FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam - 2019

for students presently in

Class 8
Paper 1
(29th December 2019)
Time: 3 Hours (9:30 am – 12:30 pm) Maximum Marks: 210
Code 8000
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.

1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 60 Minutes on Section-II and 60

Minutes on Section-III.
2. This Question paper consists of 3 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:

Marking Scheme for each question

Section Subject Question no.
correct answer wrong answer
SECTION – I APTITUDE 1 to 30 +3 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 31 to 39 +2 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 40 to 48 +2 0
SECTION – II
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 49 to 57 +2 0
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 58 to 66 +2 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 67 to 78 +1 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 79 to 90 +1 0
SECTION – III
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 91 to 102 +1 0
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 103 to 114 +1 0

3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough
work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.

5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.

Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 114 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.

OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________

Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________

Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________

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Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I

Section – I
APTITUDE TEST
This section contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A worker may claim Rs. 15 for each km which he travels by taxi and Rs. 5 for each km which he
drives his own car. If in one week he claimed Rs. 500 for travelling 80 km then how many kms did he
travel by taxi?
(A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 40

Direction (Questions 2 – 3): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
that follow :

(i) Five friends P, Q, R, S and T travelled to five different cities of Chennai, Kolkata, Delhi,
Bangalore and Hyderabad by different modes of transport that is bus, train, aeroplane, car and boat
from Mumbai.
(ii) The person who travelled to Delhi did not travel by boat.
(iii) R went to Bangalore by car and Q went to Kolkata by aeroplane.
(iv) S travelled by boat whereas T travelled by train.
(v) Mumbai is not connected by bus to Delhi and Chennai.

2. Which of the following combinations of person and mode is not correct?

(A) P – Bus (B) Q – Aeroplane
(C) R – car (D) T – Aeroplane

3. Which of the following combinations is true for S?

(A) Delhi - Bus (B) Chennai - Bus
(C) Chennai - Boat (D) None of these
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4. Find the number which can come in the place of ‘?’ from
the given alternatives
1 4 6
9 5 5 3 8 3

551 246 ?

3 4 7 8 9 2 4 1
6
(A) 262 (B) 622
(C) 631 (D) 634

5. I met my friend on 3rd April, 1995 which was a Monday and promised to meet him again in the month
of October in the same year – but only on a Sunday. On which of the following days could I meet my
friend?
(A) 7th, 14th, 21st, 28th (B) 1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd, 29th
nd th th rd th
(C) 2 , 9 , 16 , 23 , 30 (D) 3rd, 10th, 17th, 24th, 31st

6. Find the number which can come in the place of ‘?’ from the given alternatives
20 50

2 5

10

8 ?
80 70

(A) 6 (B) 7
(C) 8 (D) 9

7. If ‘MORE’ is coded as ‘4695’, then ‘EXAM’ is coded as’:

(A) 524113 (B) 7423
(C) 7513 (D) 5614
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8. The calendar of the year 1982 is same as which of the following year?
(A) 1993 (B) 1990
(C) 1989 (D) 1991

9. If in a certain language, POPULAR is coded as QPQVMBS, which word would be coded as

GBNPVT?
(A) HCOQWU (B) FAMOUS
(C) FRAMES (D) FARMES

10. Two clocks are showing correct time at 4 : 00 pm. One clock loses 3.5 minutes in an hour, while the
other gains 2.5 minutes in one hour. At 10:00 pm on the same day, by how much time will the two
clocks differ?
(A) 12 minutes (B) 36 minutes
(C) 24 minutes (D) 30 minutes

Directions (Questions 11 – 14): Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow.
I. In a family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F, there are two married couples.
II. D is grandmother of A and mother of B.
III. C is wife of B and mother of F.
IV. F is the granddaughter of E.

11. What is C to A?
(A) daughter (B) grand daughter
(C) mother (D) cannot be determined

12. How many male members are there in the family?

(A) Two (B) Three
(C) Four (D) Cannot be determined

13. Which of the following is definitely true?

(A) A is brother of F (B) A is sister of F
(C) D has two grand sons (D) B and C are married couple

14. Who among the following is one of the couples?

(A) CD (B) DE
(C) EB (D) cannot be determined
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15. If ‘x’ means ‘–’, ‘–’ means ‘’. ‘+’ means ‘x’ and ‘’
means ‘+’, then what will be the value of the following expression?
16  8  4  3  9  ?
(A) 10 (B) 19
(C) 20 (D) 9

16. Mr. Tariyal travelled 17 km to the East, then he turned left and went 15 km, he again turned left and
went 17 km. How far is he from the starting point?
(A) 17 km (B) 2 km
(C) 15 km (D) 32 km

17. A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is not sitting with
E who is on the left end of the bench. C is sitting on the second position from the right. A is sitting on
the right side of B and E. A and C are sitting together. Then, A is sitting between?
(A) B and D (B) B and C
(C) E and D (D) C and E

18. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words?
1. Foundation 2. Plastering
3. Building 4. Painting
(A) 3, 4, 1, 2 (B) 1, 3, 2, 4
(C) 3, 2, 4, 1 (D) 3, 1, 4, 2

Directions (Questions 19): Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

2 3 4 5
19. , , , ,?
4 9 16 25
8 6
(A) (B)
40 36
4 6
(C) (D)
48 30
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Directions (Directions 20 – 21): Find the wrong term in the series:

20. 3, 14, 39, 82, 155, 258, 399

(A) 399 (B) 258
(C) 82 (D) 14

21. 115, 95, 70, 40, 10, – 35, – 80

(A) 95 (B) 10
(C) – 35 (D) 40

22. The reflection of a wall clock in a mirror shows the time as 3 hours 40 minutes. What is the actual
time?
(A) 8 hrs 20 minutes (B) 8 hrs 25 minutes
(C) 8 hrs 45 minutes (D) 8 hrs 35 minutes

23. Vipin is twenty first from left and Shekhar is twenty fourth from right. When they interchange their
positions respectively, then Shekhar becomes thirty first from right end. Then what will be Vipin’s
position from left after interchanging?
(A) 25 (B) 26
(C) 27 (D) 28

24. By how many degrees does an hour hand move in one quarter of an hour?
(A) 50 (B) 7.50
0
(C) 10 (D) 12.50

25. How many squares are there in the following figure?

(A) 6 (B) 8
(C) 10 (D) 16

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Directions (Question 26): Find the number which can come in the place of ‘?’ from the given alternatives.

26. 6 2
2

6 4 2 ? 13
4 28 14 80

2 4 7
(A) 40 (B) 32
(C) 35 (D) 30

27. Mohan is twenty fourth from left and sixth to right of Rohan who is thirty third from right end, and
Rohan is just between Mohan and Sohan. Then what will be Sohan’s position from left?
(A) 12 (B) 14
(C) 8 (D) 9

28. In the given diagram, square represents doctors, triangle represents ladies and circle represents
surgeons. Which of the following letters represents those ladies who are doctors and surgeon both?

P
G

L M
Q

T
(A) M (B) G
(C) Q (D) P
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29. Study the four different positions of a cube given below with numbers from 1 to 6 marked on its faces.
Find out which number is contained on the face opposite to the face containing 3?

5 3 2 4

4 6 5 6 1 4 1 6

(A) 5 (B) 4
(C) 2 (D) 6

30. In the question below two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to consider the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts and decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given
statements.

Statements: All stones are tents.

All stones are walls.
Conclusions: I. Some walls are stones.
II. Some walls are tents.

Give answer:
(A) if only conclusion I follows (B) if only conclusion II follows
(C) if either conclusion I or II follows (D) if both conclusions I and II follow
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Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – II

Section – II
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 31 to 39. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

31. Atmospheric pressure is measured by the device called __________ .

(A) Lactometer (B) Hygrometer
(C) Barometer (D) Thermometer

32. Which of the following is equal to 1 atm pressure?

(A) pressure exerted by a water column of length 760 mm.
(B) pressure exerted by a bromine column of length 760 mm.
(C) pressure exerted by an alcohol column of length 760 mm.
(D) pressure exerted by a mercury column of length 76 cm.

33. What is the minimum time period between two different sounds, so that our ears can distinguish
between them?
1 1
(A) th of a second (B) th of a second
10 15
1 1
(C) th of a second (D) th of a second
20 25

34. Unit of electric current is

(A) Ammeter (B) Volt
(C) Ampere (D) Ohm
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35. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric

(A) dispersion of light by water droplets.
(B) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices.
(C) scattering of light by dust particles.
(D) internal reflection of light by clouds.

36. Distance between the pole and the centre of curvature of a mirror is termed as
(A) focal length (B) radius of curvature
(C) image distance (D) object distance

37. The cutting edge of knives should be sharp so as to _________ .

(A) maintain constant pressure (B) increase pressure
(C) decrease pressure (D) none of these

38. What happens at an anode?

(A) Anion loses electron(s) (B) Cation gains electron(s)
(C) Anion gains electron(s) (D) Cation loses electron(s)

39. Velocity of sound is maximum in which of the following:

(A) water (B) air
(C) vacuum (D) iron
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CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 40 to 48. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

40. Which of the following can be a source for natural fibre?

(A) Nylon (B) Jute
(C) Cotton (D) Both B & C

41. Which of the following are NOT lustrous?

(A) Sulphur (B) Iodine
(C) Silver (D) Gold

42. Fossil fuels were formed from

(A) metals (B) non-metals
(C) dead remains (D) water

43. Which of the following is NOT a man made fibre?

(A) Rayon (B) Polyester
(C) Silk (D) Terylene

44. Select the electric conductors from the following.

(I) Iron (II) Phosphorus (III) Graphite
(A) I only (B) II only
(C) I & III (D) I & II

45. Which of the following is NOT a product of coal?

(A) Coke (B) Kerosene
(C) Coal tar (D) Coal gas

46. As per the 5R principle, which of the following is NOT a part of 5Rs
(A) Response (B) Reuse
(C) Reduce (D) Recycle

47. Which of the following metal reacts with cold water?

(A) Sodium (B) Iron
(C) Lead (D) Tin

48. Which of the following product of coal is used for extraction of many metals?
(A) Coal gas (B) Tar
(C) Coke (D) None of these
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MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 49 to 57. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

0.16 0.18
49. The value of  256   16  is
(A) 4 (B) 32
(C) 16 (D) 256

50. The cost price of scooter is Rs. 20, 000 and the profit percent is 12%. What is the selling price(in Rs.)
?
(A) 24000 (B) 22040
(C) 26000 (D) 22400
P
C
51. In the given figure, ABCD is a parallelogram. BP and D
CQ are bisectors of B and C respectively. If OQA O
= 130o then A = ?
(A) 100o
(B) 80o o
130
(C) 120o
(D) 150o A B
Q

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D C

E
52. ABCD is a square with E inside it. If ABE is an
equilateral triangle, then BEC =
(A) 70o (B) 75o
(C) 80o (D) 85o

A B
2
53. Simplify : 1  3
8
2 9
1 
3 2
1
3
7 15
(A) (B)
3 11
15 11
(C) (D)
13 13

54. The smallest number added to 680621 to make the sum a perfect square is:
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 5 (D) None of these

55. The mean of 13 observations is 14. If the mean of the first 7 observations is 12 and that of the last 7
observations is 16, then find the 7th observation.
(A) 12 (B) 14
(C) 16 (D) 18

56. If ‘a’ is additive identity and ‘m’ is multiplicative identity for set of integers then am  ma  ?
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3

57.  x y  2xy  x  2   xy  1  ?
2

(A) xy  1 (B) x  2
(C) xy  x (D) x  1
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BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 58 to 66. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

58. Farmers in North India grow legumes as fodder in one season and wheat in other season. This
process of growing different crop alternatively is called __________.
(A) Ploughing (B) Tillage
(C) Crop rotation (D) Biomagnification

59. Which of the following is NOT a way to remove weeds from field?
(A) 2, 4-D sprayed in field (B) Tilling before sowing of crops
(C) Manual uprooting of weeds by khurpi (D) Adding nitrogen and phosphorus to soil

60. Which of the following statement about Biosphere Reserves is true?

(A) Areas of land which have been deserted due to excessive droughts
(B) Areas where animals are kept in captivity
(C) Large areas of protected land for conservation of wildlife, plants, animals and traditional life of
tribes of that area
(D) None of the above

61. Which of the following correctly defines a species?

(A) Group of families sharing a common social ideology
(B) Group of population capable of interbreeding
(C) Group of individuals that live in same habitat
(D) Group of individuals that have same mode of nutrition
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62. Identify the Microorganism shown below:–

(A) Amoeba (B) Paramecium

(C) Bread mould (D) Virus

63. Which of the following chemicals are used to stain onion cells while preparing its slide under
microscope?
(A) Distilled water (B) Glycerin
(C) Methylene blue (D) Any paint colour

64. Which of the following correctly defines the Red Data Book?
(A) Keeps records of all endangered animals and not plants
(B) Keeps records of all endangered animals and plants species
(C) It keeps records of area wise poaching activities
(D) It keeps records of migratory birds of India

65. Recently group of environmentalist began to plant trees in a patch of land previously forested in
Mumbai. This process is called as __________.
(A) Deforestation (B) Afforestation
(C) Rejuvenation (D) Reforestation

66. Which of the following microorganism cannot be classified under group fungi?
(A) Chlamydomonas (B) Penicillium
(C) Aspergillus (D) Bread mould
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Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – III

Section – III
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 67 to 78. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

67. What is the measuring unit of intensity of sound?

(A) watt/m2 (B) Hertz
(C) meter square (D) none of these

68. Two blocks of mass 3 kg and 2 kg are held by massless ropes

as shown in the figure. The tension at point P is (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 30 N 2 kg
(B) 20 N
(C) 50 N P
(D) zero
3 kg

69. If 3600 waves are passing through a point in the medium in 2 minutes and wave travels in this
medium with speed 760 m/s, then find its wavelength:
(A) 13.8 m (B) 25.3 m
(C) 41.5 m (D) 57.2 m

70. A wire has resistance R. It is broken into two equal parts and these two parts are joined in parallel.
The effective resistance is _________.
(A) R/2 (B) R/4
(C) 2 R (D) 4 R

71. Which of the following is correct about the nature of the image formed by the concave mirror when
the object is placed at its centre of curvature?
(A) virtual, erect and of same size as object.
(B) virtual, erect and larger than object.
(C) real, inverted and of diminished size than object.
(D) real, inverted and of same size as object.
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M
A
72. Find the value of  in the given figure, if angle of incidence
is 33°.
(A) 43° O
(B) 42°

(C) 47°
(D) 57°
B N

73. A liquid has density 1.8 g/cc. 40 cc of it is mixed with 30 cc of water. What will be the density of
mixture solution?
(A) 13.125 g/cc (B) 1.3125 g/cc
(C) 1.11 g/cc (D) 1.457 g/cc

74. A wire of resistivity  is stretched to three times its length. If its initial resistance is R, then, what will
be its final resistance?
1 1
(A) R (B) R
3 6
(C) 9R (D) 3R

75. The distance between a compression and its consecutive rarefaction is 0.6 m. What will be the
wavelength of the wave?
(A) 0.6 m (B) 1.2 m
(C) 2.4 m (D) 0.3 m

76. A wooden block of weight 100 N is placed on a table. The force exerted by the surface of the table on
the block will be __________ .
(A) zero (B) 10 N
(C) 50 N (D) 100 N

77. A man of height 1.6 m wishes to see his full image in a plane mirror. The minimum height of the
mirror needed for this purpose is
(A) 3.2 m (B) 1.6 m
(C) 0.8 m (D) 2.4 m

78. Number of electrons in 10 C of charge is

(A) 6.25 × 1024 (B) 6.25 × 1019
(C) 6 × 1025 (D) 6 × 1019
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CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 79 to 90. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

79. Select biodegradable from the given options

(I) Paper (II) Plastic bags (III) Aluminium (IV) Cotton clothes
(A) I only (B) II & III
(C) I & IV (D) III & I

80. Which of the following can be cut with a knife?

(A) Aluminium (B) Lead
(C) Potassium (D) None of these

81. Which of the following is/are made from polyester?

(A) Polywool (B) Terrycot
(C) Polycot (D) All of these

82. Which of the following is used as a fuel for heavy motor vehicles?
(A) LPG (B) Diesel
(C) Petrol (D) Bitumen

83. Select the properties possess by synthetic fibre.

(I) They are durable (II) They dry quickly
(III)They all are biodegradable (IV) They are readily available
(A) I & II (B) II & III
(C) I, II & IV (D) I, II & III

84. The property of metal by which it can be drawn into wires is called
(A) Maleability (B) Ductility
(C) Sonority (D) Electrolity

85. Which of the following synthetic fibres appears to resemble wool?

(A) Acrylic (B) Nylon
(C) Rayon (D) Terrycot
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86. Which of the following is less polluting as compared to conventional fuels?

(A) CNG (B) Petrol
(C) Kerosene (D) Diesel

87. Which of the following can produce basic oxide?

(A) P (B) N
(C) S (D) Ca

88. Product of petroleum used for road surfacing is ________

(A) Kerosene (B) Bitumen
(C) Coal gas (D) Coke

89. Purest form of carbon among the following given below.

(A) Bituminous coal (B) Coke
(C) Coal tar (D) Peat coal

90. Which of the following solutions can be placed in iron container?

(A) CuSO4 (B) AlCl3
(C) PbSO4 (D) AgNO3
Space for Rough Work

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FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-20

MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 91 to 102. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

91. If 5n  200 then 5n  2  ?

(A) 10 (B) 10 2
(C) 5 2 (D) 2 2

92. Sixteen years hence, a man’s age will be 9 times his age 16 years ago. Find his age 10 years hence.
(A) 28 years (B) 30 years
(C) 32 years (D) 36 years

93. What is the median of the following data?

30, 91, 64, 42, 80, 30, 5, 117, 71
(A) 30 (B) 71
(C) 42 (D) 64

94. Four – fifth of a number is 10 more than two – third of the number. What is three – fifth of that
number?
(A) 90 (B) 75
(C) 60 (D) 45

95. If A  3x 4  5x 2  1, B  2x 2  4x  7, C  x 4  3x3  2x , then the value of A + B – C is

(A) 2x 4  3x 3  3x 2  6x  6 (B) 3x 4  3x 3  2x 2  2x  6
(C) 3x 4  3x 3  2x 2  6x  6 (D) 2x 4  3x 3  3x 2  6x  6
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96. The denominator of a fraction is greater than the numerator by 8. If the numerator is increased by 17
and denominator is decreased by 1, the number obtained is 3/2, find the original fraction.
1 13
(A) (B)
9 21
17 7
(C) (D)
25 15

97. The smallest number that should be multiplied to 3087 to make it a perfect cube is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 15

98. The ratio of the number of teachers to the number of students is 1 : 25. If 36 more students join, the
ratio becomes 1 : 28. The number of teachers in the school is
(A) 24 (B) 36
(C) 12 (D) None of these

Directions (99 – 100) : Various expenditures incurred by a publishing company for publishing a book in 2019
are given below. Study the chart and answer the questions.

Royalty
15%
Printing
20%
Transport
10%

Promotion Paper cost

10% 15%

Binding
30%

99. Price of a book is 20% above cost price. If it’s marked price is Rs. 180, then the cost of paper for a
single copy (Rs) is
(A) 44.25 (B) 36
(C) 22.50 (D) 42
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FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-22

100. Royalty of a book is less than the printing cost by

(A) 25% (B) 5%
1
(C) 33 % (D) 20%
3

101. Each member of a picnic party contributed twice as many rupees as the total number of members
and the total collection was Rs. 3042. The number of members present in the party was
(A) 2 (B) 32
(C) 40 (D) 39

3
102. The value of 21  59  16  3 722  49 is
(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 7 (D) None of these
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 FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-23

BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 103 to 114. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

103. Which of the following element is abundant in the atmosphere yet not directly taken up by plants and
animals?
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Oxygen
(C) Nitrogen (D) None

104. Which of the following is a carrier of dengue fever?

(A) Female Anopheles (B) Virus
(C) Aedes mosquito (D) Housefly

105. Which of the following group does not belong to Kharif crops?
(A) Paddy, maize, groundnut (B) Wheat, mustard, linseed
(C) Groundnut, cotton (D) Groundnut, paddy, soyabean

106. Ramesh took 3 jars A, B and C. To Jar A little amount of soil along with cow dung was added, to Jar
B soil mixed with Ammonium sulphate was added, while in Jar C soil with Penicillium added.
Following this, Ramesh sows gram seedlings to each Jar and provides jars with proper temperature
and sunlight. In which of the following Jars fertilizers were added?
(A) Jar A (B) Jar B
(C) Jar C (D) None of the above

107. Where is Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve located in India?

(A) Rajasthan (B) Karnataka
(C) Ladakh (D) Madhya Pradesh

108. An ecosystem comprises of:–

(i) Plants only
(ii) Microorganisms and soil fauna only
(iii) Non-living components like air, water, etc.
(iv) Animals only

(A) (i) & (iii) (B) (i), (ii) & (iv)

(C) only (ii) (D) (i) (ii), (iii )& (iv)
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FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-24

109. Which of the following cells have spindle shape?

(A) RBC (B) Nerve cell
(C) Paramecium (D) Smooth muscle cell

110. Agent [X] is said to be unit of inheritance in living beings. It controls transfer of heredity characteristics
from parents to offsprings. Agent [X] is carried on chromosomes. Identify [X].
(A) Nucleolus (B) Karyon
(C) Gene (D) Protoplasm

111. Which of the following is a prokaryotic cell?

(A) Bacteria (B) Tradescantia leaf cells
(C) Cheek cell of human (D) Fungal cells

112. Which of the following steps are done just after crop maturation?
(A) Weeding and irrigation (B) Ploughing and manuring
(C) Sowing and adding fertilizers (D) Harvesting and threshing

113. Which of the following is a mismatched pair?

(A) Separate seeds from chaff – Threshing
(B) Remove weeds – Rodenticide
(C) Sowing seeds – Seed drills
(D) Traditional way of irrigation – Moat

114. Which of the following cell organelles store green pigment for photosynthesis?
(A) Nucleus (B) Lysosomes
(C) Plastids (D) Vacuoles
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 FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-25

(FTRE – 2019)

CLASS - VIII
ANSWERS - PAPER-1
1. A 2. D 3. C 4. B
5. B 6. B 7. D 8. A
9. B 10. B 11. C 12. D
13. D 14. B 15. C 16. C
17. B 18. B 19. B 20. C
21. B 22. A 23. D 24. B
25. B 26. A 27. A 28. A
29. B 30. D 31. C 32. D
33. A 34. C 35. B 36. B
37. B 38. A 39. D 40. D
41. A 42. C 43. C 44. C
45. B 46. A 47. A 48. C
49. A 50. D 51. A 52. B
53. C 54. A 55. B 56. B
57. B 58. C 59. D 60. C
61. B 62. B 63. C 64. B
65. D 66. A 67. A 68. A
69. B 70. B 71. D 72. D
73. D 74. C 75. B 76. D
77. C 78. B 79. C 80. C
81. D 82. B 83. C 84. B
85. A 86. A 87. D 88. B
89. B 90. B 91. D 92. B
93. D 94. D 95. A 96. B
97. B 98. C 99. C 100. A
101. D 102. B 103. C 104. C
105. B 106. B 107. D 108. D
109. D 110. C 111. A 112. D
113. B 114. C
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FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-26

fIITJEE Talent Reward Exam - 2019

for students presently in
Class 8
Paper 2
th
(29 December 2019)
Time: 3 Hours (1:45 pm – 4:45 pm) Maximum Marks: 240
Code 8008
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.

1. You are advised to devote 30 Minutes on Section-I, 50 Minutes on Section-II, 50

Minutes on Section-III and 50 Minutes on Section-IV.
2. This Question paper consists of 4 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each question
Section Subject Question no. correct answer wrong answer
PHYSICS (PART-A) 1 to 6 +1 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 7 to 12 +1 0
SECTION – I MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 13 to 18 +1 0
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 19 to 24 +1 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 25 to 32 +3 –1
SECTION – II CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 33 to 40 +3 –1
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 41 to 48 +3 –1
PHYSICS (PART-A) 49 to 54 +3 –1
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 55 to 60 +3 –1
SECTION – III MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 61 to 66 +3 –1
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 67 to 72 +3 –1
PHYSICS (PART-A) 73 to 77 +3 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 78 to 82 +3 0
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 83 to 87 +3 0
SECTION – IV PHYSICS (PART-D) 88 to 90 +3 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-E) 91 to 93 +3 0
MATHEMATICS (PART-F) 94 to 96 +3 0
3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough
work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.
6. See method of marking of bubbles at the back of cover page for question no. 88 to 96.

Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 96 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.

OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________

Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________

Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________

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 FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-27

For questions 88 to 96
Numerical based questions single digit answer 0 to 9

Example 1:
If answer is 6.
Correct method:

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Example 2:
If answer is 2.
Correct method:

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

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FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-28
Recommended Time: 30
Minutes for Section – I
Section – I
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 6. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A source is producing 20 waves in 4 seconds. The distance between a crest and the adjacent trough
is 10 cm. Find the velocity of the wave?
(A) 1 cm/sec (B) 1.5 m/sec
(C) 1 m/sec (D) 20 cm/sec

2. If the speed of light in medium-I and medium-II is 2.5 × 108 m/s and 2 × 108 m/s respectively then the
refractive index of medium-I with respect to medium-II is
3 2
(A) (B)
2.5 2.5
2.5 2.5
(C) (D)
3 2

3. A boy walks towards a plane mirror at a speed of 2.5 m/s. At what speed is his image approaching
him?
(A) 2 m/s (B) 3 m/s
(C) 2.5 m/s (D) 5 m/s

I = 0.02 A

4. The reading of an ideal voltmeter (V) connected across the

200 
resistance R in the circuit, as shown is 6V
(A) 3 V
(B) 2 V
(C) 4 V
(D) 1 V R V

5. The method of charging an object by touching it with a charged object is called ________
(A) induction (B) conduction
(C) friction (D) diffusion

6. A player takes 0.1 sec in catching a ball of mass 100 g moving with a velocity of 20 m/s. The force
imparted by the ball on the hands of the player is:
(A) 0.2 N (B) 20 N
(C) 2 N (D) 200 N
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 FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-29

CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 7 to 12. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

7. Which of the following is used to make non-stick cookwares?

(A) Polyester (B) Nylon
(C) Teflon (D) Melamine

8. Metal which is solid at 1oC but liquid at 40oC?

(A) Mercury (B) Lithium
(C) Gallium (D) Molybdenum

9. Which of the following has/have free state carbon?

(A) Graphite (B) Limestone
(C) Coke (D) Both A & C

10. Which of the following is/are electric conductor?

(A) Plastic (B) Polyethene
(C) Thermoplastics (D) None of these

11. The slow destruction of metal by chemical action of environment is known as

(A) melting (B) reduction
(C) corrosion (D) smelting

12. Which of the following fuel is found accumulated in petroleum wells?

(A) Biogas (B) Natural gas
(C) Petroleum gas (D) Water gas
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FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-30

MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 13 to 18. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

13. ABCD is a parallelogram, M is the mid – point of BD and BM bisects B, then AMB 
(A) 45o (B) 60o
(C) 90 o (D) 75 o

14. If the mean of x, x + 2, x + 4, x + 6 and x + 8 is 11, then x = ?

(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 6 (D) 9

1 1 1 1 1
15. Simplify:     ...... 
100  99 99  98 98  97 97  96 2 1
(A) 0 (B) 9
(C) 10 (D) 11

16. Simplify 6.25  7.32  9.02

2137 2237
(A) (B)
99 99
2037
(C) (D) None of these
99

 1   2   3   n 
17. Find the sum of  1    1    1    .........  1  
 n  1   n  1   n  1  n  1
1
(A) n (B) n
2
1
(C)  n  1 (D)  n  1
2
D
y C
18. Sides BA and DC of a quadrilateral ABCD are
produced as shown in figure, then a + b is equal to:
a
(A) x  y
(B) x  y
(C) x  2y
b x
(D) None of these
B
A

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 FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-31

BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 19 to 24. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

19. ________ is a group of similar cells performing specific roles.

(A) Multicellularity (B) Tissue
(C) Organs (D) Pseudopodia

20. Most important function of cell membrane is:-

(A) Controls entry and exit of materials from cell
(B) Controls only entry of material into cell
(C) Controls only exit of material from cell
(D) Allows everything to enter cell without any control

21. Sodium metabisulphite is a:–

(A) Weedicide (B) Fertilizer
(C) Pesticide (D) Preservative

22. Which of the following disease in plant is caused by a Bacteria and Transmitted by air?
(A) Yellow vein mosaic virus of bhindi (B) Typhoid
(C) Citrus canker (D) Rust of wheat

23. Antibiotics are prescribed by doctor to treat disease caused by:–

(A) Bacteria (B) Virus
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

24. How many organisms can be considered as fauna from below group?
[Cat, Banyan tree, Cactus, Whale]
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 1
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FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-32

Recommended Time: 50 Minutes for Section – II

Section – II
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions number 25 to 32. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

25. A concave mirror produces three times magnified real image of an object placed at 10 cm in front of
it. The image is located:
(A) 30 cm behind the mirror. (B) 30 cm in front of mirror.
(C) 15 cm in front of mirror. (D) 45 cm in front of mirror.

26. A body vibrating with a time period of 2 milliseconds produces a wave travelling in a medium with a
velocity of 1250 m/s. What is its wavelength?
(A) 2500 m (B) 2.5 m
(C) 25 m (D) 250 m

27. Calculate the equivalent resistance between points A and B as

shown in figure 10 
10 
(A) 35  (B) 25  10 

95 85 A
10 
(C)  (D)  10 
3 3
B
10  10 

28. A wave of frequency 1000 Hz travels between X and Y with speed of 300 m/s. How many
wavelengths are there between X and Y, if the distance between X and Y is 300 m.
(A) 3.3 (B) 300
(C) 1000 (D) 2000
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29. In the given figure if coefficient of friction between block and surface is
0.2 then find acceleration produced by the resultant force acting on
the block (take g = 10 m/s2) 5 kg
15 N
(A) 3 m/s2 (B) 2 m/s2
2
(C) 1 m/s (D) 0.5 m/s2

1 3
30. Two blocks A and B float in water. If A floats with of its volume immersed and B floats with of its
4 5
volume immersed, then the ratio of their densities is
5 7
(A) (B)
12 12
9 11
(C) (D)
12 12

31. In which of the following situation friction is disadvantageous?

(A) Walking on a road (B) Riding a car
(C) Sliding a box (D) All of these

32. When a person walks on the ground, the force of friction exerted by ground on him is in
(A) forward direction (B) backwards direction
(C) first forward and then backwards (D) zero
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FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-34

CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions number 33 to 40. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

33. Use of plastic should be avoided because

(i) It takes several years to decompose
(ii) it is not available in good colours
(iii) it causes environmental pollution
(A) i & iii (B) ii & iii
(C) i & ii (D) ii only

34. Which of the following element has two oxides?

(A) H (B) C
(C) Ca (D) Mg

35. Which of the following is NOT a fossil fuel?

(A) Coal (B) Petrol
(C) Diesel (D) Wood

36. Which of the following fibre is considered to be first fully synthetic fibre?
(A) Cotton (B) Rayon
(C) Nylon (D) Terrycot

37. Which of the following metals is NOT corroded by air?

(A) Calcium (B) Potassium
(C) Aluminium (D) Iron

38. Naphthalene balls can be obtained from which of the following things
(A) Coal tar (B) Coke
(C) Charcoal (D) Biogas

39. Polyester is not _________

(A) easy to wash (B) suitable for making dress
(C) biodegradable (D) remains crisp

40. By which of the following methods corrosion of metals can be prevented?

(A) Electroplating (B) Calcination
(C) Roasting (D) None of these
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 FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-35

MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions number 41 to 48. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

41. The difference between the compound interest (compounded annually) and the simple interest on a
sum of Rs. 1000 at a certain rate of interest for 2 years is Rs. 10. The rate of interest per annum is:
(A) 5% (B) 6%
(C) 10% (D) 12%

3
42. If k  1  10  281  3 512 then k 3  3k 2  2k  1  ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

1
43. If y   1, then the value of y 3 is
y
(A) 2 (B) 1
(C) –1 (D) 0

44.      
If a  22  23 , b  2 3  24 and c  2 4  22 , then find the value of a3  b3  c 3 .
9 9
(A) (B)
1024 2048
(C) 0 (D) 1
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FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-36

a1 a 1
45.  ?
a 1  b 1 a 1  b 1
b2 b2
(A) 2 (B)
b  a2 b 2  a2
2b2 2b 2
(C) 2 (D) 2
b  a2 b  a2

46. If (a)x = b, (b)y = c, (c)z = a then xyz =

(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) x + y + z (D) abc

47. In the given figure, ABCD is a rectangle, AQ is one – third of A Q B

AB and P is the mid point of AD. If the area of AQCP is 25
cm2, then what is the area of ABCD?
(A) 50 cm2 (B) 60 cm2
2
(C) 80 cm (D) 72 cm2 P

D C

48. The salary of a person is increased by 20%. By what percent should the new salary be reduced to
make it equal to the original salary?
2
(A) 16 % (B) 20%
3
1
(C) 33 % (D) 25%
3
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 FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-37

Recommended Time: 50 Minutes for Section – III

Section – III
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 49 to 54. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

49. A 12 N horizontal force is applied to a 4kg block on a rough horizontal surface. The block is initially at
rest if s = 0.5 and k = 0.4, the friction force on the block is:
(A) 18 N (B) 12 N
(C) 20 N (D) 13 N

50. If the refractive index of air w.r.t. glass is 2/3 and that of diamond w.r.t. air is 12/5, then the refractive
index of glass w.r.t. diamond will be:
(A) 5/8 (B) 8/9
(C) 5/18 (D) 18/5

51. The velocity time graph of a ball moving along a straight 30

line on a long table is given in figure. Find the 25

Velocity (m/s)
magnitude of retarding force applied by surface of table 20
on the ball to bring it to rest if mass of ball is 32 kg 15
(A) 50 N 10
(B) 25 N 5
(C) 100 N
(D) none of these A 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18
Time (in Second)

52. The speed of sound in air and sea water are given to be 340 m/s and 1440 m/s respectively. A ship
sends a strong signal straight downwards and detects its echo after 1.5 second. What will be the
depth of sea at that point?
(A) 2.16 km (B) 1.08 km
(C) 0.51 km (D) 0.255 km

53. A lamp rated 220 V, 100 W is connected to 110 V supply. Then its power reduces to
(A) 25 W (B) 50 W
(C) 75 W (D) remains same

54. The bob of a pendulum is replaced by another bob of double its mass. Find the new time period. If
initial time period is T
(A) T 2 (B) 2T
T
(C) (D) T
2
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FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-38

CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 55 to 60. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

55. Which of the following is an alkali?

(A) Cu(OH)2 (B) KOH
(C) Fe(OH)3 (D) B(OH)3

56. All synthetic fibres are prepared by using ________ as raw materials.
(A) petrochemicals (B) metals
(C) salts (D) acids

57. Which of the following oxide is acidic?

(A) CO (B) CaO
(C) P4O10 (D) H2O

58. Fossil fuels among the following are

(I) Coal (II) Gasoline
(III) Kerosene (IV) Diesel
(A) I, II & III (B) II & IV
(C) II, III (D) I, II, III & IV

59. Which of the following is NOT plastics?

(A) Bakelite (B) Rayon
(C) Melamine (D) Polythene

60. Which of the following gas is used for domestic cooking?

(A) Petroleum gas (B) Natural gas
(C) Asphalt (D) Gasoline
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 FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-39

MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 61 to 66. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

61. A sum of money lent at simple interest doubles itself in 12 years. In how many years would it become
three time of itself?
(A) 36 years (B) 18 years
(C) 24 years (D) 15 years

62. If a is a positive integer such that am .an  amn , then m(n – 2) + n (m – 2) is

(A) 0 (B) 1
1
(C) –1 (D)
2

63. In the adjoining figure ABCD is a parallelogram and X, Y D Y C

are mid – points of side AB and DC respectively. Then the 110
o o
x
measure of x is:
(A) 10o O
(B) 15o
(C) 25o
(D) Can’t be determined 60o
A B
X

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x1/3  y1/3
64. ?
x1/6  y1/6
1 1
1/3  
(A) x  y1/3 (B) x 6
y 6

1 1 1 1
 
(C) x 6  y 6 (D) x 3
y 3

65. In a quarterly examination, a student scored 30% marks and failed by 12 marks. In the same
examination another student scored 40% marks and got 28 marks more than base minimum marks to
pass. The maximum marks are :
(A) 380 (B) 400
(C) 300 (D) 550

66. In the given figure, ABCD is a square with side length 10 A B

cm. Triangles APB, BQC, CRD and DSA are congruent right Q
angled triangles. If CR = 6 cm then find area of quadrilateral
PQRS P
(A) 2 cm2 (B) 8 cm2
2
(C) 4 cm (D) 16 cm2
R

D C
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 FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-41

BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 67 to 72. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

67. Scientist while analyzing an unknown slide [X] under microscope, wrote down all its properties in
tabular chart given below. [ indicates presence;  indicates absence]

Parts of Cell Slide [X]

1. Cell membrane 
2. Nucleus 
3. Nuclear membrane 
4. Vacuoles  (very large in size)
5. Plastids 
On basis of above information which type of cell is present on slide [X]?
(A) Blue green algae (B) Onion cells
(C) Human cheek cells (D) Mouse muscle cell

68. Which of the following options correctly identifies P, Q, R, S?

Human disease caused by micro-organisms

Name of disease : [P] Typhoid Malaria [S]

Causative Agent : Virus Bacteria [R] Virus

Mode of
Transmission : Air [Q] Mosquito Water

(A) P  Tuberculosis; Q  Air; R  Bacteria; S  Cholera

(B) P  Measles; Q Water; R  Protozoa; S  Hepatitis
(C) P  Dengue; Q  Mosquito; R  Virus; S  Anthrax
(D) P  Anthrax; Q  Contact; R  Fungi; S  Rust of wheat
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69. Read the paragraph below:

One of the modern irrigation methods makes use of rotating nozzles attached to main pipeline at
regular intervals. Water under pressure escapes nozzles and spreads water on uneven land.
Which method of irrigation has been described above?
(A) Drip irrigation (B) Rahat
(C) Sprinkler (D) Surface Irrigation

70. Which of the following is the consequence of deforestation?

(A) Infiltration rate that is movement of water from surface into ground reduces
(B) Infiltration rate that is movement of water from surface into ground increases
(C) No change in infiltration rate of water
(D) Texture, nutrient content of soil remain unchanged

71. Packet milks do not get spoilt easily because they are pasteurized. Which of the following correctly
describes procedure for pasteurization?
(A) Milk is chilled at 4OC and then warmed at 30OC to kill microbes
(B) Sugar is added to milk which act as preservative
(C) Milk is heated at 35OC for 20 min and then kept at room temperature
(D) Milk is heated at 70OC for 15-30 second and then suddenly chilled and stored

72. Rajesh took 500 mL beaker and fills it half with H2O. Then he dissolved 2-3 spoons sugar and yeast
powder to it and warms it for few hours. Smell of the solution was strange. Which of the following
options correctly defines observation for above steps conducted by Rajesh.
(A) Solution smells like ripe fruits as sugars in presence of yeast converted to fruit sugars
(B) Solution smells like vinegar as sugars in presence of yeast converted to acetic acid
(C) Solution smells like alcohol as sugars in presence of yeast converted to alcohol
(D) Sugar just turns milky and smells foul
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 FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-43

Recommended Time: 50 Minutes for Section – IV

Section – IV
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 5 Multiple Choice Questions number 73 to 77. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

73. Two wires of different materials with specific resistance ratio 3 : 2, length ratio 4 : 3 and ratio of cross-
sectional area 5 : 4 respectively. The ratio of their resistance is
3 8
(A) (B)
8 5
5 4
(C) (D)
4 5

74. During the motion of a lift, apparent weight of a body becomes twice its actual weight when
(A) lift is moving down with acceleration = g
(B) lift is moving up with acceleration = g
(C) lift is moving down with uniform velocity = 9.8 ms1
(D) lift is moving up with uniform velocity = 9.8 ms1

75. A hollow spherical body of inner and outer radii 6 cm and 8 cm respectively floats half submerged in
water. Find the density of the material of the sphere.
(A) 865 kg/m3 (B) 900 kg/m3
3
(C) 700 kg/m (D) 750 kg/m3

76. A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of incidence 300 the deviation produced by the
mirror is:
(A) 30° (B) 60°
(C) 90° (D) 120°

77. When forces F1, F2, F3 are acting on a particle of mass m such that F2 and F3 are mutually
perpendicular, then the particle remains stationary, if the force F1 is now removed, then the
acceleration of the particle is :
F1 F2F3
(A) (B)
m mF1

(C)
F2  F3  (D)
F2
m m
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FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-44

CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 5 Multiple Choice Questions number 78 to 82. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

78. Bakelite is a __________ polymer.

(A) thermoplastic (B) fibre
(C) thermosetting (D) natural

79. Ore required for extraction of iron________

(A) Haemetite (B) Bauxite
(C) Galena (D) Cinnabar

80. Monomers for terylene is/are

(A) terephthalic acid (B) ethylene glycol
(C) terephthalic acid & formaldehyde (D) ethylene glycol & terephthalic acid

81. Formula of Blue vitriol is

(A) CuSO4.5H2O (B) CaCO3
(C) FeSO4.H2O (D) CaSO4.2H2O

82. The principle method used for the separation of various constituents of petroleum is ______
(A) distillation (B) separating funnel
(C) Crystallization (D) Fractional distillation
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 FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-45

MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 5 Multiple Choice Questions number 83 to 87. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

83. If 3 x  3 x 1  6 , then xx is equal to

(A) 1 (B) 4
(C) 27 (D) none of these

84. If ‘a’ is least number of 4 digits which is perfect square and ‘b’ is the greatest number of 5 digits which
is perfect square, then b – a = ?
(A) 98328 (B) 98832
(C) 98238 (D) 98823

4 4 2 2
85. Which of the following is factor of : x  y  x y
(A) x 2  y 2  xy (B) x 2  y 2
(C) x 2  y 2  2xy (D) x 2  y 2  3xy

86. In a trapezium the parallel sides are 60 cm & 90 cm and non – parallel sides are 40 cm. and 50 cm.
respectively. The area of the trapezium will be
(A) 3000 cm2 (B) 3050 cm2
2
(C) 3100 cm (D) 3200 cm2

1 1
87. If y   3, then the value of y 5  5 is
y y
(A) 123 (B) 124
(C) 125 (D) 126
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FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-46

PHYSICS – (PART – D)
This part contains 3 Numerical Based Questions number 88 to 90. Each question has Single
Digit Answer 0 to 9.

88. A ball of mass 200 g and another ball of mass 300 g move towards each other with speeds 12 m/s
and 3 m/s respectively. If they stick to each other after colliding, what would be the magnitude of
velocity (in m/s) of the combined mass after the collision?

89. A sound wave of frequency 5000 Hz travels in air with speed of 350 m/s. Calculate the wavelength of
sound wave in cm.

90. A 60 W bulb carries a current of 0.5 A. If the total charge passing through it is n × 600 C in
1 hr. Find the value of ‘n’.
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 FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-47

CHEMISTRY – (PART – E)
This part contains 3 Numerical Based Questions number 91 to 93. Each question has Single
Digit Answer 0 to 9.

91. Number of linear polymers from the list given below

Polyethene, teflon, bakelite, melamine, PVC, orlon, vulcanized rubber

92. Number of basic oxides in the given oxides

K2O, N2O, H2O, CaO, MgO, P4O10, CuO & Fe2O3

93. How many of the following are inexhaustible natural resources

Wind, wave & tidal, solar, petroleum, wild life, forest, minerals & coal
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FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-48

MATHEMATICS – (PART – F)
This part contains 3 Numerical Based Questions number 94 to 96. Each question has Single
Digit Answer 0 to 9.

1 1/ 2
 
94.


If  1  1   1  x 2 
1
 

 4 , then find the value of x

95. If x 2  2y  13, y 2  4z  14, z 2  6x  15, then find the value of xy  xz  6yz

1
96. If 1 is added to the denominator of a fraction it becomes . If 1 is added to the numerator it becomes
2
1. The product of numerator and denominator of the original fraction is:
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 FTRE-2019-C-VIII (Paper-1 & 2)-S&M-49

(FTRE – 2019)

CLASS - VIII
ANSWERS
PAPER-2
1. C 2. B 3. D 4. B
5. B 6. B 7. C 8. C
9. D 10. D 11. C 12. B
13. C 14. B 15. D 16. B
17. B 18. B 19. B 20. A
21. D 22. C 23. A 24. A
25. B 26. B 27. C 28. C
29. C 30. A 31. C 32. A
33. A 34. B 35. D 36. C
37. C 38. A 39. C 40. A
41. C 42. A 43. C 44. B
45. D 46. B 47. B 48. A
49. B 50. A 51. A 52. B
53. A 54. D 55. B 56. A
57. C 58. D 59. B 60. A
61. C 62. A 63. A 64. C
65. B 66. C 67. B 68. B
69. C 70. A 71. D 72. C
73. B 74. B 75. A 76. D
77. A 78. C 79. A 80. D
81. A 82. D 83. B 84. B
85. D 86. A 87. A 88. 3
89. 7 90. 3 91. 4 92. 5
93. 3 94. 4 95. 3 96. 6

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