the glidepath from above
allow speed to increase while staying on the glidepath and monitoring speed

One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it: can occur at any altitude in both the
vertical and horizontal planes

Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a
windshear?

Pitch angle
Vertical speed
Ground speed
Indicated airspeed

Under a microburst, what happens?

Air is diverging and local pressure increases

Air rotates and local pressure decreases
Air is diverging and local pressure decreases
Air rotates and local pressure increases

What would you expect to encounter in a microburst?

Rain
Hail
Windshear
Thunder and lightning

In a microburst downdrafts in the order of 3000 to 4000 ft/min can produce vector changes in
horizontal wind of:

30 to 40 kts
10 to 20 kts
60 to 80 kts
100 to 140 kts

An airplane creates a wake turbulence when:

generating lift
flying at high speed
using a high engine RPM
flying with its gear and flaps extended

In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at:

high altitude converge on the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure increases by a
few hectopascals
low altitude diverge from the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure decreases by a
few hectopascals
low altitude diverge from the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospherica pressure
increases by a few hectopascals
low altitude converge on the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure decreases by a
few hectopascals

While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high
increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in the pre-selected engine and attitude
parameters. The preceding crews had reported the occurrence of wind-shears in final phase you must:

take a level flight attitude to reduce speed, then come back to glide path from above
reduce rapidly the selected thrust in order to reach 1.2 Va and try a precision landing
maintain aircraft on the glide path, accept a positive speed deviation, monitor the speed
evolution
reduce rapidly the selected thrust, maintain on the glide path

A four engine jet aircraft must be equipped with an in-flight fuel jettisoning system in order to reduce
the aircraft weight in an emergency:

until the central tank is empty in order to cope with the wing and landing gear constraints at landing
touchdown

unless it is capable of meeting the climb requirements: 2.7% in approach configuration with
1 engine inoperative and 3.2% in landing configuration with all engines operative

in order to reach the maximum structural landing weight in less than 15 minutes after activation of the
jettisoning system

in order to reduce the landing distance to 60% of the effective runway length
 Where a jettison system is required it must be capable of jettisoning enough fuel
within 15 minutes "not less than 15 minutes"

From the following list:

1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard
2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane
3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane
4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane

Which of the above are requirements that must be shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests? 1,2,3,4

When jettisoning fuel for certification the following conditions must be demonstrated:

(i) Fuel jettisoning must be free from fire hazards

(ii) Fuel discharges clear of aircraft
(iii) Fuel or fumes do not enter the aircraft
(iv) Fuel jettisoning does not affect the controllability of the aircraft

(v) Fuel can be jettisoned within 30 minutes

If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:

under flight level 50 (FL 50)

in a holding stack, after control clearance
in a straight line and at a relatively high flight level
during final phase of approach

In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be capable of jettisoning sufficient fuel to meet
the precise climb and discontinued approach requirements:

15 minutes
30 minutes
60 minutes
90 minutes

In order to carry hazardous materials on board a public transport airplane, they must be accompanied
with a:

transport document for hazardous materials

representative of the company owning the materials
specialised handling employee
system to warn the crew in case of a leak or of an abnormal increase in temperature

Who makes sure that the air transportation of an item of dangerous goods is not prohibited?

The shipper when completing the shippers declaration for dangerous goods
The captain, always using the list of prohibited aircraft items
The operator
It is not specified
 passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes:

1. on himself/herself

2. in his/her hand luggage

3. in his/her checked luggage

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2, 3
1
1, 2
2, 3

(Refer to figure) Considering the two holds of an aircraft. Each hold consists of 4 compartments to
accommodate freight pallets or luggage containers. You are asked to load:

2 pallets of live animals marked AVI

2 luggage containers marked BAG

1 mortal remains marked HUM

1 pallet of food product marked EAT

1 pallet of radioactive materials marked RRY

1 pallet of toxic materials marked RHF.

The locations still vacant shall be marked XXX.

According to the table of compatibility of special freight and hazardous materials given in the appendix,
the most operational distribution in the holds shall be:

a) Hold 1 : EAT - BAG - RRY - RHF; Hold 2 : BAG - AVI - AVI - HUM

b) Hold 1 : EAT - BAG - AVI - AVI; Hold 2 : BAG - HUM - RRY - RHF
c) Hold 1 : BAG - BAG - RRY - HUM; Hold 2 : AVI - AVI - XXX - EAT (RHF disembarked)

d) Hold 1 : BAG - RHF - HUM - RRY; Hold 2 : AVI - AVI - BAG - EAT
This is more of a newspaper game!

a) is out because toxic materials (RHF) cannot be placed with food products (EAT) in
the same hold (as shown by a cross).

c) is out because toxic materials (RHF) have been disembarked whereas they were
required to be loaded.

b) is out because luggage (BAG) has been placed adjacent with mortal remains
(HUM) in the same hold (as shown by a dot).

Since this is probably the only question in the database so far, one can remember
the answer in order to save time in the exam. The correct answer has "DOG (AVI)
FOOD (EAT) in HOLD 2". Both (c) and (d) meet this condition but disembark (c) from
your consideration because it says so ...

which of the following are considered dangerous goods that are required to be carried on board the
aeroplane?

1. Portable fire extinguishers

2. Emeergency oxygen supplies
4. First aid kits

3. Passenger food
5. Alcoholic beverages

1, 2
1, 2, 4
1, 3, 4
2, 4, 5

The authorisation for the transport of hazardous materials is specified on the:

airworthiness certificate
registration certificate
air carrier certificate
insurance certificate

The gener al information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of hazardous materials
are specified in the:

operation manual
flight manual
AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication)
air carrier certificate

ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organisation) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with:

the technical operational use of aircraft

the air transport of live animals
the noise pollution of aircraft
the safety of the air transport of hazardous materials
 Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question
are defined as such by:

The directives of the Community Union

The UNO document entitled Dangerous Goods Regulations
The ICAO document entitled Technical Instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods
by air
The IATA document entitled Regulations governing the transportation of dangerous goods by air

ICAO also produce a Technical Instructions document, known as Doc 9284

Assuming that the operator is approved by his national authority, carriage of dangerous goods is
allowed, provided that:

the operator complies with the technical instructions (ICAO DOC 9284)
the dangerous goods transport document is approved by the national authority prior to each flight
the operator has certified the dangerous goods
no passengers and dangerous goods are carried on the same flight

Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:

no passenger is carried on the same flight

national aviation administration permission has been granted
government permission has been granted
the airline complies with the Technical Instructions

The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by:

the shipper
the operator
the captain
the handling agent

In the hazardous materials transportation act, the freight compliance with the regulatory
arrangements is the responsibility of the:

sender
captain
station manager
aerodrome manager

In addition to the languages required by the State of Origin, what language should be set for the
markings related to dangerous goods:

English, French or Spanish

French
Spanish
English

Who is responsible for ensuring that the regulatory procedures for the transportation of dangerous
goods is complied with?

Captain
Sender
Station Manager
Aerodrome Manager

For once its not the captain!

The information concerning dangerous products that passengers may carry, are listed in the:

aircrafts flight manual

IATA document Dangerous products transportation
JAR-OPS documentation
ICAO document named Technical safety instructions for the air transportation of dangerous
products

Where is permanent approval for the carriage of dangerous goods given?

Certificate of Airworthiness
Aircraft registration
Air Operators Certificate
Insurance Certificate

(Refer to figure) For the two labels represented in the appendix, the principal and secondary risks are
respectively:

corrosive material, toxic

corrosive material, infectious
infectious material, corrosive
toxic material, corrosive

(Refer to figure above) If a packet is marked with the label shown in the appendix (Label A) it is:

an explosive substance
a corpse
an infectious substance
a toxic material

As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a dangerous package has
been damaged during its loading, you:

accept it after a visual inspection

mention it on the Notification to Captain
ensure that arrangements are made for its removal
mention it on the shipper's declaration
 The dangerous goods transport document regarding the safe transport of dangerous goods by air is
specified in the:

air transport permit

technical instructions
flight manual
operations manual

Where is the general information about the carriage of dangerous goods to be found?

Operations Manual
AIC
Aircraft flight notes
Journey LogBook

The regulations for transportation of dangerous goods are contained in:

ICAO Appendix 8
ICAO Annex 18
the Washington Convention
ICAO Annex 17

What are Class 6 dangerous goods?

Explosives
Toxic
Radioactive
Flammable liquids

This figure (and any other) is not provided with this question. However there are
questions (as mentioned above) that provide a figure with a skull on it, that signifies
"Toxic" and it is class 6 as printed on the figure itself (unless they have rubbed it
off!). Even if you dont get those questions, the figure will still be lying in the file that
has all the charts and figures for the exam. Worth having a look if you forget the
answer for this question.
 Who checks that any dangerous cargo offered for shipping is legal?

The pilot-in-command
The operator
The shipper
No one specified

Where is information on dangerous goods allowed to be carried by passengers found?

CARS
ICAO Annex 18 for carriage of dangerous goods
Dangerous Goods Procedures in Ops manual
AFM

What manual should you use to find the specific instructions for the carriage of dangerous goods:

Technical Instructions
ICAO Annex 18
ICAO Annex 16
AFM

For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to:

a) provide oxygen to 10% of passengers at a cabin altitude exceeding 13000 ft after 30 minutes
b) protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases
c) protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation
d) provide undiluted oxygen for passengers who, for physiological reasons, might require oxygen
following a cabin depressurisation

b) marked correct whereas (d) is correct. Ref: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/ ... php?t=1148

Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in the exam) is the appearance of the
phrase "first-aid oxygen is designed to".

Other questions like this are marked correct. The wordings are:

Q.1. The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:

supply all the passengers in case of depressurisation

provide the cabin attendants with respiratory protection
provide undiluted oxygen to passengers for physiological reasons following a cabin depressurisation
<<== Marked Correct
provide the flight crew with respiratory assistance after depressurisation

Q.2. First Aid (therapeutic) oxygen is carried for which of the following:

All crew and passengers in the event of an unexpected rapid depressurisation

The crew in the event of noxious fumes entering the flight deck
30% of passengers between 10,000 ft and 13,000 ft
Any passengers who require it for pathological respiratory disorders <<== Marked Correct

Other questions on first aid oxygen involves the 2% calculation which are quite different from this
question.
 Take-off RVR for Category "A" Aircraft.

Q.1. The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity centre line lights. There
is an accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is IFR qualified on type. The minimum
horizontal visibility required for take-off is:

a) 150 m if a threshold RVR is available

b) 200 m
c) 300 m
d) 150 m

d) marked correct whereas (b) seems to be correct. For 150m Multiple RVR information is required.

Q.2. What is the take-off RVR limit for a Cat A aeroplane, when high intensity centreline lights and edge
lights are on and the crew is IFR qualified and approved?

a) 150m if threshold RVR is available

b) 150m
c) 200m
d) 250m

d) marked correct whereas (c) seems to be correct.

Identification of the incorrectly marked questions (if they come in the exam) is the appearance of the
phrase "edge lights and high intensity centre line lights" but No mention of Multiple RVR.
There is one question that mentions "Multiple RVR" but that is marked correct.

The questions are about Category A aircraft.

• If the question mentions "Category A" (as in Q.1.) then the answer is 150 (More Letters Less Visibility).
• If the question mentions "Cat A" (as in Q.2.) then the answer is 250 (Less Letters More Visibility).

• If the question mentions the availability of Multiple RVR then the answer is 150 and is correct.

Co-pilot to operate at the flight controls during take-off and landing:

Q.1. What allows a pilot to act as co-pilot for take-off and landing?

a) Performed a flight in the previous 90 days

b) Operated as PIC or as co-pilot at the controls for a take-off and landing in the previous 90 days
c) Performed at least 3 landings and take-offs in the previous 90 days
d) Performed at least 9 landings and take-offs in the previous 90 days

b) marked correct whereas (c) is correct for the same reason which is mentioned above.
According to the new rules, under JAR OPS (which uses the word) pilots (i.e.
including both Captain and Co-pilot) require 3 take-off and landing as pilot flying in
the preceding 90 days

Another similar one like this is:

Q.2. A co-pilot is not assigned to operate at the flight controls during take-off and landing
unless:

a) he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command or as a co- pilot at the controls of the
type to be used, in the preceding 90 days

b) he has operated as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at the controls during take-off and landing of the
type to be used in the preceding 90 days

c) he has carried out as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at least three take-off and three landings in an
aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 90 days

d) he has carried out as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at least three take-off and three landings in an
aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 30 days

b) marked correct whereas (c) is correct.

Thats not the end. There are 3 other questions like those mentioned above.

However they do not cause confusion as they can be answered on the basis of the new rule. The
questions are:

Q.3. a co-pilot does not serve at the flight controls during take-off and landing unless:

a) he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane in the
preceding 60 days

b) he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane of the same
type/class or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be used in the preceding 60 days

c) he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane in the
preceding 90 days

d) he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane of the same
type/class or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be used in the preceding 90 days <<==
Marked Correct (No Issues. This one is more correct than option "c")
Q.4. To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing you must have:

a) acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days <<== Marked Correct (No Issues)
b) acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days
c) acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days
d) been at the controls for landing in the same type recently

Q.5. What is the co-pilot currency requirement?

3 flights in the last 90 days

3 take-offs and landings in the last 60 days
At the controls for 3 flights in the last 60 days
At the controls for 3 take-offs and landings in the last 90 days <<== Marked Correct (No Issues. Option
"a" is not correct because it talks about flights and not take-off and landings)

So the million dollar question, How would you know if the wrong ones turn up?

There are 2 wrong questions.

One of them ends with the phrase "take-off and landing" with "landing" as the last word. (Q.1.
above).

The other one ends with the phrase "take-off and landing unless" with "unless" as the last
word. (Q.2. above)

All correct questions end with different phraseology except one i.e. Q.3. as mentioned above.

The difference between the wrong and the correct question ending with the phrase "take-off and landing
unless" is that:

The wrong one uses the phrase "operate at the flight controls"

The correct one uses the phrase "serve at the flight controls"

Aeroplanes having a maximum approved seating capacity between 61 200 passengers will require the
following number of megaphones on the passenger deck:

a) 0
b) 2
c) 1
d) 5

c) marked correct. The rule is:

"For each passenger deck with 61 to 99 seats, one megaphone is required. With 100 or more seats, two
megaphones are required."

Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in the exam) is the appearance of the word
"Megaphones" in the question. Its probably the only one which is asking about megaphone requirement
for 61 200 passengers. Moreover all questions about megaphones are marked with answers that
say "1".

What is conversion angle?

a) Ch long x sin lat.

b) Ch long x ½ cos lat.
c) Ch long x ½ sin lat.
d) Ch long x cos lat
d) marked correct whereas (c) is correct. Conversion Angle is equal to 1/2 x Convergency where
Convergency = Change of Longitude x Sine of the Mean Latitude.

There is one Other question like this, which is correctly marked:

Q. How do you calculate Conversion Angle?

a) ½ Ch long x sin lat. <<== Marked Correct

b) Ch long x sin lat.
c) ½ Ch long x cos lat.
d) Ch long x cos lat.

Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in the exam) is the appearance of the
phrase "What is conversion angle?"

which of the following are included in the Aerodrome Operating Minima for a non-precision approach?

1.the required RVR

2.the ceiling
3.the minimum descent height (MDH)
4.the decision height (DH)

a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 3

d) marked correct whereas (c) is correct.

Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in the exam) is the appearance of the
phrase "included in the Aerodrome Operating Minima".

On an NDB approach with an MDH of 360 and a required RVR of 1500m and a reported RVR of
2500m, when can you start an approach; ie which is most correct?

a) When the cloud base is above the system minimum

b) With any cloud base
c) When the cloud base is above 360
d) When the cloud base report is received

c) marked correct whereas according to other questions like this (regarding non-precision approaches),
ceiling is only a consideration while planning and not during the approach phase. This is probably the
only question in this context where it is mentioned that it is an NDB approach. That should be enough
for identification if it turns up in the exam.

What are the circling minimum and MDH for a Cat B aeroplane?

a) 1,600 m 400 ft
b) 1,500 m 500 ft
c) 1,500 m 450 ft
d) 1,500 m 600 ft

b) marked correct, whereas the correct combination which should be 1,600 m and 500 ft, is not given.

Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in the exam) is the appearance of the
phrase "Cat B aeroplane". In other (correctly marked) questions the phrase used is "category B" e.g.

Q. In accordance with Aerodrome Operating Minima, the lowest minima to be used by an operator in a
category B aeroplane for circling are:

A. MDH = 500 ft and visibility = 1,600 m

So for CAT B questions it would be a good idea to go at the MDH rather than visibility as MDH is
given correct.

On a polar stereographic chart where the earth convergence between 2 points located on the parallel
60oN is 20o, the great circle maximum cross-track difference with the straight line joining the 2 points
is:

a) 9.2 NM
b) 4.0 NM
c) 30 NM
d) 4.0 NM

c) marked correct. Read this debate: http://www.pprune.org/tech-log/152293-q ... chart.html

On board a pressurised aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an
oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in
the event of a cabin depressurisation, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is
greater than:

a) 12,000 ft
b) 11,000 ft
c) 10,000 ft
d) 13,000 ft

c) marked correct whereas (d) is correct.

For Pressurized A/C:

Entire time above 13,000 ft ==> All Crew (flight crew + Cabin Crew).

Between 10,000 and 15,000 ==> Some Passengers

Entire time above 15,000 ft ==> All passengers.

The question says "All Crew" that means it has to be above 13,000 feet.

10,000 feet option is correct for "Some Passengers" but does not cover "All Crew"

Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in the exam) is the appearance of the
phrase "On board a pressurised aircraft". Its probably the only one in the database.

During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification)

airspace, you expect to cross the 30oW meridian at 2330 UTC; you will normally be:

a) in a day flight route system

b) in random airspace
c) in a night flight route system
d) out of the organised route system

b) marked correct whereas (d) is correct. If not in the OTS then the flight is on a random route and not
airspace. Amother one like this is marked correct in the database, which is:

During a flight to Europe, planning in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace,
you expect to cross the 30oW meridian at 00H30 UTC, you will then normally be:
within the organised night-time flight track system
with the organised daytime flight track system
out of the organised flight track system <<== Marked Correct
in a random space

Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in the exam) is asking about "crossing
30W at 2330 UTC".

The ascent or descent through MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace of a
non- MNPS certified aircraft is:

a) authorised when the aircraft has two precision navigation systems

b) forbidden in all cases
c) authorised under radar control if the aircraft is in VHF contact with the MNPS controller
d) authorised only if the aircraft is in radio contact with the aircraft present in this space

d) marked correct whereas (c) is correct. Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in
the exam) is the appearance of the phrase "ascent or descent through MNPS". Another one like this
talks only aout "climb", it has the following wording:

"When flying a non-MNPS aircraft, climb through MNPS Airspace is allowed:" It is marked correct with the
answer:

"When under radar and in VHF communications with a controller"

Posit: g the longitude difference; Lm the average latitude; Lo the latitude of the tangent. The correct
formula expressing the travel precession applied during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to:

a) 9*sin Lm
b) 15o/h*sin Lm
c) g*(sin Lm-sin Lo)
d) g/2*sin Lm

b) marked correct whereas Travel Precession (or Transport Wander) = Change of longitude (g) x Sine
average latitude (Lm). So the correct answer is "g*sin Lm"

There are 2 other similar questions which are marked correct. They are:

Q.1. Posit: g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude of the tangent. The
transport precession is equal to:

g/2*sin Lm
15o/h*sin Lm
g*(sin Lm-sin Lo)
g*sin Lm <<== Markec Corerct

Q.2. Which equation relates to transport wander in polar and trans-oceanic areas? (Where gm = ch long,
Lm = mean lat, Lo = tangent of mean lat)

gm x sin Lm <<== Markec Corerct

15 x sin Lm
gm x 2 (Lo - Lm)
15 x 2 (Lo - Lm)

Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in the exam) is the appearance of the
phrase "travel precession". Moreover in this question there is a typographical error in the correct
option i.e. 9*sin Lm (9 instead of g).

In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance

Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air-air communications is:

a) 118,800 MHz
b) 131,800 MHz
c) 121,800 MHz
d) 128,800 MHz

b) marked correct whereas the correct answer which is 123.45 is not given. There is another one which
has the correct answer in it. Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in the exam) is
the fact that it "does not have the correct freq in it i.e. 123.45". Go for the highest one.

In the event of communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification)

airspace, the pilot must:

a) return to his flight plan route if its different from the last oceanic clearance received and
acknowledged by him
b) continue his flight compliance with the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledged by him
c) join one of the so-called special routes
d) change the flight level in accordance with the predetermined instructions

d) marked correct whereas (b) is correct. Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in
the exam) is the appearance of the phrase "communication failure in an MNPS"

The information to consider for a standard straight-in approach is:

1. the horizontal visibility

2. the ceiling
3. the minimum descending altitude (MDA)
4. the decision altitude (DA)

Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

a) 1, 3

b) 1, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 4

a) marked correct. What is the "standard straight-in approach"? Precision or Non-Precision? How can you
select DA or MDA if you dont know the type of approach? Identification of the incorrectly marked
question (if it comes in the exam) is the appearance of the phrase "standard straight-in approach".

When flying above optimum altitude:

a) range reduces
b) mach number stability increases
c) flight envelope increases
d) range increases

d) marked correct whereas (a) is correct. Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in
the exam) is the appearance of the phrase "flying above optimum"

You are at 60oS 100oE, using a polar stereographic chart with the grid based on the 180o meridian.
Grid north is in the direction of geographic north. If you are heading 258oG, what is your true heading?

a) 158
b) 178
c) 338
d) 358

d) marked correct whereas (c) is correct. Convergence = 80. Grid Track = 258. True Track = 178 or 338.
Diagram Shows its 338.

Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in the exam) is the appearance of the
phrase "heading 258oG"

The minimum horizontal and vertical separation between aircraft in MNPS airspace is:

a) 40 nm and 1000ft
b) 60 nm and 1000ft
c) 60 nm and 2000 ft
d) 90 nm and 1000 ft

d) marked correct whereas (b) is correct. Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in
the exam) is the appearance of the phrase "minimum horizontal and vertical".

The EPR probes of an aircraft are covered in ice. The indicated EPR:

a) will be lower than the real EPR

b) will be higher than the real EPR
c) will be zero
d) will be correct

b) marked correct. The question does not provide any details to figure out the correct answer.
Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in the exam) is the appearance of the
phrase "EPR Probes".

What is the most effective method for scarding birds?

a) Shell crackers
b) Landrover with loudspeaker
c) Scarecrow
d) Making movement

a) marked correct whereas (b) is correct as also mentioned in other questions:

Q. What is the best way of clearing birds from an airfield using modern methods?

a) Model predators
b) Shell crackers
c) Flashing lights
d) Recorded distress calls <<== Marked Correct

Q. The most efficient bird scaring technique generally available is:

a) the use of model predators, scarecrows, etc

b) broadcasting of recorded distress calls <<== Marked Correct
c) firing shellcrackers
d) various visual methods

Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in the exam) is the appearance of the
phrase "scarding birds" as the ending words of the question. Moroever there is a typo in it. "Scarding"
instead of "Scaring".

90% of bird strikes happen at:

a) 500 - 1500m
b) 500 - 1000m
C) Over 1000 ft
d) Under 500 ft

d) marked correct whereas according to another question it is 500m not feet. For exams just consider it
"under 500 m ".

You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of:

1. solids, (fabric, plastic, etc)

2. liquids (alcohol,gasoline, etc)
3. gasmetals (aluminium, magnesium, etc)
4. Electrical fires.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 4

a) marked correct whereas (d) seems correct. Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it
comes in the exam) is the appearance of the phrase "Halon Extinguisher" to differentiate it from
"Halon Fire Extinguisher" as used in other questions.

In the event of a jet pipe fire on the ground, what do you do?

a) Wet motor
b) Dry motor
c) Pull fire handle
d) Fight with water

c) marked correct whereas (b) is correct. Another similar one (marked correctly) is:

Q. In case of an engine jet pipe fire while of the ground you:

a) pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire extinguishers
b) carry out a dry motoring cycle <<=== Marked Correct
c) fight the jet pipe fire with a water fire extinguisher
d) carry out a wet motoring cycle

Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in the exam) is the phrase: "jet pipe
fire" instead for "engine jet pipe fire" or "engine tail pipe fire".

What is supplementary oxygen used for?

a) To passengers in an aircraft, following a loss of pressurisation

b) For passengers who may require it, following a loss of pressurisation
c) For passengers with breathing difficulties
d) Protect crew when combating a fire

Both (a) and (b) marked correct. However (a) seems correct. (b) seems to be therapeutic oxygen.

What are the tasks to be undertaken by cabin crew when evacuating passengers?

1. Women and children first

2. Ensure no movement of passengers for floatation
3. Direct into life rafts
4. Ensure aircraft evacuated

a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
c) (iii) and (iv)
d) (ii) and (iv)

c) marked correct whereas (b) is correct. Another one like this (marked correct) is:

Q. In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants will:

1. evacuate women and children first

2. have the passengers embark directly in the liferafts
3. prevent passenger movements which may impede the airplanes floatation ability
4. ensure the complete evacuation of the airplane.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4 <<== Marked Correct
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 4

Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in the exam) is the appearance of the
phrase "evacuating passengers" whereas the correct one talks about "ditching". Besides the options
for the wrong one are given in roman numbers. So remember that "Romans and Evacuating is not
a good sign"

After the Roman troops left Britain, the British had almost no army. As a result the
Angles and the Saxons moved from North Germany to the eastern part of England.
They conquered part of the British people

What is the most important factor to be taken into account concerning dynamic hydroplaning?

a) Weight of the aeroplane

b) Lift off speed
c) Depth of the water
d) Configuration of the aeroplane

b) marked correct whereas (c) is correct as also mentioned in another question:

Q. The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the:

a) aircraft's weight
b) depth of the standing water on the runway <<== Marked Correct
c) strength of the head wind
d) amount of the lift off speed

Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in the exam) is the appearance of the
phrase "most important factor". It's so important that they forgot to mark it correctly Besides, it is
a longer question in terms or words used, as compared to that which is marked correctly.
Last Minute Crunchies
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an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 61

seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 hand fire-extinguishers including:

2 Halon fire-extinguishers or equivalent

1 Halon fire-extinguisher or equivalent
For seating configuration of 31 to 60 --- 2 fire extinguishers are required --- 1 must
contain Halon 1211 or equivalent.

For seating configuration of 61 or More --- Out of the required fire extinguishers --- 2
must contain Halon 1211 or equivalent

an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60

seats must be equipped (including flight deck) with at least:

3 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers or equivalent (Greater than 60 -- 2 Halon in the passenger

compartment (as explaind above) and 1 for the flight deck)

Minimum number of crash axes or crowbars, with A MTOM greater than 5700 kg or More than 9
seats: 1 is required. If more than 200 seats then 2 are required.

A fire in the toilet waste bin is extinguished with:

BCF
2 types of extinguisher simultaneously

You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for all of the following:

1. a paper fire
2. a plastic fire
3. a hydrocarbon fire
4. an electrical fire.
 Gloves are Close to a fire extinguisher and a crash axe is beneath the fire exintguisher.

Class A: Fires involving solid materials, usually of an organic nature.

Class B: Fires involving liquids or liquefiable solids

Class C: Fires involving gases

Class Fires involving metals

Fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are the following:

1. H2O
2. CO2
3. dry-chemical
4. halon.

A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for:

1. a paper fire
3. a fabric fire
5. a wood fire

2. a hydrocarbon fire
4. an electrical fire

In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you fight the fire using:

1. a dry powder fire extinguisher

2. a water spray atomizer

3. a water fire-extinguisher
4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher to the maximum

A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest
extinguishant to use is:

water
dry powder
CO2 (carbon dioxide)
foam

You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for the following:

1 a paper fire
2 a plastic fire
3 hydrocarbon fire
4 an electrical fire

To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use:

3.a halon fire-extinguisher

4.a CO2 fire-extinguisher

1.a water fire-extinguisher

2.a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher

CO2 type extinguishers are fit to fight:

1.class A fires
2.class B fires
3.electrical source fires

4.special fires: metals, gas, chemical product

The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are:

2.CO2
3.dry-chemical
4.halogen

1.H2O

A Halon fire extinguisher should preferably be used on which of the following types of fire:

Paper
Plastic
Hydrocarbon
Brake

What type of fire extinguisher do you use on a magnesium fire?

Water
Sand
Halon
Foam

On what type of fire would you use a CO2 extinguisher?

Paper
Hydrocarbon
Plastic
Electrical

The correct colour for hand held fire extinguisher labels is

black for CO2
red for water
yellow for BCF
blue for foam

An aeroplane which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, shall be equipped
with a cockpit voice recorder capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last: 30
minutes or 2 hours of its operation, depending upon the date of the first issue of its
individual Certificate of Airworthiness
For C of A issued on or after 1 April 1998: Multi-engine turbine powered with a
MAPSC of more than 9 or has a MCTOM over 5700 kgs must have a CVR which
records for 2 hours. If 5700 Kg or less than the time ins 30 minutes

the cockpit voice recorder, when required, must start to record automatically: prior to the
aeroplane moving under its own power until the termination of the flight when the
aeroplane is no longer capable of moving under its own power

for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, flight data recorders
shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the last: 25 hours of operation

Flight data recorder must start automatically prior to the aircraft being capable of moving
under its own power and stop automatically after the aircraft is unable to move by its
own power

When are all flight crewmembers required to be at their stations?

Take-off and landing

Throughout the flight

If the commander of an aeroplane violates any local rule, regulation or procedure he is to

report the matter:

to the local Authority without delay

to the Authority of the State of the operator without delay
to the local Authority within ten days
to the Authority of the State of the operator within 14 days
If local regulations or procedures are violated the pilot-in-command must notify the
appropriate local authority without delay and the Authority in the state of
registration within ten days.

What is the definition of a wet runway?

25% contamination of the runway with water depth less than 3 mm

More than 25% coverage of water greater than 3 mm deep
Water standing on a runway without grooves or a porous pavement
Water standing on a runway with water depth less than 3 mm, appearing non-reflective

For a given aircraft and runway contamination, increased pressure altitude will: increase the
hydroplaning speed
 For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon
as the:

1.Water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves

2.Speed is greater than 96 kt

3.Water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves
4.Speed is greater than 127 kt
You have to assume a rotating tyre unless the question says otherwise.

Hydroplaning speed for a rotating tyre = 9 x square root of tyre pressure

1 bar = 14.5 psi

Hydroplaning speed= 9 x square root of (8 x 14.5) = 96.93 or 97 knots

The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the: depth of the standing
water on the runway

The touch down areas located at both ends of the runways are typical for the appearance
of: viscous hydroplaning

Viscous hydroplaning is caused by: a smooth and dirty runway surface

In a SNOWTAM, if the cleared length of runway is less than the published length, what and
where would the information be displayed?

Box D with the cleared length expressed as a percentage

Box D with the cleared length in metres
Box T explained in plain English

Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres if this is less than the
published length, how is this reported:

by a four figure group added to item D, which gives the length in metres
in plain language at item T (the final paragraph) of a SNOWTAM

The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is: 24 hours

An observer in the cockpit sees an aeroplane closing from the forward left, what colour is
the first light seen (at night)? Steady green

Regarding an observer in the cockpit seeing an aeroplane coming from the forward left,
what colour is the first light seen (at night)? Steady green

From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite
parallel track. What Nav light will be observed: Red
 During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the
front right will first see the: red steady light

a public address system is required to operate an aeroplane with a maximum approved

passenger seating configuration of more than:

61
30
9
19

a single deck aeroplane, equipped with an approved seating capacity of 61 seats and carrying
passengers, must be equipped with at least:

1 megaphone
2 megaphones
2 megaphones if there are more than 31 passengers on board
3 megaphones
For each passenger deck with 61 to 99 seats, one megaphone is required. With 100
or more seats, two megaphones are required

a windshield wiper or equivalent means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield during
precipitation is required at each pilot station to operate an aeroplane with a:

maximum approved passenger configuration of more than 9 seats

maximum certificated take-off mass of more than 5700 kg

Number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be at least: 10% of the number of
fuses of each rating or 3 of each rating, whichever is the greater

What is required for navigation in IMC? Radio equipment and equipment for guidance
until the visual point

Oxygen Requirements: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/ ... php?t=1183

The minimum time track is a track defined for:

a period of 12 hours
a given travel
a period of 24 hours
aircraft flying in MNPS airspace

On over-water flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land,
which is suitable for making a emergency landing greater than that corresponding to:

400 NM or 120 minutes at cruising speed

300 NM or 90 minutes at cruising speed
200 NM or 45 minutes at cruising speed
100 NM or 30 minutes at cruising speed
 The field of application of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is defined by a phase of flight
operation. The commander must use the limitations provided by the MEL:

Prior to the aircraft take-off

At the parking area prior to the aircraft taxiing

Following an indication of an unserviceability whilst taxiing to the holding point, what do

you consult first?

Flight manual
MEL

A transport category aircraft suffers an unserviceability on the ground prior to take-off. What
document do you refer to?

Aircraft Operating Manual

Minimum Equipment List
Operations Manual relevant chapter

Recency Requirement: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/ ... php?t=1188

A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by
more than: 50 NM

What is the requirement for the carriage of life rafts? 120 mins or 400 nm whichever is less

an operator shall not operate across areas in which search and rescue would be especially
difficult, unless it is equipped with:

1. signalling equipment
2. at least one ELT
4. additional survival equipment

3. at least 2 ELTs

Assuming a multi-engine land aeroplane with 60 persons on board. The cruising speed is 180
kt. The aeroplane is capable of continuing the flight with the critical power-unit becoming
inoperative. The track will overfly water for a distance of 380 NM from shore. The emergency
equipment on board must include:

1 lift raft of 30-seat capacity and 2 life rafts of 20-seat capacity

2 life rafts of 30-seat capacity
3 life rafts of 30-seat capacity
none, distance being less than 400 NM

For aircraft capable of continuing flight to an aerodrome with a critical engine

inoperative when either 120 minutes (at cruising speed) or 400 NM, whichever is
lesser, from land.

In this case 180 x 2 = 360. The track will overfly water for a distance of 380 NM
from shore so life rafts are required.
 The liferaft capacity must be sufficient to carry all on board either assuming the life
raft of largest capacity fails to inflate or including a spare liferaft of the largest
capacity.

When you have been unlawfully interfered with, the commander is required to inform certain
people:

(i) State of the Operator

(ii) ICAO
(iii) State of registration of aircraft

(iv) CAA

The observations and studies conducted on the behaviour of birds on the ground, ahead of an
aircraft taking off and having reached an average speed of 135 kt, show that birds fly
away: about two seconds beforehand

As regards the detection of bird strikehazard, the pilot means of information and prevention
are:

1.ATIS
2.NOTAMs
5.The report by another crew

3.BIRDTAMs
4.Weather radar

90% of bird strikes occur: under 500 m (51% of birdsrikes occur below 100 ft)

An analysis of the bird strikes shows that the highest risk is encountered in a layer from: from
0 to 150 m

The most efficient bird scaring technique generally available is:

the use of model predators, scarecrows, etc

broadcasting of recorded distress calls
firing shellcrackers
various visual methods

At the planning stage for a Class B performance aircraft, what minimum climb gradient do you
use? 300 ft min climb speed with all engines operating

What are the rules on the carriage of PRMs (Passengers with Reduced Mobility)?

Cannot impede the performance of crew duty

Must be seated away from emergency exits

What is the requirement for the issue of an AOC?

Not already hold an AOC issued by another authority
Have a fleet of serviceable aeroplanes
Have registered offices in all countries of operations
Have facilities for all maintenance

Documentation and Record Keeping: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/ ... php?t=1198

How often should pilot proficiency checks be performed?

No less than 6 months between checks

2 checks every 13 months
3 checks within the year with no less than 4 months between checks
2 within a year, more than 4 months between checks

Validity period is 6 month for proficiency check and 12 months for line check.

For an aeroplane powered by turbo-jet engines, the fuel and oil to be carried is at least the
amount sufficient to allow the aeroplane:

to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach, at the aerodrome to which the flight is

to have an additional amount of fuel sufficient to provide for the increased consumption on the
occurrence of any of the potential contingencies specified by the operator to the satisfaction of
the State of the operator; or

to fly to the alternate aerodrome via any predetermined point and thereafter for 30 minutes at
450m (1500 ft) above the alternate aerodrome

All of the above

In accordance with the fuel policy for isolated aerodromes, for aeroplanes with turbine engines,
the amount of Additional Fuel should not be less than the fuel to fly after arriving overhead the
destination aerodrome for: 2 hours at normal cruise consumption, including final reserve
fuel

a commander shall ensure that the amount of usable fuel remaining in flight is not less than
the fuel required to proceed to an aerodrome where a safe landing can be made with:

fuel to hold 30 minutes at 1500 ft above the aerodrome

final reserve fuel remaining

Question does not specify what kind of aeroplane. Holding for 30 minutes at 1500 ft
is for turbines. So "final reserve fuel remaining" is the best choice available.

Multi and Single Pilot Operation: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/ ... php?t=1202

Aircraft and Crew Leasing: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/ ... php?t=1204

Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the commander

should submit a report of the act to: both the local authority and the Authority of the State
of the operator

In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the
State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must
immediately notify the: State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and
ICAO

The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:

an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board

a landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no injuries will result to the occupants

a voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft and its
occupants

an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries
on board or on the surface

After an accident or serious incident in flight, the state where the aeroplane lands should report
to: State of Registry/ State of the Operator/ICAO

What is the dispersal time for wake turbulence from a wide-bodied aircraft? 3 mins

The wake turbulence category HEAVY applies to aircraft with a max certificated all up mass in
pounds in excess of:

299,200
275,000
136,000
125,000

Dont jump to conclusion, read the full question! Answer has to be in Pounds not Kgs

According to DOC 4444 (ICAO) a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes
shall be applied:

to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a runway
with a displaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross

between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft
utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off

to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of

parallel runway separated by less than 760m

to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a runway with
a displaced landing threshold

Since exam questions do not include the Super category, learn the following abbreviated table
and reproduce it in the exam to save time and get the answers right:
 Takeoff Minima: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/ ... php?t=1212

Approach and Landing Minima: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/ ... php?t=1213

IFR and VFR Minima: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/ ... php?t=1214

Long Range and Polar Navigation : https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/ ... php?t=1215

The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach
number is: 10 minutes

During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed,
the longitudinal spacing must be at least: 5 minutes

Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when: Operating at or
above FL 60 or 2000 ft whichever is higher

A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS
(Organised Track System) must be done: At or prior to entering the NAT region

The validity period of a day-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation
Performance Specification) airspace is normally at 30oW between:

01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC

10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
11H30 UTC to 18H00 UTC
00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
May be an old ruling if not wrong. The new timings are 1130 to 1900. For more on
MNPS see: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/ ... php?t=1218
 When flying a non-MNPS aircraft, climb through MNPS Airspace is allowed: When under radar
and in VHF communications with a controller

The application of a type II de-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a:

certain time of protection depending on its concentration

certain time of protection independent of the outside temperature

When planning a flight in icing conditions, what are the requirements?

Aircraft to be equipped with approved anti-icing equipment

Apply anti-icing fluid

For stable clouds:

1. The most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0°C and -10°C
3. Icing becomes rare at t < -18°C
5. The diameter of water droplets is between 0.002 and 0.03 mm

2. The most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0°C and -15°C
4. Icing becomes rate at t < -30°C
6. The diameter of water droplets is between 0.004 and 0.2 mm

During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts:

at the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage)

at the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage)

For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following
types of weather condition will the holdover protection) time be shortest?

Steady snow
Freezing fog
Frost
Freezing rain
It will be longest for "Frost"

When taking off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the
following effects:

1. An increase in the take-off distance

3. An increase in the stalling speed
5. A decrease of the climb gradient

2. A decrease of the take-off run

4. A decrease of the stalling speed

When anti-icing has been applied, when must you make sure it is still active?

When clear of icing conditions

On rotation
At brake release for take-off
Until one can use ones own anti-icing equipment

The commaner shall not commence take-off in icing conditions:

unless the external surfaces are clear of any contamination, except as permitted by
Aircraft Flight Manual

unless the external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid and the aircraft is not to be
operated in forecasted icing conditions greater than moderate icing

even if the ice contamination does not lead to an excedence of mass and balance limits

If taking off in icing conditions, pilot-in-command must make sure: Icing does not affect
performance within the constraints of the operations manual

The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:

1. The type and intensity of the showers

2. The ambient temperature
3. The relative humidity
4. The direction and speed of the wind
5. The temperature of the airplane skin
6. The type of fluid, its concentration and temperature

Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes
during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the:

operator
state of the operator
state in which the aeroplane is operating

Who is responsible for establishing and distribution amendments to noise abatement

procedures?

The country where the aeroplane is operated

The country where the aeroplane is registered
The country of the operator of the aerodrome
The operator of the aerodrome

Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the
following circumstances:

1. When cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots

2. When the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots
3. When the runway is not clear or dry

Following take-off, the noise abatement climb procedures specified by the operator is:

different according to airports and airplane types

for all airplane types, the same for a specific airport
different for a same airplan type, according to airports
for the same airplane type, the same for all airports
 the take-off climb procedures for noise abatement to be specified by the operator should be:

for all aeroplane types, the same for a specific aerodrome

for any one aeroplane type, the same for all aerodromes
for all aeroplane types, the same for all aerodromes
different according to aerodromes and aeroplane types

At take-off the maximum mass of the aeroplane shall be:

not more than the basic empty mass plus the payload
not more than the maximum landing mass
equal to or less than that at which the take-off run can be completed under ISA conditions and nil
headwind
not more than that which would enable compliance with any noise abatement
procedure
For more Noise Abatement Procedures
see: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/ ... php?t=1221

ICAO, JAA, JARS and EASA

The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) sets out standards, practices and recommendations
for air transport operation in the 1944 Chicago Convention and its Annexes.

The regulations dealing with scheduled and non-scheduled international commercial air transport are set
out in ICAO Annex 6.

Individual states or groups of states align their regulations with ICAO practices but are able to deviate
from them by filing a variation with ICAO.

The ICAO procedures should be seen as a background set of rules over which national regulations have
primacy.

Forty three European states form the Joint Aviation Authority (JAA).

Joint Air Regulations (JARS) provide an agreement between signature States.

National Authorities are committed to harmonising their regulations with the Joint Air Regulations (JARS).

Legal authority remains with individual National Authorities.

Out of 43 States (which form the JAA) there are 28 EU (European Union) countries (or signatories).

Within the EU, the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) has been created.

28 EU countries (or signatories) operate under EASA.

EASA harmonizes rules and regulations for aircraft operations under EU OPS (within the participating
States).

The rules are legally binding under EU law.

JAR-OPS and EU OPS

The rules and regulations for commercial air transportation operations are contained in both JAR-OPS
Part 1 and EU OPS Part 1.

The documents are identical but they have different legal authority.

For EASA Signatories the authority is EASA.

For the remaining JAA States operating under JAR OPS the authority is the State.

These regulations are applicable to the operation of any civil aeroplane for the purpose of commercial
air transportation by any Operator whose principal place of business is in a Member State.

OPS specifies how an air transport Operator can be approved for commercial operations either inside or
outside national boundaries by issue of an Air Operators Certificate (AOC).

The Operator must produce and publish a set of operating practices and then work to those standards.

The operating procedures are based on OPS.

OPS is in turn based on Annex 6 to the Chicago Convention with variations and additions.

OPS allows variations from the standard in certain crucial areas with negotiation and approval of EASA
or the National Authorities.

The Operator sets out how it intends to operate aircraft basing its procedures on OPS.

Where OPS allows for variations the Operator will submit procedures that it considers commercially
viable and safe.

Where the Authority agrees approval will be given, where it does not it will impose more stringent
standards.

The Air Operator's Certificate (AOC)

•Q
Pbyu K.Haroon » Thu Aug 15, 2013 1:12 pm
o
oGeneral Introduction
st
e AOC is a certificate issued by the State in which the Operator is registered.
tThe

It authorises it to carry out specific commercial air transport operations.

It specifies the type of operation that the Operator is licensed to perform.

It sets out the conditions under which the authorised operations will be performed.

The AOC identifies certain key members of the Operators senior management (known as AOC
Postholders) and contains the following minimum basic information

• The Operators identification and location

• The date of issue of the AOC and period of validity

• The description of the types of operation authorised

• The types of aircraft authorised and registration markings

• The authorised area of operation or route structure

Special limitations/authorisations/approvals relating to:

• CAT II/III including minima:

• MNPS

• ETOPS

• RNAV

• RVSM

• Transportation of Dangerous goods.

• Authorisation to provide cabin crew initial safety training.

Air Operator Certificate (AOC)

OPS states:

(a) An Operator shall not operate an aeroplane for the purpose of commercial air transportation
otherwise than under, and in accordance with, the terms and conditions of an Air Operator
Certificate (AOC).

(b) An applicant for an AOC, or variation of an AOC, shall allow the Authority to examine all safety
aspects of the proposed operation.

(c) An applicant for an AOC must:

(1) Not hold an AOC issued by another Authority unless specifically approved by the Authorities
concerned.

(2) Have his principal place of business and, if any, his registered office located in the State
responsible for issuing the AOC.

(3) Satisfy the Authority that he is able to conduct safe operations.

(d) If an Operator has aeroplanes registered in different Member States, appropriate
arrangements shall be made to ensure appropriate safety oversight.

(e) An Operator shall grant the Authority access to his organisation and aeroplanes and shall
ensure that, with respect to maintenance, access is granted to any associated Part 145
maintenance organisation, to determine continued compliance with OPS Part 1.

f) An AOC will be varied, suspended or revoked if the Authority is no longer satisfied that the
Operator can maintain safe operations.

g) The Operator must satisfy the Authority that:

(1) Its organisation and management are suitable and properly matched to the scale and scope of
the operation; and

(2) Procedures for the supervision of operations have been defined.

h) The Operator must have nominated an accountable manager acceptable to the Authority who
has corporate authority for ensuring that all operations and maintenance activities can be
financed and carried out to the standard required by the Authority.

i) The Operator must have nominated post holders, acceptable to the Authority, who are
responsible for the management and supervision of the following areas:
(1) Flight operations.

(2) The maintenance system.

(3) Crew training.

(4) Ground operations.

(j) A Person may hold more than one of the nominated posts if acceptable to the Authority but, for
Operators who employ 21 or more full time staff, a minimum of two persons are required to cover
the four areas of responsibility.

(k) For Operators who employ 20 or less full time staff, one or more of the nominated posts may
be filled by the accountable manager if acceptable to the Authority.

(l) The Operator must ensure that every flight is conducted in accordance with the provisions of
the Operations Manual.

(m) The Operator must arrange appropriate ground handling facilities to ensure the safe handling
of its flights.

(n) The Operator must ensure that its aeroplanes are equipped and its crews are qualified, as
required for the area and type of operation.

(o) The Operator must comply with the maintenance requirements, in accordance with Part M, for
all aeroplanes operated under the terms of its AOC.

(p) The Operator must provide the Authority with a copy of the Operations Manual, as specified in
Subpart P and all amendments or revisions to it.

(q) The Operator must maintain operational support facilities at the main operating base
appropriate for the area and type of operation.

Variation & Validity of an AOC

An Operator will not be granted an AOC, or a variation to an AOC, and that AOC will not remain
valid unless:

(a) Aeroplanes operated have a standard Certificate of Airworthiness issued in accordance with
the applicable regulations. Standard Certificates of Airworthiness issued by a Member State other
than the State responsible for issuing the AOC, will be accepted without further showing when
issued in accordance with Part 21 rules.

(b) The maintenance system has been approved by the Authority in accordance with OPS
maintenance requirements.

(C) The Authority is satisfied that the Operator has the ability to:
(1) Establish and maintain an adequate organisation.

(2) Establish and maintain a quality system in accordance with OPS.

(3) Comply with required training programmes.

(4) Comply with maintenance requirements, consistent with the nature and extent of the
operations specified, including the relevant items prescribed in the requirements to hold an AOC.

(5) Comply with the conditions of the AOC.

If the Authority is not satisfied that these requirements above have been met, the Authority
may require the conduct of one or more demonstration flights operated as if they were
commercial air transport flights.

Notification of a Change of an AOC Postholder

Notwithstanding the provisions of JAR-OPS, the Operator must notify the Authority as soon
as practicable of any changes to the information submitted in the original AOC application.

Regarding a change of AOC postholder, the Authority must be given at least 10 days prior
notice of a proposed change.
(d)

Responsibility of Operator

ICAO Annex 6 states that the Operator is responsible to the State for the control of the operation
(responsibility may be delegated to a designated representative).

OPS parallels ICAO, stating clearly that it is the Operator who is responsible for the control of operations
under the terms of his AOC and in accordance with the rules contained in OPS Part 1.

General responsibility on the Operator is:

• To ensure that its pilots and flight crew are familiar with:

•>> The laws, regulations and procedures with regard to the areas in which they operate,

>> The aerodromes,

>> The air navigation facilities to be used.

• To ensure crew members can communicate in a common language.

• To ensure that Operations personnel can understand the language in those parts of the Operations
Manual which are relevant to their duties and responsibilities.

• To ensure no person is admitted to or carried in the flight deck unless that person is:
•>> An operating crew member,

>> A representative of the Authority responsible for certification, licensing or inspection,

>> Permitted by, and carried in accordance with instructions in the Operations Manual.
• To ensure that its pilots in command have available on board all the essential information concerning
the Search and Rescue services in those areas over which the aeroplane will be flown.

• To establish and maintain an accident prevention and flight safety programme, which may be
integrated with the Quality System, including:

A risk awareness programme:

•>> An occurrence reporting scheme

>> A system of evaluation of incidents, promulgation of related information, but not attribution of
blame,

>> A flight data monitoring programme for those aeroplanes in excess of 27,000 kg Maximum Certified
Take-Off Mass (MCTOM),

>> An accountable manager for the programme.

• To ensure that no person enters or is in an aeroplane when under the influence of alcohol or drugs, to
the extent that the safety of the aeroplane or its occupants might be endangered.

• To ensure that no person recklessly or negligently acts:

•>> To endanger the aeroplane, or persons therein,

>> To permit the aeroplane to endanger person or property.

• To give any person (authorized by the Authority) access to any documents and records related to flight
operations or maintenance. These documents and records must be produced within a reasonable time
when requested to do so.

The overall responsibility of the Operator is so broad that we will assume that the Operator is always
responsible unless otherwise stated.

Power to Inspect

An Operator must ensure that any person authorised by the Authority is permitted at any time to board
and fly in any aeroplane operated in accordance with an AOC issued by that Authority.

Such a person (or persons) must be permitted to enter and remain on the flight deck provided that the
commander may refuse access to the flight deck if, in his opinion, the safety of the aeroplane would
thereby be endangered.

Quality Control

An Operator must establish one Quality System and designate one Quality Manager to monitor
compliance with and the adequacy of procedures required to ensure safe operational practice and
airworthy aeroplanes.

Compliance monitoring must include a feedback system to the Accountable Manager to ensure
corrective action as necessary.

The person nominated for the post of Accountable Manager must be one who is acceptable to the
Authority.

He or she must have corporate authority for ensuring that all Operations and Maintenance activities can
be financed and carried Out to the required standards of the Authority.

The Quality System must include a Quality Assurance Programme that contains procedures designed to
verify that all operations are being conducted in accordance with all applicable requirements, standards
and procedures.

The Quality System and the Quality Manager must be acceptable to the Authority.

The Quality System must be described in relevant documentation.

The Authority may accept the nomination of two Quality Managers, one for Operations and one for
Maintenance, provided that the Operator has designated one Quality Management Unit to ensure that
the Quality system is applied uniformly throughout the entire operation.
Manuals (OM, AFM and Maintenance)
•Q
Pbyu K.Haroon » Thu Aug 15, 2013 1:17 pm
o
oManuals
st
e
tICAO Annex 6 and OPS specify several manuals that the Operator must create in support of its
AOC application.

In most cases these manuals will have been prepared by the Operator and will contain
information compiled from manuals provided by the State of the Operator, or the aircraft and
engine manufacturer.

Aircraft Flight Manual

The Flight Manual is usually based on manuals issued by the aircraft manufacturer and contains
the information needed for normal and abnormal operation of the aircraft.

In addition to the Operations Manual the Operator will produce a Flight Manual for each aircraft
type.

Applicable parts of the aircraft flight manual can form sections of the operations manual (the two
documents are closely related).

Operations Manual

The primary document produced by the Operator to qualify for an AOC is the Aircraft Operations
Manual (AOM), usually referred to as the Operations Manual.

The Operations Manual is for the use and guidance of operations personnel.

The Operations Manual must be amended or revised as is necessary to ensure that it is kept up to
date.

All such amendments or revisions must be issued to all personnel that are required to use this
manual.

The State of the Operator must establish a requirement for the Operator to provide a copy of the
Operations Manual together with all amendments and/or revisions, for review and acceptance
and, where required, approval.

The Operator must incorporate in the Operations Manual such mandatory material as the State of
the Operator may require.

OPS Part 1 actually specifies precisely how an Operations Manual should be structured.

PART A General / Basic

• Administration and control

• Organisation and Responsibilities

• Operational control and Supervision (includes Accident Prevention and Flight Safety Programme)
• Quality System

• Crew composition

• Qualification requirements

• Crew Health Precautions

• Flight time limitations

• Operating Procedures

• Dangerous goods and weapons

• Security

• Handling, Notifying and Reporting of Occurrences

• Rules of the Air

• Leasing

PART B Aeroplane Operating Matters (Type Related)

• General information

• Limitations

• Normal Procedures

• Abnormal and Emergency Procedures

• Performance

• Flight Planning

• Mass and Balance

• Loading

• Configuration Deviation List

• Minimum Equipment List

• Survival and Emergency Equipment including Oxygen

• Emergency Evacuation Procedures

• Aeroplane Systems

The Operations Manual contains under Part B of these headings a Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
and a Configuration Deviation List (CDL).

MEL specifies which aircraft equipment is required for the flight.

CDL lists the performance or operating limitations caused by changes from the standard aircraft
configuration.
The Operator produces the MEL based on a Master MEL (MMEL) produced by the manufacturer.

Part B of the Operations Manual can be supplemented with or substituted by parts of the Aircraft
Flight Manual.

PART C Route and Aerodrome Instructions and Information

In Part C, Operator produced material can be substituted with route guide material produced by
specialized companies (e.g. Jeppesen).

PART D Training

• Training Programmes - General

• Training Syllabi and Checking

• Procedures

• Documentation and Storage

Maintenance Control Manual

The Maintenance Control Manual will include the Maintenance Exposition and the Maintenance
Programme.

It contains the information required to properly maintain and service the aeroplane in accordance
with ICAO, EASA, the State, and the aircraft and engine manufacturers' regulations and will
include:

• A description of the administrative arrangements between the Operator and the approved
maintenance organisation if the maintenance is not being done by the Operator itself.

• A description of the maintenance procedures and the procedures for completing and signing a
maintenance release where the maintenance is being done by the Operator.

• Other regulatory information including the names and duties of specific persons, maintenance
programmes, completion and retention of maintenance records, monitoring, assessing and
reporting of maintenance and operational experiences and a description of the procedures for
assessing airworthiness information and implementing any required actions.

Maintenance Documentation

Maintenance documentation is contained in JAR OPS 1 Part M and JAR 145 which will eventually be
included in EASA documentation as EU OPS-1 Part M (Aeroplane Maintenance) and Part 145.

They are colloquially referred to as Part M and Part 145.

Maintenance Rules

Operators must either be approved to maintain their own aircraft in accordance with Part 145 or
contract an approved organisation to do their maintenance for them.

The Operators AOC depends on following OPS maintenance requirements:

• An Operator shall not operate an aeroplane unless it is maintained and released to service by
an organization appropriately approved in accordance with Part 145 except that the pre-flight
inspections need not necessarily be carried out by the Part 145 organisation.

Under Part M, a pre-flight inspection means the inspection carried out before flight to ensure the
aeroplane is fit for the intended flight. It does not include defect rectification.

• There must be a Nominated AOC Postholder for Maintenance. If the Operator is using a
contractor for maintenance the Postholder should not, unless approved by the Authority, be an
employee of the contractor.

• The Operators quality system must at least do the following:

>> Monitor that the activities of OPS 1.890 are being performed in accordance with the accepted
procedures.

>> Monitor that all contracted maintenance is carried out in accordance with the contract.

>> Monitor the continued compliance with the requirements of Part-M.

• An Operator must provide an Operators Maintenance Management exposition which must be
approved by the Authority. It contains details of the organisation structure including the
nominated postholder responsible for the maintenance system and the procedures that must be
followed to satisfy the maintenance responsibility and the quality functions of OPS.

• If the Operator is Part 145 approved the quality system and exposition will be in the Part 145
documentation and need not be repeated.

• An Operator must ensure that the aeroplane is maintained in accordance with the Operators
aeroplane maintenance programme.

• The programme must contain details, including frequency, of all maintenance required to be
carried out. The programme may be required to include a reliability programme of the
maintenance system.

• If an Operator wishes to vary procedures from the OPS standard requirements it must establish
a need and present a case proving an equivalent level of safety. This must be approved by the
Authority and supported by other Member Authorities.

Flight Operations Personnel

FLight operations departement include:

• Flight crew and cabin crew who work on the aeroplane.

• Flight operations personnel who work on the ground.

Ground Personnel

Ground personnel are those that work on the ground.

They are usually grouped together under the collective name of "Operations".

The principle units are:

• Flight Operations Management — Pilot Management and Ground Staff Management

• Flight Operations or Flight Dispatch Officers

• Operations Controllers

• Crew Rostering and Scheduling Controllers

• Aeroplane Performance Engineers and Performance Officers

• Route Planning and Navigation Services Staff

• Operations Manual Preparation and Editorial Staff

All personnel assigned to, or directly involved in, ground and flight operations:

>> Must be properly instructed.

>> Have demonstrated their abilities in their particular duties.

>> Are aware of their responsibilities and the relationship of their duties to the operation as a whole.

The Flight Dispatch Officer

The Flight Dispatch Officer is responsible for providing supporting paperwork and information to the
flight crew.

He is responsible for monitoring the progress of the flight from the ground.

The exact duties will vary from Operator to Operator.

The duties would be detailed in the Operations Manual.

Typically, the Flight Dispatch Officer duties will include:

• Assisting the pilot-in-command in flight preparation and providing the relevant planning information
including MET, specific route information and NOTAMs, company notices, aircraft information including
serviceability items and traffic load.

• Assisting the pilot-in-command in preparing the operational and ATS flight plans. Sign (when
applicable) and file the ATS flight plan with the appropriate ATS unit.

• Furnish the pilot-in-command (while in flight) with information which may be necessary for the safe
conduct of the flight.

• In the event of an emergency, initiate such procedures as may be outlined in the operations manual.

• The flight dispatch officer must also be careful not to take any action that would conflict with the
procedures established by:

>> Air traffic control.

>> Meteorological service.

>> Communications service.

Composition of Flight Crew

Flight crew are:

• Pilots.

• Systems operators.

• Navigators (where carried).

The composition of the flight crew and the number of flight crew members at designated crew stations
must comply with the Aeroplane Flight Manual (AFM) and Operations Manual.

When a particular operation needs extra crew members they must be carried.

All flight crew members must hold an applicable and valid licence acceptable to the Authority and be
suitably qualified and competent to conduct the duties assigned to them.

An Operator must ensure that flight crew members who are self-employed and/or working on a freelance
or part-time basis comply with the regulations.

In particular the Operator must make sure the crew member is not operating too many public transport
types.

Pilot-in-Command

One pilot amongst the flight crew is designated as the commander who may delegate the conduct of the
flight to another suitably qualified pilot.

In multi-crew operations the commander must complete the prescribed command course and hold an
ATPL.

A CPL holder can operate as commander of an aeroplane certificated for single pilot operations
provided:

• When operating under VFR outside a radius of 50 NM from an aerodrome of departure, the pilot:
•>> Has a minimum of 500 hrs flight time, OR;

>> Holds a valid IR

• When operating on a multi-engine type under IFR, the pilot:
•>> Has a minimum of 700 hrs flight time.

>> 700 hrs shall include 400 hrs as PIC.

>> 400 hrs as PIC shall include 100 hrs under IFR.

First and Second Officers

The Captain may allow the assigned first officer to operate one or more sectors of the flight under his
supervision.

If there are more than two pilots required then the third pilot (relief pilot or second officer) may fly the
aeroplane above FL200.

In this situation the first officer must hold a valid ATPL whereas the third pilot must hold at least a valid
CPL.

A suitably qualified First Officer can also relieve the commander during the flight above FL200.

In this situation the First Officer requires an ATPL.

Apart from the differing licence requirements all three pilots must be trained and type rated on the
aeroplane category and type.

This includes an instrument rating, recurrency training and competence checks.

The exception is that only the captain and first officer need be qualified in take-offs and landings.
Second officers do not have to be qualified to land or take-off.

All type rated pilots can taxy the aircraft.

Other personnel can also taxy provided they have been fully trained and briefed on aerodrome layout,
signs, markings and ATC instructions.

Flight Engineers

When a dedicated System Panel Operator is required by the AFM, the flight crew must include one crew
member who holds a Flight Engineer's (FE) licence or a suitably qualified flight crew member acceptable
to the Authority.

This allows second officers or other suitably qualified pilots to occupy the FE's seat.

If a Flight Engineer is required he can only be relieved in flight by another qualified flight engineer.

If a third pilot, second officer or systems panel operator is carried in place of a specialised flight
engineer then this crew member can be relieved by either someone similarly qualified or by a flight
engineer.

Flight Navigator

The flight crew must include at least one member who holds a flight navigator licence in all operations
where (as determined by the State of the Operator) navigation necessary for the safe conduct of the
flight cannot be adequately accomplished by the pilots from the pilot station. This is rarely the case.
Multi Pilot Operation

For operations under IFR or at night an Operator shall ensure that all jet aircraft and turboprops
with more than 9 passenger seats have a minimum flight crew of two pilots.

Single Pilot Operation

Piston engined aircraft and small turbo-props can be operated by a single pilot, provided that the
following requirements are satisfied:

The Operations Manual must include a pilot's conversion and recurrent training programme which
includes any additional requirements for a single pilot operation.

In particular the cockpit procedures must include:

• Engine management and emergency handling.

• The use of normal, abnormal and emergency checklists.

• ATC communications procedures.

• Departure and approach procedures.

• Autopilot management procedures.

• The use of simplified in-flight documentation.

Recurrent Checks for Single Pilot Operation

Recurrent checks for single pilot operation are specified in the Operations Manual (AOM) approved
by the Authority and will specify:

• Ground and refresher training.

• Simulator training by a Type Rating Instructor.

• Emergency and Safety training.

• Crew Resource Management (CRM) training.

All to be conducted by suitably qualified and trained staff.

Minimum hours and Recency requirements for Single Pilot Operation

There are also minimum hours and recency requirements, specifically:

• A minimum of 50 hours flight time on the specific type or class of aeroplane under IFR.
>> Out of these 50 hours, 10 hours need to be as pilot in command.

• At least 5 IFR flights.

>> 5 IFR flights shall include 3 instrument approaches.

>> These instrument approaches shall be carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-
pilot role.

>> This requirement may be replaced by an IFR instrument approach check on the type or class of aeroplane.
Operators Conversion Course

An Operators conversion course must include, in order:

• Ground training and checking including aeroplane systems, normal, abnormal and emergency
procedures.

• Emergency and safety equipment training and checking which must be completed before aeroplane
training commences.

• Crew Resource Management training.

• Aeroplane or flight simulator training and checking.

• Line flying under supervision and line check.

If it is the first conversion course the flight crew member is taking for the Operator they also need
general first aid training and, if applicable, ditching procedures training using the equipment in water.

Each flight crew member undergoes an Operator Proficiency Check (OPC) also known as a base check.

On jet aircraft a first officer undertaking a first conversion course must do a minimum of 100 hours or 40
sectors of line training.

A first officer upgrading to captain requires a minimum of 20 sectors for a new aeroplane type or 10
sectors if already type rated on the aeroplane.

After completing line flying under supervision a final line check is flown.

Under OPS a crew member is considered to be inexperienced until:

•>> Either 100 hours and 10 sectors have been flown within 120 consecutive days

OR

>> 150 hours and 20 sectors over an unlimited time period

Inexperienced flight crew members must not be crewed together.

Once an Operators conversion course has been started a flight crew member must not undertake flying
duties on another type or class until the course is either completed or terminated.

When operating another variant of an aeroplane of the same type, or when changing equipment or
procedures, an Operator shall ensure flight crew complete the appropriate differences and/or
familiarisation training.

A pilot who operates in either pilots seat must also complete the necessary training and checking.

The required training must be specified in the operations manual and approved by the Authority.
Recurrent Training

Each flight crew member must undergo recurrent training and checking relevant to the type or variant of
aeroplane on which the flight crew member operates.

Details of recurrent training and checking requirements are outlined in OPS.

From these requirements an Operator would create a far more detailed programme of training and
checking.

The programme of training and checking has to be approved by the Authority and detailed in the
Training section of the Operations Manual.

The validity period of checks and training requirements varies but always starts from the beginning of
the month after the check.

Provided a check is completed within the last three months of validity of a previous check, the validity is
taken to run from the expiry of the previous check.

Thus an Operator Proficiency Check (which is valid for six months) may be completed in December (e.g.
17th Dec 2012) and be valid until the end of June the following year (e.g. 30th June 2013).

A second Operator Proficiency Check completed in April (e.g. 20th April 2013 i.e. within 3 months from
June 2013) is now valid until December (i.e. December 2013).

Recurrent training in the aeroplane or flight simulator must be conducted by a Type Rating Instructor
(TRI) or, in the case of the flight simulator content, a Synthetic Flight Instructor (SFI).

It must include:

• Aeroplane Systems

• Operational Procedures (including ground de/anti-icing),

• Pilot incapacitation.

• Accident/Incident Occurrence Review.

Operator Proficiency Check (Base Check)

An Operator must ensure that:

• Each flight crew member undergoes an OPC every 6 months to demonstrate his or her competence in
carrying out normal, abnormal and emergency procedures.

• The check is conducted without external visual reference when the flight crewmember will be required
to operate under IFR.

• The OPC is carried out as part of a normal flight crew complement.

The period of validity is 6 calendar months in addition to the remainder of the month of issue.

If issued within the final 3 months of validity of a previous check, the period of validity shall extend until
6 calendar months from the expiry date of the previous check.

An Operator Proficiency Check must be conducted by a Type Rating Examiner (TRE) or, if the check is
carried out in an approved flight simulator, a Synthetic Flight Examiner (SFE).
Line Checks

A line check is conducted annually in the aircraft to demonstrate a crew members competence in normal
line operations.

A line check is valid for 12 months.

Line proficiency checks (LPCs) can be carried out by Line Training Captains (suitably qualified
commanders) nominated by the Operator and acceptable to the Authority.

SEP Training and Checking

Each flight crew member requires annual training and checking on the location and use of all the
emergency and safety equipment carried on the aircraft.

The SEP check is valid for 12 months.

Crew Resource Management

CRM training is part of recurrent training.

OPS is quite specific on the topics to be covered, and at least the following must be covered on a 3 year
rolling basis:

• Human error, prevention and detection

• Company safety culture, SOPs

• Stress, fatigue and vigilance Information processing, workload management

• Decision making

• Communication

• Leadership and team behaviour

• Automation (philosophy of use) if relevant to type

• Specific type-related differences

• Other areas (identified by the flight safety programme)

Ground and Refresher Training

Each flight crew member must complete ground and refresher training at least every 12 calendar
months.

Refresher training is often combined with CRM and SEP as an annual event.

Aeroplane or Flight Simulator Training

Aeroplane or flight simulator training takes place at least every 12 months.

There will be a required number of simulator training sessions each year (dependant on
Operator/aircraft type).
These sessions are likely to be combined with or in the same detail as the Instrument Rating (annual
event) and OPC (every 6 months).

These training periods will be structured and planned as detailed in the Operations Manual.

Typically, each year Fleet Management will chose certain aircraft systems that the simulator sessions
will concentrate on.

Therefore over a given time frame (2 or 3 years), all major aircraft systems and emergencies are
covered during simulator training.

Each year, various accidents or incidents will be chosen for review during these training sessions.

Recency Requirement
•Q
Pbyu K.Haroon » Fri Aug 16, 2013 2:12 pm
o
oRecency
st
e Operator shall ensure that
tAn

• A pilot is not assigned to operate an aeroplane as part of the minimum certificated crew (either
as pilot flying or pilot non-flying) unless:
>> He has carried Out three take-offs and three landings

>> In the previous 90 days

>> As pilot flying in an aeroplane or flight simulator of the same type/class

• A pilot who does not hold a valid instrument rating is not assigned to operate an aeroplane at
night as commander unless:
>> He has carried out at least one landing at night

>> In the preceding 90 days

>> As pilot flying in an aeroplane or flight simulator of the same type/class.

The 90-day period above may be extended up to a maximum of 120 days by line flying under the
supervision of a Type Rating Instructor or Type Rating Examiner.

For periods beyond 120 days, the recency requirement is satisfied by a training flight or use of an
approved flight simulator.

Route Competence

Before acting as an operating pilot, a pilot must acquire adequate knowledge of the route to be flown
and of the aerodromes (including alternates) facilities and procedures to be used.

The rules in OPS simply talk about Route and Aerodrome Competance Qualification.
Precise detail of definition and of the training required is left up to the Operator.

Typically, route competence training should include knowledge of:

• Terrain and minimum safe altitudes

• Seasonal meteorological conditions

• Meteorological, communication and air traffic facilities, services and procedures

• Search And Rescue (SAR) procedures

• Navigational facilities associated with the route along which the flight is to take place

For the less complex routes, familiarisation by self-briefing with route documentation, or by means of
programmed instruction, is an adequate way of satisfying these requirements.

For the more complex routes (North Atlantic MNPSA operations) the pilot should receive in-flight
familiarisation as a commander, co-pilot or observer under supervision. A simulator may be used.

Aerodrome Competence

The Operations Manual should specify a method of categorisation of aerodromes.

It should specify the requirements necessary for each of these categories.

The least demanding aerodromes are classed as Category A.

Category B and C would be applied to progressively more demanding aerodromes.

Category A Aerodromes

It should have:

• An approved instrument approach procedure

• At least one runway with no performance limited procedure for take-off and/or landing

• Published circling minima not higher than 1000 feet above aerodrome level

• Night operations capability

Category B Aerodromes

An aerodrome that does not satisfy the Category A requirements or which has extra problems like non-
standard approach aids or approach patterns, unusual local weather conditions, unusual characteristics
or performance limitations or obstructions would be classed as Category B.

Category B aerodromes are considered more difficult to operate from.

Before operating to a Category B aerodrome the commander should be briefed or self-brief by means of
programmed instruction on the aerodrome concerned.

He must certify that he has carried out the briefing.

Category C Aerodromes
An aerodrome which is considered to be more difficult to operate from than a Category B aerodrome
would be classified as Category C.

Before operating to a Category C aerodrome the commander should be briefed and visit the aerodrome
as an observer, and/or undertake instruction in a flight simulator approved by the Authority for that
purpose.

The Operator should certify this instruction.

Validity Period

The period of validity of the route and aerodrome competence qualification is 12 calendar months. This
is in addition to:
•>> The remainder of the month of qualification

OR

>> The month of the latest operation on the route/aerodrome.

Route and aerodrome competence qualification is revalidated by operating on the route/aerodrome
within the period of validity.

If revalidated within the final 3 calendar months of validity of previous route/aerodrome competence
qualification, then the period of validity extends from the date of revalidation until 12 calendar months
from the expiry date of that previous route/aerodrome competence qualification.

e.g. Route/aerodrome competence qualification expires on 31st Dec 2012.

Revalidation done on Nov 1st 2012 (i.e. within 3 months).

The period of validity now extends from the date of revalidation i.e. 1st Nov 2012 till 31st Dec 2013 (i.e.
12 months from the last expiry date which was 31st Dec 2012).

Number and Composition

An aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19, when
carrying one or more passenger requires at least one cabin crew member.

The minimum number of cabin crew shall be the greater of either:

•• One crew member for every 50 (or fraction of 50) passenger seats installed on the same deck of the
aeroplane.

OR

• The number of cabin crew required during the relevant emergency evacuation procedures.
Cabin crew must be at least 18 years of age.

They must pass an initial medical examination.

Senior Cabin Crew must have at least one years experience.

They have responsibility to the commander for the conduct and co-ordination of procedures detailed in
the operations manual.

Training

The training must include:

• The arming and disarming of slides

• The operation of cabin lights, including emergency lighting

• The prevention and detection of cabin, oven and toilet fires

• Action to be taken when turbulence is encountered

• Actions to be taken in the event of an emergency and/or an evacuation.

The Journey Log

The aeroplane journey or voyage log is usually a single page form completed by the Commander at the
end of each flight which should contain the following items:

• The aeroplane nationality and registration

• The date

• The names of crewmembers

• The duty assignment of crewmembers

• Place of departure

• Place of arrival

• Time of departure

• Time of arrival

• Hours of flight

• Nature of flight (private, aerial work scheduled or non-scheduled)

• Incidents, observations, if any

• Signature of person in charge

The Technical Log

Each aeroplane has its own Technical Log which is used to track maintenance carried out on the aircraft.

Pilots enter technical problems in the Technical Log after Flight.

The maintenance section either rectifies the problem or lists it as an Acceptable Deferred Defect (ADD)
for a certain number of flights and records an entry in the Tech log cancelling the previous entry by the
pilot.

The Tech log entry by the engineer after rectification is called a Maintenance Release or Release To
Service. It must include:

• Basic details of the maintenance carried out.

• Date such maintenance was complete.

• When applicable, the identity of the approved maintenance organisation.

• The identity of the person or persons signing the release.

In order to accept an aeroplane for service the captain checks the Maintenance Release is complete and
has been signed by the engineer and the signs the Technical Log Book in turn.

Documents to be Carried in Flight

• Certificate of Registration

• Certificate of Airworthiness

• Noise Certificate (if applicable)

• Air Operator Certificate

• Aircraft Radio Licence

• Certification of Maintenance Release

• Third party liability insurance certificates

• Each flight crew member shall, on each flight, carry a valid flight crew licence with appropriate
rating(s).

Manuals to be Carried in Flight

• The current parts of the Operations Manual relevant to the duties of the crew.

• Those parts of the Operations Manual which are required for the conduct of a flight.

• The current Aeroplane Flight Manual is carried in the aeroplane unless the Authority has accepted that
the Operations Manual Part B contains relevant information for that aeroplane.

Additional Information and Forms to be Carried

• The Operational Flight Plan

• The Aeroplane Technical Log (as prescribed in Part M)

• Details of the Filed ATS Flight Plan

• Appropriate NOTAM/AIS and Meteorological Information

• Mass and Balance Documentation

• Notification of Special Categories of Passenger such as security personnel, if not considered as crew,
handicapped persons, inadmissible passengers, deportees and persons in custody

• Current maps and charts and associated documents

• Notification of Special Loads/Dangerous Goods in writing

• Other documentation that may be required by the States concerned such as — Crew Manifest,
Passenger Manifest, Cargo Manifest etc

• Forms to comply with the reporting requirements of the Authority and the Operator
Information Retained on the Ground

Certain key flight documents must be kept behind after the flight departs retained on file for a specified
minimum period of time.

An Operator must ensure therefore that, at least for the duration of each flight or series of flights,
information relevant to the flight and appropriate for the type of operation is preserved on the ground.

If this is not practical, the same information must be carried in a fireproof container in the aeroplane.

The following need to be kept:

• A copy of the operational flight plan where appropriate

• Copies of the relevant part(s) of the technical log

• Route specific NOTAM documentation if specifically edited by the Operator

• Mass and balance documentation

• Special loads (dangerous goods) notification

The information is retained until it has been duplicated at the place at which it will be stored.

Storage of Documents

Information used for the preparation and execution of the flight

• Operational flight plan - 3 months

• Route specific NOTAMAIS briefing documentation if edited by the operator - 3 months

• Mass and balance documentation - 3 months

• Notification of special loads including dangerous goods - 3 months

• Aeroplane technical log - 24 months according to JAR OPS and 36 months according to EU OPS after the
date of the last entry.

Flight Crew Record

Flight duty and rest time - 15 months

Recent experience - 15 months

Conversion training and checking - 3 years

Command course (including checking) - 3 years

Recurrent training and checking 3 years Training and checking to operate in ether pilot's seat - 3 years

Route and aerodrome competence - 3 years

Training and qualification for ETOPS & CAT II/III operations - 3 years

Licence - As long as the flight crew member is exercising the privileges of the Licence for the operator

Reports
Journey log - 3 months

Flight report(s) for recording details of any occurrence, or any event which the commander deems
necessary to report/record - 3 months

Reports on exceeding of duty times or reducing rest periods - 3 months

Cabin Crew Records

Flight, duty and rest time - 15 months

Dangerous goods training - 2 years

Recurrent training and refresher (including checking) - Until 12 months after the cabin crew member has
left the employ of the operator.

Initial training, conversation and difference (including checking) - As long as the cabin crew member is
employed by the operator.

Records for Other Operational Personnel

Training/qualification records of other personnel for whom an approved training programme is required
by JAR-OPS - Last 2 training records.

Other Records

Flight data recordings - 60 days after an accident.

Records on cosmic and solar radiation dosage - Until 12 months after the crew member has left the
employ of operator.

Quality system records - 5 years.

Aircraft and Crew Leasing

Aircraft and crews are frequently leased between Operators.

The Operator that provides the aircraft is called the lessor.

The one that receives the aircraft is called the lessee.

Wet Lease

Aircraft may be provided and operated under the AOC of the lessor, this is called a wet lease, and would
include full crew.

If an aircraft is "Wet Leased Out" it remains under the lessor's AOC.

Under any other circumstances it is operated as a variation on the lessee's AOC, provided that:

• Both Operators are EU (or JAR) Operators.

• The lessee's Authority has approved the variation.

If an aircraft is "Wet Leased In" from non-EASA or JAA Operators, it must also be approved and the
lessee must ensure that:

• The safety standards of the lessor are equivalent to OPS.

• The lessor holds an AOC from an ICAO contracting state.

• The aircraft has a C of A issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 8.

• Any JAA or EASA requirement imposed by the lessee's Authority is complied with.

Dry Lease

If the aeroplane is operated under the AOC of the lessee it would be referred to as a dry lease, this
would not normally include crew.

"Dry Leasing Aircraft Out" to Operators working outside EASA and JAA regulations is more complex.

It can be done, provided that:

• The foreign authority accepts (in writing) responsibility for overseeing the maintenance and operation
of the aircraft.

• The aircraft is removed from the lessor's AOC.

• It is still maintained under an approved maintenance schedule.

"Dry Leasing Aircraft In" from non-EASA or JAA Operators is relatively simple provided approval is
obtained.

Damp Lease

A third, colloquial term is a 'damp lease' where an aircraft and flight crew are provided but not a cabin
crew.

Security

ICAO Annex 6 sets out the requirements for aircraft security.

Training Programmes

An Operator must establish and maintain a training programme that enables crew members to act in the
most appropriate manner to minimise the consequences of acts of unlawful interference.

An Operator must also establish and maintain a training programme to acquaint appropriate employees
with preventative measures and techniques in relation to passengers, baggage, cargo, mail, equipment,
stores and supplies intended for carriage on an aeroplane.

This is designed to enable them to contribute to the prevention of acts of sabotage or other forms of
unlawful interference.
Passenger's Weapons

Although not mandatory it is recommended that, where an Operator accepts the carriage of weapons
removed from passengers, they should be stowed where they cannot be accessed in flight.

Flight Crew Compartment

All passenger-carrying aeroplanes with:

•>> A maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 45,500 kg.

OR

>> A Maximum Approved Passenger Seating Configuration greater than 60.

Shall be equipped with an approved flight crew compartment door that is capable of being locked and
unlocked from each pilot's station.

It shall be designed to meet the requirements of JAR 26.260.

This door shall be closed prior to engine start for take-off and will be locked when required by security
procedure or the Commander until engine shut down after landing.

Means shall be provided for monitoring from either pilot's station the area outside the flight crew
compartment to the extent necessary to identify persons requesting entry to the flight crew
compartment and to detect suspicious behaviour or potential threat.

In all other aeroplanes that are equipped with a flight crew compartment door, this door must be
capable of being locked.

Aeroplane Search Procedure Checklist

An Operator must ensure that there is, on board, a checklist of the procedures to be followed in
searching for a bomb in case of suspected sabotage.

Guidance on the course of action to be taken and information on the "least-risk" bomb location specific
to the aeroplane must support this checklist.

In the event that a bomb or suspicious object is found, this information should be readily available to the
crew.

Reporting Acts of Unlawful Interference

Acts of unlawful interference must be reported without delay.

Following an act of unlawful interference the pilot-in-command, or in his absence the Operator, must
submit a report as soon as practicable to the local Authority and the Authority in the State of the
Operator.

In addition, the "Contracting State" (the State in which the hijacked aeroplane has landed) must report
to:

• The State of the Operator

• The States whose citizens are on board the aeroplane

• The State of Registry

• ICAO
Responsibilities of The Crew

crew responsibilties are specified in the instructions and procedures laid down in the Operations Manual.

A crew member must report to the commander any incident that has endangered, or may have
endangered, safety.

He shall make use of the Operators incident reporting schemes in accordance with OPS requirements.

If the Operators incident reporting scheme is used a copy of the report must be given to the commander
concerned.

An Operator must take all reasonable measures to ensure that all persons carried in the aeroplane obey
all lawful commands given by the commander for the purpose of securing the safety of the aeroplane
and of persons or property carried therein.

A crew member must not perform duties on an aeroplane:

• While under the influence of any drug that may affect his or her faculties in a manner contrary to
safety.

• Until a reasonable period has elapsed after deep water diving.

• Following blood donation except when a reasonable time period has elapsed.

• If he or she is in any doubt of being able to accomplish his or her assigned duties.

• If he or she knows or suspects that he or she is suffering from fatigue, or feels unfit to the extent that
the flight may be endangered.

A crewmember must not:

• Consume alcohol less than 8 hours prior to the specified reporting time for flight duty or the
commencement of standby.

• Commence a flight duty period with a blood alcohol level in excess of 0.2 promille (permille: per
thousand).

• Consume alcohol during the flight duty period or whilst on standby.

These rules are from OPS.

The Operator is likely to take these rules and then expand on them, offering more detail and information
for crew and personnel. e.g. Times and depth details regarding deep water diving.

The rules on alcohol may also be more stringent than those stated in OPS (OPS imposes a minimum
blood alcohol level).

Operator may have a random testing programme, or possibly a 'zero tolerance' policy.

These details would be contained in PART A of the Operations Manual.

Duties During Critical Stages of Flight

The Critical phases of flight are the take-off run, the take-off flight path, the final approach, the landing
including the landing roll, and any other phase of flight at the discretion of the commander.
An Operator must not require a crew member to perform any activities during critical phases of the
flight other than those required for the safe operation of the aeroplane.

During take-off and landing each flight crew member required to be on flight deck duty must be at his or
her station.

During all other phases of flight each flight crew member required to be on flight deck duty must remain
at his or her station unless absence is necessary for the performance of duties in connection with the
operation, or for physiological needs.

Such absences can only be permitted provided at least one suitably qualified pilot remains at the
controls of the aeroplane at all times.

On all the decks of the aeroplane that are occupied by passengers, required cabin crew members must
be seated at their assigned stations during take-off and landing, and whenever deemed necessary by
the commander in the interest of safety.

When determining cabin crew seating positions, the Operator should ensure that they are (in order of
priority):

• Close to a floor level exit.

• Provided with a good view of the area(s) of the passenger cabin for which the cabin crew member is
responsible.

• Evenly distributed throughout the cabin.

Duties of the Aircraft Commander

The commander shall:

• Be responsible for the safe operation of the aeroplane and safety of its occupants during flight time
which is considered to begin when the aeroplane first starts to move away from the boarding area and
ends when the engines are shut down at the end of the flight.

• Have the authority to give all commands he or she deems necessary to secure the safety of the
aeroplane and of the persons or property it carries.

• Have authority to disembark any person, or any part of the cargo, which, in his or her opinion, may
represent a potential hazard to the safety of the aeroplane or its occupants.

• Not allow a person to be carried in the aeroplane who appears to be under the influence of alcohol or
drugs to the extent that the safety of the aeroplane or its occupants is likely to be endangered.

• Have the right to refuse transportation of inadmissible passengers, deportees or persons in custody if
their carriage poses any risk to the safety of the aeroplane or its occupants.

• Ensure that all passengers are briefed on the location of emergency exits and the location and use of
relevant safety and emergency equipment.

• Ensure that all operational procedures and check lists are complied with in accordance with the AOM.

• Not permit any crew member to perform any activity during take-off, initial climb, final approach and
landing except those duties required for the safe operation of the aeroplane.
• Not permit a flight data recorder to be disabled, switched off or erased during flight nor permit
recorded data to be erased after flight in the event of an accident or an incident subject to mandatory
reporting.

• Not permit a cockpit voice recorder to be disabled or switched off during flight unless he or she
believes that the recorded data, which otherwise would be erased automatically, should be preserved
for incident or accident investigation. He or she must not permit recorded data to be manually erased
during or after flight in the event of an accident or an incident subject to mandatory reporting.

• Decide whether or not to accept an aeroplane with unserviceabilities allowed by the Configuration
Deviation List (CDL) or Minimum Equipment List (MEL).

• Ensure that the pre-flight inspection has been carried out.

The commander or another pilot acting under his supervision must take any action considered
necessary in an emergency situation.

In such cases the pilot may deviate from rules, operational procedures and methods in the interest of
safety.

If local regulations or procedures are violated the pilot-in-command must notify the appropriate local
authority without delay and the Authority in the state of registration within ten days.

The commander shall be responsible for:

• Notifying the Operator of any accident or serious incident involving the aeroplane, resulting in serious
injury or death of any person or substantial damage to the aeroplane or property.
•The Operator shall ensure that:

i) The Authority of the State of the Operator;

ii) The nearest appropriate authority;

iii) Any other organisation required;

Are notified by the quickest means available of any accident or serious incident.
• Reporting all known or suspected defects in the aeroplane to the Operator at the termination of the
flight (complete the technical log).

• Completion of the Journey Log or the general declaration containing the information regarding:
•>> Aeroplane nationality and registration

>> Date of flight

>> Names of each crewmember and position

>> Places of departure and arrival

>> Scheduled time of departure

>> Scheduled en-route block and arrival time

>> Nature of flight

>> Signature of pilot-in-command

• The commander will also complete any additional reports regarding incidents that occurred during the
flight (air traffic, TCAS, bird strikes and so on).

• The commander shall, within a reasonable time of being requested to do so by a person authorized by
the Authority, produce to that person the documentation required to be carried on board.
Refueling with Passengers on Board
•Q
Pbyu K.Haroon » Sat Aug 17, 2013 6:16 pm
o
oRefueling or Defuelling with Passengers Embarking, On Board or Disembarking
s t
e
tOPS allows refuelling with passengers on board under certain circumstances, but not with wide
cut fuel.

An Operator must ensure that no aeroplane is refuelled/defuelled with Avgas or wide cut type fuel
(e.g. Jet-B or equivalent) or when a mixture of these types of fuel might occur, when passengers
are embarking, on board or disembarking.
Avgas or Aviation Gasoline has a high saturation vapour pressure so is more volatile
than jet fuel.

It has a low freezing point (-60 deg C) and has a low flash point (-45 deg C).

Fuel with a mixture of 70% gasoline and 30% kerosene have been used to overcome
the ignition problem. This mixture lowers the fire point. They are referred to as Wide
Cut or Wide Range Distillates. Wide cut fuels are not approved in EASA operated
aircraft.

Wide Cut Fuels are:

- Jet B

- JP 4

- VETA DERD 2486

Being Gasoline based wide cut fuels have a freezing point of -60 deg C. Thus
Freezing point for Jet A is higher than Jet B. Flash point for Jet A is higher than Jet B.

Procedure for Refueling with Passengers on Board

Following necessary precautions must be taken:

• One qualified person must remain at a specified location. This person must be capable of
handling emergency procedures concerning fire protection and fire fighting, handling
communications and initiating and directing an evacuation.

• Crew, staff and passengers must be warned that refuelling will take place.

• The "FASTEN SEAT BELT" signs must be off.

• "NO SMOKING" signs and interior lighting must be on.

• Passengers must be instructed to unfasten their seat belts and refrain from smoking.

• Sufficient qualified personnel must be on board and be prepared for an immediate emergency
evacuation.

• If the presence of fuel vapour is detected inside the aeroplane fuelling must be stopped
immediately.

• The ground beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation and slide deployment areas
must be kept clear and provision must be made for a safe and rapid evacuation.
• Two-way communication shall be established and shall remain available by the aeroplane's
inter-communication system or other suitable means between the ground crew supervising the
refuelling and the qualified personnel on board the aeroplane.

Is refuelling permissible when passengers are on board, embarking or disembarking?

It is permissible
It is permissible when relevant precautions are taken except when using AVGAS or
wide-cut fuels
It is not permissible except when using wide cut fuels or AVGAS
It is permissible only as long as the passengers remain on board

Minimum Equipment List (MEL)

•Q
Pbyu K.Haroon » Sun Aug 18, 2013 12:11 pm
o
oMinimum Equipment List (MEL)
st
e
tBackground authority for Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is ICAO Annex 6, which is refined by
OPS.

MEL is part of the operations manual.

The MEL details the minimum levels of equipment required.

It enables the captain to make sure of the legality of the flight if equipment is missing or
inoperative.

All items related to the airworthiness of the aircraft and not included in the list are automatically
required to be serviceable.

The MEL lists aircraft components and systems alphabetically.

Next to each entry is a statement which clarifies if the equipment is needed or not for the flight.

Because many systems and components are duplicated failure of one system does not always
mean the flight cannot go.

The MEL also considers possible multiple failures e.g. System A may be inoperative provided
systems B and C are functioning.

Some unserviceabilities may incur some performance penalties or limitations, if so the MEL will
spell out the details.

The MEL is not meant to allow continuous operation with deferred defects and should be used to
allow short term continued operation until maintenance can be carried out.

Some items in the MEL will specify that they can be unserviceable only for a certain number of
flights.

The MEL is to be used on the ground prior to taxy.

After taxying, any problems will be dealt with by referring to the NORMAL/ABNORMAL checklists.
The MEL is produced by the Operator and approved by the National Authority.

It is based on the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) which is produced by the aircraft
manufacturer and approved in turn by either the Air Transport Association of America (ATA), EASA
or the JAA.

The MEL will never be less restrictive than the MMEL.

Flight Data Recorder (FDR)

Flight Data Recorders record (usually digitally) certain operating parameters (flying attitude, condition of
the aeroplane and its engines etc).

In the event of an accident or incident, these parameters can be identified.

An operator must ensure that in the event of the aeroplane becoming involved in an accident or
incident, all related flight recorder data (and if necessary, the associated flight recorders) are preserved
and retained in safe custody.

The recorder is to be installed so that the probability of damage to the recorder is minimised.

To meet this requirement it should be located as far to the rear of the aircraft as practicable.

In the case of pressurised aeroplanes it should be located in the vicinity of the rear pressure bulkhead.

The FDR must be painted a distinctive orange or yellow colour, carry reflective material to facilitate its
location.

It also requires an automatically activated underwater locating device.

It should receive its electrical power from a power bus supply that provides the maximum reliability for
operation of the FDR without jeopardising any services to essential or emergency electrical loads.

There must also be an aural or visual means for checking that the recorder is operating properly during
the course of the pre-flight check.

The FDR can often be switched on or off in the cockpit or the switch may have a 'normal' selection
activating the FDR when power is applied to the aircraft.

The FDR must start to record data prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power.

The FDR must continue to record data until the aircraft is incapable of moving under its own power.

It must not be switched off during the flight.

To preserve flight recorder data, flight recorders must be de-activated following an accident or incident.

Installation Requirement of FDRs

OPS requirements for installation of Flight Data Recorders (FDRs) depends on three variables. These are:

• Date of first issue of Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A)

• Maximum certificated take-off mass (MCTOM)

• Maximum approved passenger seating capacity (MAPSC)

Exactly which parameters need to be recorded depends on these variables.

Generally, the more modern and larger the aeroplane is, the more detailed the information required.

All FDRs must record information with reference to a timescale.

All FDRs must be equipped with a device to assist location in water.

OPS lists situations where FDRs are required.

FDR 3 (Before 1990)

An operator shall not operate any turbine engined aeroplane first issued with a C of A before 1 June
1990 which:

• Has a MCTOM over 5700 kgs

Unless it is equipped with a FDR.

The FDR must record at least the last 25hrs of operation.

There are extra recording parameter requirements for aeroplanes over 27,000 kgs.

FDR 2 (From 1990 to 1998)

An operator shall not operate any aeroplane first issued with a C of A on or after 1 June 1990 up to and
including 31 March 1998 which:

• Has a MCTOM over 5700 kgs

Unless it is equipped with a FDR.

The FDR must record at least the last 25hrs of operation.

There are extra recording parameter requirements for aeroplanes over 27,000 kgs.

FDR 1 (After 1998)

An operator shall not operate any aeroplane first issued with a C of A on or after 1 April 1998 which:

• Is multi-engine turbine powered and has a MAPSC of more than 9

OR

• Has a MCTOM over 5700 kgs

Unless it is equipped with a FDR

The FDR must record at least the last 25hrs of operation (10hrs if MCTOM 5700 kgs or less).

There are extra recording parameter requirements for aeroplanes over 27,000 kgs.

Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR)

OPS requirements for Cockpit Voice Recorders (CVRs) are very similar to those of FDRs.

The rules depend on the same variables.

They are listed in 3 sections.

CVR 3 (Before 1998)

Any aeroplane first issued with a C of A before 1 April 1998 which:

• Has a MCTOM over 5700 kgs

Must have a CVR which records at least the last 30 minutes of the cockpit aural environment.

CVR 2 (From 1990 to 1998)

Any multi-engine turbine powered aeroplane first issued with a C of A on or after 1 January 1990 up
to and including 31 March 1998 which:

• Has a MCTOM 5700 kgs or less and

• Has a MAPSC of more than 9

Must have a CVR which records at least the last 30 minutes of the cockpit aural environment

CVR 1 (After 1998)

An aeroplane first issued with a C of A issued on or after 1 April 1998 which:

• Is multi-engine turbine powered with a MAPSC of more than 9: or

• Has a MCTOM over 5700 kgs

Must have a CVR which records at least the last 2hrs of the cockpit aural environment (30 minutes if
5700 kgs or less).

Cockpit Aural Environment

• Voice communications transmitted from or received on the flight deck by Radio.

• The aural environment of the flight deck, including without interruption, the audio signals received
from each microphone in use.

• Voice communications of flight crew members on the flight deck using the aeroplane's interphone
system.

• Voice or audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a headset or speaker.

• Voice communications of flight crew members on the flight deck using the public address system.

The CVRs must start to record prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power.

The CVRs must contiue to record until the termination of the flight when the aeroplane is no longer
capable of moving under it own power.

The CVR must have a device to assist location under water.

First-Aid Kits

An aeroplane must be equipped with accessible and adequate first-aid supplies.

Supplies shall be appropriate to the number of passengers the aeroplane is authorised to carry.

0 to 99 Passengers - 1 first-aid kit.

100 to 199 Passengers - 2 first-aid kits.

200 to 299 Passengers - 3 first-aid kits.

300 or more Passengers - 4 first-aid kits.

Emergency Medical Kit

Emergency Medical Kit is required when:

• Maximum approved passenger seating exceeeds 30 seats.

• Any point on the planned route is more than 60 minutes flying time from an aerodrome where qualified
medical assistance could be expected.

Note: 60 minutes flying time is at normal cruising speed.

Amongst the contents will be some powerful pain killers (controlled drugs). These should only be
administered by suitably qualified medical personnel.

Fire Extinguishers

An aeroplane must carry portable fire extinguishers of a type which Will not cause dangerous
contamination of the air within the aeroplane.

• At least one hand fire extinguisher, on flight deck for use by the flight crew.

It should contain Halon 1211 (bromochlorodifluoro-methane, CBrCIF2, otherwise known as BCF), or

equivalent as the extinguishing agent.

• At least one hand fire extinguisher in each galley not located on the main passenger deck.

• At least one readily accessible hand fire extinguisher in each:

•>> Class A or Class B cargo or baggage compartment.

>> Class E cargo compartment that is accessible to crew members in flight.

Class A cargo or baggage compartment is one in which:

The presence of a fire would be easily discovered by a crewmember while at his

station.

Each part of the compartment is easily accessible in flight.

 Class B cargo or baggage compartment is one in which:

There is sufficient access in flight to enable a crewmember to effectively reach any

part of the compartment with the contents of a hand fire extinguisher.

When the access provisions are being used, no hazardous quantity of smoke,
flames, or extinguishing agent, will enter any compartment occupied by the crew or
passengers.

There is a separate approved smoke detector or fire detector system to give

warning at the pilot or flight engineer station.

Class C cargo or baggage compartment is one not meeting the requirements

for either a Class A or B compartment but in which:

There is a separate approved smoke detector or fire detector system to give

warning at the pilot or flight engineer station.

There is an approved built-in fire extinguishing or suppression system controllable

from the cockpit.

There are means to exclude hazardous quantities of smoke, flames, or extinguishing

agent, from any compartment occupied by the crew or passengers.

There are means to control ventilation and drafts within the compartment so that
the extinguishing agent used can control any fire that may start within the
compartment.

Class E cargo compartment is one on airplanes used only for the carriage of
cargo and in which:

There is a separate approved smoke or fire detector system to give warning at the
pilot or flight engineer station.

There are means to shut off the ventilating airflow to, or within, the compartment,
and the controls for these means are accessible to the flight crew in the crew
compartment.

There are means to exclude hazardous quantities of smoke, flames, or noxious

gases, from the flight crew compartment.

The required crew emergency exits are accessible under any cargo loading
condition.

• At least the following number of hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment(s):

When two or more extinguishers are required, they must be evenly distributed in the passenger
compartment.

If maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 then 2 fire extinguishers are required.
At least 1 of them must contain Halon 1211 or equivalent as the extinguishing agent.

If maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 61 or more then out of the required fire
extinguishers, at least 2 must contain Halon 1211 or equivalent as the extinguishing agent.
Crash Axes or Crowbars

A crash axe with an insulated handle or crowbar is required on the flight deck of aircraft with:

• A MTOM greater than 5700 kg.

OR

• More than 9 seats.

If more than 200 seats are fitted there must be a second (not visible to passengers) in or near the most
rearward galley area.

The main purpose of the fire axe is to give access to fires in areas that are hidden behind panels or fixed
equipment.

Protective Breathing Equipment

Crew Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE) is required in all pressurized aeroplanes and in
unpressurised aeroplanes with:

• A maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 5700 kg.

OR

• Having a maximum approved seating configuration of more than 19 seats.

The equipment should protect the eyes, nose and mouth, providing oxygen for a period of not less than
15 minutes.

It should be available for:

• Each flight crew member while on flight deck duty (although this PBE requirement can be provided by
the SUPPLEMENTAL OXYGEN requirement).

• All required cabin crew members (this equipment must be portable).

When the flight crew is more than one and no cabin crew is carried, the equipment shall be portable.

Additional portable PBE should be located adjacent to the hand held fire extinguishers required in:

• Each galley not located on the main passenger deck.

• Each Class A, Class B or accessible Class E cargo or baggage compartment.

Break-In Points
•Q
Pbyu K.Haroon » Sun Aug 18, 2013 12:32 pm
o
oBreak-In Points
st
e
tThese are the areas of the fuselage on an aeroplane for outside break-in by the Airport Rescue
Services.

If these areas are suitable for outside break-in, then they should be marked in either red or
yellow.
If necessary the markings should be outlined in white as a contrasting background.

If the corner markings are more than 2 metres apart, intermediate lines must be inserted.

This is to ensure that adjacent markings are not separated by more than 2 metres.

Size of the intermediate lines that are inserted shall be 9 cm in length and 3 cm in width.

Emergency and Survival Equipment

•Q
Pbyu K.Haroon » Sun Aug 18, 2013 12:35 pm
o
oLife Jackets
s t
e
tLand Planes

Landplanes must carry one life jacket or equivalent individual flotation device for each person on
board when flying more than 50 NM from the shore.

Each jacket must be equipped with a survivor locator light.

Life jackets must also be carried when taking off or landing at an aerodrome where the take-off or
approach path is over water so that in the event of a mishap there would be a likelihood of a
ditching.

Life jackets for infants may be replaced by 'individual flotation devices' and must have an electric
light, usually powered by a battery activated by seawater.

The life jacket or flotation device must be stowed in a position easily accessible from the seat or
berth of the person for whose use it is provided.

Seaplanes

All flights on seaplanes (or amphibians) must carry:

• One life jacket, or equivalent individual flotation device, for each person on board. Each jacket
(or equivalent) must be equipped with a survivor locator light.
• Equipment for making the sound signals prescribed in the International Regulations for
Preventing Collisions at Sea (where applicable).

• One sea anchor or drogue

Drogue is a device, typically conical or funnel-shaped with open ends, towed behind
a boat, aircraft, or other moving object to reduce speed)

Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELT)

To carry Less than 19 passengers, the aircraft to be equipped with atleast:

• One ELT of any type.

OR

• One automatic ELT for aeroplanes first issued with an individual C of A after 1 July 2008

To carry More than 19 passengers, the aircraft to be equipped with atleast:

• 2 ELTs of any type or 1 automatic ELT.

OR

• 2 ELTs, one of which shall be automatic for aeroplanes first issued with an individual C of A after
1 July 2008.

All ELTs carried must operate in accordance with the relevant provisions of ICAO Annex 10. Volume
III.

Life Rafts

On extended overeater flights life rafts must be carried in the following circumstances:

• For aircraft capable of continuing flight to an aerodrome with a critical engine inoperative when
either 120 minutes (at cruising speed) or 400 NM, whichever is lesser, from land.

• For all other aeroplanes, when either 30 minutes at cruising speed or 100 NM, whichever is
lesser from land.

The liferaft capacity must be sufficient to carry all on board either assuming the life raft of largest
capacity fails to inflate or including a spare liferaft of the largest capacity.

The life-rafts shall be equipped with:

• A survivor locator light.

• Life saving equipment including means of sustaining life as appropriate to the flight to be
undertaken.

• A total of at least two survival Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELTs) capable of transmitting on
the distress frequencies prescribed in ICAO Annex 10.

Emergency Escape Slides

If an exit door-sill is more than 1.83 meters (6 feet) from ground level, when the gear is extended
or collapsed, it must have an escape slide or slide raft.

It must inflate in 10 seconds and into a 25 KT wind.

Slides and slide rafts are located at doors and wing exits.

When the doors are armed, opening them from the inside will automatically initiate the
deployment of the slides.

The slides are inflated by CO2.

Occasionally the slide deploys but automatic inflation fails.

In this case the slide may be inflated by attempting to manually discharge the CO2 bottle.

Most narrow body aircraft used in continental flights use slides.

Most wide body aircraft use slide rafts.

Slide rafts act as "lifeboats" when detached from the aircraft.

Slide rafts carry less equipment than purpose built life rafts.

If life rafts are used rather than slide rafts they must be stowed to be easily used in emergency
and be provided with appropriate life-saving equipment and supplies.

Survival Equipment for Flights Over Land

When aircraft are operated across land areas in which search and rescue would be difficult, they
must be equipped with at least:

• One ELT.

• Pyrotechnic signalling devices.

• Additional survival equipment taking into account the number of persons on board.

Additional survival equipment need NOT be carried when the aeroplane either:

(1) Remains within a distance from an area where search and rescue is not especially difficult
corresponding to:
(i) 120 minutes at the one engine inoperative cruising speed for aeroplanes capable of continuing
the flight to an aerodrome with the critical power unit(s) becoming inoperative

OR

(ii) 30 minutes at cruising speed for all other aeroplanes.

OR

(2) For aeroplanes certificated to CS 25 or equivalent, no greater distance than that

corresponding to 90 minutes at cruising speed from an area suitable for making an emergency
landing.
Supplemental Oxygen Requirements

ICAO describe the oxygen requirements by reference to the cabin pressure in hPa and the equivalent
altitude in metres and feet.

The equivalent values are:

700 hPa = 3000 m = 10,000 feet

620 hPa = 4000 m = 13,000 feet

376 hPa = 7600 m = 25,000 feet

Requirement for Unpressurised Aircraft

A flight to be operated above 10,000 feet must carry sufficient stored breathing oxygen to supply:

Flight Crew

• Entire time above 10,000 ft ==> All flight crew.

Cabin Crew

• More than 30 minutes between 10,000 ft and 13,000 ft Cabin Alt ==> All cabin crew.

• Any time spent above 13 000 ft Cabin Alt ==> All cabin crew.

Passengers

• More than 30 minutes between 10,000 ft and 13,000 ft Cabin Alt ==> 10% of the passengers.

• Any time spent above 13 000 ft Cabin Alt ==> All (100%) Passengers.

Requirement for Pressurised Aircraft

A pressurised aircraft needs to carry stored breathing oxygen when operated above 10,000 ft.

The amount of breathing oxygen required is determined on the basis of cabin pressure altitude and an
assumption that depressurization occur at the most critical point.

The amount of supplemental oxygen shall be sufficient for:

Flight Crew

• More than 30 minutes between 10,000 ft and 13,000 ft:

•>> 30 minutes supply if aeroplane is certified to fly uptil 25,000 ft.

>> 2 hours supply if aeroplane is certified to fly above 25,000 ft.

Above 25,000 ft, flight crew require a quick donning oxygen masks.
• Entire time above 13,000 ft ==> All flight crew.

Cabin Crew
• More than 30 minutes between 10,000 ft and 13,000 ft ==> All cabin crew (minimum 30 minutes
supply).

• Entire time above 13,000 ft ==> All cabin crew (minimum 30 minutes supply).

Passengers

• Entire time between 10,000 and 14,000 ft ==> 10% of the passengers (after the first 30 minutes at
these altitudes).

• Entire time between 14,000 and 15,000 ft ==> 30% of the passengers.

• Entire time above 15,000 ft ==> 100% of the passengers (minimum 10 minutes supply).

Note: All altitudes given are cabin altitudes.

Other Requirements

If operating above 25,000 ft or unable to descend to 13,000 ft within 4 minutes the oxygen equipment
must deploy automatically by a cabin altitude of 15,000 ft.

There must be 10% more masks than there are seats to ensure availability.

Pressurised aircraft require a warning system that warns the flight crew when the cabin pressure altitude
exceeds 10,000 ft (3000m).

Aeroplanes operated above 25,000 ft shall be provided with sufficient spare outlets and masks, or
sufficient portable oxygen units, evenly distributed through the cabin, for use by all required cabin crew
members.

This is to ensure immediate availability of oxygen regardless of location.

First-Aid Oxygen Requirement

When operating a pressurized aeroplane above 25,000 ft a supply of first aid oxygen is required for
passengers who, for physiological reasons, might require oxygen following cabin depressurization.

The amount carried shall be sufficient for at least 2% of passengers carried but in no case shall be less
than one.

This is for the remainder of the flight after depressurization when cabin altitude exceeds 8000 ft but
does not exceed 15,000 ft.

At least 2 dispensing units are required.

Communications Equipment

VFR

An operator must not operate an aeroplane under VFR over routes that can be navigated by reference to
visual landmarks, unless it is equipped with the radio equipment necessary under normal operating
conditions to fulfil the following:
• Communicate with appropriate ground stations.

• Communicate with appropriate air traffic control facilities from any point in controlled airspace within
which flights are intended.

• Receive meteorological information.

• Reply to SSR interrogations as required for the route being flown.

IFR

An operator shall not operate an aeroplane under IFR, or under VFR over routes that cannot be
navigated by reference to visual landmarks, unless the aeroplane is equipped with:

• Two independent radio communication systems necessary under normal operating conditions to
communicate with an appropriate ground station from any point on the route including diversions.

• SSR transponder equipment as required for the route being flown.

Navigation Equipment Lists (IFR)

Under OPS, an aircraft must not be operated IFR or VFR where visual navigation is not possible unless its
navigation equipment meets the standard of the

Required Navigation Performance (RNP) for operation in the airspace concerned or that it comprises not
less than:

• One VOR receiving system, one ADF system, one DME.

• One ILS or MLS where ILS or MLS is required for approach navigation purposes.

• One Marker Beacon receiving system where a Marker Beacon is required for approach navigation
purposes.

• An Area Navigation System when area navigation is required for the route being flown.

• An additional DME system on any route, or part thereof, where navigation is based only on DME
signals.

• An additional VOR receiving system on any route, or part thereof, where navigation is based only on
VOR signals.

• An additional ADF system on any route, or part thereof, where navigation is based only on NDB signals.

An operator may operate outside these limits provided that it is equipped with alternative and adequate
navigation equipment approved for the route being flown, approved by the Authority.

Instruments Required (VFR)

All aeroplanes. when operated as VFR flights, must be equipped with:

• A magnetic compass

• An accurate timepiece indicating the time in hours minutes and seconds

• A sensitive pressure altimeter

• An airspeed indicator
• A vertical speed indicator

• A turn and slip indicator

• An attitude indicator

• A stabilized direction indicator

• A means of indicating in the flight crew compartment, the outside air temperature

• A headset and boom microphone for each flight crew member

• A means indicating when power is not supplied to the required flight instruments

For flights under VFR this list can vary depending a number of factors:

• For local flights, operating within 50 NM of an aerodrome some items are not required.

• For aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 5700 kg or having a maximum
approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9, or whenever two pilots are required there are
additional requirements.

Instruments Required (IFR)

All aeroplanes, when operated in accordance with IFR, or by night in accordance with VFR must be
equipped with:

• A magnetic compass

• An accurate timepiece indicating the time in hours, minutes and seconds

• Two sensitive pressure altimeters with counter drum-pointer or equivalent presentation

• An airspeed indicating system with means of preventing malfunctioning due to either condensation or
icing

• A vertical speed indicator

• A turn and slip indicator

• An attitude indicator (artificial horizon)

• A stabilized direction indicator (directional gyroscope)

• A means of indicating in the flight crew compartment, the outside air temperature

• A means indicating when power is not supplied to the required flight instruments

• A headset and boom microphone for each flight crew member

The underlined item is the difference from the VFR list for basic items

This list can vary depending a number of factors:

• Whenever two pilots are required, the second pilots station requires separate instruments, apart from
the compass and the clock.

• Those aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 5700 kg or having a more
than 9 passenger seats, require an additional standby Attitude Indicator (AI).
•=> The standby AI must be useable from either seat.

=> It must be powered from a source independent of the normal electrical system.

=> It must be capable of 30 minutes reliable operation following total electrical failure, and be
appropriately illuminated.

Additional Equipment

Single Pilot Operation under IFR

For single pilot operations under IFR an aeroplane must be equipped with an autopilot with at least
altitude hold and heading mode

Altitude Alerting System

All turbo-prop aeroplanes with a MCTOM in excess of 5700 kg or a MAPSC of more than 9 seats.

OR

A turbojet powered aeroplane must be equipped with an altitude alerting system capable of:

• Alerting the flight crew upon approaching a preselected altitude.

• Alerting the flight crew by at least an aural signal, when deviating from a preselected altitude.

Airborne Weather Radar

Weather radar is required for:

All pressurised aircraft

For unpressurised aircraft with a MCTOM over 5700 kg, or having a MAPSC of more than 9 seats.

When operated at night or in IMC in areas where thunderstorms or other potentially hazardous weather
conditions may be expected.

Propeller driven pressurised aircraft of less than 5700 kg with less than 9 seats may use other
equipment such as a stormscope subject to approval by the Authority.

Radiation Indicator

All aeroplanes, intended to be operated above 15,000 metres (49,000 feet), need equipment to measure
and continuously indicate the dose rate of total cosmic radiation being received and the cumulative
dose on each flight.

The display unit of the equipment must be readily visible to a flight crew member.

Machmeter

All aeroplanes with speed limitations expressed in terms of Mach number must be equipped with a Mach
number indicator.

This device is required in airspace where the Longitudinal Separation of aeroplanes in that airspace is
based upon the Mach Numbers of each aeroplane as advised to Air Traffic Control.

Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) and Terrain Awareness Warning System (TAWS)
All turbine powered aeroplanes with a MCTOM in excess of 5700 kg or authorised to carry more than 9
passengers must be equipped with a Ground Proximity Warning System that includes a predictive terrain
hazard warning function (Terrain Awareness and Warning System).

A GPWS must, automatically, provide as a minimum, warnings of the following circumstances:

• Excessive sink rate

• Ground proximity

• Altitude loss after take-off or go-around

• Incorrect landing configuration and

• Downward glideslope deviation

The warning GPWS provides must be aural and may be supplemented with visual indications.

TAWS must automatically provide the flight crew, by means of visual and aural signals and a Terrain
Awareness Display, with sufficient alerting time to prevent controlled flight into terrain events.

Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS)

ACAS otherwise known as TCAS II, is required for all turbine powered aeroplanes with a MCTOM in excess
of 5700 kg or with a MAPSC of more than 19 seats.

Aeroplane Operating Lights

ICAO (and OPS) specify that, as a minimum, an aircraft must be equipped with:

For Day

• An anti collision light

• Lights for all instruments and equipment that are essential for the safe operation of the aeroplane that
are used by the flight crew

• Lights in all passenger compartments

• An electric torch for each crew member station

For Night

In addition to the day lighting requirements, an aeroplane must have:

• Two landing lights

• A green navigation light, usually on the right wing tip, visible through 110°

• A red navigation light, usually on the left wing tip, visible through 110°

• A white navigation light, usually on the tail, visible through 140°

Fuses

If fuses are used in the aircraft there must be an extra 10% or three of each rating, whichever is greater,
carried as spares.

Windscreen Wipers

Aircraft with a MCTOM over 5700 kg need a windshield wiper or equivalent means to maintain a clear
portion of the windshield during precipitation installed at each pilot station.

Public Address System

Aircraft with a MAPSC of more than 19 passenger seats require a Public Address system.

The system must operate independently of the interphone.

It should be readily accessible for immediate use and be audible and intelligible at all passenger seats
and toilets, cabin crew seats and work stations.

Audio Selector Panel

If an aircraft is to operate under IFR it needs an audio selector panel at each flight crew station.

Interphone Systems

Flight Crew Interphone

An aeroplane with a flight crew of more than one requires a flight crew interphone system, including
headsets and microphones (not of a handheld type).

Crew Member Interphone System

Aircraft of more than 15,000 kg or more than 19 passenger seats require a crew member interphone
system which must.

(1) Operate independently of the public address system except for handsets, headsets, microphones,
selector switches and signalling devices.

(2) Provide a means of two-way communication between the flight crew compartment; and:
•(i) Each passenger compartment.

(ii) Each galley located other than on a passenger deck level.

(iii) Each remote crew compartment that is not on the passenger deck and is not easily accessible from
a passenger compartment.
(3) Be readily accessible for use from each of the required flight crew stations in the flight crew
compartment.

(4) Be readily accessible for use at required cabin crew member stations close to each separate or pair
of floor level emergency exits.

(5) Have an alerting system incorporating aural or visual signals for use by flight crew members to alert
the cabin crew and for use by cabin crew members to alert the flight crew.

(6) Have a means for the recipient of a call to determine whether it is a normal call or an emergency
call.

(7) Provide on the ground a means of two-way communication between ground personnel and at least
two flight crew members.
Doors and Curtains

All flight crew compartment doors must be capable of being locked.

In addition, an aircraft must have the following:

(a) In an aeroplane with a MAPSC of more than 19 passengers, a door between the passenger
compartment and the flight deck compartment with a placard "crew only" and a locking means to
prevent passengers from opening it without the permission of a member of the flight crew.

(b) Aeroplanes of a MCTOM in excess of 45,500 kg or with a MAPSC of more than 60 require a
cockpit door that is capable of being locked and unlocked from each pilot's station. A means shall be
provided for monitoring from either pilot's station the area outside the cockpit to identify persons
requesting entry and/or to detect a potential threat.

(c) A means for opening each door that separates a passenger compartment from another compartment
that has emergency exit provisions. The means for opening must be readily accessible.

(d) If it is necessary to pass through a doorway or curtain separating the passenger cabin from other
areas to reach any required emergency exit from any passenger seat, the door or curtain must have a
means to secure it in the open position.

(e) A placard on each internal door or adjacent to a curtain that is the means of access to a passenger
emergency exit, to indicate that it must be secured open during take off and landing.

(f) A means for any member of the crew to unlock any door that is normally accessible to passengers
and that can be locked by passengers.

Megaphones

An aircraft with more than 60 passenger seats, and carrying one or more passengers, needs a portable
battery powered megaphone.

For each passenger deck with 61 to 99 seats, one megaphone is required.

With 100 or more seats, two megaphones are required.

The megaphone shall be readily accessible for use by crew members during an emergency evacuation.

MAPSC = Maximum Approved Passenger Seating Configuration. It is generally 9 for

many items. However some items have the figure of 19 which are:

TCAS

PA system

Interphone

Doors

ELT (mentioned in emergency and survival equipment)

Operational Flight Plan

An Operational Flight Plan is required for all flights.

ATS Flight Plan

An operator must ensure that Air Traffic Services are used for all flights whenever available.

An ATS flight plan should be filed or, alternatively, adequate information should be deposited in order to
permit the alerting services to be activated if required.

The ATS flight plan nowadays is usually prepared automatically as part of the computer flight plan along
with the Operational Flight Plan given to the pilots.

Once prepared, either the pilot in command or the flight operations/dispatch officer must forward it to
the nearest Air Traffic Service facility.

The reasons for filing the ATS flight plan are to advise Air Traffic Services of the flight operation and to
enable Air Traffic Control to clear the proposed flight operation.

When unable to submit or to close the ATS flight plan, due to lack of ATS facilities or any other means of
communications to ATS, an operator should establish procedures, instructions and list of authorised
persons to be responsible for alerting search and rescue services.

To ensure that each flight is located at all times, these instructions should provide the authorised person
with at least the information required to be included in a VFR flight plan and the location, date and
estimated time for re-establishing communications.

The instructions should provide that the information will be retained at a designated place until the
completion of the flight.

If an aeroplane is overdue or missing, the procedures should provide for notification to the appropriate
ATS or Search and Rescue facility.

Flight Rules

A flight may be conducted under IFR or VFR.

IFR Operating Minima

An IFR flight must not be commenced unless conditions at the aerodrome of intended landing are at or
above the applicable aerodrome operating minima.

The time span for appropriate conditions are ETA ±1 hour.

Where a destination alternate is required, at least one destination alternate aerodrome must, at the
estimated time of arrival (±1 hour), meet the planning minima.

Should the appropriate weather reports or forecasts for the destination indicate that at the ETA (±1
hour) the weather will be below the applicable minima, two destination alternates are required.

Same will be the case if no meteorological information is available.

Having commenced the flight, a commander shall not continue towards the planned destination unless
at ETA, the weather conditions at the destination, or at least one of the destination alternate aerodrome,
are at or above the planning applicable aerodrome operating minima.
VFR Operating Minima

An operator must ensure that VFR flights are conducted in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules.

Note: Cat A and B aeroplanes may be operated In flight visibilities down to 3000 m,
provided the appropriate ATS authority permits use of a flight visibility less than 5
km, and the circumstances are such, that the probability of encounters with other
traffic is low, and the IAS is 140 KT or less.

A flight to be conducted in accordance with VFR must not be commenced unless current meteorological
reports, or a combination of current reports and forecasts, are satisfactory.

In order to be considered satisfactory, they must indicate that the meteorological conditions along the
route or that part of the route to be flown, under the visual flight rules will, at the appropriate time, be
such as to render compliance with these rules possible.
Special VFR flights must not be commenced when the visibility is less than 3 km (JAA/EASA) and not
otherwise conducted when the visibility is less than 1.5 km (ICAO).

Standard Fuel Requirement

The fuel load is split into distinct elements. Under OPS these are:

Taxy Fuel

Fuel required for start up and taxy to the end of the runway.

An operator will probably use a standard figure for particular aircraft type.

However this can be varied to account for local conditions.

Trip Fuel

Fuel required from take-off to touchdown.

Reserve Fuel

Reserve fuel is required consisting of:

Contingency Fuel

An amount of fuel to allow for unforecast winds and ATC re-routes.

Contingency fuel can be calculated by a number of methods. These include:

• 5% of planned trip fuel.

• 3% of planned trip fuel (if an en route diversion is available).

• 20 minutes flying time (providing an individual airframe fuel monitoring programme is established).

• An amount of fuel based on a statistical method (typically used on long haul sectors).

Whichever method is employed would be approved by the Authority and detailed in the Operations
Manual.

Diversion Fuel

Total fuel required from the point of diversion to touchdown at the alternate.

Final Reserve Fuel

Defined by the Operator in the Operations Manual, but not less than:

• For Turbine engine aeroplanes: Fuel for 30 minutes holding at 1500 ft above the aerodrome.

• For Reciprocating engine aeroplanes: Fuel to fly for 45 minutes.

Additional Fuel
This is an amount of fuel that would cater for failure of a power unit or loss of pressurization.

It is based on the assumption that such a failure occurs at the most critical point.

Fuel should include:

•Fuel to descend as necessary.

Proceed to an adequate aerodrome and hold for 15 minutes a 1500 ft.

Make an approach and landing.

Extra Fuel

This is at the discretion of the commander.

It can take into account a number of factors like weather, likelihood of holding and routing problems.

Local knowledge and experience play a key part in this decision.

Ramp (or Block) Fuel

RAMP FUEL (or BLOCK) FUEL = TAXY + TRIP + RESERVE + EXTRA

In-Flight Fuel Management

An Operator must establish a procedure to ensure that in-flight fuel checks and fuel management is
carried out.

A commander must ensure that the amount of usable fuel remaining in flight is not less than the fuel
required to proceed to an aerodrome where a safe landing can be made, with final reserve fuel
remaining.

Once airborne, it is legal to continue to destination even if you don't have sufficient fuel to divert
provided you are comfortable that a safe landing can be made.

OPS States:

If, as a result of an in-flight fuel check, the expected fuel remaining on arrival at the
destination is less than the required alternate fuel plus final reserve fuel, the
commander must take into account the traffic and the operational conditions
prevailing at the destination aerodrome, at the destination alternate aerodrome and
at any other adequate aerodrome, in deciding whether to proceed to the destination
aerodrome or to divert so as to perform a safe landing with not less than final
reserve fuel...

The commander shall declare an emergency when calculated usable fuel on

landing, at the nearest adequate aerodrome where a safe landing can be
performed. is less than final reserve fuel.

The Reduced Contingency Fuel (RCF) Procedure

The RCF procedure (Previously the 'Decision Point Procedure') offers additional flexibility in fuel planning
for an operator.
The procedure makes use of an en-route alternate (ERA) and a Decision Point (DP).

The ERA provides an optional refuel destination.

The RCF procedure reduces the minimum fuel required for the sector by reducing contingency fuel.

Thus reducing fuel helps in increasing the payload.

The amount of fuel required should be the greater of the following two calculations:

Calculation 1

A Total of:

• Taxy fuel

• Sector fuel (to destination via DP)

• Contingency (5% of trip DP to destination)

• Alternate

• Final reserve + Additional Fuel + Extra Fuel

Calculation 2

A Total of:

• Taxy fuel

• Sector fuel (to ERA via DP)

• Contingency (Departure to ERA via DP) + Alternate

• Final reserve

• Additional Fuel

• Extra Fuel

Use of the RCF procedure requires the approval of the Authority.

When and exactly how an operator can use the procedure will be contained in the Aircraft Operations
Manual.

An Example of RCF Procedure

An aeroplane is to operate a route from London to Toronto with Ottawa as the alternate.

The route overflys Goose Bay.

Because of payload and performance restrictions, the fuel load on take-off from London is limited to only
73,000 kg.
Normal calculation gives the following fuel plan:

Trip Fuel to Toronto 62,000 kg

Contingency 5% is 3100 kg

Alternate (Ottawa) 3600 kg

Final Reserve 6000 kg

TOTAL FUEL 74,700 kg

This exceeds our plan limit as we have room for only 73,000 kg without unloading passengers.

Now apply the Reduced Contingency Fuel (RCF) procedure using Goose Bay as our ERA.

Calculation 1:

Trip Fuel to Toronto via DP 62,000 kg

Cont 5% DP to Toronto only 1000 kg

Alternate (Ottawa) 3600 kg

Final Reserve 6000 kg

TOTAL FUEL 72,600 kg

Calculation 2:

Trip Fuel to Goose Bay via DP 54,700 kg

Contingency (5% of Trip) 2735 kg

Alternate (St Johns) 2300 kg

Final Reserve 6000 kg

TOTAL FUEL 65,735 kg

From the two totals, we must take the higher value i.e. 72,600 kg.

This is within our 73,000 kg limit.

Pre-Determined Point (PDP) Procedure

This procedure offers an operator a degree of flexibility.

It is designed for the scenario where the distance between the destination aerodrome and the
destination alternate is such that the flight can only be routed via a pre-determined point (PDP) to one of
these aerodromes.

The amount of fuel should be the greater of the following two calculations:

Calculation 1:
A Total of:

• Taxy fuel

• Sector fuel (to destination via PDP)

• Contingency (normal rules)

• Additional fuel (for turbine engines — 2 hours at cruise on arrival overhead destination)

• Extra fuel (if required by the commander)

Calculation 2

A Total of:

• Taxy fuel

• Sector fuel (to alternate via PDP)

• Contingency (normal rules)

• Additional fuel (turbine engine — 30 minutes holding 1500 ft above aerodrome)

• Extra fuel (if required by the commander)

Isolated Aerodrome Procedure

Isolated Aerodrome: When no alternate is available. Also sometimes called Island Destination.

If an operators fuel policy includes planning to an isolated aerodrome, the last possible point of diversion
to any available en-route alternate aerodrome shall be used as the predetermined point.

The rest is as Pre-Determined Point (PDP) Procedure (as mentioned above).

Take-Off Weather

Cloudbase is unimportant for take-off unless no take-off alternate is available within the prescribed
distances.

Under normal circumstances only the RVR or visibility in the direction of take-off need to be considered.

The minimum visibility should allow sufficient guidance to control the aircraft on a normal take-off, a
take-off following an engine failure and a rejected take-off.

If no RVR is available and even if the prevailing visibility is below limits a take-off can still be conducted
provided that the commander assesses the visibility in the direction of take-off as adequate.

This is only allowed because the prevailing visibility roughly represents the average visibility and,
consequently, the visibility down the runway may be better and may be worse.

The required RVR or visibility varies with the runway lighting system for multi-engined aircraft from as
much as 500 m to as little as 75 m.

The very lowest visibilities require a lateral guidance system on take-off.

This normally uses ILS localiser signals to give very sensitive visual indications to the pilots of
displacement from the centreline.

Where multiple RVR values are used, they must all be greater than the minimum (with the exception
that the initial reading can be replaced by a pilot assessment).

Subject to the approval of the Authority an Operator may reduce the take-off minima to either 125
metres RVR or 150 metres RVR depending on aircraft category when:

• Low visibility procedures are in force.

• High Intensity runway centre line lights are available.

• Pilots have taken appropriate training.

• A 90 metre visual segment is available from the cockpit.

• The required RVR value is present at all the runway reporting points.

And it can be further reduced to not less 75 metres when the aircraft has a lateral guidance system on
take-off provided runway protection and facilities equivalent to Category III landing operations are
available.

Taxying

Aircraft are normally taxied by type rated pilots.

In some rare circumstances, they can be taxied by other personnel (perhaps ground crew) provided that
the individual:

• Has been duly authorised by the Operator or a designated agent.

• Is fully competent to taxi the aeroplane.

• Is qualified to use the RT.

• Has received instruction from a competent person in respect of aerodrome layout, routes, signs,
marking, lights, air traffic control (ATC) signals and instructions, phraseology and procedures.

• Is able to conform to the operational standards required for safe aeroplane movement at the
aerodrome.

Noise Abatement Procedures

The local Authority is responsible for ensuring noise abatement objectives are specified by aerodrome
Operators.

Preferred runway directions for noise abatement are published to avoid noise sensitive areas.

For a runway to be "preferred" it must have a suitable glidepath guidance system like ILS or in visual
conditions, VASIs or PAPIs.

Noise abatement departure routings may be published for any runway.

The choice of runway is not always driven by noise abatement considerations, other conditions may be
overriding, specifically:

• If the runway is not clear and dry

• If the visibility is less than 1900 m (1 NM)

• If the crosswind is more than 15 KT, including gusts

• If the tailwind is greater than 5 KT, including gusts

• When windshear is reported or forecast

• When thunderstorms are expected to affect the approach or departure

If any of these conditions apply, another runway, other than the one preferred for noise abatement may
be used.

An Operator shall establish departure and arrival/approach procedures for each aircraft type (approved
by the Authority) in accordance with the following:

• Safety has priority over noise abatement.

• The procedures shall be designed to be simple and safe to operate with no significant increase in crew
workload during critical phases of flight.

• For each aeroplane type two departure procedures shall be defined, in accordance with ICAO Doc 8168.

• Noise Abatement Departure Procedure One (NADP 1), which reduces noise near the airfield.

• Noise Abatement Departure Procedure Two (NADP 2), which reduces noise away from the airfield.
The former Noise Abatement Departure Procedures A and B are no longer part of
the ICAO PANS-OPS Doc. 8168. According to these procedures, NADP A results in
noise relief during the latter part of the procedures whereas NADP B provides relief
close to the airport.

Takeoff Noise Abatement Procedures

Both procedures require an initial climb under full power climbing at V2 + 10 KT to V2 + 20 KT.

NADP 1 reduces thrust early and delays flap retraction to 3000 ft.

NADP 2 starts flap retraction under full power at a minimum of 800 ft.

For details of these procedures check this link: Noise Abatement Procedures

Minimum Criteria

If a noise abatement procedure other than those mentioned above is approved, some minimum criteria
must be observed.

• The minimum speed must not be less than V2+ 10 KT unless this exceeds the maximum body angle.

• If thrust reductions are used they must be after 800 ft. The minimum reduced thrust setting must be
the lower of maximum climb thrust and the thrust required to maintain the minimum engine inoperative
net climb gradient for the number of engines fitted and the aircraft configuration. The minimum reduced
thrust level must be specified in the Aircraft Operating Manual
• Obstacle clearance must be maintained allowing for the time to reset full power if an engine fails.

Landing Noise Abatement Procedures

Noise abatement procedures for landing normally involve combinations of reduced power and reduced
drag

i.e. Delaying flap and gear selection until the later stages of the approach.

However, not later than the Outer Marker or 5 NM from the threshold, whichever is earlier.

These changes to configuration and the subsequent higher approach speeds may not be made
mandatory.

Other requirements are that:

• High rates of descent must not be required.

• Pilots must not be required to turn onto the final approach track at distances less than those adequate
to establish on track before glidepath interception .

• In visual operations, pilots must not be required to turn at distance less than those adequate to
stabilise on final approach before crossing the threshold.

• Displaced thresholds for noise abatement landings can be used but only when noise is 'significantly'
reduced and the remaining runway length is safe and sufficient.

In all noise abatement procedures air/ground communications should be kept to a minimum so as not to
distract the flight crew.

Occurence Reporting and Bird Strike Hazard

•Q
Pbyu K.Haroon » Tue Aug 20, 2013 11:13 pm
o
oFlight Incidents
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e Operator or commander of an aeroplane must submit a report to the Authority within 72
tThe
hours of any incident that has endangered or may have endangered safe operation of a flight.

Accident Reporting

An Operator must establish procedures to ensure that the nearest appropriate authority and the
authority of the state of the Operator are notified by the quickest available means of any
accident, involving the aeroplane, resulting in serious injury or death of any person or substantial
damage to the aeroplane or property.

The commander, or in his absence the Operator, must then submit a written report to the
Authority of the State of the Operator within 72 hours.

Emergency Violation of Local Regulations or Procedures

If an emergency situation, which endangers the safety of the aeroplane or persons, necessitates
the taking of an action that involves a violation of local regulations or procedures, the pilot-in-
command must notify the appropriate local authority without delay.

If required by the state in which the incident occurs, the pilot in command must submit a report
on any such violation to the appropriate authority in that state or country.

In that event the pilot in command must also submit a copy of the report to the state of origin
of the Operator as soon as possible and normally within ten days.

Air Traffic Incidents

A commander must submit an air traffic incident report in accordance with ICAO PANS ATM
(sometimes referred to by its old name, PANS-RAC) whenever an aeroplane in flight has been
endangered by:

• A near collision with any other flying device.

• A faulty air traffic procedures.

• Lack of compliance with applicable procedures by Air Traffic Services.

• The flight crew or a failure of ATS facilities.

Technical Defects

A commander must ensure that all technical defects and occasions of exceeding technical
limitations occurring while he was responsible for the flight are recorded in the aeroplane's
Technical Log.

Bird Hazard and Strikes

Birds are a major hazard for aircraft, particularly when taking off and landing.

Birds congregate naturally in areas where food is available (rubbish sites)

They also congregate where the environment is right for them, like large areas of open grassland
on airfields.

One of the measures adopted to reduce the number of birds on airfields has been to adopt a "long
grass" policy to discourage larger birds.

Others include using recorded bird distress calls or even hawks to drive them off.

Bird strikes can damage airframes but at landing and take-off speeds the greatest risk is to the
engines.

Ingested birds can cause structural damage and surges.

A commander must immediately inform the appropriate ground station whenever a potential bird
hazard is observed.

Statistics suggest that 90% of bird strikes occur below 1500 ft (500 m), although there have been
strikes recorded above 10,000 ft (very rare).

Another study suggests the levels at greatest risk from birds is ground level to 150 m.

Under OPS, if there is a bird strike, that results in significant damage, the captain must file a
written bird strike report after landing.
Reporting of bird strikes will be done at a national level, and individual states are responsible for
establishing a structure to deal with bird strike hazards and bird control policies.

At an International level, the ICAO Bird Strike Information System (IBIS) has been established to
provide analyses of bird strike reports received from individual States.

Some figures from this analysis are:

• 70% of bird strikes occur during daylight

• Some 55% of bird strikes occur during either the approach or take-off phases of flight

• 5% of bird strikes result in 'substantial' damage

• 51% of birdsrikes occur below 100 ft

• In 92% of strikes, pilots were not warned of bird activity

Flight crew can find information regarding bird hazards in:

• NOTAMs (specific airport hazards, breeding areas, migration routes)

• ATIS (updated and current airport information) ATC/Crew reports

• BIRDTAMs (use of them varies widely and depends on individual States. In general, not in wide
useage)

• Jeppeson airport plates (detail varies widely with the State, the hazard and the chart concerned)

In-Flight Emergencies with Dangerous Goods on Board

If an in-flight emergency occurs and the situation permits, a commander must inform the
appropriate Air Traffic Services unit of any Dangerous Goods on board.

Unlawful Interference

Acts of unlawful interference with a flight include:

• Attempted or successful hijacks

• Unlawful interceptions

• Attempts to take control of aircraft

• Attempts to crash the aircraft

Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane a commander must submit a

report as soon as practicable to the local Authority and the Authority in the state of the Operator.

In addition, under ICAO Annex 17 (Security), the local Authority must also report to the States of
all personnel involved, the State of registry and ICAO.

Irregularities of Ground and Navigational Facilities and Hazardous Conditions

A commander must notify the appropriate ground station as soon as practicable whenever a
potentially hazardous condition is encountered during flight, such as:

• An irregularity in a ground or navigational facility

• A meteorological phenomenon

• A volcanic ash cloud

• A high radiation level

Instrument Approach and Aircraft Categories

•Q
Pbyu K.Haroon » Wed Aug 21, 2013 2:18 pm
o
oInstrument Approach
st
e pilot can begin an instrument approach regardless of the reported RVR or prevailing visibility.
tThe

However, the approach can not be continued, beyond the outer marker or the equivalent position
if the reported RVR or visibility is less than the applicable minima.

The equivalent position is one that can be established by means of a DME distance, a suitably
located NDB or VOR, SRE or PAR fix or any other suitable fix between 3 and 5 miles from
threshold that independently establishes the position of the aeroplane.

If, after passing the outer marker, the reported RVR/visibility falls below the minimum the
approach may be continued to DA/H or MDA/H.

Where no outer marker or equivalent position exists, the pilot must make the decision to continue
or abandon the approach before descending below 1000 ft above the aerodrome on the final
approach segment.

The approach may be continued below DA/H or and the landing may be completed provided that
the required visual reference is established at the DA/H or MDA/DH and is maintained.

Where RVR is not available for landing, equivalent values can be found by converting the
prevailing visibility, using this table:

This table may not be used to assess take-off RVR, it is only for landing.

It also cannot be used for calculation, if the required RVR minimum is less than 800m, or when
reported RVR is available.
RVR can be same as met visibility or greater but can never be less

Single Pilot Operations Minimum

In single pilot operations a landing RVR of less than 800 m is not permitted except when using a
suitable autopilot coupled to an ILS or MLS, in which case normal minima apply.
The Decision Height applied must not be less than one and a quarter (1.25) times the minimum
height for using the autopilot.

Lighting For Night Operations

For night operations at least the following lights must be on:

• Runway Edge.

• Threshold.

• Runway End Lights.

In other words, Runway Rectangular Outline

Aeroplane Categories

Aircraft are divided into five approach and take-off categories depending on their target threshold
speed (VAT or VREF).

VAT is found by taking either:

The stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration (VSO) and
multiplying it by 1.3

OR

The slightly higher VS(1G), the stalling speed where the aircraft can generate lift equal to its
weight, and multiplying it by 1.23

Both calculations are run in the landing configuration at the maximum certificated landing mass.

Generally, the resulting values of VAT are very similar but, if both VSO and VS1G are available,
the higher resulting VAT is be used.
Low Visibility Operations

Low Visibility Operations include:

• Manual take-off with or without electronic guidance systems.

• Auto-coupled approach to below DH, with manual flare, landing and roll-out.

• Auto-coupled approach followed by auto-flare, autolanding and manual roll-out.

• Auto-coupled approach followed by auto-flare, autolanding and auto-roll-out.

• An autopilot system with a rollout capability is one capable of guidance on the runway centreline.

Approach Categories

We can break the landing limits down now into three categories i.e. CAT I, II and III.

CAT I is a normal approach.

CAT II and III are low visibility operations.

For both CAT II and CAT III operations, DH is based on the radar altimeter.

Low Visibility General Operating Rules

An Operator must establish procedures and instructions to be used for Low Visibility Take-Off and
Category II and III operations.

These procedures must be included in the Operations Manual with approval by the Authority.

The procedures shall contain the duties of flight crew members during taxiing, take-off, approach, flare,
landing, roll-out and missed approach as appropriate.

Particular emphasis must be placed on flight crew responsibilities during transition from non-visual
conditions to visual conditions, and on the procedures to be used in deteriorating visibility or when
failures occur.

The instructions in the operations manual must be compatible with procedures in the Aeroplane Flight
Manual and cover the following items in particular:

• Checks for the satisfactory functioning of the aeroplane equipment, both before departure and in flight.

• Effect on minima caused by changes in the status of the ground installations and airborne equipment.

• Procedures for the take-off, approach, flare, landing, roll-out and missed approach.

• Procedures to be followed in the event of failures, warnings and other non-normal situations.

• The minimum visual reference required.

• The importance of correct seating and eye position.

• Action which may be necessary arising from a deterioration of the visual references.

• Allocation of crew duties to allow the Commander to devote himself mainly to supervision and decision
making.

• The requirement for all height calls below 200 ft to be based on the radio altimeter and for one pilot to
continue to monitor the aeroplane instruments until the landing is completed.

• The requirement for the Localiser Sensitive Area to be protected.

• The use of information relating to wind velocity, windshear, turbulence, runway contamination and use
of multiple RVR assessments.

• Procedures to be used for practice approaches and landing on runways at which the full Category II or
Category III aerodrome procedures are not in force.

• Operating limitations resulting from airworthiness certification.

• Information on the maximum deviation allowed from the ILS glide path and/or localiser.

The Operator is also responsible for training crews in low visibility operations.

They must be simulator checked and qualified for each operation.

This training is type specific and all flight crew require qualification.

The Operations Manual must list the minimum equipment that has to be serviceable at the start of a
Low Visibility Take-off or a Category II or III approach.

The aerodrome must be approved for Cat II or III operations by its own authority and the Operator must
establish that low visibility procedures are in place.

It is up to the commander to satisfy himself that the aeroplane, the crew and the airport all conform to
the requirements before conducting low visibility operations.

If any one does not, then low visibility operations are not permitted.

A suitable system for recording approach and/or automatic landing success and failure must be
established and maintained to monitor the overall safety of the operation.

DEFINITIONs

Circling:

The visual phase of an instrument approach to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway
which is not suitably located for a straight-in approach.

Low Visibility Procedures (LVP):

Procedures applied at an aerodrome for the purpose of ensuring safe operations during Category II and
III approaches and Low Visibility Take-offs.

Low Visibility Take-Off (LVTO):

A take-off where the Runway Visual Range (RVR) is less than 400 m.

Flight Control System:

A system which includes an automatic landing system and/or a hybrid landing system.
Fail-Passive Flight Control System:

A flight control system is fail-passive if, in the event of a failure, there is no significant out-of-trim
condition or deviation of flight path or attitude but the landing is not completed automatically. A fail-
passive automatic flight control system disengages the autopilots after a failure.

Fail-Operational Flight Control System:

A flight control system is fail-operational if, in the event of a failure below alert height, the approach,
flare and landing, can be completed automatically.

Fail-Operational Hybrid Landing System:

A system which consists of a primary fail-passive automatic landing system and a secondary
independent guidance system enabling the pilot to complete a landing manually after failure of the
primary system. A typical secondary independent guidance system would be a monitored head-up
display with command or situation information.
Hybrid Landing System: A viable option for flight operations during Category III
weather conditions may prove to be a hybrid landing system, described in the ICAO
All Weather Operations Manual as a primary fail-passive automatic landing system
combined with a secondary independent guidance system generally understood as
Head Up Display. Redundancy for the failure of the primary autoland system is
provided through the head up guidance of the secondary system in order to permit
completion of the landing manually. Such a combination could provide fail-
operational protection at an installation cost that may be significantly less than cost
options for traditional fail-operational systems. This presentation will endeavour to
explain the viability of the concept.

Visual Approach:

An approach when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the
approach is executed with visual reference to the terrain.

Visual Approaches

The minimum RVR is 800m for a visual approach

Circling Approaches

Circling approaches are those flown to break off and land visually on another runway. The lowest minima
to be used under OPS for circling are:

Non-Precision Approaches (NPA)

A Non-Precision Approach operation is an instrument approach using any of the facilities (except ILS CAT
I and II) described in the table below (System Minima), with a MDH or DH not lower than 250ft and an
RVR/CMV of not less than 750m, unless accepted by the Authority (CMV is Converted Meteorological
Visibility).
Approach with Vertical Guidance (APV)

An APV operation is an instrument approach which utilises lateral and vertical guidance.

It does not meet the requirements established for precision approach and landing operations.

Unless approved by the Authority:

• DH is not lower than 250ft.

• Runway visual range is not less than 600m.

APVs may be currently divided into two types:

• Those that use vertical guidance provided by a path derived by the baro-altimeter and the flight
management systems

• Those where the vertical guidance is provided by a GNSS (Global Navigation Satellite System)
augmentation system such as SBAS (Satellite Based Augmentation System) or GBAS (Ground Based
Augmentation System).

Category I Approaches

A Category I approach operation is a precision instrument approach and landing using:

• ILS

• MLS

• GLS (Global Positioning Landing System such as GNSS/GBAS)

• PAR

Unless accepted by the Authority:

• Decision height is not lower than 200 ft.

• RVR is not less than 550m.

Minimum RVR

The actual minimum landing RVR for a particular CAT I, APV or NPA approach depends on a number of
variables.

One of the first criteria that needs to be considered is the airport lighting.

Airport Lighting

This is described as full, intermediate, basic or none.

Full Approach Light System (FALS):

It consists of 720m or more of High Intensity approach light system (HIALS), runway edge lights,
threshold lights and runway end lights. Lights must be on.
 An Intermediate Approach Light System (IALS):

It consists of 420 - 719m of HIALS, runway edge lights, threshold lights and runway end lights. Lights
must be on.

A Basic Approach Light System (BALS):

It consists of any other Approach Light System (HIALS, MIALS or ALS 210m - 419m approach lights,
runway edge lights, threshold lights and runway end lights). Lights must be on (MIALS is Medium
Intensity ALS).

No Approach Light System (NALS):

It consists of any other Approach Lighting System (HIALS, MIALS or ALS < 210m) or No Approach Lights.

Other Variables

Other variables considered in establishing minimum RVR for an approach include:

• Glide path approach angle

• Final approach track offset from runway centerline

• Location of Final Approach Fix and means of locating

• Availability of Runway Touchdown Zone Lights (RTZL) and Runway Centreline Lights (RCLL), spacing of
RCLL

• Use of Head-up-display (HUD), HUD Landing System (HUDLS)

• Use of an Enhanced Vision System (EVS) (An electronic means of displaying a real-time image of the
external scene through the use of imaging sensors).

Category II Approaches

A Category II operation is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS.

Decision height is below 200 ft but not lower than 100 ft

RVR is not less than 300 m.

To continue an approach below the Category II decision height the pilot must have the required visual
references.

The required visual reference is defined as three centreline, approach or runway edge lights and one
crossbar or threshold lighting.

The minimum RVR for Cat II approaches is shown in this table:

These minima assume an autopilot approach to at least DH.

For some aircraft, although the decision to land is made at not less than 100ft, the autopilots may stay
engaged below that height, typically to 50ft or 60ft.

Category III Approaches

Cat III operations have decision heights less than 100 ft and on, down to 0 ft.

The Cat III minima depend on the autopilot capabilities.

Fail Operational means the capability to lose an autopilot channel and safely continue the autoland.

Fail passive means manual reversion and go-around.

Category IIIC has a zero decision height and zero RVR.

Currently this is not used or mentioned in OPS I, although some US operators are considering persuing
qualification.
According to ICAO and FAA, a category III A approach is a precision instrument
approach and landing with no decision height or a decision height lower than 100ft
(30m) and a runway visual range not less than 700ft (200m).

Whereas according to JAR-OPS, a category III A approach is a precision instrument

approach and landing with a decision height lower than 100ft (30m) and a runway
visual range not less than 700ft (200m).

JAR-OPS alway associates a decision height with CAT III A whereas ICAO and FAA do
not.
Long Range Flights

The large distances travelled require careful fuel and performance planning, as does the scarcity of
diversion airfields in sonic areas of the world.

The lack of navigation aids such as VOR and DME creates a requirement for reliable long range
navigation systems.

Some remote areas such as the North Atlantic have compounded problems, as they are not only
extremely busy sections of airspace, but also outside of the range of ground based radar.

Special navigational and ATC procedures have been introduced in these areas.

Operator's Responsibilities

Operator must ensure that operations are only conducted along such routes or within such areas, for
which:

• Ground facilities and services (including meteorological services) are provided which are adequate for
the planned operation.

• The performance of the aeroplane intended to be used is adequate to comply with minimum flight
altitude requirements.

• The equipment of the aeroplane intended to be used meets the minimum requirements for the planned
operation.

• Appropriate maps and charts are available.

• If two-engined aeroplanes are used, adequate aerodromes are available within the specified time and
distance limitations for ETOPS (Extended Twin Engined Oerations).

• If single-engine aeroplanes are used, surfaces are available which permit a safe forced landing to be
executed.

An Operator shall ensure that operations are conducted in accordance with any restriction on the routes
or the areas of operation, imposed by the Authority.

An operator shall not operate an aeroplane with MAPSC of more than 30 passengers, on overwater
flights, at a distance from land, suitable for making an emergency landing, greater than:

• 120 minutes at cruising speed.

OR

• 400 nautical miles.

Whichever is the lesser, unless the aeroplane complies with the ditching requirements prescribed in the
applicable airworthiness code.

Regulations

The restriction on routing on long range flights comes from the Regulatory Authorities (EASA, JAA etc).

Restrictions are imposed by:

• Restricting how far an aircraft may operate from an adequate alternate.

• Ensuring the aircraft is operated at weights that would allow it to hold an adequate height if an engine
fails.

Regulations tend to be more restrictive and complex for twins than for three or four engined aircraft.

Recently regulators have relaxed the rules for twin engined aircraft to allow commercial operations
across the North Atlantic and Pacific.

The relaxation carries a large number of caveats.

The Operator has to demonstrate high levels of reliability in service to be awarded ETOPS approval.

Net and Gross Performance

Gross performance is the average performance you might expect.

There is a 50:50 chance that you might have better than gross performance and a 50:50 chance that
your performance will be worse.

The net performance is the gross performance factored down so that, if you plan to net standards, there
is only a remote probability that you will fail to meet them.

Net performance is worse than gross.

Long Range Twin Ops Without ETOPS

If operating without ETOPS approval a twin engined aeroplane must not be operated further from an
adequate aerodrome than the distances listed below.

• Performance Class A (MAPSC of 20 or more or a MTOM greater than 45,360 kg)

Distance equivalent to 60 minutes flight time.

• Performance Class A (MAPSC of less than 20 AND a MTOM less than 45,360 kg)

Distance flown in 120 minutes.

For turbo-jet aeroplanes, up to 180 minutes, if approved by the Authority.

• Performance Class B or C

Lower of 300 NM or a distance equivalent to 120 minutes flight time.

MAPSC = Maximum Approved Passenger Seating Configuration

Long Range Twin Ops With ETOPS

ETOPS can be authorised in the AOC after:

• Extended reliability trials, particularly of engines.

• Approval of training systems.

• Approval of operating procedures.

The rule time can be extended from 60 minutes (Class A) to 90 minutes to 120 minutes to 138 minutes
and even 180 minutes from an adequate alternate.

The approval is incremental.

Each increase in still air time dependant on a track record of successful operation at the shorter time.

In the US, for a few of the larger operators, ETOPS has been pushed out to 210 minutes, relevant really
for Pacific Ocean operations.

Adequate Aerodromes

An Operator shall determine a speed for the calculation of the maximum distance to an adequate
aerodrome for each two-engined aeroplane type or variant operated.

It is based upon the true airspeed that the aeroplane can maintain with one-engine-inoperative and will
not exceed VMO.

Prior to conducting an ETOPS flight, an Operator shall ensure that an adequate ETOPS en-route alternate
is available.

Adequate alternate shall be available within shorter of the following two criteria:

• Operator's approved diversion time.

OR

• Diversion time based on the MEL generated serviceability status of the aeroplane.

An Operator must ensure that the following data, specific to each type is included in the Operations
Manual:

• One engine inoperative cruise speed

• Maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome (determined in accordance with the rules).

The speeds specified above are only intended to be used for establishing the maximum distance from
an adequate aerodrome

OPS En-Route Performance Limitations

The ICAO performance restrictions basically required an aircraft to be able to operate above MSA and
land safely in the event of an engine failure.

OPS regulations are more detailed.

The en-route requirements refer to the ability to maintain at least MSA in the event of an engine failure.

If an engine fails over the sea the solution is that the aircraft must not stabilise below MSA.

If it occurs over land the aircraft may use a drift-down to clear ranges of hills.

When working out the clearance it is an obvious advantage to assume the aircraft starts off very high.

The regulations prevent this idea being abused by imposing a maximum height you can assume to be
at, a performance ceiling, in Classes B and C.

Class A Aircraft
En-Route — One Engine Inoperative

a) An Operator shall ensure that the one engine inoperative en-route net flight path data shown in the
Aeroplane Flight Manual, appropriate in the meteorological conditions expected for the flight, complies
with either sub-paragraph b) or c) at all points along the route.

The net flight path must have a positive gradient at 1500 ft above the aerodrome where the landing is
assumed to be made after engine failure.

In meteorological conditions requiring the operation of ice protection systems, the effect of their use on
the net flight path must be taken into account.

b) The gradient of the net flight path must be positive at least 1000 ft above all terrain and obstructions
along the route within 5 NM on either side of the intended track.

c) The net flight path must permit the aeroplane to continue flight from the cruising altitude to an
aerodrome where a landing can be made on either dry runways or wet and contaminated runways.

The net flight path must clear vertically, by at least 2000 ft, all terrain and obstructions along the route
within 5 NM on either side of the intended track in accordance with the following requirements:

• The engine is assumed to fail at the most critical point along the route.

• Account is taken of the effects of winds on the flight path.

• Fuel jettisoning is permitted to an extent consistent with reaching the aerodrome with the required fuel
reserves, if a safe procedure is used.

• The aerodrome where the aeroplane is assumed to land after engine failure must meet the following
criteria:
•=> The performance requirements at the expected landing mass are met.

=> Weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, and field condition reports indicate that a
safe landing can be accomplished at the estimated time of landing.

Must either be able to maintain 1000 ft clear when stable .... or use a drift down
clearing obstacles by 2000 ft

En-Route – Aeroplanes with Three or More Engines - Two Engines Inoperative

a) An Operator shall ensure that at no point along the intended track will an aeroplane having three or
more engines be more than 90 minutes, at the all-engines long range cruising speed, at standard
temperature in still air, away from an aerodrome at which the performance requirements applicable at
the expected landing mass are met unless it complies with sub-paragraphs b) to f) below.

b) The two engines inoperative en-route net flight path data must permit the aeroplane to continue the
flight, in the expected meteorological conditions, from the point where two engines are assumed to fail
simultaneously, to an aerodrome at which it is possible to land and come to a complete stop when using
the prescribed procedure for a landing with two engines inoperative.

The net flight path must clear vertically, by at least 2000 ft, all terrain and obstructions along the route
within 5 NM on either side of the intended track.

If the navigational accuracy does not meet the 95% containment level, an Operator must increase the
width margin to 10 NM.

At altitudes and in meteorological conditions requiring ice protection systems to be operable, the effect
of their use on the net flight path data must be taken into account.

c) The two engines are assumed to fail at the most critical point of that portion of the route where the
aeroplane is more than 90 minutes, at the all engines long range cruising speed, at standard
temperature in still air, away from an aerodrome at which the performance requirements applicable at
the expected landing mass are met.

d) The net flight path must have a positive gradient at 1500 ft above the aerodrome where the landing
is assumed to be made after the failure of two engines.

e) Fuel jettisoning is permitted to an extent consistent with reaching the aerodrome with the required
fuel reserves, if a safe procedure is used.

f) The expected mass of the aeroplane at the point where the two engines are assumed to fail must not
be less than that which would include sufficient fuel to proceed to an aerodrome where the landing is
assumed to be made, and to arrive there at least 1500 ft directly over the landing area and thereafter to
fly level for 15 minutes.

Class B Aircraft

En-Route — Single-Engine Aeroplanes

a) An Operator shall ensure that the aeroplane, in the meteorological conditions expected for the flight,
and in the event of engine failure, is capable of reaching a place at which a safe forced landing can be
made. For landplanes, a place on land is required, unless otherwise approved by the Authority.

b) When showing compliance with sub-paragraph (a) above:

•(1) The aeroplane must not be assumed to be flying, with the engine operating within the maximum
continuous power conditions specified, at an altitude exceeding that at which the rate of climb equals
300 ft per minute (Can't be assumed to be flying higher than its performance ceiling).

And

(2) The assumed en-route gradient shall be the gross gradient of descent increased by a gradient of
0.5% (worse than average gradient).

En-Route — Multi Engined Aeroplanes

a) An Operator shall ensure that the aeroplane, in the meteorological conditions expected for the flight,
and in the event of the failure of one engine, with the remaining engines operating within the maximum
continuous power conditions specified, is capable of continuing flight at or above the relevant minimum
altitudes for safe flight stated in the Operations Manual to a point 1000 ft above an aerodrome at which
the performance requirements can be met.

b) When showing compliance with sub-paragraph (a) above:

•(1) The aeroplane must not be assumed to be flying at an altitude exceeding that at which the rate of
climb equals 300 ft per minute with all engines operating within the maximum continuous power
conditions specified.

And

(2) The assumed en-route gradient with one engine inoperative shall be, the gross gradient of descent
increased by a gradient of 0.5% and gross gradient of climb decreased by a gradient of 0.5%.

Class C Aircraft

En-Route — All Engines Operating

An Operator shall ensure that the aeroplane will, in the meteorological conditions expected for the flight,
at any point on its route or on any planned diversion therefrom, be capable of a rate of climb of at least
300 ft per minute with all engines operating, with the maximum continuous power conditions specified.
The minimum altitudes for safe flight on each stage of the route to be flown (or of any planned diversion
therefrom) must be specified in, or calculated from the information contained in, the Operations Manual
relating to the aeroplane.

Minimum En-Route Altitudes - One Engine Inoperative

An Operator shall ensure that the aeroplane will, in the meteorological conditions expected for the flight,
in the event of any one engine becoming

inoperative at any point on its route (or on any planned diversion therefrom) and with the other engine
or engines operating within the maximum continuous power conditions specified, be capable of
continuing the flight from the cruising altitude to an aerodrome where a landing can be made.

Obstacles within 5 NM either side of the intended track must be cleared by a vertical interval of at least:

• 1000 ft when the rate of climb is zero or greater.

• 2000 ft when the rate of climb is less than zero.

When showing compliance to above, an Operator must increase the width margins to 10 NM if the
navigational accuracy does not meet the 95% containment level.

The flight path shall have a positive slope at an altitude of 1500 ft above the aerodrome where the
landing is assumed to be made after the failure of one engine.

The available rate of climb of the aeroplane shall be taken to be 150 ft per minute less than the gross
rate of climb specified.

Fuel jettisoning is permitted to an extent consistent with reaching the aerodrome with the required fuel
reserves, if a safe procedure is used.

En-Route – Aeroplanes with Three or More Engines, Two Engines Inoperative

The regulations for three or four engined Class C aircraft are the same as those for similar Class A
aircraft.

The exception is that the net rates of climb assumed are specified as 150 ft/min less than the gross.

Long Range and Polar Navigation

•Q
u K.Haroon » Fri Aug 23, 2013 2:03 pm
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tUntil the introduction of the long range navigation equipment, aircraft navigated primarily by
magnetic compass and gyroscopes.

These compasses were unreliable in a turn and were therefore usually supplemented by a
Direction Indicator.

The DI is based on a gyroscope which keeps its heading reference over the short term and is
therefore reliable in turns.
Unfortunately the DI does not keep its heading reference over longer periods and needs to be
intermittently caged and synchronised to compass heading when in level flight.

Part of the reason for the longer term errors of the DI is that a gyroscope holds its position in
space.

Even though the aircraft may be stationary on the ground it is not holding a constant position in
space because the earth's surface is rotating.

For deatils, see the following topics:

• Alignment of Gyroscopes and Wander

• DI Errors

Gyro Compasses

A part solution to this problem is to use a more modern compass system called a gyro compass,
which combines a gyroscope and a compass system to use the best bits of each.

The compass detectors are less sensitive to turning errors, and the gyro system is automatically
synchronised to the compass system continuously removing the gyro errors.

Variation can be fed into the system using either a three dimensional cam or an electronic input.

When compass information is unreliable near the poles this system will operate as a gyro in the
Directional Gyro or DG mode.

This is still only a part solution because a gyro compass in the DG mode is subject to the same
errors as a normal DI.

Thus any prolonged flight in areas of compass unreliability would still lead to navigational
problems.

Grid Navigation

A second method for dealing with the problems of polar navigation is to discard the normal
heading references of either the true or magnetic north and discard magnetic compasses in
favour of pure gyroscopic or DI type heading references.

A grid of lines are overprinted on a chart and then the grid and gyro are used for heading
reference.

As the DI remains aligned in space it will keep its alignment as we move around (at least on a
stationary earth) and the problem of transport wander is sidestepped.

However this does not remove any uncorrected earth rate or real wander.

These residual errors mean that (even when using grid navigation) the gyro alignment must be
repeatedly rechecked perhaps with star shots from a sextant.

A sextant is an instrument used to measure the angle between any two visible
objects. Its primary use is to determine the angle between a celestial object and the
horizon which is known as the object's altitude. The angle, and the time when it was
measured, can be used to calculate a position line on a nautical or aeronautical
chart. Common uses of the sextant include sighting the sun at solar noon and
sighting Polaris at night, to find one's latitude (in northern latitudes). Sighting the
 height of a landmark can give a measure of distance off and, held horizontally, a
sextant can measure angles between objects for a position on a chart.

For deatils, see the following topic:

• Grid Navigation and Calculations

Inertial Navigation

Modern long range aircraft use Inertial Navigation Systems (INS) or Inertial Reference Systems
(IRS) operating either independently or through a Flight Management System (FMS).

Although an inertial system operates with gyros and accelerometers, it does not suffer from the
gyro errors of transport wander and earth rotation.

It can, however, give an incorrect position as a result of:

• Initial Input Error: These should be avoided. They produce such large errors that they are usually
easily detected.

• Real Wander: These (and on some types a "quick alignment") can produce a position drift.

• Schuler Loop Error: These produce oscillating errors in position which are quite small and can be
damped out.

Each system will have set limits of drift.

Usually between 0.5 NM to 2 NM per hour flown is acceptable.

Unlike compass based systems an inertial system will work just as well in polar areas as anywhere
else.

For details, see the following topics:

• Innertial Navigation

• Stable Platform INS

Single INS

A single INS must be backed up with another long range navigation system (the exact
requirement would be determined by the airspace involved).

The systems would operate independently with the pilots either monitoring the errors at
waypoints by comparing positions or by observing cross track displacement on the HSI.

Twin INS/IRS

Twin INS/IRS units might be used independently (older aircraft) or in more modern aircraft through
a FMS.

Errors in the two systems could be monitored by position checks at waypoints.

With independent systems, the HSI show distance and time to the next waypoint, track direction
and cross track displacement to allow additional continuous monitoring.
If an error arises the difficulty with twin INS is deciding when a system has failed and which one is
in error.

Sometimes INS itself will detect an internal failure and show a "fault" light.

Otherwise (more likely) it will be up to you to decide.

It could be determined using:

• Another navigation system such as VOR or NDB.

• A comparison of INS wind with forecast/reported wind values.

• The weather radar, by comparison of bearings to prominent land features.

Triple INS/IRS

It is highly unusual for triple INS/IRS to be used with anything other than an FMS.

In this case, the position will be 'triple mixed'.

FMS position will be based on the average of the three IN positions.

If one wanders off, the FMS will discard it and the pilots will be informed of a system degradation.

In addition, most modern aircraft will be equipped with GPS navigation systems.

For instance, a modern navigation mode would be 'GPS Primary'.

A problem with satellite coverage would lead to a system down-grade to 'Triple mix'.

These modern systems are both very reliable and extremely accurate.

A total failure of a triple IRS + GPS system would be most unusual.

One possible scenario would involve a computer system failure, which would deny steering
guidance and the indication of position relative to cleared track.

However the basic outputs of the IRS (LAT/LONG, Drift and Groundspeed) are left unimpaired.

In this case crew will have to use the appropriate plotting charts to draw the cleared route and
extract mean true tracks between waypoints.

The basic IRS/GPS outputs can then be used to adjust heading to maintain mean track and to
calculate ETAs.

FMS systems have stored waypoints and routes in databases that are updated
every 28 days.

The routes may be modified in flight by the crew but the changes only apply to that
flight, the route that is stored in the FMS remains unchanged.
Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) Airspace
•Q
u K.Haroon » Fri Aug 23, 2013 6:44 pm
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oMNPS AIRSPACE
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Certain areas of the world are designated as only usable by aircraft meeting Required Navigation
Performance (RNP).

The area of the North Atlantic stretching from just north of the Canary Islands (27°N) up to the
north pole, between FL285 and FL420, is one such area.

It is called the North Atlantic (NAT) Minimum Navigation Performance Specification Airspace
(MNPSA).

The governing documentation for the NAT airspace is ICAO Document 7030 (Regional
Supplementary Procedures).

Detailed procedures and requirements for NAT MNPSA are found in the "NAT MNPS Airspace
Operations Manual".

Aircraft flying in MNPS airspace have to meet standards of navigation, crew training and
procedures.

Approval to operate in the airspace would be given by the Operators National Authority, and be
detailed on an Operators AOC.

Operators must ensure crews follow NAT MNPSA Operations Manual procedures.

Certain levels within the MNPS area are designated as Reduced Vertical Separation Minima
(RSVM) levels.

In the North Atlantic MNPS area these are FL290 to FL410 inclusive (virtually all of MNPS airspace)
Aircraft. Operators and crews must be additionally

authorised by the National Authority to operate at RVSM levels

Although the Operator must obtain the approvals the final responsibility rests with the Captain to
ensure the approvals are in place and the aircraft is equipped for the route.

Over the high seas, the NAT Region is primarily Class A airspace (at and above FL55).

Therefore Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) apply at all times.

AIRCRAFT SEPARATION MINIMA

Longitudinal Separation

Longitudinal separation between following and crossing aircraft is established by time at

waypoints.

It is controlled by regulating the aircraft speed as a Mach number.

No matter how accurate the navigation system the separation is degraded if the aircraft clock is
in error.

Therefore pre-flight checks for an aircraft intending to operate in MNPS airspace must include
synchronising the clock to UTC from an acceptable source such as GPS or the BBC time signal.

The minimum longitudinal separation between jet aircraft in MNPS airspace is 10 minutes, for
aircraft reporting over a common point and travelling at the same speed.

If the aircraft in front is going faster by at least M0.02, and it is possible to ensure that the time
interval exists using radar or another approved means, the separation can be progressively
reduced down ultimately to 5 minutes if the one in front is M0.06 faster.
10 minutes if the Mach number of the preceding aircraft is equal to or greater than
that of the following aircraft.
9 minutes if the aircraft in front is M0.02 faster.
8 minutes if the aircraft in front is M0.03 faster.
7 minutes if the aircraft in front is M0.04 faster.
6 minutes if the aircraft in front is M0.05 faster.
5 minutes if the aircraft in front is M0.06 faster.

If the aircraft do not report over a common point and are out of radar range the separation is 15
minutes.

Vertical Separation

Below FL410, minimum vertical separation in MNPS airspace is 1000 ft.

Therefore, aeroplanes and crew operating in MNPS airspace require RVSM approval.

Approval would be detailed on an Operators AOC.

RVSM Minimum Equipment

The minimum equipment standard is embodied in the Minimum Aircraft Systems Performance
Specification (MASPS) for RVSM operations.
The MASPS require:

• Two fully serviceable independent primary altitude measurement systems.

• One automatic altitude-control system.

• One altitude-alerting device.

A functioning Mode C SSR Transponder is also required for flight through radar controlled RVSM
transition airspace.

Airworthiness Approval for RVSM operations may be granted by the appropriate State Authority to
individual aircraft, or to a group of aircraft which are nominally identical in aerodynamic design
and in items of equipment contributing to height keeping accuracy.

When checking altimeters (pre-flight or in-flight), confirmation is necessary that all altitude
indications are within the tolerances specified in the aircraft operating manual.

At least two primary altimeters must at all times agree within plus or minus 200 feet.

MNPS approved aircraft that do not meet RVSM standards may climb and descend through RVSM
levels, with clearance, and can in certain circumstances such as humanitarian flights be allowed
to operate at RVSM levels.

Lateral Separation

ATC clearances ensure a lateral separation of 60 NM.

The NAT MNPS defines a requirement for the standard deviation of lateral track errors to be less
than 6.3 NM.

Since two standard deviations provide for about 95% containment, the MNPS statement is
effectively equivalent to an RNP value of 12.6 in a lateral sense.
The standard deviation of lateral track errors shall be less than 6.3 NM. Standard
deviation is a statistical measure of data about a mean value. The mean is zero
nautical miles. The overall form of data is such that the plus and minus 1 standard
deviation about the mean encompasses approximately 68 percent of the data and
plus or minus 2 deviations encompasses approximately 95 percent.

Actual measurements of the achieved navigation performance by the entire fleet of NAT aircraft,
even before GPS came into use by a large proportion, indicated an achieved standard deviation of
approximately 2 NM.

Additionally, RNP-10 or RNP-4 is required in the Western Atlantic Route System (WATRS) in order
to benefit from the 50 NM lateral separation employed.

EQUIPMENT REQUIREMENT

Nav Equipment Requirements For Unrestricted MNPS Operations

For unrestricted operation in the MNPS Airspace an aircraft must be equipped with two fully
serviceable Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNSs).

Long Range Navigation Systems may be INS, IRS/FMS or GPS.

So far as GPS is concerned, the rules are quite specific on which systems are acceptable.

Each LRNS must be capable of providing to the flight crew a continuous indication of the aircraft
position relative to desired track.

Although not mandatory, it is desirable that the steering navigation system can be coupled to the
autopilot.

Routes Usable by Aircraft Without Two LRN Systems

A number of special routes, called Blue Spruce Routes, have been developed for aircraft equipped
with only one LRNS and carrying normal short-range navigation equipment (VOR, DME, ADF).

Additional special routes designated G3 and G11 can be used by aircraft that only have VOR, DME
and ADF.

These routes are within MNPS airspace and still require approval from the National Authority.

It is the responsibility of pilots with limited certification to reject clearances which would
otherwise divert them from officially permitted routes.

Aircraft not Approved for MNPS

Aircraft not approved for operation in MNPS Airspace may be cleared by ATC to climb or descend
through MNPS Airspace provided that:

• Climb or descent can be completed within:

=> The coverage of selected VOR/DMEs or NDBs.

OR

=> The radar coverage of the ATC unit.

• The aircraft must be able to maintain Direct Controller/Pilot Communications on VHF.

• MNPS must not be adversely affected.

Non-MNPS approved aircraft may also be cleared to climb or descend through MNPS airspace to
depart or land at an airport underneath the MNPS airspace even if it does not have serviceable
short range navaids, radar or Direct Controller/Pilot Communications.

ORGANISED TRACK SYSTEM (OTS)

The NAT OTS provides fixed tracks for trans-Atlantic traffic in the morning and the evening.

The trans-Atlantic tracks are colloquially referred to as NAT tracks.

The traffic flows is Westbound during the day and Eastbound overnight.

NAT track routings are issued on a daily basis taking account of the predominately westerly
prevailing winds.

Each North Atlantic Organised Track is identified by a letter.

The westbound tracks begin with the letter A as the most northerly track and continue vertically
down with B, C, D, and so on (depending on how many tracks are needed to accommodate the
forecast traffic).

The eastbound tracks begin with Z as the most southerly track and continue vertically upward
with Y, X, W etc.

The NAT OTS operates twice during each 24 hour period.

Westbound system is operational from 1130 to 1900 UTC.

Eastbound system is operational from 0100 to 0800 UTC.

These times refer to when the flight is going to cross the 030°W meridian of longitude.

030°W longitude is the boundary point between the Shanwick and Gander Oceanic Control Areas.

NAT Track Messages are issued twice daily once to describe the eastbound tracks and once for the
westbound.
They originate with the Gander and Shanwick OCA ATS.

Eastbound NAT OTS Track Message

Issued by Gander Oceanic Control Area Centre (OAC).

Issued at around 1400 UTC.

It is valid for flights flying between North America and Europe at 030°W during the hours of 0100
to 0800 UTC the next day.

Westbound NAT OTS Track Message

Issued by Shanwick Oceanic Control Area Centre.

Issued around 2200 UTC.

It is valid for flights operating between Europe and North America at 030°W during the hours of
1130 to 1900 UTC the next day.

NAT Track Message

A sample westbound message is shown below:

(NAT-1/2 TRACKS FLS 310/ 390 INCLUSIVE OCTOBER 8/ 1130Z TO OCTOBER 8/ 18002 PART ONE
OF ONE PARTS-

A 59/10 61/20 61/30 61/40 61/50 60/60 CIMAT

Routing for NAT A is N59°W010° to N61 °W020° to N61 °W030° to N61 °W040° to
N61 °W050° to N60°W050° to CIMAT

EAST LVLS NIL

WEST LVLS 310 320 330 340 350 360 390

There are no easterly levels allocated and westerly tracks can be flown at FL310,
FL320, FL330, FL340, FL350, FL360 or FL390"

EUR RTS WEST NIL

NAR N464B N466B N468B N472B N474B-

 There are no designated euro routes feeding into this track and routes out can be
via North American Routes (NAR) 464B, 466B, 468B, 472B and 474B"

B 58/10 60/20 60/30 60/40 59/50 PRAWN YDP

EAST LVLS NIL
WEST LVLS 310 320 330 340 350 360 370 380 390
EUR RTS WEST NIL
NAR N322B N328C N334B N336E N346A N348C N352C N356C N362B-
Details for track B

REMARKS:

1. TRACK MESSAGE IDENTIFICATION NUMBER IS 281 AND OPERATORS ARE REMINDED TO

INCLUDE THE TMI NUMBER AS PART OF THE OCEANIC CLEARANCE READBACK.
The Track Message Identifier is the day of the year counting from 1 to 365 (or 366)
which you include in the clearance readback so the controller knows you read the
right piece of paper.

2. MNPS AIRSPACE EXTENDS FROM FL285 TO FL420. OPERATORS ARE REMINDED THAT SPECIFIC
MNPS APPROVAL IS REQUIRED TO FLY IN THIS AIRSPACE. IN ADDITION, RVSM APPROVAL IS
REQUIRED TO FLY BETWEEN FL310 AND FL390 INCLUSIVE.

3. EIGHTY PERCENT OF GROSS NAVIGATION ERRORS OCCUR AFTER A REROUTE. ALWAYS CARRY
OUT WAYPOINT CROSS CHECKS.

END OF PART ONE OF ONE PARTS)

Preferred Route Message (PRM)

Operators are encouraged to submit in advance the number of flights and their company
preferred route for these flights through the appropriate oceanic controlled areas.

This helps the authorities in the compilation of the NAT OTS for the particular time period in the
following 24 hours.

The PRM will normally take into account the minimum time route (MTR).

• For Eastbound flights the PRM should reach Gander OAC by 1000 UTC.

• For Westbound flights the PRM should reach Shanwick OAC by 1900 UTC.

In MNPS airspace waypoints should be on whole degrees of Lat and Long:

=> Every 10° of longitude when flying predominantly east/west.

=> Every 5° of latitude when flying predominantly north/south.

Tracks between waypoints should be great circles.

Eastbound:

PRM should reach Gander by 1000, NAT Track Message issued around 1400, for
flights between 0100 to 0800.
 Westbound:

PRM should reach Shanwick by 1900, NAT Track Message issued around 2200, for
flights between 1130 to 1900.

OTS Changeover Periods

There is always a gap of several hours between the de-activation of one set of NAT tracks and the
activation of the next.

i.e. Between 0801 and 1129 UTC and between 1901 to 0059 UTC.

This is to avoid confusion on the changeover.

During the changeover periods some restrictions to flight planned routes and levels are imposed.

Eastbound and westbound aircraft operating during these periods should file flight level requests
in accordance with the Flight Level Allocation Scheme (FLAS) as published in the UK and Canada
AIPs.

Operators should recognise that they might not be allocated the level requested.

RANDOM ROUTES

Random Routings During the Operating Times of the NAT OTS

It is recommended that the OTS is used whenever possible.

Operators who plan flights on random routes will not be refused clearance but, in the majority of
cases, will be assigned an uneconomic flight level below

NAT tracks or will be re-routed to avoid the OTS system altogether.

Either of these will incur an economic penalty.

Aircraft may fly on random routes which remain clear of the OTS or may fly on any route that joins
or leaves an outer track of the OTS.

There is also nothing to prevent an Operator from planning a route which crosses the OTS.
If this occurs in the early stages of the flight it is likely the aircraft will be held down below the
NAT tracks until clear.

If it happens near to destination the aircraft might be descended early or re-routed.

Random Routings Outside the Operating Times of the NAT OTS

Outside of the OTS periods, operators may flight plan any random routing.

However, during the two hours prior to each OTS period the following restrictions apply:

(1) Eastbound flights that cross 30°W less than one hour before the incoming westbound NAT
tracks (after 1029 UTC), or westbound flights that cross 30°W less than one hour before the
incoming eastbound NAT tracks (after 2359 UTC) should plan to remain clear of the incoming OTS
structure.

(2) Any such opposite direction flights crossing 30°W between one and two hours before the
incoming OTS where the route beyond 30°W would coincide with the incoming OTS structure at
any point should plan to join an outer track at any point, or backtrack the length of one of the
incoming tracks.

The time restriction effectively means this applies to aircraft crossing 30°W eastbound between
0930 and 1029 UTC or westbound between 2300 and 2359 UTC.

STRATEGIC LATERAL OFFSET PROCEDURE (SLOP)

Accuracy of modern navigation and altimeter systems introduces a new area of risk.

A simple error in any one of these events (e.g. one degree error in insertion of a waypoint data)
could mean a risk of collision.

To reduce this risk (or to avoid wake turbulence) pilots can select to fly a lateral offset.

A pilot may select an offset within the following guidelines:

• Along a route or track there will be three positions that an aircraft may fly: Centreline or 1 or 2
miles Right.

• Offsets will not exceed 2 NM Right of centreline.

ATC need not be informed.

Once clear of MNPSA, normal centreline track will be resumed.

OCEANIC ATC FLIGHT PLAN

Flights in MNPS airspace require an ATS flight plan.

Flights authorised to operate in MNPS airspace should have an X after the S for nav equipment in
ITEM 10.

Flights authorised for RVSM should also have a W inserted.

Thus ITEM 10 will read SXW/C rather than the usual S/C.

The C is for mode C.

NAT Tracks

The NAT track can only be used in ITEM 15 (the route) if the whole track is flown.

The normal routing is shown with the speed as a:

=> TAS up to the entry point.

=> Mach number for the route.

=> TAS after the exit point.

e.g. N0465F310 WAL UB3 BEL DCT 59N010W/M080F350 NAT C CARPE REDBY/N0470F370 NA210

Random Routing

For flights operating on random routes, or routes not following the full length of a published NAT
track, the route entry in ITEM 15 on the ATS flight plan cannot refer to the NAT track.

In this case the route description must be completed using all the latitude and longitudinal co-
ordinates.

e.g. N0465F310 WAL UB3 BEL DCT 58N010W/M080F350 DCT 59N020W 59N030W 58N040W
57N050W CARPE REDBY/N0470F370 NA210

MNPS COMMUNICATIONS

Oceanic Clearance

The Captain must obtain Oceanic ATC clearance before entering the NAT area.

Ideally 40 minutes before.

The call westbound is usually made to Shanwick on VHF.

The call eastbound will be to Gander on VHF.

Oceanic clearances can also be obtained on HF or sent to the Operator and on to the aircraft via
the VHF data link ACARS.

Lastly, SATCOM. Currently this is used in what is termed "non-routine situations".

A typical request for clearance would indicate:

• Mach number.

• Level.

• Highest level the aircraft can cope with.

• Second choice of NAT track.

e.g. ABC-123 request Oceanic Clearance, Estimating 56N010W at 1130, Request M0.84, FL360,
able FL 380, second choice Track D

The Oceanic clearance will be based on time estimates for the major reporting points filed in the
ATC flight plan.

Any differences in ETAs of 3 minutes or more must be reported to ATC.

The clearance is read back verbatim except that the TMI number is included in it.

If operating on the OTS, the oceanic clearance may include the phrase "send met reports".

If operating off the OTS met reports are always required and the instruction will not be given in
the clearance.

If met reports are required each position report will finish with the temperature, wind and any
significant weather.

e.g. ABC-123, 50 North 30 West at 1010, Flight Level 360, Estimating 40 North 50 West at 1110,
40 North 60 West Next, Temperature minus 53, Wind 250 diagonal 65, over.

Clearance errors that are not picked up by either ATC or pilots are called ATC loop errors.

HF Comms

Most NAT air/ground communications are conducted on single sideband HF frequencies.

Pilots communicate with OACs through radio Operators.

The ground radio Operators are not controllers, they relay messages to the relevant OAC for
action.

Aeradio stations and OACs are not necessarily co-located.

For example in the case of Shanwick operations, the OAC is located at Prestwick in Scotland whilst
the associated aeradio station is at Ballygirreen in Ireland.

VHF Comms

The carriage of HF communications equipment is mandatory for flight in the Shanwick OCA.

Aircraft with only functioning VHF communications equipment should plan their route outside the
Shanwick OCA and ensure that they remain within VHF coverage of appropriate ground stations
throughout the flight.

The VHF air-to-air frequency is 123.45 mHz.

Datalink Comms

Datalink communications are gradually being introduced into the NAT environment for position
reporting and other air/ground ATXS exchanges via FANS (Future Air Navigation System) & CPDLC
(Controller Pilot Data Link Communication) and also, for position reporting only, through the FMC
Waypoint Position Reporting (WPR) ACARS link.

On first contact with the initial aeradio stations crews of participating aircraft should expect to
receive the instruction "VOICE POSITION REPORTS NOT REQUIRED".

If datalink is used, a prior agreement is required.

SELCAL

Large aircraft have equipment fitted that allows the pilots to be contacted on the radios without
continuously monitoring the frequency.

This is particularly needed for long oceanic legs using HF frequencies.

SELCAL, short for selective calling, operates on HF or VHF radios.

Each airframe has a SELCAL code allocated to it made up of four letters, for example CLBJ, which
is notified to the ATC agency on the flight plan and once more on first R/T contact.

The ATC agency can transmit coded tones corresponding to the letter code that activates a
flashing light and an audio tone in the cockpit.

Once called the crew can put their headsets on and respond on the appropriate radio.

The SELCAL must be checked with the ATC agency before the crew remove their headsets and go
from a listening watch on the selected frequency to a SELCAL watch.

In practice this SELCAL check is carried out on first contact with each new agency, even if the
SELCAL has already been checked on the same frequency with the previous agency and the first
check must be completed at or prior to entry into the OCA.

Position Reports
Position reports should be made at designated reporting points and at the significant points listed
in the Flight Plan.

If on an NAT track report at the points listed in the track message and at designated reporting
points.

The general guide is that ATC should have reports at roughly hourly intervals.

As a rule North of 70°N every 20° of longitude.

South of 70° every 10° of longitude.

Any changes to ETAs of 3 minutes or more should be advised to ATC.

Report to ATC on reaching a new cruising level.

For flights outside the domestic ATS route network, position should be expressed in terms of
latitude and longitude except when flying over named reporting points.

For flights whose tracks are predominantly east or west, latitude should be expressed in degrees
and minutes, longitude in degrees only.

For flights whose tracks are predominantly north or south, latitude should be expressed in
degrees only, longitude in degrees and minutes.

All times should be expressed in four digits giving both the hour and the minutes UTC.

HF Comms Failure when Out of VHF Range

Two way HF communications failure can be caused either by:

=> On board equipment failure (effecting single aircraft), or

=> Poor HF propagation conditions as a result of ionospheric disturbances (effecting many

aircraft possibly over a wide area).

General rules for either of these scenarios are as follows:

• Transponder Code 7600.

• Use SATCOM to contact the responsible radio station.

• If not equipped with SATCOM then attempt to use VHF to contact any (other) ATC facility or use
VHF air-to-air 123.45 mHz so another aircraft can relay.

• Broadcast regular position reports on the inter-pilot frequency.

HF Comms Failure Before and After Entering the NAT Region

Actions will depend on whether:

=> Its an equipment failure.

=> HF blackout.

=> NAT clearance received or not.

It is strongly recommended that an aircraft with HF comms equipment failure before entering the
OCA does not enter it.

However, in the comms blackout scenario, the requirement to divert could lead to mass
confusion, depending on the number of aircraft involved.

A summary of actions are as follows:

1) If there is an aircraft comms equipment failure before receiving an Oceanic Clearance then the
pilot must either divert or fly the Flight Plan route, speed and initial planned oceanic level to
landfall.

2) If there is an HF comms blackout encountered in a Domestic ATC environment before an

Oceanic Clearance has been received then all affected aircraft should continue at their Domestic
ATC cleared level and follow their flight planned routes and speeds to landfall (fly the planned
route and speed but do not change level).

3) If there is an aircraft comms equipment failure or HF comms blackout after an Oceanic

Clearance then that clearance must be complied with to landfall.

In all cases after landfall, follow the flight planned route, using appropriate State AIP specific
procedures for the domestic airspace entered.
TRANSPONDER

Mode A 2000 with height reporting should be selected 30 minutes after entering the OCA.

In Reykjavik OCA when under radar control you may be instructed to set other squawks.

The emergency codes 7700, 7600 and 7500 are still valid in oceanic airspace.

CONTINGENCY PROCEDURES

In Flight Contingencies

If there is an emergency or a situation on board the aircraft that results in the aircraft being
unable to comply with the ATC clearance then, ideally, a revised clearance should be obtained
before any deviation is made.

Use the prefix 'PAN PAN' or 'MAYDAY' as appropriate.

If the nature of the emergency is such that prior clearance cannot be obtained the aircraft should
broadcast its position at frequent intervals on 121.5 mHz with 123.45 mHz as a back-up.

Until a revised clearance is obtained the NAT in-flight contingency procedure should be followed.

This requires a turn through at least 45° from track to offset from the assigned route by 15 NM.

Then a climb or descent to a level which differs from those normally used by 500 ft.

Weather Deviation

For weather deviation, request a revised clearance from ATC and obtain essential traffic
information.

If prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained, the following procedures should be adopted whilst at
the same time efforts should be continued to obtain an appropriate ATC clearance.

If possible, deviate away from the organised track or route system.

• Alert nearby aircraft by broadcasting at suitable intervals (on 121.5 MHz or 123.45 MHz).
• Watch for conflicting traffic both visually and by reference to ACAS.

• Turn on all aircraft exterior lights.

• For deviations of less than 10 NM, aircraft should maintain level.

• For deviations of greater than 10 NM, when approx 10 NM from track, initiate a level change of
300 ft, according to following rules:

• When returning to track, regain the last assigned flight level, when the aircraft is within
approximately 10 NM of centre line.

• Inform ATC when weather deviation is no longer required, or when the aircraft has returned to
the centre line.

One (of two) Navigation System Fails before Take-Off

Consider the following:

• Delay departure until repair is possible.

• Obtain a clearance above or below MNPS Airspace.

• Planning on "Blue Spruce" or "GOLF" Routes as appropriate.

One (of two) System Fails before the OCA Boundary is Reached

Consider the following:

• Landing at a suitable aerodrome before the boundary or returning to the aerodrome of

departure.

• Diverting via one of the special routes.

• Obtaining a re-clearance above or below MNPS Airspace.

One (of two) Navigation System Fails after the OCA Boundary is Crossed

• Continue in accordance with the Oceanic Clearance received.

• Appreciate that reliability of the total navigation system has been significantly reduced.

• Assess the prevailing circumstances.

• Consult with ATC with respect to the prevailing circumstances (e g. request clearance above or
below MNPS Airspace, turn-back, clearance to fly along one of the special routes etc).

• Obtain re-clearance prior to any deviation from the last acknowledged Oceanic Clearance.

Both Navigation System Fail after Entering MNPS Airspace

• Notify ATC immediately.

• Attempt visual sightings.

• Establish contact on VHF (121.5 mHz) with adjacent aircraft for useful information.

• Look-out for possible conflicting aircraft.

• Maximum use of exterior lights.

• If no contact with ATC is possible, consider climbing or descending 500 ft.

Diversion Across the Flow of Traffic

• Before diverting across the flow of adjacent traffic, maintain the 15 NM offset track and climb
above (FL 410) or descent below (FL 285) the NAT traffic.

• Maintain a flight level which differs from those normally used (+/- 500 ft).

• If unable or unwilling to carry out a major climb or descent, then diversion should be carried out
at a level 500 ft different from those in use within MNPS

• Airspace, until a new clearance is obtained.

• If these contingency procedures are employed by a twin engine aircraft as a result of the
shutdown of a power unit or the failure of a primary aircraft system the pilot should advise ATC as
soon as practicable of the situation, reminding ATC of the type of aircraft involved and requesting
expeditious handling.

Windshear, Microburst and Turbulence Hazards

•Q
Pbyu K.Haroon » Sat Aug 24, 2013 5:00 pm
o
oWindshear
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e
tWindshear is most hazardous and most likely when close to the ground, either taking off or
landing.

It can occur because of strong surface winds interacting with local terrain to produce marked
changes in windspeed near the surface.

Linear windshear can be associated with frontal systems and most significant, with large
thunderstorms and supercells in the form of microburst windshear.

Wind direction also changes as the front passes or as an aircraft flies through the front itself.

Frontal turbulence can produce some control difficulties.

Windshear near Thunderstorms

Cold air descending from a thunderstorm can run ahead of the storm, producing a mini cold front.

These gust fronts, sometimes called the "first gust", can give considerable windshear and
turbulence.

Windshear has been measured at up to 80 KT and 90° in direction through shallow layers.

Gust fronts can extend at worst to "15 to 20 NM" ahead of the thunderstorm and up to 6000 ft.

When there is a line or group of thunderstorms gust fronts can extend to twice this distance.

Their presence is sometimes marked by a roll of cloud at the gust front with rain and squally
conditions.

Windshear at Inversions and in The Boundary Layer

Because of the friction at the surface the surface wind be slower than the 2000 ft wind and will be
blowing from a different direction.

Climbing from the surface to the free-stream wind, or descending on the approach, will therefore
always take you through vertical windshear.
This is not normally significant, unless the free-stream wind is very strong or there is a
temperature inversion present.

Strong wind and inversion produces a very sharp boundary between the airflow above and below
the inversion.

The critical conditions are:

• A free-stream wind of over 40 KT:

This implies turbulence in the boundary layer and over land.

At least a 20 KT speed and 40° heading difference between the surface wind and the free-stream.

• A temperature inversion of 10°C or more in the first 1000 ft agl:

This will completely isolate the slow surface wind from the fast free-stream wind above the
inversion.

It will give a marked windshear in the climb or descent and clear air turbulence near the top of
the inversion.

• The presence of a turbulence inversion:

Inversion will produce a sharp windshear boundary between the turbulent airflow below the
inversion and the smooth free-stream airflow above.

These conditions are used to generate mandatory warnings of windshear or turbulence.

Standing Waves

Standing waves in the troposphere occur when a stable air mass blows at moderate speed over a
range of hills or mountains.

There is turbulence aloft that often extends into the low stratosphere.

However the severe hazards - turbulence and downdrafts - are found near the surface.

The conditions required for the production of standing waves or mountain waves or lee waves, as
they are also called, are:

• A wind of 15 KT or more over small mountains, to 30 KT or more over large mountains.

• Wind speed increasing steadily with height up to the tropopause.

• Wind direction roughly constant up to the tropopause.

• Wind direction within 30° of the perpendicular to the ridge line.

• A stable air mass. The strongest waves occur where there is a very strong stable layer (perhaps
an inversion) at ridge height, with rather less stable air (but not unstable) above and below.

When these conditions are met, the air mass forms the stable wave pattern.

The area of maximum turbulence is at about the height of the ridge and one wavelength
downwind.
The wavelength depends on windspeed and ridge height.

For ordinary European conditions it will be 5 to 10 NM.

The two definitions - one wavelength and 5 to 10 NM - are used interchangeably by
the examiners

In this first peak the wave formation may be strong enough to start a horizontal rotor, with
rotating roll cloud if the humidity is high enough.

The "Helm Bar" of Cross Fell in the UK is a well known example of this effect.
The helm wind is a strong, blustery easterly wind that descends the western slope
of the Cross Fell Range in Cumbria, northern England. The Cross Fell area of the
northern Pennines forms one of England's largest stretches of upland higher than
800m asl. To the west, there is a steep drop to the Eden Valley and beyond the
valley lie the mountains of the Lake District.

The helm wind is basically a föhn-type lee wave caused by a prevailing north-
easterly flow, blowing at a more or less right angle to the Cross Fell Range.

The helm wind can last for days and is most strongly felt at Milburn, but is also
noticeable all along the Fellside. An ideal setting for the phenomenon is a moderate,
stable NNE to E wind over the Pennines. The wind speed is intensified as it drops
the steep 600m escarpments to the Eden Valley. Near Penrith it ceases abruptly,
though its roarings can still be heard, only to rise again a few kilometres away as
the normal gusty north-easter.

The helm wind can be recognized by a bank of cloud appearing along the mountain
tops or just above them, sometimes covering the summit of Cross Fell. This is the
'helm cloud'. The word 'helm' or means helmet or hilltop. At times, a further narrow
stationary, but rotating roll cloud forms roughly parallel about 8 to 10 kilometers
downwind (west) to the helm cloud. This is the helm bar. The helm bar is a rotor
cloud and the surface winds die away beneath it. Farther away from the Fells there
may be a light westerly wind towards the mountains.

Turbulence in rotors is severe.

Sometimes the rotors break off and stream away downwind carrying their turbulence with them.

Rotors and rotor streaming can occur in the lee of ridges even when the upper air conditions are
not right for standing wave formation.

Flying with the wind over the ridge itself produces no serious problems.

Flying into wind means that you may be trying to climb to clear the ridge when the downdraft is
forcing you down.

Other visual clues to standing waves are cap cloud over the ridge and the lens shaped "lenticular"
clouds.

They are formed wherever there is a layer of moist air aloft that is cooled below dew point in the
rising part of the wave.

The turbulence from standing waves can be felt right up into the low stratosphere.
As the start conditions call for a moderate low level wind that steadily increases with height,
standing waves are often, but not always, associated with jetstreams aloft.

The wave effects can persist for up to 100 NM downwind, depending on the size of the hills and
the windspeed.

Microbursts

The microburst is an extreme form of windshear generated by the slug of descending air that
comes from a thunderstorm cell.

The downdraft is initiated by precipitation, and is often marked by a column of rain.

These downdrafts average around 3-4000 ft/min but have been measured at 6000 ft/min, 60 KT.

When they hit the ground they can flow out at 50 KT in one direction and 50 KT in the opposite
direction.

This gives a vector change in the surface wind of 100 KT over a relatively short distance of 1 to 3
km.

If the air below the cloudbase is relatively dry, the precipitation may re-evaporate.

The evaporation will cool the slug of descending air, making it more dense and increasing the
downdraft speed.

This is a "dry" microburst condition and the windshear will be worse in this case.

Combination of downdraft and rapid wind reversal can be fatal.

Microbursts only last for a few minutes.

Detecting Windshear

There are two principal systems in use to give warning of microbursts and windshear at airfields.

One is a field of anemometers surrounding the airfield set some 5 to 10 NM out.

These are linked to the control tower and display the pattern of surface winds on the approach.

This is called the Low Level Windshear Alert System (LLWAS).

The second is low frequency doppler radar. used to directly measure wind vectors around the
airfield.

The best way to deal with windshear is to avoid it (LLWAS and pilot reports), particularly
microburst windshear.

If avoidance has proved impossible, the next problem is one of detection.

In situations where windshear is likely the pilot should be alert for rapid changes in airspeed that
might be caused by windshear.

Older aircraft equipped with INS as opposed to IRS can obtain windshear indications by selecting
"WIND" and "HOLD" simultaneously.

A flashing display of 88888 signifies windshear.

More modern aircraft have a windshear warning incorporated into the GPWS.

When windshear is detected below 1500 ft radio altimeter:

=> A visual Windshear Warning message appears on each EADI.

=> An audio warning sounds "WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR".

Windshear warnings take priority over other GPWS modes.

Responding to Windshear

Both detection systems are sensitive and windshear warnings therefore only require a "suitable
response", which may be no more than extra vigilance.

The only exception is when microburst windshear is suspected.

This is so extreme that the only appropriate reaction is a "windshear go-around".

This differs from a normal go-around in that the recovery action is usually to select full thrust and
pitch to max alpha, leaving the aircraft configuration unchanged.

Full thrust is selected (often disregarding TGT limits).

The aircraft is pitched to maximum angle of attack rather than a fixed attitude.

Max AoA is the pitch that corresponds to the 'pitch limit eyebrows' on an EFIS aircraft and on a
pre-EFIS aircraft means flying on the light buffet or more usually, stick-shaker.

If speedbrakes or spoilers are out they should be selected in.

Gear and Flaps configuration should not be changed.

The gear is left down because the retraction sequence may open undercarriage doors which
temporarily add to the drag.

Wake Turbulence

Large aircraft at high angles of attack generate severe wake turbulence in the form of wingtip
rotors or vortices.

vortices form when flow moves from the high pressure lower surface of the wing to the low
pressure upper surface.

Once formed the vortices sink slowly towards the ground after the aircraft has passed.

Then they move outwards in still air at 1 to 5 KT.

Wake turbulence starts on take-off as the aircraft rotates, and on finals.

It does not end until the aircraft nose goes down on the landing roll.

The worst vortices come from heavy, clean and slow aircraft.

Turbulence behind aircraft is most dangerous in light crosswinds which cause the vortices to drift
onto the runway centreline.
Stronger crosswinds will move the rotors off the flightpath and the associated turbulence will
destroy the rotors.

Wake Turbulence Categories

Wake turbulence categories are defined by maximum take-off mass with the exception of the
B757.

Although B757 fits in the medium category by MTOM, it is assessed as heavy because it
generates unusually powerful vortices.

For categories and minima see the topic:

Wake Turbulence Radar Separation Minima

De-icing and Anti-icing

Ice on the airframe adds weight, increases drag and disrupts the airflow.

In icing conditions, for a given speed and angle of attack, wing lift could be reduced by as much as 30%
and drag increased by up to 40%.

Stall speed could increase significantly, controllability could reduce, and flight characteristics might
change.

Ice in the engine intakes causes loss of thrust as it disturbs the airflow and can cause engine failure if
ingested.

For piston engined aircraft without fuel injection carburettor icing can cause loss of power and in
extreme cases, engine failure.

Ice forming on pitot probes and static ports or angle of attack vanes may give false altitude, airspeed,
angle of attack and engine power information for air data systems.

De-icing means the removal of ice.

Anti-icing means preventing ice from forming.

The Flight Manual will specify if the aircraft is certificated for flight in icing conditions and if any
restrictions apply.

A commander must not commence a flight under known or expected icing conditions unless the
aeroplane is certificated and equipped to cope with such conditions.

Ground De-Icing

Ground de-icing/anti-icing is generally carried out in 2 stages.

The first stage (de-icing) removes ice from the surfaces of the aircraft.

The second stage (anti-icing) ensures that ice will not re-form on the surfaces of the aircraft for a
reasonable period of time after treatment.

This period is called the HOLD OVER TIME.

Hold over time begins from the start of the second stage (anti-ice) treatment.

The greater the hold over times the greater the chance the aircraft can become airborne before the de-
icing becomes ineffective.

If the hold over time expires the aircraft must taxy back to the ramp and start the de-icing process
again.

Before any de-icing operation is started intake blanks must be fitted where possible to prevent snow, ice
and fluids from entering the aircraft systems.

If engines and APU are runnig, the bleed air valve that supplies cabin conditioning must be closed.

Deposits of dry snow can be blown or brushed off the aircraft.

Care must be taken to prevent snow from entering the gap between flying control surfaces, flaps, wings
and so on as this could freeze later in flight.

For wet snow or ice, brushing and blowing would be ineffectual.

If the ambient temperature is -7°C or above hot water can be used to remove the contaminant.

The water is heated to 95°C and sprayed at a maximum pressure of 100 PSI.

The aircraft must then either be quickly dried or have a chemical anti-icing fluid put on it within 3
minutes.

The hot water method is rarely used because of the risks of re-freezing.

Most usually chemical de-icing fluids are used either neat or mixed with water.

When fluids are diluted with water they are always heated.

When fluids are used neat they are sometimes heated.

There are four types of Anti-icing/De-icing fluid but the two most common are ISO Types I and II.

Type I Fluid

Type I fluid contains a minimum of 80% glycol in a water base.

It melts ice very quickly but has a low viscosity.

The fluid Will run off the aeroplane surfaces easily.

The low viscosity combined with the diluting effect of melting contaminant and the evaporation of the
glycol once it is applied limits its hold over time.

It is a clear liquid dyed red-orange.

Holdover times are shown below:

Type II Fluids

Type II fluids have a minimum of 50% glycol and a thickening agent in the mix.
it makes the fluid more viscous so it does not run off the airframe too quickly.

The thickening agent also reduces the evaporation of the glycol.

Type II fluids have a longer hold over time than Type I.

It is a clear or straw coloured liquid for ease of identification.

Type II Fluids can be diluted with water to give a mixture of fluid to water 75/25, 60/40, and 50/50.

It may be heated to 70°C then sprayed against the aircraft at a maximum pressure of 100 psi.

The heat and pressure will de-ice the aircraft and a layer of glycol will be left on the skin.

Ambient conditions at the airport will decide the fluid to water ratio.

Type II Fluid can also be used undiluted.

This is referred to as 100% cold spray for anti-icing.

This gives the longest hold over time.

In extreme conditions the fluid becomes so viscous that it has be heated up to a maximum of 60°C to
allow it to be sprayed.

If this temperature is exceeded then the thickening agent forms a gel, which will do more harm than
good.

Type II undiluted fluid will function down to –25°C.

Holdover times are shown below:

Type III Fluids

Type III is a 'one step' treatment relevant to smaller commuter type aeroplanes.

For identification Type III is yellow/green.

Type IV Fluids

Type IV is similar to Type II.

It has an advanced thickening agent so have a longer hold over time.

Type IV is emerald green.

Shear Value

The thicker anti-ice fluids (II and IV) are formulated with a 'shear' value.

i.e. At a certain airspeed, the fluid will shear and roll off the surfaces of the aircraft.

The shear value must be lower than rotation speed so that at rotation the surfaces of wing clear of fluid.

Because of this Type II and IV fluids may not be suitable for smaller aeroplanes, or for aeroplanes with a
low rotation speed.
Wheelbay De-Icing

De-icing of wheel bays must be done using large volumes of hot air or by hand.

Fluids can not be used as they could refreeze and lock the gear up.

After take-off from a contaminated runway it is a good idea to raise and lower the gear several times to
remove slush and snow if climb profile permits.

An aircraft with mudguards or spats must have them removed and cleaned of any ice or snow after
landing as this could freeze.

An engineer must refit the spats before flight.

Information Given to the Flight Crew

Once de-icing then anti-icing is complete the de-icing crew should inform the flight crew of the four
crucial bits of information about the fluid used.

1) Type

2) Temperature

3) Concentration

4) Starting Time of Fluid Application

Jet Aircraft Anti-Icing Equipment

Engine Anti-icing

A jet aircraft is usually well protected against icing.

The engines have hot air anti-icing from engine bleeds supplied to the intake to prevent ice build-up.

Some engines also anti-ice the inlet guide vanes.

Engine anti-ice can be used on the ground as well as when airborne.

Airframe Anti-Icing

The airframe is protected by hot air ducted through the leading edges of the wings and tail.

The airframe anti-icing may not be selected on the ground because it requires the cooling airflow over
the wings to keep the temperatures down and avoid 'DUCT OVERHEAT' warnings.

Some aircraft employ 'squat switches' to avoid the airframe anti-icing being activated on the ground.

Some manufacturers simply prohibit its use until airborne.

Turbo-Prop Anti-Ice and De-Icing Equipment

Turbo-prop and piston aircraft are at greater risk from icing in flight than jet aircraft as they operate
continuously in the icing levels.

Turbo prop engine intakes can be de-iced with electrical mats that cycle the current to intermittently
break off ice deposits.

The stagnation zone at the lip of the intake is anti-iced with continuous current.

Many turbo-props employ ice diverter ducts to allow ice broken off at the intake to exit harmlessly to
atmosphere rather than being drawn into the engine.

Airframe de-icing is provided with pneumatic boots that intermittently inflate to break off accumulations
of ice.

Aircraft with supercritical wings can experience aerodynamic problems when rain ice forms a ridge of ice
behind and out of reach of the de-icing boots.

Propeller de-icing is usually electrical, using intermittently heated mats to break off accumulated ice.

When the ice comes off the prop it is often flung against the side of the fuselage causing distress to the
passengers.

Piston Engined Aircraft Anti-Icing and De-Icing

Piston engined aircraft employ substantially the same airframe and propeller de-icing systems as turbo-
props with a few minor variations.

Piston engines with carburettors are at risk from carburettor icing.

Carburettor icing can be reduced or avoided by supplying hot air to the air-intake, this reduces engine
power.

Windscreen Anti-Icing Equipment

Windscreen anti-icing is provided by transparent foil heaters in between the perspex layers of a
laminated windscreen.

Windscreen heating is thermostatically controlled and should be on all the time, whether in icing
conditions or not.

It makes the screen more flexible and resistant to bird strike damage.

Contaminated Runway

A contaminated runway is a runway where more than 25% of the surface area is covered in:

• More than 3 mm of water or its equivalent in wet snow or slush.

• Compacted snow which will resist further compression and either hold together or break into lumps
when picked up, or

• Ice

Wet Runway

A wet runway has water, slush or snow less than 3 mm or the equivalent depth or there is enough
moisture present to make the surface reflective but without significant areas of standing water.

Damp Runway

A damp runway has moisture on it but it does not have a reflective surface.
Dry Runway

A dry runway is neither wet nor contaminated and might include special grooved or porous surfaces
which maintain dry braking action even when moisture is present

Regulations

OPS does not preclude contaminated runway operations.

Some National Authorities advise that they should be avoided whenever possible and prohibit take-offs
with more than 15 mm of water, wet snow or slush or more than 80 mm of powder snow.

From an operating point of view, consideration should be given to the possibility of ingesting
contaminant into the engines in such conditions.

Continuous ignition should be selected to reduce the risk of flame-out.

This also applies in heavy rain.

Hydroplaning

See the Topic: Hydroplanning and its Types

Landing and Braking Co-Efficient

OPS require an additional 15% fator to be imposed on landing distance required when runway is wet or
contaminated unless the Flight Manual allows a reduction below this.

The main effect on landing is reduced braking performance.

See the Topic: Braking Co-Efficient

The MOTNE SNOWTAM Code

MOTNE = Meteorogical Operational Telecommunication Network Europe

The SNOWTAM or SNOTAM code describes runway contaminant and braking action at specific airfields.

SNOWTAMs are valid for 24 hours unless updated.

The fields are lettered.

Below is an example with the decode:

(A) EGLL
London Heathrow

(B) 12290420

29 December at 0420Z

(C) 27L

Runway 27L
(D)

Cleared runway length in metres, if less than published length

(E)

Cleared runway width in metres, if less than published width. If off-set left or right of
centre-line add "L" or "R" as viewed.

(F) 6/6/6

Nature of the contaminant given for each third of the runway. This one is slush over
the whole runway.

The numerical codes for contaminants are:

0 or NIL: Clear and dry

1: Damp
2: Wet or water patches
3: Rime (normally less than 1 mm deep)
4: Dry snow
5: Wet snow
6: Slush
7: Ice
8: Compact or rolled snow
9: Frozen ruts or ridges.

(G) 05/05/05

The depth is given in millimetres for each third of the runway length. In this case
the depth is 5 mm in the Touchdown, Middle and Stop Ends.

(H) 1/1/1

Runway braking action poor throughout (Touchdown, Middle and Stop Ends).

The codes are:

5: Good
4: Medium/good
3: Medium
2: Medium/poor
1: Poor
9: Unreliable

If unreliable is used, it is because the contamination is outside the approved range

of whatever equipment is used to measure the braking action.

(N) 6

Taxyways covered in Slush

(R) 6

Ramp covered in Slush

(T) TWYS AND APRON SLIPPERY

Free text section

Cabin Decompression

Depressurization warning is required when cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 feet.

Passenger oxygen masks will drop when cabin altitude rises to between 13,200 and 14,000 feet, but no
higher than 15,000 feet.

Flight crew masks usually have a diluter demand oxygen supply which provides an oxygen and air mix
up to 32,000ft cabin altitude.

After 32,000 feet it provides 100% oxygen.

The system can be selected to 100% oxygen at any altitude.

An emergency selection provides 100% oxygen at an increased pressure.

Above 35,000ft oxygen is automatically supplied under pressure.

Fire and Smoke Detection System

See the Topic: Fire and Smoke Detection System

Immediate Actions

If smoke is detected in the cabin in flight the crew should don smoke masks immediately and
attempt to locate the source.

If the source is a galley fire the cabin crew should attempt to extinguish it using BCF fire
extinguishers.

If the source is in the cabin furnishing the crew should extinguish the fire first with BCF then water
to damp the fire down.

If it is electrical use BCF to douse the flames while the flight crew attempt to isolate the electrical
supply.

If smoke is coming through the air conditioning system (perhaps from the engines) the first action
is to turn off the packs or close the pack flow control valve.

If smoke is detected in the cabin on the ground the best course of action is to evacuate the
aircraft.

Passenger oxygen masks are useless in combating smoke as they draw in toxic cabin air, a damp
handkerchief is better protection.

Cabin crew do have some smoke protection.

Crew portable oxygen cylinders are fitted with full face smoke masks and provide a supply of
100% oxygen on demand or continuous pressure breathing.

Modern aircraft supply smoke hoods for crew, called the Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE).

Crew Smoke Protection

Flight Crew

Don oxygen masks.

Fuel Jettisoning

A fuel jettison system is required where the maximum landing mass is less than the max take-off mass
by more than 15 minutes flight time (in effect an instrument circuit).

Where a jettison system is required it must be able to reduce the mass from MTOM to MLM in 15
minutes.

This means that all aircraft should be capable of landing, in emergency, within 15 minutes of take-off.

CS 25.1001 Fuel jettisoning system

(a) A fuel jettisoning system must be installed on each aeroplane unless it is shown that the aeroplane
meets the climb requirements of CS 25.119 and 25.121(d) at maximum takeoff weight, less the actual or
computed weight of fuel necessary for a 15minute flight comprised of a takeoff, goaround, and landing
at the airport of departure with the aeroplane configuration, speed, power, and thrust the same as that
used in meeting the applicable takeoff, approach, and landing climb performance requirements of this
CS–25.

(b) If a fuel jettisoning system is required it must be capable of jettisoning enough fuel within 15
minutes, starting with the weight given in subparagraph (a) of this paragraph, to enable the aeroplane
to meet the climb requirements of CS 25.119 and 25.121(d), assuming that the fuel is jettisoned under
the conditions, except weight, found least favourable during the flight tests prescribed in subparagraph
(c) of this paragraph.

Additional certification requirements are that:

• The system does not cause a fire hazard.

• The discharged fuel stays clear of the aircraft.

• The fumes do not enter the cabin

• There are no adverse control effects

Fuel Jettison Procedure

The ideal situation for Fuel Jettison is:

• A clear area, normally over the sea.

• Aircraft above 10,000 ft.

If this is not possible guidelines suggest the aircraft be above:

• 7000 ft in winter

• 4000 ft in summer

This is to ensure that fuel evaporates before it hits the ground.

In a real emergency fuel can be jettisoned anywhere.

During the jettison HF radio calls must be avoided and VHF calls kept to a minimum.

Electrical switching should likewise be kept to a minimum.

If possible, there should be visual confirmation that jettison has started and, more importantly, stopped.

Automatic switches should ensure that jettison ceases when the fuel in tanks is just enough for a take-
off and climb to 10 000 ft with 45 minutes cruise.

Fuel jettison procedures are outlined in the checklist which forms part of the Flight Manual.

Precautionary Landings

A precautionary landing will be made when there is no immediate danger to the aircraft but it is
considered wiser to land than continue the flight.

Precautionary landings may be sufficiently urgent to warrant an urgency call of PAN PAN, but by
definition would not be a MAYDAY.

An example might be a landing following a contained engine failure with no fire indications.

A precautionary landing would be a normal landing as far as the passengers are concerned.

ATC would have been informed and it is likely that the Fire Crew would have been called to follow the
aircraft down the runway on landing and attend it when clear.

The Fire Chief will normally contact the flight crew by external intercom to be briefed by the captain.

He would inspect the aircraft for signs of damage or fire and, assuming all clear, the aircraft would taxy
to the gate for a normal disembarkation.

Emergency Landings

An emergency landing is required where there is risk to the aircraft and its contents, perhaps a fire, and
would require a MAYDAY call.

Precautionary landings can deteriorate into emergency landings.

A medical emergency such as a heart attack on board might necessitate an emergency landing.

Though its not a risk for either the crew or the remainder of the passengers.

Other emergency landings will result from a systems failure that increases the risk to the majority of the
passengers.

This would ideally require a full passenger briefing on the PA.

The captain will call the senior purser to the flight deck and brief him or her on the situation and his
intentions.

The senior purser will then brief the cabin crew.

The captain may make an initial PA informing the passengers of the general situation and the full
passenger briefing will then be left to the senior purser.

The full emergency landing briefing will remind the passengers of the location and use of emergency
exits and escape slides.

If a landing on water is contemplated use of the life vests will be described and it will be emphasised
that they should not be inflated inside the cabin.

The cabin crew will brief on the 'brace' position and when it should be adopted and ensure seat backs
are upright, seat belts fastened, loose objects stowed and high heeled shoes are removed.

Just before touchdown the flight crew will make the PA call "BRACE, BRACE".

When the aircraft comes to a halt the flight crew will initiate the evacuation with either a PA or a signal
from the flight deck.

The cabin crew will open the doors in 'automatic' deploying the slide rafts and assist the passenger
evacuation.

After evacuation the crew should ensure the passengers move clear of the aircraft.

Air transport aircraft of 44 seats or more must be able to be evacuated in 90 seconds through 50% of
the available exits.

Emergency Lighting

Internal emergency lighting consists of:

• Floor lights no more than 40 inches apart along the aisle.

• Floor proximity escape path marking.

• Light at each exit point.

• Light at each aisle junction.

Externally there is a light illuminating the area around the slide to assist in evacuation.

These lights are operated from the Battery or Vital Services busbar and have two switches.

The flight crew have an ON-ARMED-OFF switch.

The cabin crew have ON-OFF switch.

The cabin crew's switch can override the flight crew's switch.

In flight, the flight deck switch is put in the armed position.

A loss of AC power will automatically switch on the emergency lights.

Once activated the lights will operate for 10 minutes from their own power source.

Ditching

Ditching characteristics are allegedly established during the certification procedure.

It is done with models rather than the real aircraft.

It is recommended that a landing is attempted along the line of the swell unless the wind is over 35 to
40 kt in which case one should land into wind.

After ditching the aircraft may not stay afloat for long so the evacuation into the slide rafts should be
quick and orderly.
If the slide rafts do not inflate automatically the bottles of compressed air can be triggered by pulling a
manual inflation handle.

Once the crew have confirmed the aircraft is empty the life rafts are separated from the aircraft.

Each life raft should have at least one crew member on board.

Evacuation procedures are detailed in the Operations Manual.

Dangerous Goods

Dangerous goods are defined as "Articles or substances which are capable of posing a significant risk to
health, safety or property when transported by air".

Many items routinely found on aircraft would come into this category but they are excluded from the
regulations.

An Operator requires approval from the State of Registration in order to carry dangerous goods by air.

This approval may be temporary or permanent.

Legislation

The general regulations for handling and transporting dangerous goods are laid down in ICAO Annex 18.

ICAO also produce a Technical Instructions document, known as Doc 9284.

Doc 9284 contains detailed handling and packaging information.

Individual States (EASA, JAA etc) lay down operating procedures which are included, in turn, in
operations manuals.

Classification

Dangerous goods are broken down into nine hazard classes.

Hazard classes define the type of hazard associated with the goods.

Many goods will come under more than one hazard class.

The classes and their labels are shown below:

Several of these main classification groups have subsidiary groups and labels.

The degree of danger is not specified by the class.

The degree of danger is specified by the packing group, a separate category.

Group 1 - Great danger.

Group 2 - Medium danger

Group 3 - Minor danger.

OPS Regulations

Dangerous goods should be packed and labelled by the shipper in accordance with the Technical
Instructions.

The Operator is responsible (as far as is possible) for ensuring that the goods are correctly labelled and
packed.

The Operator is obviously not expected to unpack and inspect the contents of every case.

Once in the custody of the Operator the dangerous goods are handled according to an Acceptance
Checklist.

The purpose of the Acceptance Checklist is to make sure that all appropriate requirements are met.

OPS SUBPART R - TRANSPORT OF DANGEROUS GOODS BY AIR

OPS 1.1150 Terminology

Technical Instructions

The latest effective edition of the Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air
(Doc 9284-AN/905).

It includes the Supplement and any Addendum.

It is approved and published by decision of the Council of the International Civil Aviation Organization.

State of Origin

The Authority in whose territory the dangerous goods were first loaded on an aircraft.

Packaging

Receptacles and any other components or materials necessary for the receptacle to perform its
containment function and to ensure compliance with the packing requirements.

Package

The complete product of the packing operation, consisting of the packaging and its contents, prepared
for transport.

Overpack

An enclosure used by a single shipper to contain one or more packages and to form one handling unit
for convenience of handling and stowage.

A unit load device is not included in this definition.

Unit Load Device

Any type of aircraft container, aircraft pallet with a net, or aircraft pallet with a net over an igloo.
An overpack is not included in his definition.

For radioactive materials a "Freight Container" is used.

Freight Container

A freight container is an article of transport equipment for radioactive materials.

It is designed to facilitate the transport of such materials, either packaged or unpackaged, by one or
more modes of transport.

Dangerous goods in a Unit Load Device are not radioactive materials.

Proper Shipping Name

The name to be used to describe a particular article or substance in all shipping documents and
notifications and, where appropriate, on packaging.

Handling Agent

An agency which performs on behalf of the Operator some or all of the latters functions including
receiving, loading, unloading, transferring or other processing of passengers or cargo.

Acceptance Check List

A document used to assist in carrying out a check on the external appearance of packages of dangerous
goods and their associated documents to determine that all appropriate requirements have been met.

UN Number

The four-digit number assigned by the United Nations Committee of Experts on the Transport of
Dangerous Goods.

It is to identify a substance or a particular group of substances.

ID number

A temporary identification number for an item of dangerous goods which has not been assigned a UN
number.

Dangerous Goods Transport Document

A document which is specified by the Technical Instructions.

It is completed by the person who offers dangerous goods for air transport and contains information
about those dangerous goods.

The document bears a signed declaration indicating that the dangerous goods are fully and accurately
described by their proper shipping names and UN/ID numbers.

Declaration also indicates that they are correctly classified, packed, marked, labelled and in a proper
condition for transport.

Cargo Aircraft
Any aircraft which is carrying goods or property but not passengers. In this context the following are not
considered to be passengers:

(i) A crew member.

(ii) An Operator's employee permitted by, and carried in accordance with, the instructions contained in
the Operations Manual.

(iii) An authorised representative of an Authority.

(iv) A person with duties in respect of a particular shipment on board.

Dangerous Goods Incident

An occurrence other than a dangerous goods accident.

It is associated with and related to the transport of dangerous goods.

It is not necessarily occurring on board an aircraft.

It results in injury to a person, property damage, fire, breakage, spillage, leakage of fluid or radiation or
other evidence that the integrity of the packaging has not been maintained.

Any occurrence relating to the transport of dangerous goods which seriously jeopardises the aircraft
or its occupants is also deemed to constitute a dangerous goods incident.

Dangerous Goods Accident

An occurrence associated with and related to the transport of dangerous goods which results in fatal or
serious injury to a person or major property damage.

Serious Injury

An injury which is sustained by a person in an accident and which:

(i) Requires hospitalisation for more than 48 hours, commencing within seven days from the date the
injury was received, or

(ii) Results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes or nose), or

(iii) Involves lacerations which cause severe haemorrhage, nerve, muscle or tendon damage, or

(iv) Involves injury to any internal organ, or

(v) Involves second or third degree burns, or any burns affecting more than 5% of the body surface, or

(vi) Involves verified exposure to infectious substances or injurious radiation.

OPS 1.1155 Approval to Transport Dangerous Goods

An Operator shall not transport dangerous goods unless approved to do so by the Authority.

OPS 1.1160 Scope

(a) An Operator shall comply with the provisions contained in the Technical Instructions on all occasions
when dangerous goods are carried, irrespective of whether the flight is wholly or partly within or wholly
outside the territory of a State.

(b) Articles and substances which would otherwise be classed as dangerous goods are excluded from
the provisions of this Subpart, to the extent specified in the Technical instructions, provided:
•(1) They are required to be aboard the aeroplane in accordance with the relevant OPS requirement or
for operating reasons.

(2) They are carried as catering or cabin service supplies.

(3) They are carried for use in flight as veterinary aid or as a humane killer for an animal.

(4) They are carried for use in flight for medical aid for a patient, provided that:
•(i) Gas cylinders have been manufactured specifically for the purpose of containing and transporting
that particular gas.

(ii) Drugs, medicines and other medical matter are under the control of trained personnel during the
time when they are in use in the aeroplane.

(iii) Equipment containing wet cell batteries is kept and, when necessary secured, in an upright position
to prevent spillage of the electrolyte, and

(iv) Proper provision is made to stow and secure all the equipment during take-off and landing and at all
other times when deemed necessary by the commander in the interests of safety, or
(5) They are carried by passengers or crew members. (This includes certain matches, lighters, alcoholic
drinks, aerosols and perfumes)
(c) Articles and substances intended as replacements for those in (b)(1) and (b)(2) above shall be
transported on an aeroplane as specified in the Technical Instructions.

OPS 1.1165 Limitations on the Transport of Dangerous Goods

(a) An Operator shall take all reasonable measures to ensure that articles and substances that are
specifically identified by name or generic description in the Technical Instructions as being forbidden for
transport under any circumstances are not carried on any aeroplane.

(b) An Operator shall take all reasonable measures to ensure that articles and substances or other goods
that are identified in the Technical Instructions as being forbidden for transport in normal circumstances
are only transported when:
•(1) They are exempted by the States concerned under the provisions of the Technical Instructions or

(2) The Technical Instructions indicate they may be transported under an approval issued by the State of
Origin.
OPS 1.1170 Classification

An Operator shall take all reasonable measures to ensure that articles and substances are classified as
dangerous goods as specified in the Technical Instructions.

OPS 1.1175 Packing

An Operator shall take all reasonable measures to ensure that dangerous goods are packed as specified
in the Technical Instructions

OPS 1.1180 Labelling and Marking

(a) An Operator shall take all reasonable measures to ensure that packages, overpacks and freight
containers are labelled and marked as specified in the Technical Instructions.

(b) Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly outside the
territory of a State, labelling and marking must be in the English language in addition to any other
language requirements.

OPS 1.1185 Dangerous Goods Transport Document

(a) An Operator shall ensure that, except when otherwise specified in the Technical Instructions,
dangerous goods are accompanied by a dangerous goods transport document.

(b) Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly outside the
territory of a State, the English language must be used for the dangerous goods transport document in
addition to any other language requirements.

OPS 1.1195 Acceptance of Dangerous Goods

(a) An Operator shall not accept dangerous goods for transport until the package, overpack or freight
container has been inspected in accordance with the acceptance procedures in the Technical
Instructions.

(b) An Operator or his handling agent shall use an acceptance check list. The acceptance check list shall
allow for all relevant details to be checked and shall be in such form as will allow for the recording of the
results of the acceptance check by manual, mechanical or computerised means.

OPS 1.1200 Inspection for Damage, Leakage or Contamination

(a) An Operator shall ensure that:

(1) Packages, overpacks and freight containers are inspected for evidence of leakage or damage
immediately prior to loading on an aeroplane or into a unit load device, as specified in the Technical
Instructions.

(2) A unit load device is not loaded on an aeroplane unless it has been inspected as required by the
Technical Instructions and found free from any evidence of leakage from, or damage to, the dangerous
goods contained therein.

(3) Leaking or damaged packages, overpacks or freight containers are not loaded on an aeroplane.

(4) Any package of dangerous goods found on an aeroplane and which appears to be damaged or
leaking is removed or arrangements made for its removal by an appropriate authority or Organisation. In
this case the remainder of the consignment shall be inspected to ensure it is in a proper condition for
transport and that no damage or contamination has occurred to the aeroplane or its load, and

(5) Packages, overpacks and freight containers are inspected for signs of damage or leakage upon
unloading from an aeroplane or from a unit load device and, if there is evidence of damage or leakage,
the area where the dangerous goods were stowed is inspected for damage or contamination.

OPS 1.1205 Removal of Contamination

(a) An Operator shall ensure that:

(1) Any contamination found as a result of the leakage or damage of dangerous goods is removed
without delay, and

(2) An aeroplane which has been contaminated by radioactive materials is immediately taken out of
service and not returned until the radiation level at any accessible surface and the non-fixed
contamination are not more than the values specified in the Technical Instructions.

OPS 1.1210 Loading Restrictions

(a) Passenger Cabin and Flight Deck: An Operator shall ensure that dangerous goods are not carried in
an aeroplane cabin occupied by passengers or on the flight deck, unless otherwise specified in the
Technical Instructions.

(b) Cargo Compartments: An Operator shall ensure that dangerous goods are loaded, segregated,
stowed and secured on an aeroplane as specified in the Technical Instructions.

(c) Dangerous Goods Designated for Carriage Only on Cargo Aircraft: An Operator shall ensure that
packages of dangerous goods bearing the "Cargo Aircraft Only" label are carried on a cargo aircraft and
loaded as specified in the Technical Instructions.

OPS 1.1215 Provision of Information

(a) Information to Ground Staff:

•(1) An Operator shall ensure that information is provided to enable ground staff to carry out their duties
with regard to the transport of dangerous goods, including the actions to be taken in the event of
incidents and accidents involving dangerous goods, and

(2) Where applicable, the information referred to in sub-paragraph (a)(1) above is also provided to his
handling agent.
(b) Information to Passengers and Other Persons:
•(1) An Operator shall ensure that information is promulgated as required by the Technical Instructions
so that passengers are warned as to the types of goods which they are forbidden from transporting
aboard an aeroplane, and

(2) An Operator and, where applicable, his handling agent shall ensure that notices are provided at
acceptance points for cargo giving information about the transport of dangerous goods.

The passengers are usually informed by means of notices displayed at check in

desks and information on the back of the tickets.

(c) Information to Crew Members: An Operator shall ensure that information is provided in the
Operations Manual to enable crew members to carry out their responsibilities in regard to the transport
of dangerous goods, including the actions to be taken in the event of emergencies arising involving
dangerous goods.

(d) Information to the Commander: An Operator shall ensure that the commander is provided with
written information, as specified in the Technical Instructions.

(e) Information in the Event of an Aeroplane Incident or Accident:

•(1) The Operator of an aeroplane which is involved in an aeroplane incident shall, on request, provide
any information required to minimise the hazards created by any dangerous goods carried.

(2) The Operator of an aeroplane which is involved in an aeroplane accident shall, as soon as possible,
inform the appropriate authority of the State in which the aeroplane accident occurred of any dangerous
goods carried.
OPS 1.1220 Training Programmes

(a) An Operator shall establish and maintain staff training programmes, as required by the Technical
Instructions, which shall be approved by the Authority.

(d) An Operator shall ensure that all staff who receive training undertake a test to verify understanding
of their responsibilities.

(e) An Operator shall ensure that all staff who require dangerous goods training receive recurrent
training at intervals of not longer than 2 years.

(f) An Operator shall ensure that records of dangerous goods training are maintained for all staff as
required by the Technical Instructions.
(g) An Operator shall ensure that his handling agents staff are trained (in handling dangerous goods
according to detailed instructions in JAR OPS 1 Subpart R).

OPS 1.1225 Dangerous Goods Incident and Accident Reports

(a) An Operator shall report dangerous goods incidents and accidents to the Authority. An initial report
shall be despatched within 72 hours of the event unless exceptional circumstances prevent this.

(b) An Operator shall also report to the Authority undeclared or misdeclared dangerous goods
discovered in cargo or passengers' baggage. An initial report shall be despatched within 72 hours of the
discovery unless exceptional circumstances prevent this.

SUMMARY

Dangerous goods or Dangerous Air Cargo (DAC) are articles or substances which are capable of causing
a significant risk to health safety or property.

ICAO publish "Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air" (DOC 9284).

This detail the requirements for packing, labelling, carriage and documentation of dangerous goods.

An Operator may not carry DAC unless the Authority specifically permits it in the AOC or if a temporary
approval is given.

Certain items of DAC may only be carried on cargo aircraft.

Passengers must be informed which dangerous goods are not allowed to be carried in their baggage.

This usually takes the form of notices at check-in and instructions on the tickets.

Certain articles which would otherwise be prohibited as DAC can be carried provided they are required
to be aboard for operating reasons.

e.g. Carried as catering or cabin service supplies or are carried by passengers or crew members.

Procedures for handling and documenting DAC must be laid out in the Operations Manual.

Operators must run DAC training courses to familiarise their staff with the procedures.

The shipper (who would be an approved organization) is responsible for ensuring that no forbidden
items are offered for air transport.

The shipper will also ensure that all DAC is properly packed, labelled and documented.

The documentation that accompanies the DAC is called a shipping document.

The Operator is also responsible for ensuring that DAC is carried, packed and loaded in accordance with
ICAO Technical Instructions.

The DAC must be handled according to a checklist detailed in the Operations Manual called an
"Acceptance Checklist".

The captain must be informed in writing of the DAC that he or she is carrying.

The final requirement is that states are required to set up incident reporting procedures for international
flights.