SOIL SCIENCE

Section 1. Soil Development 9. It is the decomposition of rocks and minerals forming new products or the synthesis of new
minerals.
1. It is a natural dynamic body on the surface of the earth which supports plants and animals a. Physical weathering b. Chemical weathering
a. soil b. Land c. Exfoliation d. Abrasion
c. Minerals d. Air
10. It is a weathering process where water is the principal agent dissolving potash feldspar
2. It is primarily derived from plants and animal residues composed of at least 12% organic carbon producing aluminosolicates or the precursors of clays.
if the soil has no clay or at least 18% organic carbon if the soil has 60% or more clay. a. Physical weathering b. Chemical weathering
a. Organic soil b. Minerals c. hydrolysis d. hydration
c. Pore spaces d. Soil water
11. These are rocks formed from the cooling and solidification of magma and that has not been
3. It is derived from weathering of rocks and minerals and has definite composition and properties. changed appreciably since its formation.
a. Organic matter b. Inorganic soil a. Igneous b. Sedimentary
c. Pore spaces d. Air c. Metamorphic d. Salt Rock

4. It is the component of the soil which accommodates air and water 12. These are formed from materials deposited from suspension or precipitated from solution and
a. Organic matter b. Inorganic soil usually being more or less consolidated.
c. Pore spaces d. Air a. Igneous Rock b. Sedimentary Rock
c. Metamorphic Rock d. Salt Rock
5. The soil air is composed primarily of
a. nitrogen, oxygen & carbon dioxide b. nitrogen phosphorus and potassium 13. These have been greatly altered from their previous conditions through the combined action of
c. nitrogen, calcium and magnesium d. nitrogen, oxygen and hydrogen heat and pressure.
a. Igneous Rock b. Sedimentary Rock
6. The main composition of the solid phase of inorganic matter are c. Metamorphic Rock d. Salt Rock
a. sand, silt & clay b. sand, gravel and clay
c. sand, air and water d. rocks and minerals 14. It is a metamorphic rock produced from limestone
a. Marble b. Gneiss
7. It is the mode of origin of the soil with special reference to the processes of soil forming factors c. Slate d. Gold
responsible for the development of the solum or true soil from the unconsolidated parent
material. 15. It is a metamorphic rock produced from granite
a. Soil genesis b. Soil development a. Marble b. Gneiss
c. Soil profile d. orogenesis c. Slate d. Gold

8. It is the mechanical breakdown of rocks and minerals into smaller bits or the unconsolidated 16. It is a metamorphic rock produced from shale.
materials. a. Marble b. Gneiss
a. Physical weathering b. Chemical weathering c. Slate d. Gold
c. Exfoliation d. Abrasion

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17. It is the vertical section of the soil exposing a set of horizons. 25. The alluvial deposits that is part of a river valley that is inundated during floods is
a. Soil b. Solum a. floodplain b. alluvial
c. Regolith d. Soil Profile c. deltas d. lacustrine

18. It means the true soil or the A, E & B horizons of the soil profile 26. The alluvial deposits that leave a narrow valley in an upland area and suddenly descend to a
a. Soil b. Solum much broader valley below deposit sediment in a shape of a fan.
c. Regolith d. Soil Profile a. alluvial fan b. alluvium
c. deltas d. lacustine
19. It represents the A,E,B and C horizons of the soil profile.
a. Soil b. Solum 27. Suspended sediments carried by streams that settle near the mouth of the river.
c. Regolith d. Soil Profile a. deltas b. floodplain
c. alluvium d. moraine
20. A process in soil genesis which includes mineral weathering or organic matter breakdown by
which soil constitutions are modified and destroyed and others are synthesized 28. It is the landform built by the deposits of alluvium in the low lying areas where streams and river
a. transformation b. translocation flow.
c. decomposition d. disintegration a. Alluvial soil b. Colluvial
c. Residual soil d. none of the above
21. A process in soil genesis where movements of inorganic and organic materials from one horizon
up or down to another, the materials being moved mostly by water but also by soil organisms is 29. Is the master horizon dominated by organic materials
called a. O b. B
a. transformation b. translocation c. C d. D
c. additions d. losses
30. Is the mineral horizon formed on the surface or below the O horizon
22. An organic deposits which contains residues that are sufficiently intact to permit the plant fibers a. O b. B
to be identified c. A d. E
a. peat b. muck
c. biotic d. bionic 31. Is the master horizon of maximum eluviation.
a. O b. B
c. C d. E
23. An organic deposit with most of the material decomposed sufficiently so that little fiber remains
a. peat b. muck 32. The horizon of maximum illuviation or accumulation.
c. biotic d. bionic a. O b. B
c. C d. E
24. It is made up of poorly sorted rock fragments detached from the heights above and carried
downslope mostly by gravity. 33. The horizon of unconsolidated material underlying the solum which often retains some of the
a. Colluvium b. Alluvium structural features of the parent rock or geologic deposits from which it formed.
c. Residuum d. Lacustrine a. O b. B
c. C d. E

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 a. Climate b. Living organisms
34. The consolidated rock, with little evidence of weathering. c. Time d. Parent material
a. O b. R
c. A d. C 43. Horizontal layers of soil differentiation.
a. Concretions b. Structure
35. The master horizons in the soil profile are designated using c. Horizons d. Hardpans
a. capital letters b. small letters
c. vowels only d. consonants only 44. A square meter of land dug to a depth that nearly touches the bedrock.
36. Because the outer surface of a rock is often warmer or colder than the inner, more protected a. Profile b. Parent material
portions, some rocks may weather causing the peeling away of outer layers and is referred to as c. Pedon d. Aquifer
a. exfoliation b. abrasion
c. hydrolysis d. carbonation 45. Mature soil have the following horizons:
a. AB b. ABC
37. When loaded with sediment, water has tremendous cutting power; the rounding or riverbed c. BC d. AC
rocks and beach sand grains is further evidence of
a. exfoliation b. abrasion 46. Young soils have the following horizons:
c. hydrolysis d. carbonation a. AB b. ABC
c. ABCD d. AC
38. This influences soil formation by their different rates of weathering, the nutrients they contain
for plant use, and particle sizes they contain. 47. The solum is composed of these horizons:
a. Parent material b. climate a. ABC b. BC
c. Biota d. Topography c. ABCR d. AB

39. It is an increasingly dominant factor in soil formation with increased time mainly because of the
effects of precipitation and temperature.
a. parent material b. climate 48. The regolith is composed of these horizons:
c. topography d. time a. AB b. BC
c. ABC d. ABCR
40. When a soil begins to undergo profile changes because of weathering and leaching, the original
material in which the changes are happening is called 49. The topsoil usually refers to this horizon.
a. parent material b. climate a. AB b. A
c. topography d. time c. B d. C

41. A set of soils where parent material is the dominant influence on soil formation is referred to as 50. Blocks of soil from each horizon pasted on a hard board.
a. lithosequence b. climosequence a. Regolith b. Monolith
c. biosequence d. topsequence c. Litolith d. Pedon

42. Bacteria belong to this factor of soil formation. Section 2. PHYSICAL PROPERTIES OF SOILS

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51. The relative distribution of soil separates in a soil mass is called soil texture
a. Sand, silt and clay are soil separates 58. Soil texture can be determined by:
b. Soil texture changes easily with poor methods of cultivation a. Feel method b. Pipette method
c. Soil texture is improved by adding organic fertilizer c. Hydrometer method d. All of the above
d. All of the above
59. The soil textural class wherein the coarseness of sand, the smoothness of silt and the stickiness
52. In a viscous medium, the rate of settling is affected by particle size and temperature of medium. of clay are manifested in almost equal proportion in a soil mass
a. At the same temperature, the rate of settling of silt particles is faster than the sand particles a. sand b. silt
b. At the same temperature, the rate of settling of silt particles is faster than the clay particles c. clay d. loam
c. The rate of settling of sand particles is faster at lower than at higher temperature
d. The rate of settling of clay particles is slower at higher than at lower temperature 60. Standard reference system for soil color
a. Soil taxonomy b. Soil map
c. Soil survey report d. Munsell color chart
53. Which of these factors does not affect the rate of fall of particles in a liquid medium
a. density of the particle b. gravity 61. Soil color description
c. size of the particle d. chemical composition a. Hue, value, chroma b. Tint, lightness, mixture
c. Shade, reflection, emission d. Intensity, capacity, ability
54. Soil texture refers to the coarseness or fineness of soil
a. Sand is coarse and gritty b. Silt is powdery and smooth 62. Describes darkness or lightness of soil color
c. Clay is sticky and plastic d. All of the above a. hue b. value
c. chroma d. intensity
55. Many soil properties and characteristics are affected by soil texture
a. Sandy soil is more porous than clay soil 63. Sign of poor drainage
b. Loamy soils are rich in silt a. Yellowish mottles b. Bluish gray mottles
c. Clay soil is chemically more reactive than sandy soil c. Reddish concretion d. Reddish orange mottles
d. Clay soils are rich in silt
64. The color of a soil indicates some chemical conditions
56. Soil texture influences property that directly affects plant growth a. Dark or black color indicates high organic matter
a. Coarse-textured soils have higher nutrient supplying capacity than fine-textured soils b. Reddish color indicates that the soil is low in oxides of iron
b. Fine-textured soils have lower water holding capacity than coarse-textured soils c. Dark or black color indicates that the portion of lowland soil is at oxidized state
c. Percolation rate is faster in coarse-textured than in fine-textured soils d. All of the above
d. Infiltration rate is slower in coarse-textured than in fine-textured soils
65. The color of a soil indicates some chemical conditions
57. The physicist who formulated the law governing the rate of settling of particles in a viscous a. Reddish color indicates that the soil is young
medium b. Reddish color indicates that the soil is high in organic matter
a. Aristotle b. Dokuchaev c. Reddish color indicates that the soil is high in oxides of iron
c. Stoke d. Ross d. All of the above

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66. Many soil properties and characteristics are affected by soil structure c. Decreasing bulk density indicates deteriorating soil physical condition
a. Crumb is the best soil structure that most crops prefer d. None of the above
b. Dispersed clay soil possess good soil structure
c. Compacted soil structure allows free movement of air in the soil 74. Particle density is a stable soil property. Most agricultural soils would have particle densities
d. Good water movement in platy soil structure close to this value
a. 1.65 g/cm3 b. 2.65 g/cm3
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67. The soil structure of compacted plow soil c. 3.65 g/cm d. 4.65 g/cm3
a. massive b. platy 75. The particle density is affected by some factors.
c. crumb d. single-grained a. Particle density does not change with poor soil cultivation practices
b. Increasing particle density indicates deteriorating soil physical condition
68. The soil structure that is normally observed in virgin soils c. Decreasing particle density indicates high soil porosity
a. Granular structure b. Prismatic structure d. None of the above
c. Platy structure d. Blocky structure
76. A soil with bulk density of 1.35 g/cm 3 and a particle density of 2.6 g/cm3 has a solid fraction of
69. Formation of soil aggregates is favored in soils with a. 44% b. 48%
a. low organic matter content b. high sand content c. 52% d. 60%
c. high organic matter content d. high exchangeable sodium content
77. A soil with bulk density of 1.35 g/cm 3 and a particle density of 2.6 g/cm3 has a porosity of
a. 44% b. 48%
c. 52% d. 60%
70. Soil densities and porosities are affected by soil texture and soil structure
a. Porosity increases with increasing bulk density 78. Void ratio is the ratio of the volume of voids or pore spaces to the volume of solids.
b. Soil compaction increases bulk density a. A void ratio of <1.0 indicates that the soil is porous
c. Soil aggregation increases bulk density b. A void ratio of >1.0 indicates that the soil is compact
d. Organic matter increases bulk density c. A void ratio of >1.0 indicates that the soil is porous
d. All of the above
71. The bulk density value of an ideal or optimal soil is
a. 1.0 g/cm3 b. 1.23 g/cm3 79. Pore-size distribution affects movement and retention of water and air in the soil
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c. 1.33 g/cm d. 1.43 g/cm3 a. Micro-pores do not retain water
72. Bulk density is affected by several factors b. Macro-pores are important in drainage and root respiration
a. Bulk density decreases with increasing organic matter content c. Micro-pores and macro-pores are equally important to root growth
b. Bulk density decreases with soil compaction d. Macro-pores retain water
c. Bulk density increases with increasing soil porosity
d. Bulk density does not change with poor soil cultivation practices

73. Bulk density is a good indicator of soil degradation 80. Desirable pore size distribution for crop production is one where\
a. Bulk density does not change with poor soil cultivation practices a. Total porosity is dominated by macro-pores
b. Increasing bulk density indicates deteriorating soil physical condition b. Total porosity is dominated by micro-pores

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 c. Total porosity is dominated by medium pores a. Saturation or maximum water holding minus permanent wilting point
d. Total porosity is comprised of more or less equal proportion of the classes of pore spaces b. Field capacity minus permanent wilting point
c. Permanent wilting point minus hygroscopic point
81. Soil grown to corn is best cultivated when the soil consistency is d. Saturation or maximum water holding minus hygroscopic coefficient
a. hard b. friable
c. plastic d. viscous 89. A soil moisture condition wherein all pore spaces in the soil are filled up with water
a. hygroscopic coefficient b. field capacity
82. Property of water which causes it to behave as if its surface were covered with a stretched elastic c. maximum water holding capacity d. wilting coefficient
membrane
a. cohesion b. polarity 90. If the soil moisture content is 35%, field capacity is 40% and permanent wilting point is 20%, the
c. surface tension d. adhesion available water in the soil is
a. 5% b. 10%
83. A method of soil water content determination that involves weighing of the soil before and after c. 15% d. 20%
oven drying.
a. paraffin method b. gravimetric method
c. resistance method d. suction method 91. If the soil moisture content is 50%, field capacity is 40% and permanent wilting point is 20%, the
available water in the soil is
84. Calculate the gravimetric moisture content of the soil sample if its fresh weight (FW) is 25 g and a. 10% b. 20%
its oven dried weight (ODW) is 20 g c. 30% d. 40%
a. 15% b. 20%
c. 25% d. 30% 92. The relationship between soil water suction and soil water content is referred to as:
a. soil water capacity b. soil water characteristic curve
85. A soil was found to contain 30% moisture (m) which corresponds to 30 g of water. The mass of c. soil water behavior d. soil water potential
the dry soil or the oven dried weight of soil is
a. 30 g b. 60 g 93. The physicist who formulated the law governing the movement of water in the soil
c. 100 g d. 130 g a. Stoke b. Dokuchaev
c. Darcy d. Aristotle
86. The soil water suction if the soil is at its field capacity is
a. 0 bar b. 1/3 bar 94. Movement of water in the soil is always from
c. 1 bar d. 15 bars a. Higher to lower soil water suction
b. Lower to higher total soil water potential
87. Plants depend on the water stored in the soil c. Higher to lower soil water tension
a. The upper limit of available water is saturated moisture content d. Lower to higher soil water suction
b. The upper limit of available water is hygroscopic coefficient
c. The upper limit of available water is field capacity 95. Available water is necessary for plant growth
d. The upper limit of available water is permanent wilting point a. Macro-pores act as the storage for available water
b. Micro-pores serve as the storage for available water
88. Available water capacity is calculated as c. Medium pores act as the storage for available water

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 d. All of the above 103. Reactivity of soil colloids is due to their:
a. High specific area b. Nature and composition
96. Soil air contains three principal gases. c. Crystallinity d. mineralogy
a. Soil air contains 78.6% O2
b. Soil air contains 20% N2 104. This clay mineral is a 2:1 expanding type:
c. CO2 content of the soil air is lesser than that of the atmospheric air a. Illite b. Montmorillonite
d. CO2 content of the soil air is greater than that of the atmospheric air c. Kaolinite d. vermiculite

97. The limiting aeration porosity of the soil is 105. Montmorillonite sheets are bounded by:
a. 5% b. 10% a. Weak O2 - O2 linkage b. Strong K linkage
c. 15% d. 20% c. Strong H bond d. electrostatic linkage

98. Soil temperature plays an important role 106. Isomorphous substitution of cations gives day minerals:
a. Soil formation is faster in temperate countries than in tropical countries a. Permanent charge b. pH-dependent charge
b. Decomposition of organic matter is faster in temperate than in tropical countries c. Positive charge d. zero point of charge
c. Microbial activities are lesser in temperate than in tropical countries
d. None of the above 107. Dissociation of H+ ions from carboxyl (-COOH) and/or phenolic functional groups give this
colloid negative charges.
99. The favorable soil temperature for seed germination and plant growth is a. Humus b. Montmorillonite
a. 0-5oC b. 6-15 oC c. Allophane d. oxides of Fe / Al
o
c. 13-38 C d. 20-45 oC
108. Assuming that ions are of similar size, which of these ions can be easily leached
100. Most biological activities would cease and basically inactive at this temperature a. H+ b. Al+++
a. 0-5oC b. 6-15 oC c. Fe +++
d. K+
o o
c. 13-38 C d. 20-45 C 109. The optimum or ideal soil pH for growing of most crops is:
a. pH 6.0 b. pH 6.5
c. pH 7.5 d. pH 5.5
Section 3. The Chemical Properties of Soils
110. These elements become more soluble or available at soil pH <4.0.
101. Colloids range in particle size from: a. Fe,Al,Cu,Zn b. Ca,Mg,S
a. 0.2-1 mm b. 0.2-1 micron c. N,P,K d. C,H.O
c. 0.2-1 cm d. 1-2 micron
111. At low pH, available P may become precipitated into:
a. Ca-hydroxyapatite b. Al-hydroxyphosphate
102. Organic colloids are represented by: c. Orthophosphoric acid d. humic acid
a. Hydrous Fe and Al oxides b. Silicate clay minerals
c. Humus d. allophane 112. These cations are considered as acid.
a. H+ and K+ b . H+ and Ca++

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 c. H+ and Al+++ d. NH4+ and H+ c. Fertilizers d. organic matter
113. Nitrification causes soil acidity due to the production of:
a. Al ions b. H+ ions 123. Saline soils contain sufficient
c. NH4OH Od. NO3- a. sugar b. sodium
+
114. Active acidity is due to H in: c. salt d. lime
a. Soil solution b. Colloid adsorption sites
c. Crystal structure d. none of the above 124. A 100-gm soil sample contains the following exchangeable cations:

115. Soils with high CEC have Cation me/100 gm

a. High buffering capacity b. Low buffering capacity Ca++ 20
c. No buffering capacity d. Medium buffering capacity Mg++ 10
K+ 2
116. Soils with high buffering capacity are generally those which Na+ 4
a. Are sandy or coarse H+ 3
b. Have high organic matter and/or clay content Al+++ 1
c. Have low organic matter content
d. Have high bulk density The CEC of the soil is:
a. 36 me/100gm b. 45me/100gm
117. Soils that usually need to be limed are those with: c. 40 me/100gm d. 50 me/100g
a. pH less than 5.0 b. pH greater than 5.0
c. pH 7.0 d. pH >7.5 125. The % BS saturation o the soil in no. 124 is:
a. 92.5% b. 90%
118. This material is not considered lime: c. 85% d. 94%
a. CaCO3 b. CaSO4.2H2O
c. CaO d. Ca(OH)2 126. The exchangeable sodium percentage (ESP) of the soil is:
119. This liming material has RNP or RNV of 100%. a. 10% b. 15%
a. Dolomite, CaMg (CO3)2 b. Burned lime, CaO c. 12%
c. Calcium carbonate, CaCO3 d. Ca(OH)2
120. Besides neutralizing soil acidity, lime like CaCO 3 may also:
a. Improve soil structure b. Decrease CEC
c. Improve soil texture d. increase CEC 127. It is the strength of adsorption of cations on the exchange complex of soils.
a. Relative adsorbability b. Relative replacing power
121. Sodic soils have high exchangeable sodium percentage (ESP) and are c. Relative strength d. Relative neutralizing power
a. Well aggregated b. Highly dispersed
c. Highly fertile d. Highly eroded 128. What type of charge would arise from the protonation/deprotonation of weakly acidic -OH
groups?
122. The high ESP of soils may be reduced by adding: a. ionic charge b. pH-dependent charge
a. Lime b. Gypsum c. electronic charge d. permanent charge

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 c. Mg2+ d. Al3+
129. What is the ability of the soil to hold or exchange negatively charged ions? 139. The negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration is called as:
a. Anion exchange b. Cation exchange a. pH b. pF
c. Anion exchange capacity d. Cation exchange capacity c. pOH d. pOF

130. The ability of the electrolytic solution to conduct current.

a. Electrical charge b. Electrical conductivity
c. Electrical resistance d. Electrical power
140. Process whereby positively charged ions are exchanged between solid and liquid phases of the
131. The ability of the soil to resist a drastic change in pH. soil.
a. Buffering capacity b. Anion exchange capacity a. Anion exchange b. Cation exchange
c. Cation exchange capacity d. Electrical conductivity c. Anion exchange capacity d. Cation exchange capacity

132. How many m.e. of NH4+ will replace 0.003 g H+? 141. How much is the weight of 1 m.e. of Mg2+?
a. 1 m.e. b. 2 m.e. a. 0.012 g b. 0.024 g
c. 3 m.e. d. 4 m.e. c. 0.036g d. 0.048 g]

133. It is a term indicating that the cation exchange reactions are chemically equivalent 142. The kind of acidity that tells when to lime the soil.
a. Reversibility b. Isomorphous a. Active acidity b. Reserve acidity
c. Equivalence d. Stoichiometery c. Soil acidity d. Residual acidity

134. The kind of acidity that tells us how much lime to apply into the soil. 143. Which of these ions can be source of soil acidity?
a. Active acidity b. Reserve acidity a. Ca++ and Mg++ b. Li+++ and Si4+
+ +
c. Soil acidity d. Residual acidity c. K and Na d. Fe+++ and Al+++
144. Which of these ions can be source of soil alkalinity?
135. Assuming that ions are of similar size, which of these ions have the greatest relative replacing a. Fe+++ b. Al+++
2+
power c. Ca d. H+
a. Al+++ b. K+ 145. Elements present largely in organic matter
++ +
c. Ca d. Na a. N, P and K b. P, K and Ca
136. What is the degree of acidity or alkalinity of the soil called? c. N, P and S d. P, K and S
a. soil acidity b. soil alkalinity
c. soil reaction d. buffering capacity 146. How many m.e. of Na+ can replace 1 m.e. of Si4+?
a. 1 m.e. b. 2 m.e.
137. Which of these ions have the highest relative adsorbability c. 3 m.e. d. 4 m.e.
a. Na+ b. Ca++
+
c. H d. Mg++ 147. A soil has a CEC of 40 m.e./100g. If 22 m.e. of which are acidic cations, how much bases the
138. Which of these cations is highly soluble at very low pH? soil contain?
a. K+ b. Ca2+ a. 12 me bases b. 14 me bases

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 c. 16 me bases d. 18 me bases 154. Degradation of organic residues by soil microorganisms is primarily aimed for:
a. phosphorus and ATP b. carbon and energy
148. If 21 m.e./100g of the bases constitute 60% of the CEC of a soil, what is its CEC? c. nitrogen and energy d. nitrogen and phosphorus
a. 25 m.e./100g b. 30 m.e./100g
c. 35 m.e./100g d. 40 m.e./100g 155. The root nodule bacteria belongs to this genus
a. Clostridium b. Azotobacter
For items 149-150, refer to: A 50-g soil sample contains 0.024g Mg +, 0.003g H+, 0.08g Ca2+, 0.072g c. Rhizobium d. Agrobacterium
NH4+ and 0.018g Al3+
156. Algae are considered as
a. autotrophs, b. heterotrophs,
149. How many m.e. of Mg+ the soil contains?
c. parasites, d. saprophytes
a. 2 m.e./100g b. 4 m.e./100g
c. 6 m.e./100g d. 8 m.e./100g
157. The available form of nitrogen which predominates under upland condition is
++ a. ammonium, b. nitrite,
150. How much Mg (kg/ha) is present in the soil?
c. nitrate, d. fixed nitrogen
a. 960 kg/ha b. 480 kg/ha
c. 240 kg/ha d. 120 kg/ha
158. The predominant available form of nitrogen under flooded soil condition is
a. NO3-N b organic –N,
c. NH4-N, d. N02-N.

159. The conversion of organic N to inorganic or mineral N is termed as

a. immobilization, b. denitrification,
c. mineralization d. nitrogen fixation
Section 4. Soil Organisms and Organic Matter
160. Microorganisms which do not require oxygen are called
a. aerobes b. anaerobes
151. Individually, which among the following soil organisms have the greatest biomass?
c. obligate aerobes d. microaerophilic
a. actinomycetes b. fungi
c. bacteria d. protozoa
161. Microorganisms which require organic compounds as sources of carbon and energy are
a. autotrophs b. heterotrophs
152. Which among the following soil organisms are acid-loving?
c. photoautotrophs d. none of the above
a. fungi b. bacteria
c. protozoa d. actinomycetes
162. If the crop residue contains 60% organic carbon and 5 % total nitrogen, the C/N ratio is
a. 60:5, b. 12:1,
153. Ammonia volatlization from NH4-bearing fertilizers is favored by which of the following?
c. 15:1, d. 25:1
a. high pH b. high temperature
c. high CEC d. a & b
163. The incorporation of inorganic nitrogen into microbial tissue is
a. mineralization, b. immobilization,

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 c. nitrification, d. denitrification c. 68% d. 98%

164. Presence of this nutrient element will enable a legume and its microsymbiont to perform 173. This is a substance produced by some organisms which inhibits growth of other organisms
nitrogen fixation. a. pesticide, b. antibiotic,
a. boron b. phosphorus c. antigen, d. antibody
c. molybdenum d. magnesium
174. The stable product of organic matter decomposition is
165. The group of soil microorganisms which is responsible for decomposing organic matter is the a. humus b. lignin,
a. heterotrophs b. autotrophs, c. cellulose d. hemicellulose
c. aprophytes, d. none of the above
175. This nitrogen transformation has an acidifying effect
a. volatilization ` b. nitrogen fixation
166. The most efficient organic matter decomposer under acidic soil conditions are the c. nitrification, d. denitrification
a. bacteria b. actinomycetes
c. Fungi, d. algae 176. The association between plant root and fungus is known as
a. symbiosis b. lichens
167. Pesticides will be retained much longer in soils with c. competition, d. mycorrhiza
a. low organic matter b. high moisture content,
c. 2:1 dominant clay type, d. none of the above 177. Once a soil has been placed under cultivation, the organic matter content usually
a. decreases, b. increases
168. Net mineralization of organic nitrogen in the soil will occur if the C/N ratio is lower than c. remains relatively unchanged d. all of the above
a. 20:1 b. 30:1
c. 40:1 d. 40:1 178. Nitrogen fixing bacteria are generally called:
a. denitrifiers b. denitrificans
169. The ultimate end product of denitrification is c. diazotrophs d. diazomorphs
a. N2 b. N0
c. N20 d. NH3 179. It is a symbiotic N-fixing microsymbiont which is slow grower and do not produce acids:
a. Rhizobium b. Bradyrhizobium
170. The number and activity of bacteria in the soil is affected by c. Azorhizobium, d. All of the above.
a. pH b. moisture and oxygen supply,
c. salinity d. all of the above 180. Free-living N2 fixing organisms which are dominant in anaerobic condition:
a. Azotobacter b. Beijerinckia
171. CO2 evolution in soil is a function of c. Clostridium d. Cyanobacteria.
a. aeration b. microbial population,
c. pH d. all of the above 181. Which one is not involved in the reduction of SO 4-2 to H2S ?
a. Desulfovibrio sp. b. Cyanobacteria
172. The amount of molecular nitrogen in the soil is about c. Desulfotomaculum d. All of the above
a. 88% b. 78%,

11
182. Which of the following is a P- solubilizing bacteria ? c. Arthrobacter d. Beggiatoa
a. Bacillus megatherium b. Cyanobacteria,
c. Arthrobacter d. none of the above. 191. The reduction of SO4-2 to H2S is mediated mainly by anaerobic sulfate-reducing
bacteria:
183. Mycorrhiza means fungus-root/tree association; presence of hyphae between root cortical a. Desulfovibrio sp. b. Cyanobacteria
cells is called: c. Desulfotomaculum, d. All of the above.
a. Ectomycorrhiza b. Endomycorrhiza
c. mycorrhizae d. all of the above 192. Which of the following is a non-symbiotic N2 fixer?
a. Bacillus megatherium b. Cyanobacteria
184. Heterotrophs which use pesticides as substrates: c. Arthrobacter, d. None of the above.
a. Arthrobacter b. Pseudomonas
c. Aspergillus, d. all of the above. 193. Production of growth-promoting hormones which enhance plant growth ( e.g. IAA, GA,
cytokinins) is mediated by which of the following microorganisms:
185. One of the following microorganisms is not involved in the production of growth-promoting a. Azospirillum brasilense b. Pseudomonas sp.
hormones ( e.g. IAA, GA, cytokinins): c. Yeasts d. all of the above
a. Azospirillum brasilense b. Pseudomonas sp .
c. Bacillus megatherium, d. yeasts. 194. A microorganism involved in the conversion of N 2-N to NO3-N: .
a. Azospirillum brasilense b. Pseudomonas sp.
186. A microorganism involved in the bioremediation of oil and other xenobiotics: . c. Nitrosomonas d. yeasts
a. Azospirillum brasilense b. Pseudomonas sp.
c. Bacillus megatherium, d. yeasts 195. A compost-fungus activator and used as biocontrol due to its ability to suppress or antagonize
the growth of other microorganisms :
187. Microorganisms used as biocontrol due to its ability to suppress or antagonize the growth of a. Agrobacterium b. Pseudomonas sp.
other microorganisms: c. Trichoderma sp. d. All of the above
a. Agrobacterium b. Pseudomonas sp.
c. Trichoderma sp d. All of the above. 196. A substance that gives active nodules a red interior color
a. Thiobacillus sp. b. Purple and green sulfur bacteria
188. Microoorganism capable of producing antibiotics c. leghemoglobin d. Beggiatoa
a. Azospirillum brasilense b. Pseudomonas sp .
c. Streptomycetes d. Aspergillus 197. Primary end product of organic matter decomposition/oxidation in anaerobic/waterlogged soil
conditions
189. Microoorganism capable of solubilizing potassium minerals into soluble potassium ions a. CO2 b. H2O
-
a. Azospirillum brasilense, b. Pseudomonas sp. c. H2PO4 d. CH4
c. Streptomycetes d. Bacillus mucilaginosus
198. The most important means of removing toxic chemicals is through
a. leaching in drainage water
190. This is a unicellular, chemoautotrophic sulfur oxidizer : b. evaporation of gaseous toxic substances
a. Thiobacillus sp. b. Purple and green sulfur bacteria c. dumping into the ocean

12
 d. breaking down toxic compounds by biological decomposition 205. It is considered as one of the causes of soil acidity
a. Crop rotation b. Irrigation
199. An autotrophic bacteria responsible in the biochemical oxidation of NO 2- to NO3- c. Liming d. Leaching of bases
a. Nitrosomonas b. Azotobacter
c. Nitrobacter d. Methanomonas 206. The concentration of nutrients in the soil solution
a. Buffering capacity b. Reserve acidity
200. Methemoglobinemia, also called blue baby syndrome occurs when certain bacteria found in c. Intensity factor d. Capacity factor
the guts of ruminants convert ingested
a. nitrate (NO3-) into nitrite (NO2-) 207. This macroelement is a component of protein and chlorophyll and is most limiting element in
b. ammonium (NH4+) into nitrite (NO2-) crop production except for legumes
c. Hydrogen sulfides (H2S) into sulfates (SO4-2) a. Nitrogen b. Phosphorus
d. Sulfates (SO4-2) into H2S c. Potassium d. Calcium

208. This macroelement is a metal component of chlorophyll and is deficient in acid upland soil
a. Nitrogen b. Calcium
c. Copper d. Magnesium
Section 5. Soil Fertility and Management
209. When nutrients are immobile, deficiency shows up first in
a. Stems b. Older leaves
201. The ability of the soil to replenish the amount of nutrients in the soil solution
c. Younger leaves d. Senescent leaves
a. Intensity factor b. Capacity factor
c. Buffering capacity d. Availability
210. A process of movement of individual ion due to difference in concentration
a. Diffusion b. Absorption
202. This micronutrient is needed in N -fixation by leguminous plants and is usually deficient in acid
c. Mass flow d. Root elongation
upland soil
a. Molybdenum b. Zinc
211. The enzyme responsible in nitrogen fixation
c. Iron d. Manganese
a. Nitrate reductase b. Nitrogenase
c. Carboxylase d. Catalase
203. What is the inherent capacity of the soil to supply nutrients to plants in adequate amount and
suitable proportion called?
212. The form of nitrogen available for plant’s use is
a. Soil productivity b. Nutrient availability
a. N2O b. NO
c. Intensity factor d. Soil fertility
c. N2 d. NO3-
204. A method of soil fertility evaluation whereby concentration of nutrients in the soil are known
before a crop is planted
213. A term that indicates excessive level of nutrient in the plant or soil
a. Biological test b. Soil analysis
a. Sufficiency b. Toxicity
c. Plant analysis d. Nutrient deficiency symptoms
c. Deficiency d. Poverty adjustment

13
214. A soil chemical property which largely controls nutrient availability and microbial activities
a. Buffering capacity b. Cation exchange capacity 223. When nutrients dissolved in water are transported to the root surface, the mechanism is
c. Soil pH d. Electrical conductivity a. Mass flow b. Diffusion
c. Contact exchange d. Root interception
215. The most appropriate soil management which increases availability of adsorbed P in acidic
upland soil 224. When nutrients are mobile, deficiency symptoms will be observed first in
a. Fertilizer application b. Prolonged anaerobic conditions a. Younger leaves b. Older leaves
c. Organic matter application d. Liming c. Stems d. Senescent leaves

216. Nutrient deficiency symptoms is referred to as a language of the crop. What is the term given
to describe general yellowing of leaves as a result of the deficiency of some nutrient elements?
a. Necrosis b. Chlorosis 225. The process that renders an element available to plants
c. Plasmolysis d. Defective a. Volatilization b. Immobilization
c. Denitrification d. Mineralization
217. A term that indicates low level of nutrient elements in the plant or soil
a. Sufficiency b. Toxicity 226. Which of these elements is available to plants in anionic form?
c. Deficiency d. Poverty adjustment a. Calcium b. Magnesium
c. Phosphorus d. Iron
218. The nutrient elements in organic matter and minerals are considered unavailable. The most
available form of nutrients are in 227. The micronutrient involved in the translocation of sugar in plant
a. Fixed b. Occluded a. Copper b. Calcium
c. Exchangeable d. Soil solution c. Boron d. Potassium

219. The macroelement which functions as a constituent of energy transfer metabolites 228. The process that renders P available to plants
a. Phosphorus b. Potassium a. Fixation b. Nitrification
c. Sulfur d. Calcium c. Solubilization d. Ammonification

220. Which of the following element is not essential to plants? 229. A physical effect of lime
a. Sulfur b. Vanadium a. Increase water holding capacity of soil
c. Boron d. Molybdenum b. Enhance decomposition of organic matter
c. Increase the CEC
221. These elements are micronutrients and are required by plants in small amounts d. Increase P availability
a. N, P and K b. Cu, Mn and S
c. Cu, Mg and S d. Zn, Co and Mn 230. A term for the initial application of fertilizer for crops
a. Top dressing b. Side dressing
222. Essential elements derived from air and water c. Band application d. Basal application
a. C, S and H b. N, S and C
c. C, O and H d. N, C and S 231. It is the amount of lime to be applied to the soil in order to increase its soil pH

14
 a. Fertilizer recommendation b. Lime requirement
c. Analysis grade d. Relative neutralizing power 240. The amount of urea (45-0-0) needed to satisfy the above recommendation is
a. 177.8 kg/ha b. 187.7 kg/ha
232. It is a mixture of animal excreta and soiled beddings that accumulates in stables or barns c. 200 kg/ha d. 400 kg/ha
a. Farm manure b. Compost
c. Green manure c. Poultry manure 241. The amount of solophos needed to satisfy the above recommendation is
a. 300 kg/ha b. 350 kg/ha
233. A method of fertilizer application whereby fertilizer materials are spread evenly on the soil c. 400 kg/ha d. 450 kg/ha
surface
a. Band method b. Broadcast 242. The amount of KCl needed to satisfy the above recommendation
c. Ring method d. Foliar application a. 50 kg/ha b. 75 kg/ha
c. 100 kg/ha d. 150 kg/ha
234. It is a measure of the effectiveness of the lime to neutralize soil acidity
a. Form of lime b. Relative replacing power 243. Amount of N supplied by the application of 9 bags of ammonium sulfate (20-0-0)
c. Particle size of lime d. Relative neutralizing power a. 30 kg b. 60 kg
c. 90 kg d. 120 kg
235. Which of these elements is available to plants in cationic form?
a. Sulfur b. Chlorine 244. A condition in which plants may absorb more nutrient than they need for maximum growth is
c. Molybdenum d. Potassium termed as
a. critical concentration b. luxury consumption
236. The most active agent of the soil erosion process in Philippines and other areas in the humid c. nutrient uptake d. nutrient removal
tropics
a. wind b. ice 245. The movement of water together with dissolved ions through the soils is
c. water d. glaciers a. root interception b. diffusion
c. contact exchange c. mass flow
237. The molecular weight of dolomite, CaMg(CO 3)2 is
a. 56 g b. 84 g 246. Which is not a characteristic of organic fertilizers?
c. 100 g d. 184 g a. bulky b. readily soluble
c. low nutrient content d. improves soil fertility
238. Which of these liming materials is the most soluble?
a. CaO b. CaMg(CO3)2 247. Which organic fertilizer has the highest pure nitrogen?
c. CaCO3 d. Ca(OH)2 a. compost b. chicken dung
239. The RNP of dolomite is c. guano d. cow manure
a. 54.35% b. 45.65%
c. 100% d. 109% 248. Which of the following is both an organic and inorganic fertilizer?
a. sulfate of potash b. triple superphosphate
For items 240-242, refer to: Using urea (45-0-0), Solophos (0-20-0) and KCl (0-0-60) to satisfy a c. urea d. ammonium sulfate
fertilizer recommendation of 80-70-30 calculate the following:

15
249. The ability of fertilizer to take up and retain moisture is 257. It is like the mollic epipedon except that it has low base saturation
a. hydrologic cycle b. hydration a. umbric b. ochric
c. hygroscopicity c. hydrolysis c. melanic d. histic

250. The mineral source of phosphorus is 258. The broadest category of soil taxonomy:
a. apatite b. gypsum a. great group b. suborder
c. hematite d. orthoclase c. order d. family

259. Soils with no diagnostic horizons

Section 6. Soil Survey and Classification a. Entisols b. Inceptisols
c. Alfisols d. Vertisols
251. Smallest volume of soil that can be considered a soil individual/body
260. Soils with mollic epipedon and base saturation percentage (BSP>50%)
a. pedon b. horizon
a. Oxisols b. Histosol
c. ped d. aggregate
c. Mollisol d. Spodosol
252. A soil unit is a landscape usually consists of a group of very similar pedons closely associated
261. Soil with a warm temperature regime, an argillic horizon and percent base saturation (PBS)
together in the field
<35%
a. pedon b. polypedon
a. Entisols b. Ultisols
c. ped d. particle
c. Inceptisols d. Espasols
253. It is a diagnostic horizon that occurs at the soil surface which includes the upper part of the soil
262. A soil temperature regime wherein the mean annual soil temperature is 22 0C or higher and
darkened by organic matter, the upper eluvial horizons, or both:
the difference between mean summer and mean winter temperature is less than 5 0C
a. pedon b. polypedon
a. mesic b. thermi,
c. ped d. epipedon
c. hyperthermic d. isohyperthermic
254. It is the systematic examination, description, classification , and mapping of soils in an area
263. The most highly weathered soil characterized by the presence of an oxic subsurface horizon
a. soil survey b. soil classification
a. Ultisols b. Spodosols
c. soil genesis d. soil taxonomy
c. Alfisols d. Oxisols
255. Kabacan clay loam is an example of a
264. Soils of volcanic origin are classified under order
a. soil type b. soil series
a. Andisol b. Gelisols
c. soil association d. soil phase
c. Histosols d. Mollisols
256. It is a thick dark-colored surface diagnostic horizon with high base saturation:
265. A dark red Ultisols with udic moisture regime is
a. umbric b. mollic
a. Udalfs b. Ustults
c. ochric d. melanic
c. Udults d. Ustalfs

16
266. Young soils beginning to show development of genetic horizons 275. It is a systematic arrangement of soils into groups or categories on the basis of their
a. Inceptisols b. Entisols characteristics
c. Vertisols d. Andisols a. soil survey b. soil classification
c. soil genesis d. soil taxonomy
267. They are swelling and cracking soils common in lowlands
a. Entisols b. Andisols
c. Oxisols d. Vertisols 276. Basis for mapping the distribution of Philippine soils
a. soil series/type b. soil order
268. The soil moisture regime characterized by sufficient moisture throughout the year c. soil family d. great group
a. aquic b. udic
c. ustic d. aridic 277. It is an epipedon that fails all the requirements of a mollic.
a. umbric b. ochric
269. The soil moisture regime that is characterized by water saturation c. melanic d. histic
a. udic b. aquic
c. ustic d. xeric 278. A diagnostic horizon that is like argillic except for its high sodium content
a. spodic b. natric
270. The soil with a name Typic tropudults belongs to order c. cambic d. salic
a. Alfisols b. Andisols
c. Ultisols d. Mollisolls 279. A highly weathered subsurface horizon in intensively weathered soils of the tropics consisting
of an accumulation of Fe and oxides
271. A suborder Hemists means the soil falls under the order a. argillic b. spodic
a. Alfisols b. Oxisols c. cambic d. oxic
c. Ultisols d. Histosols
280. Soils with mollic epipedon and base saturation percentage (BSP>50%)
272. One side of a pedon a. Oxisols b. Histosol
a. epipedon b. horizon c. Mollisol d. Spodosol
c. profile d. All of the above
281. Soil with a warm temperature regime, an argillic horizon and percent base saturation (PBS)
273. A soil unit in a landscape usually consists of a group of very similar pedons closely associated >35%
together in the field a. Entisols b. Ultisols
a. pedon b. polypedon c. Inceptisols d. Alfisols
c. ped d. particle
282. The total number of soil orders classified under the soil taxonomy
274. A system of soil classification in the Philippines based on the concept of a precisely defined, a. 15 b. 10
selected horizon for classifying soil profiles c. 12 d. 11
a. soil morphology b. soil taxonomy
c. 5th approximation d. soil survey 283. A soil temperature regime wherein the mean annual soil temperature is 22 0C or higher and
the difference between mean summer and mean winter temperature is less than 5 0C.

17
 a. isomesic b. thermic 293. These are Mollisols in aquic moisture regime:
c. hyperthermic d. isohyperthermic a. Udolls b. Aquolls
c. Ustolls ` d. Xerolls
284. The most highly weathered soil characterized by the presence of an oxic subsurface horizon
a. Ultisols b. Spodosols 294. These are Ultisols in udic moisture regime:
c. Alfisols d. Oxisols a. Udults b. Aqults
c. Ustults d. Xerults
285. The 12th soil order covering all soils which are permanently frozen/covered with snow
a. Aridisols b. Spodosols 295. These are the soils formed from volcanic ash and young volcanic materials:
c. Gelisols d. Vertisols a. Udepts b. Fluvents
c. Udands d. Ustalfs
286. The soil with a name Typic tropudalfs belongs to order
a. Alfisols b. Andisols 296. The order of soils with organic soil materials extending down to an impermeable layer or with
c. Ultisols d. Mollisolls an organic layer that is more than 40 cm thick
a. Gelisols b. Histosols
287. A suborder Udults means the soil falls under the order c. Andisols d. Mollisols
a. Alfisols b. Oxisols
c. Ultisols d. Mollisolls 297. A soil with a nomenclature: “fine loamy, mixed, non-acidic isophyperthermic Histic Tropaquoll
falls under the order
288. A suborder Fibrists means the soil falls under the order a. Mollisols b. Gelisols
a. Alfisols b. Oxisols c. Andisols d. Histosols
c. Ultisols d. Histosols
289. A suborder Histels means the soil falls under the order 298. The soil in Item No. 297 has the temperature
a. Gelisols b. Oxisols a. fine loamy b. mixed
c. Ultisols d. Histosols c. non-acidic d. isohyperthermic

290. A suborder Aquands means the soil falls under the order 299. The suborder of the same soil in item No. 297
a. Gelisols, b. Oxisols a. Aquoll b. Tropaquoll
c. Andisols d. Histosols c. Oll d. Paquoll

291. A suborder Arents means the soil falls under the order 300. The Great group of the same soil in Item No.297
a. Gelisols b. Entisols a. Aquoll b. Tropaquoll
c. Andisols d. Histosols c. Oll d. Paquoll

292. A suborder Udept means the soil falls under the order
a. Inceptisols b. Entisols
c. Andisols d. Histosols

18
 28. A 75. A 122. B 169. A
29. A 76. C 123. C 170. D
30. C 77. B 124. C 171. B
ANSWER KEY
(SOIL SCIENCE) 31. D 78. C 125. B 172. B
32. B 79. B 126. A 173. B
1. A 48. C 95. C 142. A 33. C 80. D 127. A 174. A
2. A 49. B 96. D 143. D 34. D 81. B 128. B 175. C
3. B 50. B 97. B 144. C 35. A 82. C 129. C 176. D
4. C 51. A 98. C 145. C 36. A 83. B 130. B 177. A
5. A 52. B 99. C 146. A 37. B 84. C 131. A 178. C
6. A 53. D 100. A 147. D 38. A 85. C 132. C 179. B
7. A 54. D 101. B 148. C 39. B 86. B 133. D 180. C
8. A 55. C 102. C 149. B 40. A 87. C 134. B 181. B
9. B 56. C 103. A 150. A 41. A 88. B 135. A 182. A
10. C 57. C 104. B 151. B 42. B 89. C 136. C 183. A
11. A 58. D 105. A 152. A 43. C 90. C 137. C 184. D
12. B 59. D 106. A 153. D 44. C 91. B 138. D 185. C
13. C 60. D 107. A 154. B 45. B 92. B 139. A 186. B
14. A 61. A 108. D 155. C 46. D 93. C 140. B 187. C
15. B 62. B 109. B 156. A 47. D 94. D 141. A 188. C
16. C 63. B 110. A 157. C 189. D 217. C 245. C 273. B
17. D 64. A 111. B 158. C 190. A 218. D 246. B 274. B
18. B 65. C 112. C 159. C 191. A 219. A 247. B 275. B
19. C 66. A 113. B 160. B 192. B 220. B 248. C 276. A
20. A 67. A 114. A 161. B 193. D 221. D 249. C 277. B
21. B 68. C 115. A 162. B 194. C 222. C 250. A 278. B
22. A 69. C 116. B 163. B 195. C 223. A 251. A 279. D
23. B 70. B 117. A 164. C 196. C 224. B 252. B 280. C
24. A 71. C 118. B 165. A 197. D 225. D 253. D 281. D
25. A 72. A 119. C 166. C 198. D 226. C 254. A 282. C
26. A 73. B 120. A 167. C 199. C 227. C 255. A 283. C
27. A 74. B 121. B 168. A 200. A 228. C 256. B 284. D

19
201. B 229. A 257. A 285. C
202. A 230. D 258. C 286. A
203. D 231. B 259. A 287. C
204. B 232. A 260. C 288. D
205. D 233. B 261. B 289. A
206. C 234. D 262. D 290. C
207. A 235. D 263. D 291. B
208. D 236. C 264. A 292. A
209. C 237. D 265. C 293. B
210. A 238. A 266. A 294. A
211. B 239. D 267. D 295. C
212. D 240. A 268. B 296. B
213. B 241. B 269. B 297. A
214. C 242. A 270. C 298. D
215. D 243. C 271. D 299. A
216. B 244. B 272. C 300. B

20