ENGLISH MEDIUM

TEST - 25
VISION IAS Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUD IES (P) 2020 – Test –2987

C
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

FULL LENGTH
(COMPLETE SYLLABUS)
Indian Constitution, Political System and Governance
+
Geography + History of India
+
Indian Economy & Social Development
+
Ecology & Environment + General Science
+
Current Affairs
1. Which of the following temples is/are found 4. Consider the following characteristics of a
in the Aihole region? traditional theatre form:
1. It is a unique combination of dance,
1. Ravanphadi cave temple
music and acting.
2. Durga temple
2. Farming community's lifestyle and
3. The Lad Khan temple social traditions are portrayed through
Select the correct answer using the code satire, wit and parody.
given below. 3. It is associated with Jammu & Kashmir.
Which of the following folk dances is being
(a) 1 only
described in above statements?
(b) 2 only
(a) Bhand Pather
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) Swang
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Hafiza
(d) Nautanki

2. Consider the following statements regarding

5. Recently RBI Governor has warned that
the appropriation bill in parliament:
Indian economy might be facing Cobra
1. No money can be withdrawn from the effect. What do you understand by Cobra
Consolidated Fund of India without the effect?
passage of this bill. (a) It is the impact of drastic decrease in
economic growth due to decline in
2. It contains the non-votable expenditure
consumption expenditure in the
charged from the Consolidated Fund of
economy.
India. (b) It refers to a situation where an
3. Amendments could be made to the economic program with good
votable component of the bill, relating to intentions only manages to worsen it due
to unintended consequences.
the demand for grants.
(c) It refers to condition where increasing
Which of the statements given above is/are
protectionist policies at global level lead
correct? to decline in global trade and exports of
(a) 1 and 2 only a country.
(b) 2 only (d) It refers to the impact of the declining
market price levels on the agricultural
(c) 1 and 3 only
economy which snowballs into
(d) 3 only
economic slowdown.

3. In the context of economics, what is a Tobin 6. Consider the following statements with
tax? respect to inflation:
1. An increase in the money supply without
(a) It is a tax imposed on transactions that
increase in output will lead to inflation.
have negative externalities.
2. It acts as a regressive tax in an economy.
(b) It is a tax levied on short term capital Which of the statements given above is/are
currency transactions. correct?
(c) It is a tax levied on capital assets held (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
over 3 years.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) It is a tax levied on zero tax companies.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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7. Which of the following statements is/are 10. "She is one of the pioneers of the women's
correct with respect to the Bureau of Energy movement in India. She campaigned for
Efficiency? women's franchise and free and compulsory
1. It is a statutory body set up under the
primary education for girls. She also served
Energy Conservation Act, 2001.
as the President of the Bombay Seva Sadan
2. It functions under the administrative
control of the Ministry of Power. and the Poona Seva Sadan. She wrote her

3. It defines the manner and periodicity of autobiography, Amchya Ayushyatil Kahi

mandatory energy audits of industries. Athavani, in Marathi.''
Select the correct answer using the code Who among the following has been
given below. described in the passage given above?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Sindhutai Sapkal
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Savitribai Phule
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Ramabai Ranade
(d) Herabai Tata
8. Consider the following statements with
respect to Utility patents? 11. Which reference to the religious practices in
1. They are awarded to minor inventions India, the "Bisapanthi" sect belongs to
that do not reach the level of
(a) Buddhism
inventiveness required for patents.
(b) Shaivism
2. India does not offer protection to Utility
(c) Jainism
Patents.
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) Vaishnavism
correct?
(a) 1 only 12. Consider the following statements regarding
(b) 2 only the amara-nayakas during the Vijaynagara
(c) Both 1 and 2
empire:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. It was a major political innovation of the
Vijayanagara Empire.
9. Arrange the following organizations/
associations chronologically as per their year 2. They were civilian officers who were
of formation: given territories to govern including the
1. Hind Mazdoor Sabha power to collect taxes.
2. All India Trade Union Congress 3. They could not be transferred from one
3. Federation of Indian Chambers of
place to another.
Commerce and Industry (FICCI)
Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code
correct?
given below.
(a) 1-2-3 (a) 1 only
(b) 3-1-2 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2-1-3 (c) 2 only
(d) 2-3-1 (d) None
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13. With reference to 'Mohiniyattam', consider 16. Which of the following bodies are quasi-
the following statements: judicial in nature and constitutional bodies?
1. It traces its origin to the temples of 1. Election Commission of India
Orissa.
2. Central Information Commission
2. It is a classical solo dance.
3. It lays emphasis on hand gestures 3. National Human Rights Commission
and mukhabhinaya with subtle facial 4. Finance Commission
expressions. Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above are below.
correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

14. In the context of the economy, what do you 17. Which of the following can be associated
understand by the Cobweb theory?
with the weather phenomenon called El
(a) It is an economic theory that supports
Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO)?
expansionary fiscal policy to increase
demand and boost economy. 1. The appearance of warm water off the
(b) It is an idea that price fluctuations can coast of Peru
lead to fluctuations in supply which 2. Change in pressure condition over the
causes a cycle of rising and falling Pacific and Australia
prices.
3. The occurrence of drought in India
(c) It is a theory that draws a direct relation
4. The occurrence of floods in China
between exports and value of a currency.
(d) It is a theory that focuses on devising an Select the correct answer using the code
approach that promotes harmonious given below.
economic interactions between humans (a) 1 and 2 only
and nature. (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
15. This is one of the oldest systems of medicine
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
predominantly practiced in Indo-Tibetan
Region and areas like Bhutan, Nepal, China
& Mongolia. It employs a complex approach 18. It is a form of semi classical vocal music
to diagnosis, incorporating techniques such inspired by the folk songs of camel riders in
as pulse analysis and urinalysis, and utilizes the Punjab area. It is sung in both Punjabi
behavior and dietary modification,
and Pashto languages. It is characterized by
medicines composed of natural materials.
jumpy and flashy tonal movements with
Recently India nominated this system of
medicine to the UNESCO’s list of Intangible rhythmic and rapid notes.
Cultural Heritage. Which among the following regional music
Which system is being talked about in this is described by the above passage?
paragraph? (a) Qawwali
(a) Siddha
(b) Tappa
(b) Unani
(c) Sowa-Rigpa (c) Pandavani
(d) Acupuncture (d) Kajri
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19. Consider the following statements about the 22. A few years ago CFL (Compact Fluorescent
“Buddhist Councils”: Light) bulbs were in domestic use. Presently,
1. In the First Buddhist Council, Sutta LED bulbs are in demand. In this context,
Pitaka and Vinaya Pitaka were consider the following statements:
compiled. 1. LED bulbs of any wattage have greater
2. In the Second Buddhist Council,
lumens (brightness) than CFL bulbs.
Abhidhamma Pitaka was compiled,
2. While LED bulbs have diodes, CFL uses
completing the Tripitaka.
mercury-based filaments.
3. Hinayana and Mahayana sects of
Buddhism diverged after the third 3. LED bulbs have longer lifespans
Buddhist council. compared to CFL bulbs.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 only

20. With reference to the Constitutional (103rd

23. Consider the following pairs:
Amendment) Act, 2019, consider the
Range/Peak Himalayan Type
following statements:
1. Dhauladhar : Punjab Himalayas
1. It seeks to provide constitutional status
to the National Commission for 2. Dhaulagiri : Nepal Himalayas
Backward Classes (NCBC). 3. Nanda Devi : Kumaon Himalayas
2. It seeks to give effect to Article 46 to 4. Namcha Barwa : Assam Himalayas
protect the educational and economic Which of the pair given above are correctly
interests of the weaker sections of matched?
society. (a) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 3 and 4 only
correct? (c) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
24. With reference to State Election
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Commissioner, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
21. Which of the following species are
considered as autogenic ecosystem 1. He is appointed by the Chief Minister
engineers? after passing a resolution in the
1. Corals respective state legislature.
2. Lianas 2. He can only be removed in a manner and
3. Shell forming Molluscs on grounds as a Judge of a High Court.
4. Woodpeckers Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
given below. (a) 1 only
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1 and 4 only
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25. With reference to Chola administration, the 28. Which of the following is/are the
terms muttaiyal and vetti refer to the consequences of the proclamation of a
obligation to Financial Emergency?
(a) provide food to state officials
1. The President can issue directions for
(b) provide labour services
the reduction of salaries and allowances
(c) pay rural tax in cash
of all class of persons serving the Union
(d) provide military service in times of
or those serving in the state.
conflict
2. The Centre can issue directions requiring

26. Which of the following is/are correct with the reservation of all bills except
reference to the Convention on Conservation money bills for the consideration of the
of Migratory Species (CMS)? President after they are passed by the
1. It is an environmental treaty under the legislature of the state.
aegis of the United Nations Environment 3. The President can issue directions for
Programme.
the reduction of salaries and allowances
2. It is mandated to ensure that trade in
of the judges of the Supreme Court and
wild plants and animals is not a threat to
the high court.
the conservation of nature.
3. India recently hosted the Conference of Select the correct answer using the code

the Parties to the CMS (CMS COP13). given below.

Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 only
given below. (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
29. Which is the southernmost point of the
continent of Africa?
27. Consider the following pairs of places,
(a) South East Cape
sometimes mentioned in news and their
corresponding countries: (b) Cape of Agulhas

Place Country (c) Cape Horn

1. Catalonia : Spain (d) Cape Leeuwin
2. Bougainville : Papua New Guinea
3. Rojava : Syria 30. 'Doctrine of Eminent Domain' is related to
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
which of the following rights?
matched?
(a) Right to move freely
(a) 1 only
(b) Right to form association
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Right to Property
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Right to Education

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31. Consider the following statements regarding 34. Consider the following statements regarding
Indicator species: Indian Home Rule league/movement:
1. It is any biological species that defines a
1. Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru began his
trait or characteristic of the environment.
political career through Annie Besant's
2. Only microorganisms act as indicators
species in an ecosystem. home rule league.
3. Lichen is an example of an indicator 2. It demanded total independence from the
species. British rule.
Which of these statements given above is/
3. It was later renamed to the
are correct?
Commonwealth of India League.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 4. The Congress session in 1915 approved
(c) 1, 2 and 3 the resolution regarding the setting up of
(d) 1 and 3 only Home Rule Leagues.
Which of the statements given above is/are
32. Consider the following statements with
reference to the parallel government set up correct?
in Maharashtra during the Quit India (a) 2 and 4 only
Movement: (b) 1 and 3 only
1. It took upon social reforms by inviting (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
untouchables to marriages.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. It set up local courts for dispensation of
justice.
3. The government was brutally dismissed 35. Which of the following is known as the
by the British and lasted only for six "graveyard of RBCs"?
months. (a) Spleen
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Bone Marrow
correct?
(a) 1 only (c) Mitochondria
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) Small intestine
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 36. In which of the following entities Foreign
Direct Investment (FDI) is prohibited in
33. Consider the following statements regarding
Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha: India?
1. S/he is a subordinate officer to the 1. Real Estate Investment Trusts
Chairman of Rajya Sabha. 2. NIDHI company
2. S/he can attend any session of any house 3. Chit Funds
of Parliament.
4. Manufacturing of equipment for nuclear
3. His/her salary and allowances are
charged on the Consolidated Fund of power plants
India. Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/are given below.
correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(a) 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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37. With reference to the recently released Draft 40. Which of the following is/are correct with
Model Tenancy Act, 2019 which of the reference to the Cartagena Protocol on
following statements is/are correct? Biosafety?
1. It seeks to establish a rent authority for 1. It is an international agreement on
the registration of rent agreements and biosafety as a supplement to the
dispute settlements. Convention on Biological Diversity.
2. Appeals against the order of the rent 2. It governs the movements of living
authority shall be made in the civil modified organisms (LMOs) resulting
courts of the concerned state. from modern biotechnology from one
3. Landlords can seek an amount of one country to another.
year's rent as a security deposit which 3. It regulates access and benefit-sharing of
will be refundable. genetic resources.
Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
given below.
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

41. Which of the following correctly describes

38. Which of the following processes are related
the term 'Acqua Alta', sometimes seen in the
to chemical weathering?
news?
1. Thawing
(a) It is weather phenomenon of reverse
2. Carbonation
climate change wherein water freezes to
3. Hydration
form ice shelves.
4. Solution (b) It is the precipitation received
Select the correct answer using the code from Altocumulus or a middle-altitude
given below. cloud genus.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) It is used to describe freshly melted
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only snow as the purest form of freshwater on
(c) 1 and 3 only high altitude.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) It is a term to describe exceptional tide
peaks that occur periodically in the
39. With reference to Shola forests and northern Adriatic Sea.
grasslands, which of the following
statements is not correct? 42. Recently, the Integrated Air Defence
(a) They play a major role in conserving Weapon System (IADWS) was approved for
water supply of the Nilgiris' streams. sale to India, which is going to add to the
(b) The vegetation that grows in Shola modernisation of the Indian armed forces. It
forests is evergreen. was approved by
(c) Himalayan rhododendron species are (a) The United States of America
predominantly found here. (b) The United Kingdom
(d) They are of great commercial (c) Israel
importance owing to heavy lumbering. (d) Russia

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43. Consider the following statements with 46. Consider the following statements:
respect to Price-elasticity of demand: 1. A three-tier Panchayati Raj system was
1. It is the measure of the responsiveness of first recommended by Balwant Rai
the demand for a good to changes in its
Mehta committee.
price.
2. Panchayats in all the states of India have
2. The demand for luxury items is
been established by the 73rd
generally inelastic.
Which of the statements given above is/are Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
44. With reference to Coastal Regulation Zone
(CRZ) norms, 2019, which of the following
statements are correct? 47. If you want to see a Hangul deer in their
1. They prohibit temporary tourism natural habitat in India, which one of the
facilities such as toilet blocks and following is the best place to visit?
change rooms in Beaches. (a) Manas National park
2. They have stipulated a No Development
(b) Dachigam National park
Zone of 20 meters for Islands close to
(c) Kaziranga wildlife century
the mainland coast including Backwater
(d) Keibul lamjao National park
Islands.
3. Sundarbans region of West Bengal
and Gulf of Khambat have been 48. Consider the following statements regarding
recognized as Critically Vulnerable NRI deposits:
Coastal Areas. 1. Only foreign currency deposits are
Select the correct answer using the code
allowed for NRI accounts.
given below.
2. Repatriation of funds is not allowed in
(a) 1 and 2 only
any of the NRI accounts in India.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 3. The NRI accounts are included in

(d) 1, 2 and 3 India’s external debt outstanding.

Which of the statements given above is/are
45. 'The Once-Only Principle', sometimes in correct?
news, is seen in the context of: (a) 3 only
(a) G-20 nations
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) ASEAN
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) European Union
(d) BRICS (d) 1, 2 and 3

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49. India has experienced high food inflation in 52. The India Knowledge Hub (IKH), a dynamic
recent past. In this context, which of the web portal, functioning as a repository to
following actions can decrease food inflation disseminate best practices in various sectors
in the near future? from across the country was launched by
1. Decreasing Minimum Export Price (a) NITI Aayog
2. Decreasing Customs duty on import of
(b) Ministry of Human Resource
food items
Development
3. Open Market sale of food grains by FCI
(c) Ministry of Science and Technology
4. Delisting food items under Essential
Commodities Act (d) Ministry of Communications and
Select the correct answer using code given Information Technology
below.
(a) 2 and 3 only 53. In the context of British India, the Lees-
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only Mody Pact of 1933 is associated with:
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (a) set of preferences for British textiles in
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only place of Japanese Imports in India.
(b) raising the issue of transfer of power by
50. Consider the following statements regarding
the British Parliamentarians sympathetic
François Bernier:
to the cause of India in British
1. He visited India during the Mughal rule
Parliament.
and served as a physician to Dara
(c) restricting communist influence in return
Shikoh.
2. He glorified the Indian culture and for greater constitutional representation
advocated it as more developed in for moderate Indians.
comparison to the European one. (d) set of principles to be followed for
3. His accounts were mostly circulated as drafting the Government of India Act,
manuscripts and remained unpublished. 1935.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 54. Which of the cases given below can be
(a) 1 only strictly considered as heatwave conditions as
(b) 2 only
per the recently laid down criteria by the
(c) 1 and 3 only
Indian Meteorological Department?
(d) None
1. If a hill station records a maximum

51. Consider the following statements with temperature of 25-degree celsius.

respect to the Industrial Information System 2. If any region in the Indo-Gangetic plains
(IIS): records a maximum temperature of 49-
1. It is a GIS-enabled database of industrial degree celsius.
areas and clusters across the country. 3. If a coastal city records a maximum
2. It is under the administrative control of temperature of 40-degree celsius.
the Ministry of Finance. Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above are given below.
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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55. The ‘Time to Care’ report, recently seen in 58. With reference to the Legislative Councils,
news, was released by consider the following statements:
(a) UNICEF 1. It is the indirectly elected upper house in
(b) World Bank the state legislature present in 6 states
(c) Oxfam
only.
(d) IPCC
2. The creation of the legislative council of
states needs a constitutional amendment.
56. With reference to e-flow or ecological flow,
3. It is a permanent body which cannot be
consider the following statements:
dissolved.
1. It is the minimum volume of water that
must be released by barrages in a river 4. It enjoys equal powers as the legislative

that allows it to clean itself. assembly for ordinary bills.

2. The government of India has specified Which of the statements given above is/are
norms for e-flow for all the rivers of correct?
India. (a) 1 and 2 only
3. Central Pollution Control Board is (b) 1 and 3 only
responsible for ensuring compliance (c) 3 only
with e-flow norms in India.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
59. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) 1 only
the usual status approach to unemployment
(b) 2 and 3 only
measurement in India:
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only 1. It is an approach to measure
unemployment that uses seven days

57. It is located near the Godavari river and has preceding the date of the survey as the
been recently designated as a Ramsar Site. It reference period.
boasts of threatened plants like Indian 2. It is widely used to capture the short
sandalwood, threatened birds like Indian term fluctuations in unemployment
Spotted Eagle, Eastern Imperial Eagle, caused due to seasonality in labour
threatened fish Deolali Minnow and
markets.
mammal-like leopard.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the following sites is being
correct?
described in the above passage?
(a) 1 only
(a) Sandi Bird Sanctuary
(b) 2 only
(b) Nandur Madhmeshwar
(c) Nal Sarovar Bird Sanctuary (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Ashtamudi Lake (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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60. With reference to ecological succession, 63. Which of the following processes contribute
consider the following statements:
to the Phosphorus cycle in an ecosystem?
1. In the successive stages of succession,
there is an increase in the number of 1. Respiratory release into the atmosphere.
species and organisms as well as an 2. Decomposition of the dead organisms.
increase in the total biomass.
2. A climax community is the final stage in 3. Weathering of rocks.
ecological succession and is in near Select the correct answer using the code
equilibrium with the environment.
given below.
3. Ecological succession on land that has
been flooded is an example of primary (a) 1 and 2 only
succession. (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 64. Which among the following is classified as a

primary air pollutant?

61. Which of the following statements
is not correct regarding the famous Mughal (a) Acid rain
structure, 'Ibadat khana'? (b) DDT
(a) It was built during the reign of Mughal
emperor Shahjahan. (c) Ground Level Ozone
(b) The origins of 'Din-i-ilahi' could be (d) Peroxyacetyl Nitrate (PAN)
traced to Ibadat khana.
(c) It is a hall in which Akbar held
discussions with scholars of various 65. Consider the following statements regarding
religions. the Nath-Panthis sect:
(d) The evidence of this complex is found in
the miniature painting of "Akbarnama". 1. They are the followers of Hindu yogi

Gorakhnath.
62. The Indian Space Research Organisation
2. They denounce the caste system and the
(ISRO) is planning the inaugural flight of its
indigenously developed Small Satellite privileges claimed by the Brahmanas.
Launch Vehicle (SSLV). In this context,
3. The path preached by them is referred to
consider the following statements:
1. It will launch small commercial satellites as tantra.
with a payload of up to 500 Kg. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. It will carry the satellites into the Low
Earth Orbit. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct?
(b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (c) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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66. 'Deep Web', is a term, often seen in the 69. Consider the following statements regarding
news. Which of the following statements the Swadeshi Movement:
best describes it? 1. The Indian National Congress took up
(a) It refers to the bottom ten percent of the Swadeshi call at the Banaras Session
least visited websites. presided by Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
(b) It refers to those parts of the World 2. Its major objective included a protest
Wide Web whose contents are not against the unjust partition of Bengal
indexed by standard web search and reviving the indigenous industries.
engines.
3. The Tilak Swaraj Fund was created to
(c) It collectively refers to the browsing and
finance the Swadeshi movement.
online tracking activities of all the
Which of the statements given above is/are
intelligence agencies across the globe.
not correct?
(d) It refers to those websites which covertly
(a) 1 and 2 only
customise visitors priorities and
(b) 1 and 3 only
requirements without displaying
(c) 2 only
cookies.
(d) 3 only

67. Which of the following is/are correct

regarding the wise use approach of wetland 70. ’This climate is characterized by mild

management? winters and cool summers. There is

1. It was coined and adopted at the 1992 adequate rain throughout the year. The
Rio Earth summit. region is permanently under the influence of
2. It emphasizes that human use of these westerlies and cyclonic rainfall is
ecosystems on sustainable basis is experienced throughout the year. It is
compatible with conservation. usually found in the western margins of
Select the correct answer using the code continents.
given below. Which among the following is best described
(a) 1 only by the above passage?
(b) 2 only (a) China type climate
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Mediterranean type climate
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Laurentian type climate
(d) British type climate
68. Arrange the following irrigation systems in
the increasing order of irrigation efficiency?
71. Harcourt Butler Committee was appointed
1. Sprinkler Irrigation
by the British Government on December 16,
2. Drip irrigation
1927 to
3. Flood irrigation
(a) curb the left wing movement.
Select the correct answer using code given
(b) grant autonomy to British administered
below.
province.
(a) 2-3-1
(c) strengthen the relationship of princely
(b) 3-2-1
states with the Crown.
(c) 1-2-3
(d) 3-1-2 (d) modernize Indian agriculture.
13 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
72. Consider the following statements regarding 75. With reference to the Cabinet Committee on

the resolutions in the Parliament: Parliamentary Affairs, which of the

following statements is/are correct?
1. All the resolutions do not require to be
1. It considers the proposals to prorogue
voted upon. both the Houses of the Parliament.
2. Statutory Resolution can be moved only 2. It considers the attitude of the

by a minister. Government on non-official bills and

resolutions to be presented to Parliament
Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
76. The Ujh Multipurpose (National) Project

73. The surface of a lake is frozen in severe was recently in news in the context of
(a) flood mitigation in the Ganga basin
winter, but the water at its bottom is still
states.
liquid because (b) developing inland navigation in the
(a) water is a poor conductor of heat. north-eastern States.
(c) facilitating Krishna-Godavari river
(b) water reaches a maximum density at
linkage.
about 4°C.
(d) utilization of waters of eastern rivers as
(c) water does not expand upon freezing. per the Indus Water Treaty.
(d) of presence of impurities due to
77. Consider the following statements:
pollution.
1. A living person must not be less than 15
years of age to donate the organs.
74. 'Theatre Command System', is often seen in 2. Pancreas and intestine are not permitted
the news, in the context of: to be donated.
3. National Organ and Tissue Transplant
(a) an organizational structure of the Indian
Organisation (NOTTO) is the apex body
armed forces.
for the coordination of organ donation in
(b) deployment of street plays as an India.
awareness tool for government schemes. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(c) a newly devised communication link
(a) 1 and 2 only
with astronauts in outer space
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) Virtual acoustics to simulate sounds (c) 3 only
from anywhere in the room. (d) 1, 2 and 3
14 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
78. Consider the following statements regarding 81. Consider the following statements regarding
Acidic Soils: Cryptocurrency:
1. These soils are formed due to drastic 1. It is a type of e-money that makes use of
weathering under hot humid climate and encryption techniques to regulate the
generation and verify the transfer of
heavy precipitation.
currency.
2. No crops can be grown in acidic soils.
2. It operates on a peer-to-peer network
3. Farmers are advised to add gypsum to
independently of a central authority.
solve the problem of acidity in soils. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 3 only (b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1 only
82. With reference to the Greater One-Horned
Rhino, consider the following statements:
79. Consider the following statements:
1. Its preferred habitat is alluvial flood
1. Coriolis force is directly proportional to plains and areas containing tall
the horizontal velocity of the wind. grasslands along the foothills of the
2. The Coriolis Force is responsible for the Himalayas.
deflection of winds and is experienced 2. Its physiology is unsuitable for
maximum at the equator. swimming and therefore it remains
Which of the statements given above is/ are confined to land.
correct? 3. It is listed as critically endangered on the
IUCN Red List.
(a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only
correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
80. With reference to Active Pharmaceutical (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ingredient (API), often seen in the news,
consider the following statements: 83. Consider the following statements in the
1. It is that ingredient in the medicine that context of Ocean Saturation Horizon:
binds the other ingredients and has no 1. Saturation horizon is the level below
which the calcium carbonate minerals
pharmacological effects as such.
undergo ready dissolution.
2. India is one of the few countries which
2. Ocean acidification leads to the
does not depend upon API imports for
downward movement of this saturation
manufacturing drugs. horizon.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
15 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
84. With reference to the Arctic Council, 87. The RBI recently introduced the Supervisory
consider the following statements: Action Framework for the better
1. It is an intergovernmental organization management of:
that promotes cooperation among Arctic (a) Scheduled Commercial Banks
states and the region's indigenous
(b) Non-Banking Financial Companies
communities.
(NBFCs)
2. It works on the issues of sustainable
(c) Urban Cooperative Banks
development and environmental
protection in the Arctic. (d) Regional Rural Banks
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 88. Which of the following correctly describes
(a) 1 only the term 'Deep Ecology', often seen in the
(b) 2 only news?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) It is a philosophy that encourages human
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 beings to recognize the inherent value of
nature.
85. Consider the following statements with
(b) It is a paradigm that suggests finding the
reference to Deoband movement:
secrets of universe in the biodiversity of
1. The aim of the movement was to educate
Earth.
muslim people with western education.
2. On the political front, the Deoband (c) It is a principle that promotes complete
school opposed the formation of utilization of natural resources with zero
Congress. wastage.
3. Mohammad Qasim Nanotavi was the (d) It is a transitional area of vegetation
founder of this movement. between two different plant
Which of the statements given above is/ are communities.
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 89. “To protect monuments, places, and objects
(b) 2 only
of artistic or historic interest” is a provision
(c) 3 only
made under:
(d) 2 and 3 only
(a) Fundamental Rights and Directive
86. With reference to C40 Clean Air Cities Principles of State Policy
Declaration, consider the following (b) Directive Principles of State Policy only
statements: (c) Fundamental Duties only
1. It commits cities to set ambitious (d) Directive Principles of State Policy
pollution reduction targets and and Fundamental Duties
implement substantive clean air policies
by 2025. 90. Which of the following was a result of the
2. It was an outcome of the Climate
pressure from the allied nations towards
Summit held in Paris in 2015.
seeking active cooperation of Indians, during
Which of the statements given above is/are
the second world war?
correct?
(a) 1 only (a) August Offer
(b) 2 only (b) Cripps Mission
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Wavell Plan
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Cabinet Mission

16 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

91. Which of the following is/are the objectives 94. What is biorock technology, recently seen in
of the National Agroforestry Policy, 2014? the news?
1. Expand tree plantation in
(a) It is a technology that uses mineral
complementarity with crops and
accretion to restore coral reefs.
livestock
2. Phase-out the wood-based industries to (b) It refers to the mechanism of obtaining
reduce pressure on forests shale gas by using oil-eating bacteria.
3. Reduce import of wood and wood (c) It is the mechanism of increasing
products to save foreign exchange fertility of semi-arid and arid soil.
Select the correct answer using the code
(d) It is a type of biomining technology used
given below.
to extract the rare earth elements.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 95. Drumlins, Eskers and Moraines are types of
(d) 1 and 3 only which of the following landforms?
(a) Glacial landforms
92. Consider the following statements:
(b) Desert landforms
1. In case of a conflict, Parliamentary
privileges supersede the fundamental (c) Coastal landforms
rights of a citizen. (d) Volcanic landforms
2. Reasonable restrictions on free speech
provided under Article 19 also apply to 96. Global Innovation Index is published
the floor of the house.
annually by
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) World Economic Forum
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) International Monetary Fund
(b) 2 only (c) World Intellectual Property Organisation
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) United Nations Development Program
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

97. Consider the following statements regarding

93. Which of the following correctly describes
NI-KSHAY? Chidambaram Pillai:
(a) It is the public-private partnership fund 1. He led the Vandemataram Movement as
earmarked for the development of toilets part of the Swadeshi movement in
in rural areas under Corporate Social Andhra Pradesh.
Responsibility (CSR) funds.
2. He established the Swadeshi merchant
(b) It is a low-cost Life Insurance scheme
shipping outfit by the name of the
for poor people who are not covered
under any insurance program. Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company.
(c) It is the web-enabled patient Which of the statements given above is/are
management system for TB control correct?
under the National Tuberculosis (a) 1 only
Elimination Programme (NTEP).
(b) 2 only
(d) Newly discovered antiviral drug with
potential application to curb coronavirus (c) Both 1 and 2
infections. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

17 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

98. Consider the following statements with 100. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR)
reference to the South Asia Wildlife spectroscopy is the study of molecules by
Enforcement Network (SAWEN): recording the interaction of radiofrequency
1. It is an inter-governmental organization (Rf) electromagnetic radiations with the
to combat wildlife crime in South Asia. nuclei of molecules placed in a strong
2. All SAARC countries are its members. magnetic field. Which of the following are
3. It has its secretariat located in India. the common applications of NMR?
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Medical imaging techniques
correct? 2. Nuclear Reactors
(a) 1 only 3. Food authentication
(b) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 2 and 3 only given below.
(d) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
99. Consider the following statements regarding (c) 1, 2 and 3
the Market Stabilization Scheme (MSS): (d) 1 and 3 only
1. MSS bonds are floated by RBI on behalf
of the government.
2. MSS bonds earn a return and can be
tradable in the secondary market.
3. MSS bonds were first introduced in
2016 to absorb the excess liquidity post
demonetization.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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 VISIONIAS
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ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 2987 (2020)

Q 1.D
• Aihole also referred to as Aivalli, Ahivolal or Aryapura, is a historic site of ancient and medieval era
Buddhist, Hindu and Jain monuments in north Karnataka, India dated from the sixth century through the
twelfth century CE. Aihole is 22 miles (35 km) from Badami and about 6 miles (9.7 km) from Pattadakal,
both of which are major centers of historically important Chalukyan monuments. Aihole, along with
nearby Badami (Vatapi), emerged by the 6th century as the cradle of experimentation with temple
architecture, stone artwork, and construction techniques. This resulted in 16 types of free-standing temples
and 4 types of rock-cut shrines. The experimentation in architecture and arts that began in Aihole yielded
the group of monuments at Pattadakal, a UNESCO world heritage site
• Over one hundred Aihole temples are Hindu, a few are Jain and one is Buddhist. These were built
and coexisted in close proximity. The Hindu temples are dedicated to Shiva, Vishnu, Durga, Surya, and
other Hindu deities. The Jain Basadi temples are dedicated to Mahavira, Parshvanatha, Neminatha and
other Jain Tirthankaras. The Buddhist monument is a temple and a small monastery. Both Hindu and Jain
monuments include monasteries, as well as social utilities such as stepwell water tanks with artistic
carvings near major temples.
• The Lad Khan temple, a Hindu temple dedicated to Shiva came to be called Lad Khan temple,
named after the Muslim commander who used it as his operational hub, and a name that has been
used ever since. It is constructed in the Panchayatana style of architecture. The shrine has a Garba
Griha (inner sanctum) which houses a Shiva Linga, a mukha mantapa which leads to Sabha Mandapa
(hall). There is also a Maha mandapa (great hall) with open windows. The Mukha Mantapa is a pillared
hall whereas the other halls are spacious. The outer walls and interior walls have carvings depicting the
Hindu mythologies. The pillars and carvings also has interesting motifs on them. One of the interesting
features of Lad Khan Temple is that it does not have a Shikhara. This indicates that it follows a cave-
temple style of architecture.
• The Durga temple at Aihole is an apsidal temple of about 550 A.D.The name of the temple may have
derived from the word ‘durga’ meaning fort. It is dedicated to either Vishnu or Shiva as the
representations of Vishnu are as numerous as those of Shiva. The most original feature of the temple is a
peristyle delimiting an ambulatory around the temple itself and whose walls are covered with sculptures
of different gods or goddesses. This temple is provided with a high pedestal, an open pillared verandah
serving as pradakshanapatha, in place of a dark, ambulatory passage as in the case of the Ladkhan temple.
Instead of perforated jallies is a pillared verandah running round the shrine, open, well ventilated and well
lit.
o The temple consists of an apsidal garbhagriha, sabhamandapa, a mandapa and a mukhamandapa in
east-west axis and the temple opens to the east. The rows of pillars contains two pradakshinapathas,
which is an exceptional architectural feature. The longish sabhamandapa has been divided into three
portions by its pillars. A large number of pillars in this temple have been utilized by the artists to
carve a large number of puranic stories and self-supporting sculptures.
o On the pillars of the mukhamandapa are found passionate couples in various suggestive poses. On
another pillar is found Shiva dancing on apasmara. The inner wall of the mukhamandapa has
Ramayana panel, Ardhanarisvara and Ugranarasimha killing Hiranyakashyapa. The front
entrance of the mandapa is well carved with dvarapalas, Yamuna and Ganga, and further sculptures.
The shape of the temple, in Indian traditional architecture, is known as Gajaprasta, which
means equality to the back of an elephants.
• Ravana phadi is one of the oldest rock-cut cave temples in Aihole, located less than a kilometer uphill,
northeast from the Durga temple complex. The temple dates to the 6th century. The entrance has an
eroded fluted column and seated Nandi facing the temple sanctum, with several other small monuments.
1 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 Inside the cave are three near square mandapas, the innermost featuring the Shiva linga and connected to
the entrance mandapa by a rectangular space.
o The entrance of the Ravanaphadi cave has a Nidhi and seated guardian on each side. Then, on left, is
an image of Ardhanarishvara portraying the equivalence and essential interdependence of the
masculine left Shiva and feminine right Parvati. Past this fused image, is the first mandapa to the left
of which is a niche carved space. In it is 6th-century artwork showing dancing Shiva (Nataraja)
with Parvati, Saptamatrikas or seven mothers of Shaktism tradition, Ganesha and
Kartikeya. On the right side of the main mandapa is Harihara portraying a fused image of Shaivism
and Vaishnavism, with left Shiva and right Vishnu. On the opposite wall of Harihara is Shiva with
three primary river goddesses of Hindu theology, and he stands with Parvati and the skeletal ascetic
Bhringi.
o The main mandapa connects to two other near square mandapas. To its north is the sanctum, flanked
by Shaiva guardians at its entrance, then Vaishnava Varaha or Vishnu's boar avatar rescuing
goddess earth on its left. To the right is a carved image of Shakti Durga as Mahishasuramardine
spearing the buffalo demon. To the east of the main mandapa is an empty monastery like chamber.
o The ceiling of the cave has reliefs. For example, shows Vishnu with Lakshmi flying on winged
Garuda, another shows the Vedic god Indra with Indrani on an elephant.

Q 2.A
• Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The Constitution states that ‘no money shall be withdrawn from the
Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation made by law’. Accordingly, an
appropriation bill is introduced to provide for the appropriation, out of the Consolidated Fund of
India, all money required to meet: (a) The grants voted by the Lok Sabha. (b) The expenditure
charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
• Statement 3 is not correct: No such amendment can be proposed to the appropriation bill in either
house of the Parliament that will have the effect of varying the amount or altering the destination of any
grant voted, or of varying the amount of any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
• The budget consists of two types of expenditure—the expenditure ‘charged’ upon the Consolidated
Fund of India and the expenditure ‘made’ from the Consolidated Fund of India. The charged
expenditure is non-votable by the Parliament, that is, it can only be discussed by the Parliament, while
the other type has to be voted by the Parliament.

Q 3.B
• The Tobin Tax, named after Nobel Prize-winning US economist James Tobin, was proposed in 1971 for
the first time with the intention to levy it on short-term capital currency transactions. whenever currency
crises have erupted, the proposal for a levy on international currency transactions has been debated.
• Tobin tax as a tool to discourage speculative currency trading and reduce exchange rate volatility. The
Tobin tax is often referred to as the Robin Hood tax, as many see it as a way for governments to take
small amounts of money from the people making large, short-term currency exchanges.
• The Securities Transaction Tax applicable on stock market transactions in India is a similar tax intended
to discourage short-term investments.
• According to International Monetary Fund (IMF), a Tobin tax might reduce market liquidity and
effectively increase volatility — clearly contrary to its suggested purpose. The legislators should thus
consider a Tobin tax proposal only in the event there is a similar imposition at international level as
unilateral measures can prove more damaging than the exchange-rate instability they are designed to cure.
Rigid controls can cut India off from economic reality, and make the country uncompetitive

Q 4.A
• Bhand Pather, the traditional theatre form of Kashmir, is a unique combination of dance, music and
acting. Satire, wit and parody are preferred for inducing laughter. In this theatre form, music is provided
with surnai, nagaara and dhol. Since the actors of Bhand Pather are mainly from the farming community,
the impact of their way of living, ideals and sensitivity is discernible. Hence option a is the correct
answer.
• Important folk dances of Jammu & Kashmir:
• ACHI LAMO: This performance usually depicts some Buddhist Jatik Katha, accompanied by dance,
music & drama. The performers normally come from Tibet where the performance is called "Topa
Khamba". Ladakhi people have adopted this form and have been performing it in open.

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 • MANE-PA: Mane Pa has more emphasis on narration and dialogue than in Achi-Lamo and is enacted in
Ladakh by the professional Mane-Pa families only. While entertaining and providing humor to the
audience, the actor mocks and laughs at the follies of the common people.
• RAS AND BHAGAT: Folk Theatre in Jammu region has religious ramifications. The popular
performances are those showing scenes from Indian epics such as Mahabharta and Ramayana. The Ras or
Bhagat mandalies, usually from adjoining states of Punjab and Himachal Pradesh come to perform in
Jammu.

Q 5.B
• The ‘Cobra Effect,’ was a phenomenon observed in India during the British colonial rule, which is often
reckoned as a classic example of ‘perverse incentives’. The British were overwhelmed by a rising
number of poisonous cobras and had to devise a policy to check this problem. Correspondingly, the
government decided to reward any individual who was able to slay a cobra. Although this measure was an
outright success, it gradually augmented the breeding and rearing of serpents with the sole motive of
killing them for getting a reward.
• A major implication of this effect is the unsolicited outcome of a scheme that was initially proposed with
the objective of dealing with a problem plaguing the society. Thus, any policy which is premeditated
with a desirable outcome to contend with a difficulty may make things even worse.
• From a macroeconomic perspective this can be explained by using tax amnesty scheme. A tax amnesty
scheme involves comprehensive guiding principles concerning the immunity enjoyed by past tax evaders
upon truthful reporting of incomes in the present period. Tax amnesty is likely to discourage the public
from paying taxes in the present period in anticipation of the next amnesty, which is a moral hazard.

Q 6.C
• Monetary inflation is a form of demand-pull inflation. In this case, excess demand is created by the
excessive growth of the money supply. A group of economists, appropriately called monetarists, believe
that the only cause of inflation is the money supply increases faster than output. They argue that if the
money supply increases, people will spend more and this will lead to an increase in prices. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
• A regressive tax is a tax applied uniformly, taking a larger percentage of income from low-income earners
than from high-income earners. A regressive tax affects people with low incomes more severely than
people with high incomes because it is applied uniformly to all situations, regardless of the taxpayer.
• Inflation operates like a regressive consumption tax because the extent to which individuals are affected
by the inflation tax depends on their level of consumption. An increase in inflation raises the cost of
transacting for individuals at the bottom of the income distribution to a greater extent than for those at the
top. For example, consider person A with low income and person B with High income both buying a
product whose price has increased due to inflation. Now both A and B have to spend extra money to
purchase the product. But the extra spending forms a higher percentage share in the income of A
compared to high income of B. Therefore, Inflation is a regressive tax. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 7.D
• The Government of India set up Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) in March 2002 under the provisions
of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001. It functions under the administrative control of Ministry of
Power.
• The mission of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency is to assist in developing policies and strategies with a
thrust on self-regulation and market principles, within the overall framework of the Energy Conservation
Act, 2001 with the primary objective of reducing energy intensity of the Indian economy.
• The Major Regulatory Functions of BEE include:
o Develop minimum energy performance standards and labelling design for equipment and appliances
o Develop specific Energy Conservation Building Codes
o Activities focussing on designated consumers
o Develop specific energy consumption norms
o Certify Energy Managers and Energy Auditors
o Accredit Energy Auditors
o Define the manner and periodicity of mandatory energy audits
o Develop reporting formats on energy consumption and action taken on the recommendations of the
energy auditors
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

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Q 8.C
• Utility patents, known as petty patents, are exclusive rights granted for innovative utilitarian inventions
that do not reach the level of inventiveness required for patents and are, therefore, accorded protection
for a shorter time period. In these patents standards of non-obviousness and inventiveness are much
lower. They are more appropriate for incremental inventions. The rights conferred for the utility patents
are similar to those granted by patent laws but have a shorter term. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Under Section 3(d) of the Indian Patents Act, 1970 denies patents for incremental innovations. India
does not offer protection under Utility Patents because a less stringent form of intellectual property
protection could lead to evergreening of patents. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 9.D
• All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) - 1920
o It was founded in 1920 with Lala Lajpat Rai as its first president. Upto 1945 Congressmen, Socialists,
Communists worked in the AITUC which was the central trade union organisation of workers of
India. Subsequently the trade union movement got split on political lines. The unions affiliated to
AITUC are from textile, engineering, coal, steel, road transport, electricity board and of unorganised
sector such as beedi, construction and head-load workers, anganwadi, local bodies and handloom.
Recently a number of agriculture workers’ unions have affiliated themselves to AITUC.
• Since the early 1920s, efforts were being made by various capitalists like G.D. Birla and Purshottamdas
Thakurdas to establish a national level organization of Indian commercial, industrial and financial
interests to be able to effectively lobby with the colonial government. This effort culminated in the
formation of the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) in 1927, with a
large and rapidly increasing representation from all parts of India. The FICCI was soon recognized by the
British government as well as the Indian public in general, as representing the dominant opinion as well as
the overall consensus within the Indian capitalist class. The FICCI was, however, not to remain merely a
sort of trade union organization of the capitalist class fighting for its own economic demands and those of
the nation. The leaders of the capitalist class clearly saw the necessity of, and felt strong enough for, the
class to effectively intervene in politics.
• Hind Mazdoor Sabha (HMS) - 1948
o It is a National Trade Union Centre in India. It was founded in Howrah in 1948 by Socialist, Forward
Bloc follower and independent unionists. Its founders included Basawan Singh (Sinha), Ashok Mehta,
R.S. Ruikar and Mani Benkara. Mr. R.S. Ruikar was elected president and Ashok Mehta as its
General Secretary. The HMS absorbed the Royists Indian Federation of Labour and the Socialist Hind
Mazdoor Panchayat.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 10.C
• Ramabai Ranade (1862 – 1924) is considered as a pioneer of the women's movement in India and
outside. She was born on 25 January 1862 and was married in 1873, at the age of 11, to Justice Mahadev
Govind Ranade.
• Mahadev Ranade was himself a social reformer, and the founder of the Prarthana Samaj, and encouraged
Ramabai to educate herself.
• She was active in the campaign for women’s franchise in India, and drew attention to the plight of
Indian labourers in the Fiji Islands. In 1904, 1908, 1912 and 1920 she presided over the sessions of the
Bharat Mahila Parishad.
• She was president of the Bombay Seva Sadan from 1908 till her death, and of the Poona Seva Sadan
from 1909. She established clubs where housewives could learn sewing and first aid as well as Marathi
and English. Her work for the Seva Sadans included the establishment of a hostel and arranging for
nurses’ training at the David Sassoon Hospital from 1911.
• In 1912 she served on the Central Famine Relief Committee.
• She wrote her autobiography in Marathi, Amchya Ayushyatil Kahi Athavani, which gives a frank picture
of her life in a traditional household with a progressive husband, and the sometimes delicate feats she had
to perform, balancing the demands of both.
• Her most outstanding contributions were agitating for compulsory and free primary education for
girls; and organizing the women’s suffrage movement in Bombay Presidency in 1921-22.
• Ramabai Ranade’s birth centenary was celebrated on 25 January 1962 and a stamp was released on the
occasion.

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Q 11.C
• Jains are divided into two major sects: the Digambara (meaning sky clad or naked) sect and the
Svetambara (meaning white-clad) sect. Both sects accept the basic Jain philosophy and the five basic
vows non-violence (Ahimsa), truth (Satya), non-stealing (Asteya), celibacy/chastity (Brahmacharya), non-
attachment/non-possession (Aparigraha). But they differed with each other with respect to the details of
the life of Mahavira, the spiritual status of women, rituals, which texts should be accepted as
scripture.The Digambara sect is more austere and is closer in its ways to the Jains at the time of
Mahavira.
• Digambara: Various sub-sects under it:
o Bisapanth: The followers of Bisapantha support the Dharma-gurus, that is, religious authorities
known as Bhattarakas who are also the heads of Jaina Mathas, that is, religious monasteries. The
Bisapanthas, in their temples, worship the idols of Tirthankaras and also the idols of Ksetrapala,
Padmavati and other deities. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
o Terapanth: Terapantha arose in North India in the year 1683 of the Vikram Era as a revolt against
the domination and conduct of the Bhattarakas. i.e. religious authorities, of the Digambara Jainas. As
a result in this sub-sect. the Bhattarakas are not much respected. In their temples, the Terapanthis
install the idols of Tirthankaras and not of Ksetrapala, Padmavati and other deities.
o Taranapanth: The sub-sect Taranapantha is known after its founder Tarana-Svami or Tarana-Tarana-
Svami (1448-1515 A.D.). This sub-sect is also called Samaiyapantha because its followers worship
Sarnaya, i.e., sacred books and not the idols.
• Svetambara: Various sub-sects under it:
o Murtipujaka: Murtipujaka Svetambaras are known as Murtipujakas since they are the
thorough worshippers of idols. They offer flowers, fruits, saffron, etc. to their idols and invariably
adorn them with rich clothes and jeweled ornaments.
o Sthanakvasi: The Sthanakvasi arose not directly from the Svetambaras but as reformers of an older
reforming sect, viz., the Lonka sect of Jainism. The main principle of this sect was not to practice
idol-worship.
o Terapanth: The Terapanthis are non-idolatrous and are very finely organized under the complete
direction of one Acharya, that is, religious head. The Terapanthi sub-sect was founded by Swami
Bhikkanaji Maharaj.

Q 12.A
• The amara-nayaka system was a major political innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire. It is likely that
many features of this system were derived from the iqta system of the Delhi Sultanate. Hence, statement
1 is correct.
• The amara-nayakas were military commanders who were given territories to govern by the raya. They
collected taxes and other dues from peasants, craftspersons and traders in the area. Hence, statement 2 is
not correct. They retained part of the revenue for personal use and for maintaining a stipulated contingent
of horses and elephants. These contingents provided the Vijayanagara kings with an effective fighting
force with which they brought the entire southern peninsula under their control. Some of the revenue was
also used for the maintenance of temples and irrigation works.
• The amara-nayakas sent tribute to the king annually and personally, appeared in the royal court with gifts
to express their loyalty. Kings occasionally asserted their control over them by transferring them from one
place to another. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. However, during the course of the seventeenth
century, many of these nayakas established independent kingdoms. This hastened the collapse of the
central imperial structure.
• Iqta system
o It was a unique type of land distribution and administrative system evolved during the Delhi
Sultanate. Under the system, the whole empire was divided into several large and small tracts of land,
called the iqtas, which were assigned to nobles, officers and soldiers for the purpose of administration
and revenue collection.
o The iqtas were transferable, i.e., the holders of iqtas-iqtadars-were transferred from one region to an-
other every three to four years. It means that the grant of iqta did not imply a right to the land. It was
just an administrative unit.
o The iqtas could be big (whole province) or small. The assignees of bigger iqtas-had dual obligation,
tax collection, and administration. They collected revenue from their iqta, defrayed their own
expenses, paid the troops maintained by them and sent the bawazil (surplus) to the Centre.

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Q 13.C
• Mohiniyattam literally interpreted as the dance of 'Mohini', the celestial enchantress of the Hindu
mythology, is the classical solo dance form of Kerala. According to a Puranic story, Lord Vishnu took
on the guise of a 'Mohini' to seduce the Asuras, both in connection with churning of the ocean and episode
of the slaying of Bhasmasura. It traces its origin to the temples of Kerala. Hence statement 1 is not
correct and statement 2 is correct.
• There are evidences to prove the existence of a community of female temple dancers who assisted the
temple rituals by adding expressive gestures to the mantras chanted by the temple priests. The dancers
were called by different names during different periods of time. They were called
as TaiNangai or Nangachi (one with beautiful hand), Dasi (servant), Tevitichi or Deva-Adi-Achi (the one
who served at the feet of the Lord), Koothachi (who performed koothu or dance). Their dances were
known as ‘Nangai Natakam, Dasiyattam, Tevitichiyattam, etc. The Nangiars, who are the women folk of
Nambiar community, still follow a strict code of dance, performed in a small performing space, within the
temple precincts, as practised in the olden times
• Salient Features of Mohiniyattam Dance
o Mohiniyattam is characterized by graceful, swaying body movements with no abrupt jerks or sudden
leaps. It belongs to the lasya style which is feminine, tender and graceful.
o The movements are emphasized by the glides and the up and down movement on toes, like the waves
of the sea and the swaying of the coconut, palm trees and the paddy fields.
o The foot work is not terse and is rendered softly.
o Importance is given to the hand gestures and Mukhabhinaya with subtle facial expressions.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
o Movements have been borrowed from Nangiar Koothu and female folk dances Kaikottikali and the
Tiruvatirakali.
o Mohiniyattam lays emphasis on acting. The dancer identifies herself with the character and sentiments
existing in the compositions like the Padams and Pada Varnams which give ample opportunity for
facial expressions.

Q 14.B
• Cobweb theory is the idea that price fluctuations can lead to fluctuations in supply which causes a
cycle of rising and falling prices. The farmers are caught in the cobweb phenomenon when they base
their sowing decisions on prices witnessed in the previous marketing period.
• So, if the farmer observes a higher price for a specific crop in period ‘t-1’, he would opt to produce more
of it in period ‘t’. However, if the production of the crop exceeds market demand, prices fall in period ‘t’,
signaling farmers to produce less of the commodity in period ‘t+1’.
• Economic Survey 2019-20 highlights the trend of inflation rate of pulses. Inflation rate of pulses peaked
during the years of 2012-13, 2015-16 and 2018-19. And the inflation rates slipped into negatives during
2013-14 and 2017-18. The presence of peaks might indicate towards the presence of cobweb phenomenon
in pulses.
• To prevent the occurrence of the cobweb phenomenon, it is essential that apart from existing measures in
place to safeguard pulses, farmers, from crop failure/price shocks like market intervention under Price
Stabilization Fund (PSF), coverage under Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana, PM-AASHA, providing
warehouses, improving transportation, price discovery through e-NAM, etc., free export of pulses also
needs to be encouraged for India to become self-sufficient in pulses production.

Q 15.C
Sowa-Rigpa
• “Sowa-Rigpa” is one of the oldest, living and well documented medical tradition popular in the
world. The term ‘Sowa Rigpa’ is derived from Bhoti language which means ‘Knowledge of Healing’.
• It is an ancient Indian medical system that was enriched in the entire Trans-Himalayan region.
• At present Sowa-Rigpa is more popular in Himalayan societies especially in J & K region’, Ladakh,
Himachal Pradesh (Lahoul & Spiti), West Bengal (Darjeeling), Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh and
other parts of India. It is also being practiced in countries like Bhutan, Mongolia, and Russia, etc.
• Sowa Rigpa is formally recognized and promoted as a traditional medical system by the Government of
India. Along with the spread of Buddhism, Sowa-Rigpa also spread to other neighboring countries.
It can be perceived to be more closed or having similarities with Ayurvedic philosophy/ principles of
India since many texts of Sowa-Rigpa (approximately more than 75%) are taken from one of the
most famous treatises of Ayurveda i.e. “Ashtanga Hridya” in one or other form.
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 • Many (more than 75%) medicines used in Ayurveda (Indian origin) viz Triphala, Ashok, Ashwagandha,
Guggulu, Haridra etc. are also frequently used in Sowa- Rigpa System of Medicine for treatment
purposes.
• The principle medical text “rGyud-bZi” Chatush Tantra-a textbook of fundamental principles of
Sowa-Rigpa is in the Sanskrit language which was further translated into Bhoti language around
8th – 12th Century and further amended by Yuthok YontanGombo and other scholars of Trans
Himalayan region according to the socio-climatic conditions.
• The fundamental principles of Sowa-Rigpa are based on Jung-wa-Nga (Pancha mahabutha), Nespa-
sum (Tridosha), Luszung-dun (Sapta dhatu) and do’s and don’ts, Dietary guidelines, Pulse
examination, etc. which are common in Sowa-Rigpa and Ayurveda and clearly indicates its close
proximity with India.
• Recently India nominated this system of medicine to be included in UNESCO’s list of Intangible
Cultural Heritage.

Q 16.B
• Quasi-judicial bodies have powers analogous to that of the law-imposing bodies but these are not
courts. They have all the powers of a civil court. They primarily oversee the administrative zones. The
courts have the power to supervise over all types of disputes but the quasi-judicial bodies are the ones
with the powers of imposing laws on administrative agencies. These organizations generally have
authorities of settlement in matters like the breach of discipline, conduct rules, and trust in the matters of
money or otherwise. Their powers are usually limited to a particular area of expertise, such as financial
markets, employment laws, public standards, immigration, or regulation.
Awards and judgments of quasi-judicial bodies often depend on a pre-determined set of rules or
punishment depending on the nature and gravity of the offense committed. Such punishment may be
legally enforceable under the law of a country, it can be challenged in a court of law which is the final
vital authority.
Some important non-constitutional quasi-judicial bodies are:
• National Human Rights Commission
• State Human Rights Commission
• Central Information Commission
• State Information Commission
• National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
• State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
• District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum
• Competition Commission of India
All of the bodies given above are statutory bodies
• Election Commission of India and the Finance Commission are both Constitutional bodies and quasi-
judicial in nature. Hence only options 1 and 4 are correct.

Q 17.D
• Warming and cooling of the Pacific Ocean is most important in terms of general atmospheric circulation.
The warm water of the central Pacific Ocean slowly drifts towards the South American coast and replaces
the cool Peruvian current. Such an appearance of warm water off the coast of Peru is known as El
Nino.
• The El Nino event is closely associated with the pressure changes in the Central Pacific and Australia.
This change in pressure conditions over the Pacific is known as the southern oscillation. The combined
phenomenon of southern oscillation and El Nino is known as ENSO.
• In the years when the ENSO is strong, large-scale variations in weather occur over the world. The arid
west coast of South America receives heavy rainfall, drought occurs in Australia and sometimes in
India and floods in China. This phenomenon is closely monitored and is used for long-range forecasting
in major parts of the world.

Q 18.B
• Tappa (for camel riders): Tappa is a form of semi classical vocal music inspired by the folk songs of
camel riders in the Punjab area. Tappa, in Punjabi and Pashto language, is set in ragas generally used for
the semi classical forms. It is characterized by jumpy and flashy tonal movements with rhythmic and rapid
notes.
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 • Qawwali: Originally, Qawwalis were sung in praise of God. In India Qawwali was brought from Persia
around thirteenth century and Sufis enlisted its services to spread their message. Amir Khusro (1254-
1325) a Sufi and an innovator contributed to the evolution of Qawwali. It is a mode of singing rather than
a form of composition. In performance Qawwali presents a fascinating, interchanging use of the solo and
choral modalities.
• Pandavani, Chhattisgarh: In Pandavani, tales from Mahabharata are sung as a ballad and one or two
episodes are chosen for the night’s performance. The main singer continuously sits throughout the
performance and with powerful singing and symbolic gestures he assumes all the characters of the episode
one after another.
• Kajri, Uttar Pradesh: Kajri is a folk song sung by women, from Uttar Pradesh and adjacent region,
during rainy season. On the third day in the second half of the bhadra, women sing Kajri songs all
through the night, while dancing in a semi-circle.

Q 19.A
• First Buddhist Council:
o The First Council was held 3 months after the Mahāparinibbāna at Rājagaha under the
presidentship of Mahākassapa. Ānanda and Upāli were the other leading personalities who
participated in this council. King Ajatshatru gave his patronage to this council.
o The Agenda of the First Buddhist council was to reserve the teachings (Sutta) of the Buddha
and the monastic discipline and guidelines for monks(Vinaya). Hence statement 1 is correct.
o Suttas and Vinaya were recited by the monks Ananda and Upali respectively.
o Abhidhamma Pitaka was also recited in this council.
• Second Buddhist Council:
o A Second Council is said to have been held at Vaisali, one hundred years after the Buddha's death.
This Council was headed by priest Sabbakami. It was under the patronage of king Kalasoka.
o In order to settle a serious dispute on Vinaya i.e. dispute arose over the ‘Ten Points' of monastic
discipline and finally the order broke into two sections, that of the orthodox Sthaviravadins, and
that of the Mahasanghikas.
• Third Buddhist Council:
o The Third Council was held at Pataliputra under the patronage of King Asoka. This Council was
under the presidentship of Moggaliputta.
o Its objective was to reconcile the different schools of Buddhism and to purify the Buddhist movement,
particularly from opportunistic factions which had been attracted by the royal patronage. The
responses to doctrinal questions and disputes formulated at the Third Council were recorded by
Moggaliputta Tissa in the Kathavatthu as the last chapter of Abhidhamma Pitaka.
o Vibhajjavāda (the religion of the analytical reasoning) was declared the true buddhavacana and
only form of true Buddhism. All other sects and sections were declared untrue.
o Abhidhamma Pittaka was compiled and finally Tripitika was formed. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.
• Fourth Buddhist Council:
o The Fourth Council took place during the reign of King Kanishka I at Kashmir.
o The Fourth Council was convened under the presidentship of Vasumitra and vice-presidentship
of Asvaghosa, the author of Buddhacharitam.
o It was at this council that commentaries on each of the Piṭakas were written and each of the
commentaries contained 100,000 verses.
o One of the most momentous decisions taken at this council was the settlement of dissidence within the
saṃgha. The council recognized all the 18 sects as the repositories of genuine buddhavacana.
o It finally resulted in the division of Buddhism into Mahayana and Hinayana sects. Hence
statement 3 is not correct.

Q 20.B
• The One Hundred and Second Amendment of the Constitution of India granted constitutional status to the
National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The Constitutional (103rd Amendment) Act got the assent of President in 2018. It provides reservation of
jobs in central government jobs as well as government educational institutions. It is also applicable on
admissions to private higher educational institutions. It applies to citizens belonging to the economically
weaker sections from the upper castes. This reservation is "in addition to the existing reservations and
subject to a maximum of ten per cent of the total seats in each category". The bill states that it is drafted
with a will to mandate Article 46 of the Constitution of India, a Directive Principle that urges the
8 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 government to protect the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of
society. While socially disadvantaged sections have enjoyed participation in the employment in the
services of the state, no such benefit was provided to the economically weaker sections. Hence statement
2 is correct.

Q 21.C
• Physical ecosystem engineers are organisms that create, modify or maintain habitats (or microhabitats)
by causing physical state changes in biotic and abiotic materials that, directly or indirectly, modulate the
availability of resources to other species. They are two types:
• Allogenic engineers: They change the environment by transforming living or nonliving materials from
one physical state to another, via mechanical or other means.
• Autogenic engineers: They change the environment via their own physical structures, i.e. their living and
dead tissues. As they grow and become larger, their living and dead tissues create habitats for other
organisms to live on or in.
• Examples of Autogenic Engineering: Trees, corals, and giant kelps are good examples of autogenic
engineers. As they grow and become larger, their living and dead tissues create habitats for other
organisms to live on or in.
o Lianas (woody vines) are autogenic engineers. For example, when lianas grow through a forest
canopy, they connect trees together, forming arboreal pathways that monkeys and other animals can
use to travel without having to descend to the ground.
o Coral reef organisms like hard corals, sponges, or algae act as ecosystem engineers by creating
habitats for other organisms and often controlling the availability of resources. They produce and
release inorganic (i.e. calcium carbonate structures) and organic (i.e. mucus and sugars) compounds,
and fulfill important biogeochemical functions such as C and N fixation,
o Shell production by mollusks is another example of autogenic engineering. In aquatic habitats,
mollusk shells are abundant, persistent, ubiquitous structures that are used by other organisms for
attachment, as refuges from predation, physical or physiological stress, and to control transport of
solutes and particles in the benthic environment.
• When woodpeckers and other birds excavate holes in which they nest, they create homes not only for
themselves but for many other animals. They modify the surrounding environment to bring changes in the
environment without transforming themselves. So woodpeckers are considered as Allogenic ecosystem
engineers.
• Hence option c is the correct answer.

Q 22.B
• LED is known as Light Emitting Diode. It is a semiconductor light source that emits light when current
flows through it. In a CFL (Compact Fluorescent Light), an electric current is driven through a tube
containing argon and a small amount of mercury vapor. Hence it does not contain a filament at all (like
the incandescent bulbs had, tungsten-based). Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• LED and CFL as technologies do not have a difference in brightness intrinsically. Brightness is
determined by lumens. Lumens is best described as the measurement of light. A single CFL and LED
bulb might have the same lumen (brightness) output but vary greatly in the amount of energy
needed to generate that level of brightness. For the same wattage (rate of energy consumption), an LED
bulb gives more brightness. A CFL bulb can provide more brightness, but it would consume greater
power. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Although LED technology for use in bulbs has not been on the market for long, the lifespan estimates for
the new technology are astounding and leave CFL and incandescents with little to show for in
comparison. With an astonishing lifespan of 25,000 hours, LED light bulbs are the undisputed,
heavyweight champion in longevity. The next best are CFL bulbs which bring in a respectable 8,000
hours of average life expectancy. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 23.D
• Besides the longitudinal divisions, the Himalayas have been divided on the basis of regions from west to
east. These divisions have been demarcated by river valleys.
• Punjab Himalaya: The part of the Himalayas lying between Indus and Satluj has been traditionally
known as Punjab Himalaya but it is also known regionally as Kashmir and Himachal Himalaya from
west to east respectively. Karakoram, Zaskar, Ladakh, Pir panjal, Dhola Dhar are the main ranges of
this section

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 • Kumaon Himalayas: The part of the Himalayas lying between Satluj and Kali rivers. Nanda Devi,
Kamet, Trishul, Badrinath, Kedarnath, Gangotri are important peak.
• Nepal Himalayas: The part of the Himalayas lying between Kali and Teesta. This is the tallest section of
Himalayas and is covered by peaks of perpetual snow. Mount Everest is the highest peak of the world is
found in this region. Other important Peaks are Kanchenjunga, Lhotse, Cho Oyu, Dhaula Giri, and
Anapurna.
• Assam Himalayas: The part lying between Teesta and Dihang rivers. This part of Himalayas spread over
large parts so Sikkim, Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. The important Peaks of this region are Namcha
Barwa, Kuala Kangri, and Chomo Lhari
• The Brahmaputra mark the easternmost boundary of the Himalayas. Beyond the Dihang gorge, the
Himalayas bend sharply to the south and spread along the eastern boundary of India. They are known as
the Purvachal or the Eastern hills and mountains. These hills running through the north-eastern states
are mostly composed of strong sandstones which are sedimentary rocks. Covered with dense forests, they
mostly run as parallel ranges and valleys.

Q 24.B
• Recently, the Lieutenant Governor Kiran Bedi overruled the appointment of former bureaucrat T. M
Balakrishnan as the State Election Commissioner (SEC). The government had appointed former
bureaucrat T. M Balakrishnan, last year, as SEC after Speaker V. P Sivakolundhu gave a ruling bestowing
power to appoint the election officer with the elected government. The Speaker, while giving his ruling,
had also canceled a similar advertisement floated allegedly at the behest of Lieutenant Governor Kiran
Bedi for the SEC post.
• Statement 1 is not correct: According to Article 243K of the Constitution Of India, the
superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of,
all elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in a State Election Commission consisting of a State
Election Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor. Subject to the provisions of this
Constitution, the Legislature of a State may, by law, make provision with respect to all matters relating to,
or in connection with, elections to the Panchayats.
• Statement 2 is correct: The appointment of State Election Commissioner of Puducherry is an
executive action but his removal can only be through legislative action as referred in Article 243 K,
243 L & 243- ZB of the Constitution of India. The constitution states that 'provided that the State
Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in the like manner and on the like
ground as a Judge of a High Court and the conditions of service of the State Election Commissioner shall
not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment"

Q 25.B
• The Cholas as a ruling power rose to eminence in the 9th Century A.D. when Vijayalaya seized Tanjavur
from a feudatory chief of the Pallavas called Muttarayas.
• Henceforth the Cholas were able to establish control over Pallava territories and subdued the Pandya
power. The Chola state stood on a firm footing deriving sustenance from the resource-pocket located in
the fertile and rich area of the Kaveri valley.
• The Cholas had a large land revenue department consisting of several rungs, but it was largely concerned
with maintaining accounts.
• Certain frequently occurring terms in inscriptions give information about the dues imposed by the
state on cultivators.
o Eccoru referred to the obligation of villagers to provide food for state officials.
o Muttaiyal and vetti meant the obligation to provide labour services.
o Kudimai was another term for such labour services.
o The antarayam was a rural tax realized in cash.
• There was a steady rise in the number of revenue terms in inscriptions, peaking during the reign of
Rajendra II (1052–63 AD), and declining from the time of Kulottunga I.

Q 26.B
• As an environmental treaty under the aegis of the United Nations Environment Programme, CMS
provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of migratory animals and their
habitats. CMS brings together the countries through which migratory animals pass, the Range States, and
lays the legal foundation for internationally coordinated conservation measures throughout a
migratory range.

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 • As the only global convention specializing in the conservation of migratory species, their habitats and
migration routes, CMS complements and co-operates with a number of other international organizations,
NGOs and partners in the media as well as in the corporate sector.
• Migratory species threatened with extinction are listed on Appendix I of the Convention. CMS Parties
strive towards strictly protecting these animals, conserving or restoring the places where they live,
mitigating obstacles to migration and controlling other factors that might endanger them. Besides
establishing obligations for each country joining the Convention, CMS promotes concerted action among
the Range countries of many of these species.
• Migratory species that need or would significantly benefit from international co-operation are listed in
Appendix II of the Convention. For this reason, the Convention encourages the Range States to conclude
global or regional agreements.
• India, in February (2020), hosted the 13th Conference of the Parties to the Convention on
Migratory Species (CMS COP13), in Gujarat. The theme of the conference was “Migratory species
connect the planet and together we welcome them home”.
• TRAFFIC, the wildlife trade monitoring network, is mandated to work towards ensuring that trade
in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature. Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
• Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Q 27.D
• Catalonia
o It is an autonomous region in in northeastern Spain with its own linguistic and cultural
identity. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched. It has been demanding for an independent nation of its
own reflects its distinctive history within Spain. In October, 2019 the Spanish Supreme court
sentenced several Catalan political leaders involved in organizing a referendum on Catalonia's
independence from Spain were convicted on charges of misuse of public funds. This decision has
sparked demonstrations around Catalonia.
• Bougainville
o It is a small province within Papua New Guinea. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. It has held its
special status as an autonomous region of the country since 2001 following a long war. Bougainville
consists of a small cluster of islands, the two biggest of which are Bougainville Island and Buka
Island.
o Recently, the Citizens of Bougainville, an autonomous region of Papua New Guinea, overwhelmingly
voted for independence on Dec. 11, which means it may become the world’s newest country.
Subsequently, the government of Papua New Guinea will have to ratify the outcome of the vote in
order for Bougainville to become its own country.
• Rojava
o It is a de facto autonomous region in northeastern Syria. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
o The “Rojava Revolution” began, roughly, in 2012, when the Syrian President withdrew his forces
from Northern Syria as the war escalated in other parts of the country. In the absence of the regime,
the people of the predominantly Kurdish region of Rojava declared their autonomy and produced a
new constitution in early 2014. Post the withdrawal of US from Syria, Rojava came under heavy
attack from Turkey. The region has since witnessed extreme violence and genocide, despite a
ceasefire.
Q 28.C
• If the President is satisfied that the financial stability or credit of India or any part of the state is in
danger than he can issue a proclamation declaring financial emergency under Article 360.
• The consequences of the proclamation of a Financial Emergency are as follows:
o The executive authority of the Centre extends
✓ to directing any state to observe such canons of financial propriety as are specified by it, and
✓ to directions as the President may deem necessary and adequate for the purpose.
o Any such direction may include a provision requiring
✓ the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in the state,
and
✓ the reservation of all money bills or other financial bills for the consideration of the
President after they are passed by the legislature of the state.
o The President may issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of
✓ all or any class of persons serving the Union, and
✓ the judges of the Supreme Court and the high court.
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Q 29.B
• Cape Agulhas: The southernmost part of the African continent is the former clipper route as named by
sailors, but currently, the region is called the Cape Agulhas. This area is not only the southernmost part of
Africa but it is also the start of the borderline between the Atlantic and the Indian oceans. Hence option
(b) is correct.

• Cape Horn is a rocky headland on Hornos Island, in southern Chile's Tierra del Fuego archipelago. It's
surrounded by wild seas off the southern tip of South America where the Pacific and Atlantic oceans
meet.
• Cape Leeuwin is the most south-westerly mainland point of the Australian continent, in the state of
Western Australia. A few small islands and rocks, the St Alouarn Islands, extend further in Flinders Bay
to the east of the cape.
• The South East Cape is a cape located at the southernmost point of the main island of Tasmania, the
southernmost state of Australia.

Q 30.C
• Doctrine of Eminent Domain and Right to Property: Doctrine of Eminent Domain is a concept in the
American Constitution. It is the acquisition of private property by the state for a public purpose with
paying certain amount of compensation. Initially when India got Independence, the legislature to
abolish the Zamindari System, enacted various laws through which it took the property from various land
holders and used it for public purpose. Many a times mala-fide intention can be seen achieved through this
doctrine.
• There are two essentials of the Doctrine of Eminent Domain:
o Property is taken for public use
o Compensation is paid for the property taken.
• In Indian Constitution, Entry 42 of List III speaks about ‘acquisitioning and requisitioning of
property’. In the case of State of Bihar v Kameshwar Singh, Supreme Court defined eminent
Domain as “the power of a sovereign to take property for public use without the owner’s consent
upon making just compensation.”
• Article 31A, 31B and 31C as well as Art. 300A are the existing constitutional provisions concerning
private property.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 31.D
• A species whose status provides information on the overall condition of the ecosystem and of other
species in that ecosystem is known as indicator species. They reflect the quality and changes in
environmental conditions as well as the aspect of community composition. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Not only invertebrates and microorganisms but even vertebrates can act as indicators species in an
ecosystem. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Some of the common indicator species are:
• Plant indicators: mosses and lichens, tree bark, bark pockets, tree rings and leaves. Fungi too may be
useful as indicators.

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 • Animal indicators and toxins: changes in populations, whether increase or decrease, can indicate
pollution. Vertebrates and even Mammals make good indicator species in many ecosystems. For
example, Grizzly Bears are considered an indicator species to assess both the health and diversity of
species in Alaska.
• Lichen is an example of an indicator species. Lichens obtain almost all their nutrients from the
atmosphere through uptake over their entire surface. Lichens are therefore highly susceptible to changes
in atmospheric chemistry and deposition and for this reason, provide very sensitive indicators of many
changes. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 32.B
• A significant feature of the Quit India Movement was the emergence of what came to be known as
parallel governments in some parts of the country.
• The first one was proclaimed in Ballia, in East U P, in August 1942 under the leadership of Chittu
Pande, who called himself a Gandhian. Though it succeeded in getting the Collector to hand over power
and release all the arrested Congress leaders, it could not survive for long and when the soldiers marched
in, a week after the parallel government was formed, they found that the leaders had fled.
• In Tamluk, in the Midnapur district of Bengal, the Jatiya Sarkar came into existence on 17
December 1942 and lasted till September 1944. Tamluk was an area where Gandhian constructive work
had made considerable headway and it was also the scene of earlier mass struggles. The Jatiya Sarkar
undertook cyclone relief work, gave grants to schools. It also organized an armed Vidyut Vahini.
• It also set up arbitration courts and distributed the surplus paddy of the well-to-do to the poor. Being
located in a relatively remote area, it could continue its activities with comparative ease.
• Satara, in Maharashtra, emerged as the base of the longest-lasting and effective parallel
government (1942-45). From the very beginning of the Quit India Movement, the region played an active
role. The Prati Sarkar continued to function till 1945. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• In the first phase from August 1942, there were marches on local government headquarters, sabotage,
attacks on post offices, the looting of banks and the cutting of telegraph wires. Y.B. Chavan was the
most important leader during the first phase. But by the end of 1942, this phase came to an end with
the arrest of about two thousand people.
• From the very beginning of 1943, the underground activists began to regroup, and by the middle of the
year, succeeded in consolidating the organization. A parallel government or Prati Sarkar was set up
and Nani Patil was its most important leader. This phase was marked by attacks on Government
collaborators. Nyayadan Mandals or people’s courts were set up and justice dispensed. Hence
statement 2 is correct. Prohibition was enforced, and ‘Gandhi marriages’ celebrated to which
untouchables were invited and no ostentation was allowed. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Q 33.A
• The Deputy Chairman is elected by the Rajya Sabha itself from amongst its members. S/he is like any
other ordinary member of the house. S/he can speak in the House, participate in its proceedings and
vote on any question before the Rajya Sabha. Therefore, s/he cannot attend any session of the House of
Parliament. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The Deputy Chairman performs the duties of the Chairman's office when it is vacant or when the Vice-
President acts as President or discharges the functions of the President or when the Chairman is absent
from the sitting of the House. In all the cases, he has all the powers of the Chairman. Therefore, s/he is
not sub-ordinate to the Chairman and is directly responsible to the Rajya Sabha. Hence statement 1
is not correct.
• Like the Chairman, the Deputy Chairman is also entitle to regular salary and allowance. They are fixed by
Parliament and are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Like the Chairman, the Deputy Chairman, while presiding over the House, cannot vote in the first
instance; s/he can only exercise a casting vote in the case of a tie. Further, when a resolution for the
removal of the him/her is under consideration of the house, s/he cannot preside over a sitting of the House,
though he may be present.

Q 34.B
• The nationalist politics was in a low key since the Indian National Congress had split into moderates and
extremists, while the Muslim league supported British interests in war. In 1916 “the extremists” led by
Tilak had gained control of Congress. The Congress Session of 1915 did not approve the resolution
regarding the scheme of Home Rule Leagues. Due to this, Tilak and Besant set up their separate
leagues in Western and Southern India respectively. Hence statement 4 is not correct.
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 • Besant herself inaugurated the Home Rule League at Madras in September 1916. Its branches were
established at Kanpur, Allahabad, Benaras, Mathura, Calicut, and Ahmednagar. She made an extensive
tour and spread the idea of Home Rule. Moderate congressmen who were dissatisfied with the inactivity
of the Congress joined the Home Rule League. The popularity of the League can be gauged from the
fact that Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru began his political career as one of the Joint Secretaries of the
Home Rule League in Uttar Pradesh with his father Motilal Nehru as President. Other leaders who
joined it were: Muhammad Ali Jinnah, B. Chakravarti, and Jitendralal Banerji, Satyamurti and
Khaliquzzaman. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• As Besant’s Home Rule Movement became very popular in Madras, the Government of Madras decided
to suppress it. Students were barred from attending their meetings. In June 1917 Besant and her
associates, B.P. Wadia and George Arundale were interred in Ootacamund. The government’s repression
strengthened the supporters, and with renewed determination, they began to resist. To support Besant,
Sir S. Subramaniam renounced his knighthood. Many leaders like Madan Mohan Malviya and
Surendranath Banerjea who had earlier stayed away from the movement enlisted themselves.
• The objective of home rule leagues/home rule movement was self-rule and dominion status for India
within the British empire. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The Indian Home Rule League was renamed the Commonwealth of India League and used to lobby
British MPs in support of self-government for India within the empire, or dominion status along the
lines of Canada and Australia. It was transformed by V.K. Krishna Menon into the India League in
1929. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Lokamya Tilak and Annie Besant presented a flag during the Home Rule movement in 1917 which had 7
stars in the Saptarishi configuration and Union Jack, as a symbol of autonomous rule under the British
Empire.

Q 35.A
• RBCs have an average life span of 120 days after which they are destroyed in the spleen (graveyard
of RBCs). The spleen plays multiple supporting roles in the body. It acts as a filter for blood as part of the
immune system. Old red blood cells are recycled in the spleen, and platelets and white blood cells are
stored there. The spleen also helps fight certain kinds of bacteria that cause pneumonia and meningitis.

Q 36.A
• A foreign direct investment (FDI) is an investment in the form of a controlling ownership in a business
in one country by an entity based in another country. It is thus distinguished from a foreign portfolio
investment by a notion of direct control.
• Foreign direct investment (FDI) in India is a major monetary source for economic development in
India. Economic liberalisation started in India in wake of the 1991 economic crisis and since then FDI
has steadily increased in India.
• Following are the sectors where Foreign Direct Investment is prohibited in India:
o Lottery including Government or private lotteries, online lotteries, etc.
o Gambling, betting including casinos etc. Foreign technology collaboration, including licensing for
franchise, trademarks or brand name, is also prohibited for lottery, gambling and betting activities.
o Chit funds
o Nidhi company
o Real estate business or construction of farm houses - This shall not include the construction of
townships, residential or commercial premises, roads, bridges and Real Estate Investment Trusts
(REITs) registered with SEBI.
o Cigars, cheroots, cigarillos and cigarette manufacture
o Sectors not open to private investment such as-
o Atomic Energy
o Railway operations (other than permitted activities).
o Trading in Transferable Development Rights (TDRs). TDRs means certificates issued in respect of
category of land acquired for public purposes, either by the Central or State Government in
consideration of surrender of land by the owner without monetary compensation, which are
transferable in part or whole.
• Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India's nuclear programme is not allowed. However, there is no
restriction on FDI in the nuclear industries for manufacturing of equipment and providing other
supplies for nuclear power plants and other related facilities.

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Q 37.A
• The Model Tenancy Act, 2019, takes forward what was proposed in the Draft Model Tenancy Act,
2015. Changes Proposed in The Model Tenancy Act, 2019. There are two notable changes that have been
made in the 2019 policy. Currently, rent agreements are registered at the sub-registrar’s office. In order to
bring transparency, fix accountability and promote fairness in the rental housing segment, the policy
proposes setting up of a rent authority. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• After mutually discussing and agreeing upon the terms and conditions, the landlord and the tenant should
prepare a written rent agreement. They should both then approach the authority and get it registered with
it. The authority at its end will set up a website where it would update the details of all rent agreements it
has registered. This would be on the lines of the functioning of the real estate regulatory authorities.
• In case of a dispute, landlords and tenants will have to approach the rent authority for settlement. In case
they are not satisfied with the order of the authority, they can challenge it in the rent court/rent tribunal
within 30 days from the date of the order. “In the areas to which this Act extends, only the rent court
and no civil court shall have the jurisdiction to hear and decide the applications relating to disputes
between landowner and tenant,”. The court/tribunal should not take more than 60 days to dispose of the
case, adds the policy. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Security deposit: Landlords cannot seek an amount of more than two month’s rent as a security
deposit. This deposit would be returned to the tenant. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Rent revision: The policy states that if a rent agreement is made for a specific period, the landlord cannot
increase the rent amount within this period unless a provision to that effect has been expressly stated in
the agreement. The landlord will have to give written notice, three months in advance before revising the
rent. Landlords can increase the rent if they have incurred expenditure on account of improvement,
addition, or structural alteration which does not include ‘repairs.’
• Entering the rented premises: The landlord must give the tenant a notice of 24 hours in advance (this
could be sent using any electronic medium) to enter the premise. The visiting time has to fall between 7
am to 8 pm.
• Maintenance of the rented premises: The responsibility to maintain the premises lie with both parties.
The rent agreement will have to specifically mention who takes care of what, in case of damages. If the
responsibility lies with the landlord and he refuses to do the needful, the tenant can deduct the money he
spent on the same in the monthly rent. In a reverse situation, the landlord can deduct the amount from the
security deposit. In case the amount is larger than the deposit, the tenant will be liable to pay the balance.

Q 38.B
• A group of weathering processes viz; solution, carbonation, hydration, oxidation and reduction act on
the rocks to decompose, dissolve or reduce them to a fine clastic state through chemical reactions by
oxygen, surface and/or soil water and other acids.
• Water and air (oxygen and carbon dioxide) along with heat must be present to speed up all chemical
reactions. Over and above the carbon dioxide present in the air, decomposition of plants and animals
increases the quantity of carbon dioxide underground. These chemical reactions on various minerals are
very much similar to the chemical reactions in a laboratory
• Solution
o When something is dissolved in water or acids, the water or acid with dissolved contents is called
solution. This process involves the removal of solids in solution and depends upon solubility of a
mineral in water or weak acids.
o On coming in contact with water many solids disintegrate and mix up as suspension in water. Soluble
rock-forming minerals like nitrates, sulphates, and potassium etc. are affected by this process. So,
these minerals are easily leached out without leaving any residue in rainy climates and accumulate in
dry regions.
o Minerals like calcium carbonate and calcium magnesium bicarbonate present in limestones are
soluble in water containing carbonic acid (formed with the addition of carbon dioxide in water) and
are carried away in the water as a solution.
o Carbon dioxide produced by decaying organic matter along with soil water greatly aids in this
reaction. Common salt (sodium chloride) is also a rock-forming mineral and is susceptible to this
process of solution
• Carbonation
o Carbonation is the reaction of carbonate and bicarbonate with minerals and is a common process
helping the breaking down of feldspars and carbonate minerals.

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 o Carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and soil air is absorbed by water, to form carbonic acid that acts
as a weak acid. Calcium carbonates and magnesium carbonates are dissolved in carbonic acid and are
removed in a solution without leaving any residue resulting in cave formation.
• Hydration
o Hydration is the chemical addition of water. Minerals take up water and expand; this expansion
causes an increase in the volume of the material itself or rock. Calcium sulphate takes in water and
turns to gypsum, which is more unstable than calcium sulphate. This process is reversible and long,
continued repetition of this process causes fatigue in the rocks and may lead to their disintegration.
• Freezing, Thawing and Frost Wedging (Physical weathering process)
o Frost weathering occurs due to the growth of ice within pores and cracks of rocks during repeated
cycles of freezing and melting. This process is most effective at high elevations in mid-latitudes
where freezing and melting is often repeated.
o Glacial areas are subject to frost wedging daily. In this process, the rate of freezing is important.
Rapid freezing of water causes its sudden expansion and high pressure. The resulting expansion
affects joints, cracks and small intergranular fractures to become wider and wider till the rock breaks
apart.

Q 39.D
• Sholas are the local name for patches of stunted tropical montane forest found in valleys amid rolling
grassland in the higher montane regions of South India. These patches of shola forest are found mainly in
the valleys and are usually separated from one another by undulating montane grassland. The shola and
grassland together form the shola-grassland complex or mosaic. They are Classified as ‘Southern Montane
Wet Temperate Forest’. These forests are found sheltered in valleys with sufficient moisture and proper
drainage.
• The upper reaches are covered with grasslands, known as Shola grasslands. Usually, Shola forests and
grasslands are found in a ratio of 1:5. The vegetation that grows in Shola forests is evergreen. Red-
coloured young leaves turning into different colours on maturity is a prominent characteristic of the Shola
forests. The occurrence of Himalayan plants like rhododendron in these Shola forests is a mystery. Sholas
play a major role in conserving water supply of the Nilgiris’ streams. The Sholas of the plateau are not
of any great importance from a commercial point of view, as the trees are slow-growing varieties
which produce timber of little or no value and probably take at least a century to mature. Hence
option (d) is not correct. But they add greatly to the beauty of the country and are of immense use in
protecting the source of water supply. Alien species like Sticky Snakeroot, Gorse and Scotch Broom
introduced during British rule, have encroached upon the grasslands.

Q 40.C
• The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention on Biological Diversity is an international
agreement on biosafety as a supplement to the Convention on Biological Diversity. Hence, statement 1
is correct.
• The Biosafety Protocol seeks to protect biological diversity from the potential risks posed
by genetically modified organisms resulting from modern biotechnology.
• It is an international treaty governing the movements of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting
from modern biotechnology from one country to another. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It was adopted on 29 January 2000 as a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological
Diversity and entered into force on 11 September 2003. India is a party to the protocol having ratified
it on January 23, 2003.
• The Nagoya Protocol, a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity, provides a
legal framework for implementing that objective of access and benefit-sharing of genetic
resources. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q 41.D
• Acqua alta is the term used in Veneto for the exceptional tide peaks that occur periodically in the northern
Adriatic Sea. The phenomenon occurs mainly between autumn and spring, when the astronomical tides
are reinforced by the prevailing seasonal winds that hamper the usual reflux. The main winds involved are
the sirocco, which blows northbound along the Adriatic Sea, and the bora, which has a specific local
effect due to the shape and location of the Venetian lagoon.
• Acqua alta occurs when certain events coincide, such as a very high tide (usually during a full or new
moon), Low atmospheric pressure, a scirocco wind blowing up the narrow, shallow Adriatic Sea, which

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 forces water into the Venetian Lagoon etc. By official definition, acqua alta occurs when the tide is 90 cm
(35.4 inches) above normal high tide.

Q 42.A
• The United States of America (USA) has approved the sale of an Integrated Air Defence Weapon
System (IADWS) to India at an estimated cost of $1.9 billion. The objective of the deal is to
modernize India’s armed forces and to expand its existing air defence architecture to counter
threats posed by air attacks.
• The Integrated Air Defence Weapon System (IADWS) is called the National Advanced Surface to Air
Missile System (NASAMS-II).
• It is an upgraded version of the NASAMS developed by the US firm Raytheon in partnership with
Kongsberg Defence & Aerospace of Norway.
• It includes launchers, targeting and guidance systems, advanced medium-range air-to-air
missile (AMRAAM) and Stinger missiles, 3D Sentinel radars, fire-distribution centres and command-and-
control units.
• IADWS will be used along with indigenous, Russian and Israeli systems to erect an ambitious multi-
layered missile shield over the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi against aerial threats.

Q 43.A
• Price-elasticity of demand is a measure of the responsiveness of the demand for a good to changes in its
price. Demands for some goods are very responsive to price changes while demands for certain others are
not so responsive to price changes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Price-elasticity of demand for a good is defined as the percentage change in demand for the good divided
by the percentage change in its price. Price elasticity of demand for a good.
• Higher price elasticity of demand suggests that consumers are more responsive to a product's price
change. If the price elasticity of demand is greater than 1, it is elastic. That is, demand for the product is
sensitive to an increase in price.
• Price elasticity of demand that is less than 1 is inelastic. Demand for the product does not change
significantly after a price increase.
• If at some price, the percentage change in demand for a good is equal to the percentage change in the
price, |eD|= 1, and demand for the good is said to be unitary elastic at that price.
• The price elasticity of demand for a good depends on the nature of the good and the availability of close
substitutes of the good. Consider, for example, necessities like food. Such goods are essential for life and
the demands for such goods do not change much in response to changes in their prices. Demand for food
does not change much even if food prices go up. On the other hand, the demand for luxuries can be very
responsive to price changes. In general, demand for necessity is likely to be price inelastic while demand
for a luxury good is likely to be price elastic. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Though the demand for food is inelastic, the demands for specific food items are likely to be more elastic.
For example, think of a particular variety of pulses. If the price of this variety of pulses goes up, people
can shift to some other variety of pulses which is a close substitute. The demand for a good is likely to be
elastic if close substitutes are easily available. On the other hand, if close substitutes are not available
easily, the demand for a good is likely to be inelastic.

Q 44.B
• The Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change on January 18, 2019 notified the 2019
Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) norms, replacing the existing CRZ norms of 2011. The new CRZ norms
are issued under Section 3 of the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
• Salient Features of the norms include:
o Two separate categories for CRZ-III (Rural) areas:
✓ CRZ-III A: The A category of CRZ-III areas are densely populated rural areas with a population
density of 2161 per square kilometre as per 2011 Census. Such areas have a No Development
Zone (NDZ) of 50 meters from the High Tide Line (HTL) as against 200 meters from the High
Tide Line stipulated in the CRZ Notification, 2011.
✓ CRZ-III B - The B category of CRZ-III rural areas have population density of below 2161 per
square kilometre as per 2011 Census. Such areas have a No Development Zone of 200 meters
from the HTL.

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 o As per CRZ, 2011 Notification, the Floor Space Index (FSI) or the Floor Area Ratio (FAR) had been
frozen. In the CRZ 2019 Notification, the government decided to de-freeze the Floor Space Index and
permit FSI for construction projects.
o Statement 1 is not correct: The new norms permit temporary tourism facilities such as shacks,
toilet blocks, change rooms, drinking water facilities, etc. in Beaches. Such temporary tourism
facilities are also now permissible in the "No Development Zone" (NDZ) of the CRZ-III areas as per
the Notification. However, a minimum distance of 10 m from HTL should be maintained for setting
up of such facilities.
o The procedure for CRZ clearances has been streamlined. Now, the only such projects which are
located in the CRZ-I (Ecologically Sensitive Areas) and CRZ IV (area covered between Low Tide
Line and 12 Nautical Miles seaward) will be dealt with for CRZ clearance by the Ministry. The
powers for clearances with respect to CRZ-II and III have been delegated at the State level.
o Statement 2 is correct: For islands close to the main land coast and for all Backwater Islands in
the main land, No Development Zone of 20 meters has been stipulated in wake of space
limitations and unique geography of such regions.
o To address pollution in Coastal areas, the treatment facilities have been made permissible in CRZ-I B
area subject to necessary safeguards.
• Statement 3 is correct: Sundarban region of West Bengal and other ecologically sensitive areas
identified as under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 such as Gulf of Khambat and Gulf of Kutchh in
Gujarat, Malvan, Achra-Ratnagiri in Maharashtra, Karwar and Coondapur in Karnataka, Vembanad
in Kerala, Gulf of Mannar in Tamil Nadu, Bhaitarkanika in Odisha, Coringa, East Godavari and Krishna
in Andhra Pradesh shall be treated as Critical Vulnerable Coastal Areas (CVCA) and managed with the
involvement of coastal communities including fisherfolk who depend on coastal resources for their
sustainable livelihood.

Q 45.C
• The Once-Only Principle (OOP) ensures that citizens and businesses provide data to public
administration only once, while public bodies exchange this data when requested and in compliance
with the relevant regulations. The European Union countries, as part of the 2017 Tallinn Declaration on
e-Government, have come together to enact the ‘The Once-Only Principle (TOOP)’. TOOP aims to
remove unnecessary administrative burdens on citizens by mandating that citizens are not required to
provide the same information more than once to the government.
• About Tallinn Declaration: In October 2017, all member states of the European Union, together with the
European Free Trade Association countries Liechtenstein, Norway, Iceland and Switzerland signed the
Tallinn e-Government Declaration. In the Tallinn Declaration, the common goals for e-government
development over the next five years have been agreed on, providing direction for both national and pan-
European innovation.

Q 46.A
• Government of India appointed a committee in 1957 to examine the working of the Community
Development Programme (1952) and the National Extension Service (1953) and to suggest measures for
their better working.
• The chairman of this committee was Balwant Rai G Mehta.
• The committee submitted its report in November 1957 and recommended the establishment of the scheme
of ‘democratic decentralization’, which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj.
• It recommended the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system—gram panchayat at the village
level, panchayat samiti at the block level and Zila Parishad at the district level. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
• Panchayati Raj in India signifies the system of rural local self-government.
• It has been established in all the states of India by the Acts of the state legislatures (not by the 73rd
amendment act) to build democracy at the grass root level. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Q 47.B
• Option (b) is the correct answer. Hangul is the Kashmiri red stag is the state animal of Jammu and
Kashmir. Hangul comes from Kashmiri word haang, which means a dark, rusty brown colour. It is the
only surviving subspecies of the red deer family in the Indian subcontinent. The Dachigam National
park was meant to be a habitat exclusively for the hangul. Dachigam National Park is located 22
kilometers from Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir.

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 • More about Hangul:
o The Hangul was once widely distributed in the mountains of Kashmir and parts of Chamba district in
neighbouring Himachal Pradesh. But, now, the IUCN’s Red List has classified it as Critically
Endangered and is similarly listed under the Species Recovery Programme of the Wildlife Institute
of India (WII) and the Environmental Information System (ENVIS) of the Ministry of Environment,
Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC).
o The Hangul is considered equally significant to the state of Jammu & Kashmir as the tiger is to the
whole of India. It is the only Asiatic survivor or sub-species of the European red deer. But the state
animal’s decreasing population remains a big concern.
o According to the survey in 2017, the population of Hangul is 182 in Dachigam and adjoining areas.
Earlier population estimates suggest that there were 197 deer in 2004 and 186 in 2015.
o The International Union for Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Red Data Book — which contains lists
of species at risk of extinction — has declared the Hangul as one of three species that were
critically endangered in Jammu and Kashmir. The other two are the Markhor — the world’s
largest species of wild goat found in Kashmir and several regions of central Asia — and the Tibetan
antelope or ‘Chiru’, found mostly in the mountainous regions of Mongolia and the Himalayas,
where Jammu and Kashmir is mostly situated.
o The Hangul is placed under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and the J&K
Wildlife Protection Act, 1978.
Q 48.A
• Foreign Exchange Management (Deposit) Regulations, 2000 permits Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) to
have deposit accounts with banks authorized by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The major accounts that
can be opened in India by a non-resident includes:
o Foreign Currency (Non-Resident) Account (Banks) Scheme (FCNR(B) account)
o Non-Resident (External) Rupee Account Scheme (NRE account)
o Non-Resident Ordinary Rupee Account Scheme (NRO account)
• Deposits in NRE account and NRO account can be made in Indian currency. Whereas, deposits in FCNR
(B) account can be made in any permitted currency i.e. a foreign currency which is freely
convertible. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Foreign Currency (Non-Resident) Account (Banks) Scheme: FCNR(B) accounts can be opened by
NRIs, PIOs (Person of Indian Origin), and Overseas Corporate Bodies (OCBs). The accounts can be
opened in the form of term deposits only and for a period not less than 1 year and not more than 5 years.
The rate of interest applicable to these accounts is in accordance with the directives issued by RBI from
time to time. Repatriation of funds in FCNR(B) accounts is permitted.
• Non-Resident (External) Rupee Account Scheme (NRE account): NRE accounts can be opened by
NRIs, PIOs, and OCBs with banks authorized by RBI. These can be in the form of savings, current,
recurring or fixed deposit accounts. The rate of interest applicable to these accounts is in accordance with
the directives issued by RBI from time to time. Repatriation of funds in NRE accounts is permitted.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Non-Resident Ordinary Rupee Account Scheme: NRO accounts can be opened by any person resident
outside India (Individuals/ entities of Pakistan nationality/ origin and entities of Bangladesh origin require
the prior approval of the Reserve Bank of India) with an authorized bank for collecting their funds from
local bonafide transactions in Indian Rupees. When a resident becomes an NRI, his existing Rupee
accounts are designated as NRO. These accounts can be in the form of current, savings, recurring or fixed
deposit accounts. While the principal of NRO deposits is non-repatriable, current income and interest-
earnings are repatriable. Balances in an NRO account of NRIs/ PIOs are remittable up to USD 1 (one)
million per financial year (April-March) along with their other eligible assets.
• Repatriation of funds in FCNR(B) and NRE accounts is permitted. Hence, deposits in these accounts are
included in India’s external debt outstanding. While the principal of NRO deposits is non-repatriable,
current income and interest-earnings are repatriable. Therefore, deposits in NRO accounts are also
included in India’s external debt outstanding. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q 49.A
• In December 2019, consumer food price inflation hit 14.12%, the highest in six years. The inflation has
also been alarmingly rapid, rising from 2.99% in August to 5.11% in September and 7.89% in October. In
November, food inflation rose to 10.01%, entering double digits for the first time since December 2013.
• Soaring food prices bring down the real income of people thus affecting the poor and middle
class. Measures to contain prices of food commodities include selective ban on exports and futures

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 trading in food grains, zero import duty on select food items, permitting import of pulses and sugar
by ‘PSUs, distribution of imported pulses and edible oil through PDS, and release of higher quota of
non-levy sugar. These are explained below.
• Listing food items as essential commodities under Essential Commodities Act, 1955: The ECA was
enacted way back in 1955. It has since been used by the Government to regulate the production, supply
and distribution of a whole host of commodities it declares 'essential' in order to make them available to
consumers at fair prices. If the Centre finds that a certain commodity is in short supply and its price is
spiking, it can notify stock-holding limits on it for a specified period. Anybody trading or dealing in a
commodity, be it wholesalers, retailers or even importers are prevented from stockpiling it beyond a
certain quantity. The list of items under the Act include drugs, fertilisers, pulses and edible oils, and
petroleum and petroleum products. The Centre can include new commodities as and when the need arises,
and take them off the list once the situation improves.
• Increasing Minimum Export Price: Minimum Export Price (MEP) is the price below which an exporter
is not allowed to export the commodity from India. MEP is a kind of quantitative restriction to
trade. Government fixes MEP for the selected commodities with a view to arrest domestic price rise and
augment domestic supply. This is intended to be imposed for short durations and is removed when
situations change. However removal of MEP helps farmers / exporters in realising better and remunerative
prices and would also help in earning valuable foreign exchange for the country.
• Decreasing custom duties on import of food items increases the supply of food items in the market. It
helps in reducing supply demand mismatch thus reduce food inflation
• FCI's sale of food items like Wheat and Rice at predetermined prices in the open market enhance their
supply. Thus it helps in containing inflation in food items especially in rice and wheat.

Q 50.A
• François Bernier, a Frenchman, was a doctor, political philosopher, and historian. He visited India during
the reign of the Mughal Empire and was in India for 12 years. He was closely associated with the Mughal
court, as a physician to Prince Dara Shikoh, the eldest son of Emperor Shah Jahan, and later as an
intellectual and scientist, with Danish and Khan, an Armenian noble at the Mughal court. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
• He visited several parts of India frequently compared to what he saw in India with the situation in Europe.
He dedicated his major writing to Louis XIV, the king of France, and many of his other works were
written in the form of letters to influential officials and ministers. In virtually every instance Bernier
described what he saw in India as a bleak situation in comparison to developments in Europe.
• Bernier’s Travels in the Mughal Empire is marked by detailed observations, critical insights, and
reflection. His account contains discussions trying to place the history of the Mughals within some sort of
a universal framework. He constantly compared Mughal India with contemporary Europe, generally
emphasizing the superiority of the latter. His representation of India works on the model of binary
opposition, where India is presented as the inverse of Europe. He also ordered the perceived differences
hierarchically, so that India appeared to be inferior to the Western world. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.
• According to Bernier, one of the fundamental differences between Mughal India and Europe was
the lack of private property in land in the former. He was a firm believer in the virtues of private
property and saw crown ownership of land as being harmful to both the state and its people. He thought
that in the Mughal Empire the emperor owned all the land and distributed it among his nobles and that this
had disastrous consequences for the economy and society. This perception was not unique to Bernier but
is found in most travelers’ accounts of the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries.
• Owing to crown ownership of land, argued Bernier, landholders could not pass on their land to their
children. So they were averse to any long-term investment in the sustenance and expansion of production.
The absence of private property in land had, therefore, prevented the emergence of the class of
“improving” landlords (as in Western Europe) with a concern to maintain or improve the land. It
had led to the uniform ruination of agriculture, excessive oppression of the peasantry and a
continuous decline in the living standards of all sections of society, except the ruling aristocracy.
• As an extension of this, Bernier described Indian society as consisting of undifferentiated masses of
impoverished people, subjugated by a small minority of a very rich and powerful ruling
class. Between the poorest of the poor and the richest of the rich, there was no social group or class worth
the name. Bernier confidently asserted: “There is no middle state in India.”
• His works were published in France in 1670-71 and translated into English, Dutch, German and Italian
within the next five years. Between 1670and 1725 his account was reprinted eight times in French, and by

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 1684 it had been reprinted three times in English. This was in marked contrast to the accounts in Arabic
and Persian, which circulated as manuscripts and were generally not published before 1800. Hence,
statement 3 is not correct.

Q 51.A
• To optimize resource utilization and enhance the efficiency of the manufacturing sector, the Department
of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP), Ministry of Commerce & Industry launched the
Industrial Information System (IIS) in 2017.
• It is a GIS-enabled database of industrial areas and clusters across the country. Hence statement 1
is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
• The portal serves as a one-stop solution to the free and easy accessibility of all industrial information
including availability of raw material – agriculture, horticulture, minerals, natural resources,
distance from key logistic nodes, layers of terrain and urban infrastructure.
• State Governments and Industrial Development Corporations have actively used the portal and nominated
over 200 parks for their assessment along the above parameters.
• The IIS portal data helped in designing the Industrial Park Rating System which assesses the quality of
infrastructure in industrial parks.

Q 52.A
• NITI Aayog has created the India Knowledge Hub (IKH), a dynamic web portal, functioning as a
repository to store and disseminate best practices from across the country.
• Reflecting the spirit of cooperative federalism, the NITI Aayog launched the India Knowledge Hub so
that districts, States, Central ministries and other government institutions can exchange knowledge
on real-time basis and replicate practices that have worked in other areas.
• The portal serves as a dynamic sharing platform in which the key functionaries can directly upload best
practices for replication in other regions.
• While, mostly the best practices are directly uploaded by the district collectors from any State/UT,
Departments of State governments and Central Ministry can also upload the best practices in the portal.
• In its first phase, the portal is also being extended to certain non-government institutions which have
requested access to upload best practices.

Q 53.A
• In 1931, Japan had become the largest buyer of Indian cotton – in spite of imperial preferences. Japanese
textiles were increasing market shares in India dramatically. Lancashire was hurting. Duty on Japanese
textiles was raised from 31.5% to 75%. Japan stopped buying Indian cotton in retaliation. Indian mills and
the Indian farmer paid the price. Cotton prices crashed.
• In this context, Lees-Mody Pact was signed where the Bombay Mill Owners Association agreed to
further preferences for British textiles in place of Japanese imports in return for a Lancashire
promise to buy more Indian raw cotton. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 54.C
• A Heat Wave is a period of abnormally high temperatures, more than the normal maximum temperature
that occurs during the summer season in the North-Western parts of India. Heat Waves typically occur
between March and June, and in some rare cases even extend till July. The extreme temperatures and
resultant atmospheric conditions adversely affect people living in these regions as they cause
physiological stress, sometimes resulting in death.
• The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) has given the following criteria for Heat Waves:
o Heat Wave need not be considered till the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40*C for
Plains and at least 30*C for Hilly regions. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o When the normal maximum temperature of a station is less than or equal to 40*C Heat Wave
Departure from normal is 5*C to 6*C Severe Heat Wave Departure from normal is 7*C or more.
o When the normal maximum temperature of a station is more than 40*C Heat Wave Departure from
normal is 4*C to 5*C Severe Heat Wave Departure from normal is 6*C or more. Hence case 3 is not
necessarily or strictly a heatwave condition. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
o When the actual maximum temperature remains 45*C or more irrespective of normal maximum
temperature, heat waves should be declared. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Higher daily peak temperatures and longer, more intense heat waves are becoming increasingly frequent
globally due to climate change. India too is feeling the impact of climate change in terms of increased
21 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 instances of heat waves which are more intense in nature with each passing year, and have a devastating
impact on human health thereby increasing the number of heatwave casualties.
• Higher daily peak temperatures and longer, more intense heat waves are becomingly increasingly frequent
globally due to climate change. India too is feeling the impact of climate change in terms of increased
instances of heat waves which are more intense in nature with each passing year, and have a devastating
impact on human health thereby increasing the number of heatwave casualties.
• Health Impacts of Heat Waves:
o The health impacts of Heat Waves typically involve dehydration, heat cramps, heat exhaustion and/or
heat stroke. The signs and symptoms are as follows:
o Heat Cramps: Ederna (swelling) and Syncope (Fainting) generally accompanied by fever below 39*C
i.e.102*F.
o Heat Exhaustion: Fatigue, weakness, dizziness, headache, nausea, vomiting, muscle cramps and
sweating.
o Heat Stoke: Body temperatures of 40*C i.e. 104*F or more along with delirium, seizures or coma.
This is a potential fatal condition

Q 55.C
• The ‘Time to Care’ report was released recently by Oxfam.
• Releasing the study Time to Care here ahead of the 50th Annual Meeting of the World Economic Forum
(WEF), rights group Oxfam also said the world’s 2,153 billionaires have more wealth than the 4.6 billion
people who make up 60 per cent of the planet’s population.
• India’s richest 1% hold more than four-times the wealth held by 953 million people who make up for the
bottom 70% of the country’s population, while the total wealth of all Indian billionaires is more than the
full-year budget.
• The report flagged that global inequality is shockingly entrenched and vast and the number of billionaires
has doubled in the last decade, despite their combined wealth having declined in the last year.

Q 56.A
• Environmental flows or e-flows describe the quantity, timing, and quality of water flows required to
sustain freshwater and estuarine ecosystems and the human livelihoods and well being that depend on
these ecosystems. E-flow norms stipulate the volume of water that Dams and barrages must release to
allow the river to naturally clean itself and protect its aquatic biodiversity. Hence statement 1 is
correct. In India, the government has made it mandatory for hydropower projects on the upper
reaches of the river Ganga’s tributaries to release minimum quantities of water through the
year. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The Central Water Commission is tasked with measuring the flow and ensuring that plants comply
with the law. Hence statement 3 is correct. The ecological flow, or e-flow notification as it is called,
specifies that the upper stretches of the Ganga — from its origins in the glaciers and until Haridwar —
would have to maintain: 20% of the monthly average flow of the preceding 10-days between November
and March, which is the dry season; 25% of the average during the ‘lean season’ of October, April and
May; and 30% of monthly average during the monsoon months of June-September.

Q 57.B
• The International Ramsar Convention on Wetlands has declared Nandur Madhameshwar wetland in
Niphad tahsil of Nashik district as Ramsar wetland. This is the first wetland in the state and among the
nine wetlands in India declared by the Convention as Ramsar sites.
• Nandur Madhmeshwar wetland has been formed by shallow backwaters of the Nandur Madhmeshwar
dam and is known as Maharashtra ‘s Bharatpur. It is located at the confluence of the Godavari and
Kadawa rivers. It lies in the 100 sq km Nandur Madhameshwar sanctuary formed in 1986.
• Nandur Madhameshwar boasts of threatened plants like Indian sandalwood, threatened birds like Indian
Spotted Eagle, Eastern Imperial Eagle, Common Pochard, Bristled Grass Bird, Wooly-necked stork,
White-rumped vulture, Indian vulture and Egyptian vulture, threatened fish Deolali Minnow and
mammal-like leopard.

Q 58.B
• India has a bicameral system i.e., two Houses of Parliament. At the state level, the equivalent of the Lok
Sabha is the Vidhan Sabha or Legislative Assembly; that of the Rajya Sabha is the Vidhan Parishad or
Legislative Council. A second House of the legislature is considered important for two reasons: one, to act

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 as a check on hasty actions by the popularly elected House and, two, to ensure that individuals who might
not be cut out for the rough-and-tumble of direct elections too are able to contribute to the legislative
process.
• Statement 1 is correct: Most of the members of the legislative council are indirectly elected. 5/6th of the
members are indirectly elected and the Governor also nominates 1/6th of the members.
• The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the
minimum strength is fixed at 40.
• Currently, 6 Indian states have it Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and
Telangana. Recently the legislative council of Jammu and Kashmir was abolished.
• Statement 2 is not correct: the Parliament can abolish a legislative council or create it if the legislative
assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution to that effect. Such a specific resolution must be
passed by the state assembly by a special majority. This Act of Parliament is not to be deemed as an
amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368 and is passed as an ordinary piece of
legislation by a simple majority.
• Statement 3 is correct: Like the Rajya Sabha, the legislative council is a continuing chamber, that is, it is
a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. But, one-third of its members retire on the expiration
of every second year.
• Statement 4 is not correct: An ordinary bill can originate in either House of the state legislature. If the
assembly rejects the amendments suggested by the council or the council rejects the bill altogether or does
not take any action for three months, then the assembly may pass the bill again and transmit the same to
the council. If the council rejects the bill again or passes the bill with amendments not acceptable to the
assembly or does not pass the bill within one month, then the bill is deemed to have been passed by both
the Houses in the form in which it was passed by the assembly for the second time.
• Therefore, the ultimate power of passing an ordinary bill is vested in the assembly. At most, the council
can detain or delay the bill for a period of four months—three months in the first instance and one month
in the second instance. The Constitution does not provide for the mechanism of a joint sitting of both the
Houses.

Q 59.D
• The National Sample Survey Organization (NSSO), since its inception in 1950, does the measurement of
employment/unemployment in India.
• The National Sample Survey Organization (NSSO) provides three different estimates of employment and
unemployment based on different approaches used to classify an individual’s activity status. These are :
o Usual status approach with a reference period of 365 days preceding the date of the survey. Hence,
statement 1 is not correct.
o Current weekly status approach with a reference period of seven days preceding the date of the survey
o Current daily status approach with each day of the seven days preceding the date of the survey as the
reference period
• The Usual Status approach to measuring unemployment uses a reference period of 365 days i.e. one year
preceding the date of the survey of NSSO for measuring unemployment. This approach records only those
persons as unemployed who had no gainful work for a major time during the 365 days preceding the date
of the survey and are seeking or are available for work. Thus, the estimates of unemployment obtained on
the basis of the usual status approach are expected to capture long-term unemployment. Hence, statement
2 is not correct.
• The Current Weekly Status (CWS) approach to measuring unemployment uses seven days preceding the
date of the survey as the reference period. A person is considered to be employed if he or she pursues any
one or more of the gainful activities for at least one hour on any day of the reference week. On the other
hand, if a person does not pursue any gainful activity, but has been seeking or available for work, the
person is considered as unemployed. The usual status approach to measuring unemployment fails to
capture the short term fluctuations in employment and unemployment caused due to seasonality in
labour markets. However, CWS measures these short term fluctuations very well owing to its
shorter reference period of a week.
• The current daily status approach to measuring unemployment seeks to ascertain the activity status of an
individual for each day of the reference week. It considers the activity status of a person for each day of
the preceding seven days. The reference period here is a day. If a person did not find work on a day or
some days during the survey week, he/she is regarded as unemployed. Normally if a person works for four
hours or more during a day, he or she is considered as employed for the whole day. The daily status
unemployment is considered to be a comprehensive measure of unemployment.

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Q 60.B
• An important characteristic of all communities is that their composition and structure constantly change in
response to the changing environmental conditions. This change is orderly and sequential, parallel with
the changes in the physical environment. These changes lead finally to a community that is in near
equilibrium with the environment and that is called a climax community. The gradual and fairly
predictable change in the species composition of a given area is called ecological succession. During
succession some species colonise an area and their population become more numerous whereas
populations of other species decline and even disappear.
• The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area are called sere(s). The
individual transitional communities are termed seral stages or seral communities. In the successive seral
stages there is a change in the diversity of species of organisms, increase in the number of species
and organisms as well as an increase in the total biomass.
• Succession is hence a process that starts in an area where no living organisms are there – these could be
areas where no living organisms ever existed, say bare rock; or in areas that somehow, lost all the living
organisms that existed there. The former is called primary succession, while the latter is termed secondary
succession.
• Examples of areas where primary succession occurs are newly cooled lava, bare rock, newly created pond
or reservoir. The establishment of a new biotic community is generally slow. Before a biotic community
of diverse organisms can become established, there must be soil. Depending mostly on the climate, it
takes natural processes several hundred to several thousand years to produce fertile soil on bare rock.
• Secondary succession begins in areas where natural biotic communities have been destroyed such as in
abandoned farm lands, burned or cut forests, lands that have been flooded. Since some soil or sediment
is present, succession is faster than primary succession.
• Hence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Q 61.A
• The Ibādat Khāna (House of Worship) was a meeting house built in 1575 CE by the Mughal Emperor
Akbar (r. 1556–1605) at Fatehpur Sikri to gather spiritual leaders of different religious grounds so
as to conduct a discussion on the teachings of the respective religious leaders. Hence option (a) is not
correct.
• the construction of ‘Ibadat Khana’ in 1575, where Muslim scholars would come together to have
discussions on Islam to enlightening emperor Akbar. The ‘House of Worship’ soon became a place for
arguments, which led to Akbar opening the gates for scholars of other religions, thus making it the
first-ever attempt at secularism, also known as ‘Din-i-Ilahi’. Here, the best elements from all religions
were encouraged. He encouraged Hindus, Roman Catholics, Zoroastrians, Jains, Buddhists, Sikhs and
even atheists to participate. Religious leaders and philosophers from around this diverse empire, as well as
those passing through, were invited to Akbar's Thursday evening discussions
• The excavated complex of Ibadat khana at 'Fatehpur Sikri' has been done with the image in a miniature
painting of Akbarnama housed at Chester Beatty Library. The painting convinced the excavators about
the site is that of Ibadat Khana. This famous Ibadat Khana (at Fatehpur Sikri), a house to hold religious
discourses of all faiths was a notable step in this regard. Thus, Akbar himself became the torchbearer for
the fundamental unity of various faiths which differed only on the surface.
• About Shahjahan:
o Shah Jahan (Shahab-ud-din Muhammad Khurram) was one of the most successful emperors of the
Mughal Empire. He was the fifth Mughal ruler after Babur, Humayun, Akbar and Jahangir.
o After winning the war of succession post the demise of his father Jahangir, Shah Jahan successfully
ruled the empire for 30 years(1628-1658).
o He is best known for the construction of the Taj Mahal, which he built in the memory of his beloved
wife, Mumtaz Mahal.
o He is also the founder of Shahjahanabad in Delhi.
o The exquisite ‘Peacock Throne’, he got built for himself.
o During his final days, he was held captive by his son Aurangzeb, who went on to succeed him to the
throne.
Q 62.C
• The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is planning the inaugural flight of its indigenously
developed Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV). The SSLV is being designed by Indian scientists to
carry smaller commercial satellites into the low-earth orbit less than 2,000 km above the earth’s
surface. Hence both statements are correct.

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 • The SSLV can launch dedicated payloads or multiple satellites into low earth orbit or sun-synchronous
orbit. The payload will be 300 kg to sun synchronous orbit (SSO) and 500 kg to low earth orbit (LEO). It
was developed with the aim of launching small satellites commercially at a drastically reduced prices. The
first three stages of the vehicle use solid propellant, with a fourth stage being a velocity-trimming module.
• How is SSLV different from PSLV?
o Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) will stand 34 m tall, 10m shorter than the Polar Satellite
Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
o SSLV is also a ‘thinner’ launch vehicle, possessing a diameter of just 2 metres.
o Unlike PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) and GSLV(Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle),
the launch readiness period of SSLV is expected to be less than a week instead of months.
o The SSLV can be assembled both vertically and horizontally whereas the PSLV and GSLVs are
assembled vertically.
o The manufacturing cost of SSLV is expected to be 10% of that of PSLV and it will have a higher
launch rate as compared to PSLV.

Q 63.B
• Phosphorus is a major constituent of biological membranes, nucleic acids and cellular energy transfer
systems. Many animals also need large quantities of this element to make shells, bones and teeth. The
natural reservoir of phosphorus is rock, which contains phosphorus in the form of phosphates.
• When rocks are weathered, minute amounts of these phosphates dissolve in soil solution and are
absorbed by the roots of the plants. Herbivores and other animals obtain this element from
plants. Hence option 3 is correct.
• The waste products and the dead organisms are decomposed by phosphate-solubilizing bacteria
releasing phosphorus. Hence option 2 is correct.
• Unlike the carbon cycle, there is no respiratory release of phosphorus into the atmosphere. Hence
option 1 is not correct.
• The other two major and important differences between carbon and phosphorus cycle are
firstly, atmospheric inputs of phosphorus through rainfall are much smaller than carbon inputs,
and, secondly, gaseous exchanges of phosphorus between organism and environment are negligible.

25 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 64.B
• Pollutants are classified into primary and secondary according to the form in which they persist after
release into the environment.
• Primary pollutants: these are persistent in the form in which they are added to the environment. Ex-
DDT, Plastic, carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, toxic metals, oxides of nitrogen and sulphur. Hence
option (b) is correct.
• Secondary pollutants: these are formed by interaction among the primary pollutants. For example,
peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) is formed by the interaction of nitrogen oxide and hydrocarbons. Acid
rain, which is formed by the reaction of Sulphur and nitrogen oxide is a secondary air
pollutant. Ground-level ozone is a colorless and highly irritating gas that forms just above the earth's
surface. It is called a secondary pollutant because it is produced when two primary pollutants react in
sunlight and stagnant air. These two primary pollutants are nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic
compounds (VOCs).

Q 65.D
• Nath-Panthis are a Shaivist sub-tradition within Hinduism. A medieval movement, combined ideas from
Buddhism, Shaivism and Yoga traditions in India. The Naths have been a confederation of devotees who
consider Adinatha, or Shiva, as their first lord or guru, with varying lists of additional lords.
• Statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is correct: Nath-Panthis are followers of Hindu yogi
Gorakhnath and one time was popular all over North India. They believe in the power of uttering
magical words (mantras) and adopting various kinds of austerities and secret rites. The path preached by
them is referred to as tantra.
o Tantra considers Prakriti to be animate with a will of its own, which is why in Tantra, nature is
addressed as Shakti, or goddess. A follower of Tantra seeks power over nature.
• The references to the Nath-Panthis and Gorakhnath come from various sources from the 8th century to the
14th century, from Afghanistan, across Punjab, Sindh, Rajasthan, Gangetic plains, Bengal delta,
Maharashtra, right down to Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. The influence of Nath-Panthis in general and
Gorakhnath, in particular, has clearly been widespread and memorable.
• Statement 2 is correct: Many of the followers of Nath-Panthis belong to the lower castes. They
denounce the caste system and the privileges claimed by the Brahmanas. Their path is open to all,
irrespective of caste distinctions.
• A large number of Nath-Panthi preachers called Siddhas belonged.to the lower castes - doma, chamara,
(tanners), washerman, oilman, tailor, fisherman, woodcutter, cobbler, etc. With the establishment of
Turkish rule in northern India, the popularity of the Nath Panthi movement reached its peak during the
13th and 14th centuries. Anybody could be ' initiated into the sect of the Nath-Panthi yogis irrespective of
caste.

Q 66.B
• The Deep Web (also known as the undernet, invisible Web and hidden Web, among other monikers)
consists of data that you won't locate with a simple Google search. The deep web, invisible web, or
hidden web are parts of the World Wide Web whose contents are not indexed by standard web search
engines. The opposite term to the deep web is the "surface web", which is accessible to anyone/everyone
using the Internet. The so-called surface Web, which all of us use routinely, consists of data that search
engines can find and then offer up in response to your queries. But in the same way that only the tip of an
iceberg is visible to observers, a traditional search engine sees only a small amount of the information
that's available -- a measly 0.03 percent. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• Dark Web: The Dark Web allows users to remain anonymous through encryption. This is attractive to
anyone involved in illegal activity, such as child pornography, sex trafficking, illicit drugs, or counterfeit
goods. But it also may be useful for anyone living in an authoritarian state wishing to communicate with
the outside world, as well as providing a safe space for whistleblowers. So while it's not illegal to visit the
Dark Web, it provides access to illegal activities.

Q 67.B
• The Convention on Wetlands, called the Ramsar Convention, is an intergovernmental treaty
that provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation
and wise use of wetlands and their resources. The Convention was adopted in 1971 at the Iranian City
of Ramsar. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

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 • The ‘wise use’ approach of Ramsar Convention is globally recognized. Notably, the wise use approach
was coined in 1972, much before the hallmark 1992 Rio Conference wherein the term sustainable
development was rendered a definition.
• As endorsed by Contracting Parties of the Ramsar Convention, the wise use of wetlands is “the
maintenance of their ecological character, achieved through the implementation of ecosystem
approaches, within the context of sustainable development”. The wise use approach recognizes that
stemming wetland loss and degradation requires the incorporation of linkages between people and
wetlands, and thereby emphasizes that human use of these ecosystems on a sustainable basis is
compatible with conservation. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 68.D
• Surface irrigation is where water is applied and distributed over the soil surface by gravity. It is by far
the most common form of irrigation.
• Drip irrigation is a type of micro-irrigation system that has the potential to save water and nutrients by
allowing water to drip slowly to the roots of plants, either from above the soil surface or buried below
the surface. The goal is to place water directly into the root zone and minimize evaporation. Drip
irrigation systems distribute water through a network of valves, pipes, tubing, and emitters.
• Sprinkler Irrigation is a method of applying irrigation water which is similar to rainfall. Water is
distributed through a system of pipes usually by pumping. It is then sprayed into the air and irrigated
entire soil surface through spray heads so that it breaks up into small water drops which fall to the ground.
• The term irrigation efficiency expresses the performance of a complete irrigation system or
components of the system. Irrigation efficiency is defined as the ratio between the amount of water used
to meet the consumptive use requirement of crop plus that necessary to maintain a favourable salt balance
in the crop root zone to the total volume of water diverted, stored or pumped for irrigation.
• Following are the indicative values of irrigation efficiency of various irrigation methods:
Irrigation Method Irrigation Efficiency
Surface Irrigation 60%
Sprinkler Irrigation 75%
Drip Irrigation 90%
• Hence the correct order is 3-1-2.

Q 69.D
• The Swadeshi Movement was officially proclaimed on August 7, 1905 at the Calcutta Town Hall, in
Bengal. Boycott movement was also launched along with the Swadeshi movement. The movements
included using goods produced in India and burning British-made goods. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
encouraged Swadeshi and Boycott movement after the British government decided the partition of
Bengal.
• Statement 1 is correct: The Indian National Congress took up Swadeshi call at the Banaras Session,
1905, presided over by G.K. Gokhale, and supported, the Swadeshi and Boycott movement for Bengal.
• The major objectives of the movement included:
o To prevent the unjust partition of Bengal from being implemented.
o To exert pressure on the Government through Pecuniary loss particularly through the boycott of
Manchester Cotton Goods for which Bengal provided the richest market in India.
o To revive the indigenous industry by promoting Swadeshi Goods. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 is not correct: Tilak Swaraj fund was announced during the Non-Cooperation movement. A
year into the Non-Cooperation movement, Mahatma Gandhi announced the Tilak Swaraj Fund. The Fund,
a homage to Bal Gangadhar Tilak on his first death anniversary, aimed at collecting Rs 1 crore to aid
India’s freedom struggle and resistance to the British rule.

Q 70.D
• British type of climate: This type of climate is found on western sides of the continents between 40 and
60 degrees north and south latitude. The cool temperate western margins are under the permanent
influence of the Westerlies all around the year. From Britain, the climatic belt stretches far inland into the
lowlands of North-West Europe, including northern and western, Belgium, the Netherlands, Denmark,
western Norway, and north-western Iberia. The climate is strongly influenced by oceanic influence in
the sense that it affected the temperature and precipitation of the regions. It not only keeps the winters
very mild but also keeps the summers cool. The British type of climate receives rainfall from westerlies
27 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 in summer seasons. Western coast receives the most rainfall compared to the interior parts. On the other
hand, in the winter season, it receives rainfall from temperate cyclones. Hence, adequate rainfall occurs
throughout the year.
• China type climate: Warm Temperate Eastern Margin Climate. This type of climate is found on the
eastern margin of the continent in warm temperate latitudes, just outside the tropics & comparatively has
more rainfall than the Mediterranean climate in the same latitudes, coming mainly in summers.
• Mediterranean type climate: It characterized by hot, dry summers and cool, wet winters and located
between about 30° and 45° latitude north and south of the Equator and on the western sides of the
continents.
• Laurentian type climate: Cool Temperate Eastern Margin climate is also known as the Laurentian
climate. The Laurentian type of climate has cold, dry winters and warm, wet summers. Winter
temperatures may be well below freezing-point and snowfalls to quite a depth. Summers are as warm as
the tropics (70° – 80°F.) ... Winter is dry and cold because the winds are dry Westerlies that blow out
from the continental interior

Q 71.C
• Along with the Simon Commission, the British Government also announced the setting up of a 3 member
committee consisting of Harcourt Butler, W.S. Holdsworth and S.C. Peel to investigate and clarify the
relationship between the paramount power and the Princes.
• It gave the following recommendations:
o Paramountcy must remain supreme.
o States should not be handed over to an Indian government in British India, responsible to an Indian
Legislature. But it could be done with the consent of states.
o The committee fully endorsed that the viceroy, not the governor general in council should remain the
Crown agent in dealing with the native states. Later, the Simon Commission substantially endorsed
the Butler Committee's findings and agreed that the Viceroy and not the Governor General Council,
should be the "agent of the Paramount Power", in its relation with the Princes.

Q 72.D
• The members can move resolutions to draw the attention of the House or the government to matters of
general public interest.
• Resolutions are classified into three categories:
o Private Member’s Resolution: It is one that is moved by a private member (other than a minister). It
is discussed only on alternate Fridays and in the afternoon sitting.
o Government Resolution: It is one that is moved by a minister. It can be taken up any day from
Monday to Thursday.
o Statutory Resolution: It can be moved either by a private member or a minister. It is so-called
because it is always tabled in pursuance of a provision in the Constitution or an Act of
Parliament. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Resolutions are different from motions in the following respects:
o “All resolutions come in the category of substantive motions, that is, every resolution is a particular
type of motion. All motions need not necessarily be substantive. Further, all motions are not
necessarily put to vote of the House, whereas all the resolutions are required to be voted upon.”
Hence statement 1 is not correct.

Q 73.B
• Water exhibits an anomalous behaviour; it contracts on heating between 0 °C and 4 °C. The volume of a
given amount of water decreases as it is cooled from room temperature, until its temperature reaches 4 °C.
Below 4 °C, the volume increases, and therefore the density decreases. This means that water has a
maximum density at 4 °C.
• This property has an important environmental effect: Bodies of water, such as lakes and ponds, freeze
at the top first. As a lake cools toward 4 °C, water near the surface loses energy to the atmosphere,
becomes denser, and sinks; the warmer, less dense water near the bottom rises. However, once the colder
water on top reaches temperature below 4 °C, it becomes less dense and remains at the surface, where it
freezes.
• If water did not have this property, lakes and ponds would freeze from the bottom up, which would
destroy much of their animal and plant life.

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Q 74.A
• A theatre command is an organizational structure designed to control all military assets in a theatre of war
to achieve military effects. A joint command is called a 'theatre command' in military parlance (of the
army, air force, and navy). It places the resources of all forces at the command of a senior military
commander. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• Two theater commands—the Northern Theater Command and the Eastern Theater Command --are
expected to be formed facing China. Another two tri-service commands, including the western theater
command, could be deployed along the border with Pakistan.
• The tri-service Andaman and Nicobar Command have already been in place since 2001, with a primary
focus on the IOR. The Strategic Forces Command, another tri-service institution, is in operational
command of nuclear weapons.

Q 75.C
• With the creation of a bicameral Parliament consisting of several representatives of the people, it was
deemed desirable that the Cabinet should delegate the overall responsibility regarding detailed
parliamentary matters to a small standing committee of the Cabinet, specializing in this task. A
Parliamentary and Legal Affairs Committee was accordingly constituted in 1949. This committee
was subsequently named as the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs. The then Department
of Parliamentary Affairs and now Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs has been providing secretarial
assistance to the committee since 1954. Prior to 1954, the Ministry of Law had been providing secretarial
assistance to the committee though secretarial assistance in regard to the planning of Government
Business in both Houses of Parliament was even then provided by the then Department of Parliamentary
Affairs.
• As per the First Schedule to the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961, the following
functions have been assigned to the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs:
o to watch the progress of Government Business in Parliament and to give such directions as may be
necessary from time to time, in order to secure smooth and efficient conduct of such business;
o to scrutinize, and to consider the attitude of the Government on non-official bills and resolutions
to be presented to Parliament; Hence statement 2 is correct.
o to maintain a review from an all-India point of view of legislations undertaken by State legislatures;
and
o to consider proposals to summon or prorogue the Houses of Parliament. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
• Under Rule 6 of the above Rules, the Prime Minister may, from time to time, modify the functions
assigned to the committee. The composition of the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs was
recently modified. Now the committee has the following members:
o Shri Raj Nath Singh, Minister of Defence.
o Shri Amit Shah, Minister of Home Affairs.
o Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman, Minister of Finance; Minister of Corporate Affairs
o Shri Ramvilas Paswan, Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
o Shri Narendra Singh Tomar, Minister of Agriculture &Farmer Welfare, Minister of Rural
Development: and Minister of Panchayati Raj.
o Shri Ravi Shankar Prasad, Minister of Communications and Information Technology; and Minister of
Law and Justic
o Shri Thawar Chand Gehlot, Minister of Social Justice & Empowerment
o Shri Prakash Javadekar, Minister of Environment, Forest & Climate Change; Minister of Information
and Broadcasting
o Shri Prahlad Joshi, Minister of Parliamentary Affairs; Minister of Coal and Mines.
• Special Invitees: Shri Arjun Ram Meghwal, Minister of State Parliamentary Affairs; Minister of State in
the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises.
• Shri V Muraleedharan, Minister of State Parliamentary Affairs; Minister of State in the Ministry of
External Affairs

Q 76.D
• As per the Government’s commitment to fast track utilization of India's rights under the Indus
Waters Treaty, the Ujh Multipurpose (National) Project is planned to be constructed in Kathua District
of J&K on the River Ujh, which is a major tributary of River Ravi.

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 • This project will store around 781 Million Cubic meters of waters of river Ujh (a tributary of river
Ravi). After construction of the project, utilization of waters of Eastern Rivers allotted to India as
per the Indus Water Treaty would be enhanced by utilizing the flow that presently goes across
borders unutilized.

Q 77.C
• Organ Donation in India is regulated under the Transplantation of Human Organs Act of 1994
• National Network division of National Organ & Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO) function as
apex center for All India activities of coordination and networking for procurement and distribution of
Organs and Tissues and registry of Organs and Tissues Donation and Transplantation in the country.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• (NOTTO) is a National level organization set up under Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry
of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
• In India, the organs (a part of the body that performs a specific function) that can be donated are: Liver,
Kidney, Pancreas, Heart, Lung, Intestine. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. The tissues that can be
donated are: Cornea, Bone, Skin, Heart Valve, blood vessels, nerves, and tendon etc.
• Who can be a Donor?
o Living Donor: Any person not less than 18 years of age, who voluntarily authorize the removal of
any of his organ and/or tissue, during his or her lifetime, as per prevalent medical practices for
therapeutic purposes. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
o Deceased Donor: Anyone, regardless of age, race or gender can become an organ and tissue donor
after his or her Death (Brainstem/Cardiac). Consent of near relative or a person in lawful possession
of the dead body is required. If the deceased donor is under the age of 18 years, then the consent
required from one of the parents or any near relative authorized by the parents is essential. Medical
suitability for donation is determined at the time of death.
• About NOTTO: It has following two divisions:
o National Human Organ and Tissue Removal and Storage Network: This has been mandated as
per the Transplantation of Human Organs (Amendment) Act 2011. It would function as apex centre
for All India activities of coordination and networking for procurement and distribution of Organs and
Tissues and registry of Organs and Tissues Donation and Transplantation in the country. The network
will be established initially for Delhi and gradually expanded to include other States and Regions of
the country.
o National Biomaterial Centre (National Tissue Bank): The Transplantation of Human Organs
(Amendment) Act 2011 has included the component of tissue donation and registration of tissue
Banks. It becomes imperative under the changed circumstances to establish National level Tissue
Bank to fulfill the demands of tissue transplantation including activities for procurement, storage and
fulfil distribution of biomaterials.
• The main thrust & objective of establishing the centre is to fill up the gap between ‘Demand’ and ‘Supply’
as well as ‘Quality Assurance’ in the availability of various tissues.

Q 78.D
• The soils having a pH of less than 7 are called acidic soils. There are four major reasons for soils to
become acidic: rainfall and leaching, acidic parent material, organic matter decay, and harvest of high-
yielding crops. Wet climates have a greater potential for acidic soils.
• Acidic Soils constitute around 30% of the total cultivable area in India. These soils are formed due to
drastic weathering under the hot humid climate and heavy precipitation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• In neutral soils, satisfactory plant growth can be expected, provided all other agronomic practices are
followed properly. But neither acid soils nor saline soils are suitable for most of the crops except a few
tolerant ones. Acidity or salinity acts only as a limiting factor in crop production. Some crops grown on
acid soils around the world include rice, cassava, mango, cashew, citrus, pineapple, cowpeas, blueberries,
and certain grasses. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Soil acidity can be corrected easily by liming the soil, or adding basic materials to neutralize the acid
present. The most commonly used liming material is agricultural limestone, the most economical and
relatively easy to manage source. Farmers are advised to add gypsum to solve the problem of salinity (not
the acidity) in the soil. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

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Q 79.A
• Coriolis effect is used to describe the Coriolis force experienced by the moving objects such that the force
is acting perpendicular to the direction of motion and to the axis of rotation.
• The earth’s rotation is the main cause for Coriolis effect as the earth rotates faster at the equator and
near the poles the rotation is sluggish. o Objects in motion tend to deflect to the right in the Northern
Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. The Coriolis effect is nonexistent at the equator
but increases with latitude, reaching a maximum at the poles. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The air currents in the Northern hemisphere bend to the right making the objects deflect to the right
whereas in the Southern hemisphere the air currents bend to the left making the objects deflect to the left.
• The Coriolis effect is noticed only for the motions occurring at large-scale such as the movement of air
and water in the ocean. Example of Coriolis effect changes in weather patterns.
• The magnitude of the deflection (Coriolis effect) is directly proportional to:
o The sine of the latitude
o The mass of the moving body
o Horizontal velocity of the wind (Hence statement 1 is correct)

Q 80.D
• Pharmaceutical raw materials include both active pharmaceutical ingredients (APIs) and inactive
ingredients or excipients. APIs are bulk drugs that are pharmaceutically active and generate a
desired pharmacological effect, whereas, excipients are pharmacologically inactive substances that are
generally used as a carrier of the API in the drug. API is one of the main parts of the pharma drug
which is pharmaceutically active and is responsible for the drug action. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• Excipients provide bulkiness to formulations, facilitate absorption of the drug, provide stability and
prevent denaturation of drugs. Pharmaceutical excipients are cost-effective, stable, feasible for handling,
and inert in nature.
• The Global Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients market is expected to reach $198.8 billion by 2022 with a
CAGR of 6.4%. India has been largely dependent on China for API imports until recently. China
used to sell API s at lower prices due to their lower labour costs. India currently imports APIs (Active
Pharmaceutical Ingredient) and other chemicals worth USD 2.5 billion from China while drug
exports to China from India were at USD 230 million. The profit margin on API s used to be low and
Indian drug manufacturers thought it was wise to import APIs, make formulation drugs and export
them. China has now started purchasing APIs from India and is concentrating on the manufacture of
formulation drugs. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Q 81.B
• Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct: Cryptocurrency is a digital currency that makes
use of encryption techniques to regulate the generation of units of currency and to verify the transfer of
funds, operating independently of a central bank. This is a math-based, decentralized convertible virtual
currency that is protected by cryptography. It is operated on a peer-to-peer network i.e. from one person to
another. E-money is distinct from cryptocurrency. It is is a digital representation of fiat currency used to
electronically transfer value denominated in fiat currency. E-money is a digital transfer mechanism for fiat
currency i.e., it electronically transfers value that has legal tender status.
• In the Union Budget 2018-19, the government declared that it doesn’t consider crypto-currencies as
legal tender or coin and will take all measures to eliminate use of these cryptoassets in financing
illegitimate activities or as part of the payment system. However, the Government promised to explore
the use of block chain technology proactively for ushering in digital economy.
• In addition, the government constituted inter-ministerial committee (IMC) on cryptocurrency has recently
suggested outlawing private cryptocurrencies, like Bitcoin, apart from declaring any activities related to
virtual currencies as a criminal act. The report lays down that all private cryptocurrencies except the ones
issue by the state be banned in India and endorses the stand taken by the RBI to eliminate the interface of
institutions regulated by the central bank from cryptocurrencies.

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Q 82.A
• The Indian rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis), also called the greater one-horned rhinoceros and great
Indian rhinoceros, is a rhinoceros species native to the Indian subcontinent.
• The Indian rhino has a single horn, which is present in both sexes. It is the largest of all the Asian
rhinos. Considered to be the most amphibious of all the rhino species, the Indian rhino is an
excellent swimmer. It can run at speeds of up to 55km/hr for short periods of time.
• The preferred habitat of an Indian rhinoceros is alluvial flood plains and areas containing tall
grasslands along the foothills of the Himalayas. Formerly, extensively distributed in the Gangetic
plains, today the species is restricted to small habitats in Indo-Nepal terai and northern West Bengal and
Assam. In India, rhinos are mainly found in Kaziranga NP, Pobitara WLS, Orang NP, Manas NP in
Assam, Jaldapara NP and Garumara NP in West Bengal and Dudhwa TR in Uttar Pradesh.
• It is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.
• Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Q 83.A
• Deep cold waters are usually undersaturated with carbonate ions and hence causing the shells of most
calcifying organisms dissolute. On the other hand, Surface waters are oversaturated with the carbonate
ions and hence does not dissolve the shells. The Saturation Horizon is the level below which calcium
carbonate minerals undergo dissolution. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Hence for organisms to live below the saturation horizon, they need to develop a special mechanism.
• With increasing ocean acidification, these saturation horizons rise vertically towards
surface bringing more and more calcifying agents into undersaturated zones, making their existence
questionable. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Q 84.C
• Statement 1 and statement 2 are correct: The Arctic Council is the leading intergovernmental
forum promoting cooperation, coordination and interaction among the Arctic States, Arctic
indigenous communities and other Arctic inhabitants on common Arctic issues, in particular on
issues of sustainable development and environmental protection in the Arctic.
• The Ottawa Declaration lists the following countries as members of the Arctic Council: Canada, the
Kingdom of Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, the Russian Federation, Sweden and the United States.
• In addition, six organizations representing Arctic indigenous peoples have status as Permanent
Participants. The category of Permanent Participant was created to provide for active participation and full
consultation with the Arctic indigenous peoples within the Council. They include: the Aleut International
Association, the Arctic Athabaskan Council, Gwich'in Council International, the Inuit Circumpolar
Council, Russian Association of Indigenous Peoples of the North and the Saami Council.
• Observer status in the Arctic Council is open to non-Arctic states, along with inter-governmental,
inter-parliamentary, global, regional and non-governmental organizations that the Council
determines can contribute to its work. Recently India has been re-elected as an observer to
intergovernmental forum Arctic Council.

Q 85.C
Deoband movement
• The Deoband movement was organized by the orthodox sections of the Muslim ulemas as a revivalist
movement with the twin objectives of propagating pure teaching of the quran and hadis among
Muslims and keeping alive the spirit of jihad against the foreign ruler. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• The Deoband Movement was begun at the Darul Uloom, Deoband in Saharanpur district (United
Province) in 1866 by Mohammad Qasim Nanotavi and Rashid Ahmed Gangohi to train religious
leaders for the Muslim community. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• In contrast to the Aligarh movement which aimed at the welfare of Muslims through western education
and support of the British government, the aim of the Deoband was moral and religious regeneration of
the Muslim community.
• The instruction imparted at Deoband was in the original Islamic religion.
• On the political front, the Deoband school welcomed the formation of the Indian National
Congress. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

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 • In 1888 issued a fatwa (religious decree) against syed Ahmed Khan’s organizations, the United Patriotic
Association and the Mohammaden Anglo- oriental Association.
• Mahmud ul Hasan, the new Deoband leader, gave a political and intellectual content to the religious
ideas of the school. He worked out a synthesis of Islamic principles and nationalists' aspirations.
The jamiat -ul- ulema gave a concrete shape to Hasan’s ideas of protection of the religious and political
rights of the muslims in the overall context of Indian unity and national objectives.
• Shibli Numani, a supporter of the Deoband school, favoured the inclusion of English language and
European sciences in the system of education. He founded the Nadwatal ulama and Darul uloom in
Lucknow in 1894-96. He believed in the idealism of the congress and cooperation between the muslims
and the hindus of India to create a state in which both could live amicably.

Q 86.A
• C40The C40 Mayors Summit has recently concluded with a number of initiative launches and
announcements to further accelerate and scale up climate action by cities, including the ‘C40 Good Food
Cities Declaration,’ the ‘C40 Clean Air Cities Declaration,’ and the launches of the ‘C40 Cities
Knowledge Hub’ and the ‘City-Busins Climate Alliance.’ Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• C40 Clean Air Cities Declaration commits cities to: set ambitious pollution reduction targets within two
years that meet or exceed national commitments; implement clean air policies by 2025 that address causes
of pollution in the cities; meet World Health Organization’s (WHO) Air Quality Guidelines by 2030;
continually reduce their cities’ emissions and advocate for reducing regional emissions; and publicly
report on progress. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• C40 Cities Knowledge Hub, an online platform providing cities with information to drive climate action
at greater speed and scale, which brings together practical experiences and successful approaches taken by
cities for knowledge sharing and collaboration.
• C40 Good Food Cities Declaration, through which mayors commit to work with their citizens to achieve
a ‘Planetary Health Diet’ by 2030, with balanced and nutritious food “reflective of the culture, geography,
and demography of their citizens.”
• The City-Business Climate Alliance was announced at the Cities and Business Forum on the sidelines of
the Summit. The Alliance will enable mayors and CEOs to collaborate to translate global climate
commitments into practical actions that work in cities.

Q 87.C
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to impose restrictions on urban cooperative banks
(UCBs) with the revised Supervisory Action Framework (SAF) for deterioration of financial
position. SAF is in line with the prompt corrective action (PCA) framework that is imposed on
commercial banks.
• Under this revised Supervisory Action Framework (SAF), UCBs will face restrictions for worsening of
three parameters:
o When net non-performing assets exceed 6% of net advances,
o When they incur losses for two consecutive financial years or have accumulated losses on their
balance sheets,
o If capital adequacy ratio falls below 9%.
• Some of the actions under SAF include:
o Advising the UCB to submit a Board-approved Action Plan for reducing its Net NPAs below 6%.
o Restriction on fresh loans and advances carrying risk-weights more than 100%.
o Prohibition on declaration/payment of dividend/donation.
o Measures for reduction in interest and operating/administrative expenses.
o Seeking a Board-approved proposal for merging the UCB with another bank or converting itself into a
credit society.
o Restriction on fresh borrowings, except for meeting temporary liquidity mismatches.
• Actions such as imposition of all-inclusive directions under section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act,
1949 (as applicable to co-operative societies) and issue of show cause notice for cancellation of banking
license may be considered by the Reserve bank when continued normal functioning of the UCB is no
longer considered to be in the interest of its depositors/public.

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Q 88.A
• Deep ecology, environmental philosophy and social movement based in the belief that humans must
radically change their relationship to nature from one that values nature solely for its usefulness to
human beings to one that recognizes that nature has an inherent value. Sometimes called an
“ecosophy,” deep ecology offers a definition of the self that differs from traditional notions and is a social
movement that sometimes has religious and mystical undertones. Hence option (a) is the correct
answer.
• The phrase originated in 1972 with Norwegian philosopher Arne Naess, who, along with American
environmentalist George Sessions, developed a platform of eight organizing principles for the deep
ecology social movement. Deep ecology distinguishes itself from other types of environmentalism by
making broader and more basic philosophical claims about metaphysics, epistemology, and social justice.

Q 89.C
• Directive Principles of State Policy - Article 49 - Protection of monuments and places and objects of
national importance.
o It shall be the obligation of the State to protect every monument or place or object of artistic or
historic interest, [declared by or under law made by Parliament] to be of national importance, from
spoliation, disfigurement, destruction, removal, disposal or export, as the case may be. Hence option
(b) is the correct answer.
• While “to value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture” is a prescribed duty of
every citizen of India as per Article 51A(f) as a Fundamental Duty.

Q 90.B
• During the second world war, as the war situation worsened, President Roosevelt of the USA and
President Chiang Kai-Shek of China as also the Labour Party leaders of Britain put pressure on Churchill
to seek the active cooperation of Indians in the War. To secure this cooperation the British Government
sent to India in March 1942 a mission headed by a Cabinet minister Stafford Cripps, a left wing Labourite
who had earlier actively supported the Indian national movement. Hence option (b) is correct.

Q 91.D
• Agroforestry is defined as a land use system which integrates trees and shrubs on farmlands and rural
landscapes to enhance productivity, profitability, diversity and ecosystem sustainability. It is a dynamic,
ecologically based, natural resource management system that, through integration of woody perennials on
farms and in the agricultural landscape, diversifies and sustains production and builds social institutions.
• India became the world's first country to adopt a comprehensive agroforestry policy, in 2014.
• Basic objectives:
o Encourage and expand tree plantation in complementarity and integrated manner with crops
and livestock to improve productivity, employment, income and livelihoods of rural households,
especially the small holder farmers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o Protect and stabilize ecosystems, and promote resilient cropping and farming systems to minimize the
risk during extreme climatic events.
o Meet the raw material requirements of wood based industries. Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
o Reduce import of wood and wood products to save foreign exchange. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
o Supplement the availability of agroforestry products (AFPs), such as the fuel-wood, fodder, non-
timber forest produce and small timber of the rural and tribal populations, thereby reducing the
pressure on existing forests.
o Complement achieving the target of increasing forest/tree cover to promote ecological stability,
especially in the vulnerable regions.
o Develop capacity and strengthen research in agroforestry and create a massive people's movement for
achieving these objectives and to minimize pressure on existing forests.
Q 92.A
• Constitution envisaged two types of privileges under Article 105 of the Indian constitution. One is
freedom of speech in Parliament and the right of publication of its proceedings.
• With reference to Parliamentary privileges, the following points are worth noting:
o The Supreme Court held that if there was any conflict between the existing privileges of Parliament
and the fundamental rights of a citizen, the former shall prevail. Hence statement 1 is correct.

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 o The provisions in Arts. 105(3) and 194(3) of the Constitution, which confer upon the Houses of our
Legislatures the same British privileges as those of the House of Commons, are independent
provisions and are not to be construed as subject to Part III of the Constitution, guaranteeing the
Fundamental Rights.
• Freedom of speech and immunity from court proceedings
o Members have freedom of speech in the House and enjoy immunity from proceedings in any court in
respect of anything said or any vote given by them in Parliament or in any committee thereof.
o The immunity granted to members under article 105(2), covers anything said in Parliament even
though it does not strictly pertain to the business before the House. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 93.C
• NI-KSHAY-(Ni=End, Kshay=TB)
• It is the web enabled patient management system for TB control under the National Tuberculosis
Elimination Programme (NTEP).
• It is developed and maintained by the Central TB Division (CTD), Ministry of Health and Family
Welfare, Government of India, in collaboration with the National Informatics Centre (NIC), and the
World Health Organization Country office for India.
• Nikshay is used by health functionaries at various levels across the country both in the public and private
sector, to register cases under their care, order various types of tests from Labs across the country, record
treatment details, monitor treatment adherence and to transfer cases between care providers.
• It also functions as the National TB Surveillance System and enables reporting of various surveillance
data to the Government of India.

Q 94.A
• The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), with help from Gujarat’s forest department, is attempting for the
first time a process to restore coral reefs using biorock or mineral accretion technology. A biorock
structure was installed one nautical mile off the Mithapur coast in the Gulf of Kachchh on January 19.
• Biorock is the name given to the substance formed by electro accumulation of minerals dissolved in
seawater on steel structures that are lowered onto the sea bed and are connected to a power source, in
this case, solar panels that float on the surface.
• The technology works by passing a small amount of electrical current through electrodes in the water.
When a positively charged anode and negatively charged cathode are placed on the seafloor, with an
electric current flowing between them, calcium ions combine with carbonate ions and adhere to the
structure (cathode). This results in calcium carbonate formation. Coral larvae adhere to the CaCO3 and
grow quickly.

Q 95.A
• Depositional Landforms due to Glaciers
• Glacial deposits are of two types:
(i) Glacial Till – unassorted coarse and fine debris;
(ii) Outwash – assorted roughly stratified deposits.
• Moraines
o Moraines are long ridges of deposits of glacial till. When these deposits are at the end of a glacier,
they are called as Terminal moraines and when they are deposited on both sides, they are called as
Lateral moraines.
o When lateral moraines of two glaciers join together, they form Medial moraines. When the lateral
moraines of both sides of a glacier join together, it forms a horse-shoe shape.
o Ground moraines are deposits left behind in areas once covered by glaciers.
• Eskers
o When glaciers melt in summer, the water which formed as a result of melting accumulates beneath the
glacier and flows like streams in channels beneath that ice.
o Very coarse material like boulders, blocks and some minor fractions of rock debris are carried away
by these streams. They later get deposited in the valleys itself and once the ice melts completely, they
are visible to the surface as sinuous ridges. These ridges are called as Eskers.
• Drumlins
o They are smooth oval-shaped ridge-like structures composed mainly of glacial till. It shapes like an
inverted spoon with the highest part is called as Stoss End and the lowest narrow part is called as Tail
End.
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 o They are formed as a result of glacial movement over some minor obstruction like small surface
rocks.
o The glacial till gets deposited in those obstructions and the movement of glacier shapes these deposits
like an inverted spoon.

Q 96.C
• The Global Innovation Index 2019 provides detailed metrics about the innovation performance of
129 countries and economies around the world. The GII rankings are published annually by
Cornell University, INSEAD and the UN World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) and
GII Knowledge Partner
• Its 80 indicators explore a broad vision of innovation, including political environment, education,
infrastructure, and business sophistication. The GII 2019 analyzes the medical innovation landscape of
the next decade, looking at how technological and non-technological medical innovation will transform
the delivery of healthcare worldwide.
• India improved its ranking in the global innovation index by five places to 52nd in 2019 from 57th
position last year.
• The GII ranks 129 economies based on 80 indicators, ranging from intellectual property filing rates to
mobile-application creation, education spending and scientific and technical publications. India has
climbed to third position globally in the number of peer-reviewed science and engineering publications.
• Switzerland retained its number-one spot on the index. Other economies in the top 10 are: Sweden, the
US, the Netherlands, the UK, Finland, Denmark, Singapore, Germany and Israel.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 97.C
• Chidambaram Pillai, popularly known as Kappalottiya Tamilan was born on 05 September 1872 in
Ottapidaram, Tirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu. He entered politics in 1905 following the partition of
Bengal. Towards the end of 1905, influenced by Bal Gangadhar Tilak, he embraced swadeshi activities.
He was also drawn towards Ramakrishna Mission and came into contact with Subramania Bharati and the
Mandayam family.
• Statement 1 is correct: The partition of Bengal infuriated people all over India. All sections of the
Congress the Moderates and the Radicals, as they may be called opposed it. Large public meetings and
demonstrations were organized and novel methods of mass protest developed. The struggle that
unfolded came to be known as the Swadeshi movement, strongest in Bengal but with echoes
elsewhere too – in deltaic Andhra for instance, it was known as the Vandemataram
Movement. Chidambaram Pillai led the Swadeshi movement to Tuticorin (Present-day Thoothukudi) in
Tamil Nadu.
• Chidambaram Pillai along with Subramania Siva formed an organization called the Swadeshi Sangam, or
‘National Volunteers’.
• Statement 2 is correct: On October 16, 1906, he established a Swadeshi merchant shipping outfit by the
name of the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company seeking to put an end to the monopoly of the British in
sea trade. At that time, Tuticorin was an established center for shipping, with thousands using its harbor.
But the entire industry was in the hands of British companies who were in bed with the colonial
government.
• Chidambaram Pillai was also an erudite scholar. He also wrote a commentary on the Thirukural and
compiled ancient works of Tamil grammar, Tolkappiam. He showed ingenuity in his works of
Meyyaram and Meyyarivu, praised for spontaneous style, and earned an indisputable reputation for
translations of James Allen’s books.

Q 98.B
• South Asia Wildlife Enforcement Network (SAWEN) is an inter-governmental wildlife law
enforcement support body of South Asian countries namely - Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan,
India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka (all SAARC countries).
• SAWEN was officially launched in January, 2011 in Paro Bhutan. It promotes regional cooperation to
combat wildlife crime in South Asia. It focuses on policy harmonization; institutional capacity
strengthening through knowledge and intelligence sharing; and collaboration with regional and
international partners to enhance wildlife law enforcement in the member countries.
• SAWEN operates its activities from the Secretariat based in Kathmandu, Nepal.
• Hence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
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Q 99.B
• These are special bonds floated on behalf of the government by the RBI for the specific purpose of
absorbing the excess liquidity in the system when regular government bonds prove inadequate. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
• These are mostly shorter-tenure bonds, of less than six months maturity. But the tenure differs depending
on the requirement. The primary aim of this scheme includes aiding the sterilization operations of the
RBI.
• Whenever there is a situation of capital inflows and excess liquidity in the economy, RBI sterilizes the
effects of significant capital inflows by offloading parts of the stock of Government Securities held by it
and thus absorbs the excess liquidity in the market. But the securities held by RBI may not be sufficient to
conduct sterilization when the liquidity in the economy is too high (in the case of demonetization). Thus
MSS was devised since continuous resort to sterilization by the RBI depleted its limited stock of
Government Securities and impaired the scope for similar interventions in the future.
• Under this scheme, the GoI borrows from the RBI (such borrowing being additional to its normal
borrowing requirements) and issues Treasury-Bills/Dated Securities that are utilized for absorbing excess
liquidity from the market. Therefore, the MSS constitutes an arrangement aiding in liquidity absorption, in
keeping with the overall monetary policy stance of the RBI, alongside tools like the Liquidity Adjustment
Facility (LAF) and Open Market Operations (OMO).
• The securities issued under MSS termed as Market Stabilization Scheme (MSS) Securities/Bonds, are
issued by way of auctions conducted by the RBI and are done according to a specified ceiling mutually
agreed upon by the GoI and the RBI. They possess all the attributes of existing Treasury-Bills/Dated
Securities and are included as a part of the country’s ‘internal Central Government debt.
• MSS bonds earn a return and qualify for statutory liquidity ratio, or SLR, that banks need to maintain in
the form of short-tenured treasury bills and government bonds. MSS bonds, too, are raised through an
auction and are tradable in the secondary market. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Reserve Bank first introduced MSS bonds in February 2004 when the country was flushed with dollar
inflows, which needed to be converted into the rupee. This created huge surplus liquidity in the system
and the RBI decided to impound it by issuing MSS bonds as the central bank was running out of stock of
regular government bonds. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q 100.D
• Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectroscopy is the study of molecules by recording the interaction of
radiofrequency (Rf) electromagnetic radiations with the nuclei of molecules placed in a strong magnetic
field.
• The technique is used in quality control and research for determining the content and purity of a sample as
well as its molecular structure.
• The sample is placed in a magnetic field and the NMR signal is produced by excitation of the nuclei
sample with radio waves into nuclear magnetic resonance, which is detected with sensitive radio
receivers. The intramolecular magnetic field around an atom in a molecule changes the resonance
frequency, thus giving access to details of the electronic structure of a molecule and its individual
functional groups.
Common Applications of NMR are:
• Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectroscopy allows for non-destructive screening and quantification
of both known ingredients and unanticipated contaminants and adulterants. Both targeted and untargeted
NMR methodologies are widely recognized as important tools for food authentication and the detection of
counterfeit products. Hence option 3 is correct.
• Determination of the structure of organic molecules in solution and study molecular physics
• Used in advanced medical imaging techniques, such as in magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Hence
option 1 is correct.
There is no known use (commonly-used application) of NMR in nuclear reactors. Hence option 2 is not
correct.
Recently, The CSIR-Indian Institute of Chemical Technology (CSIR-IICT), Hyderabad has announced
that the Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) test facility at the institute has passed the US Food and
Drug Administration (USFDA) inspection with “no observations”.

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