Crystallography and mineralogy

1. The Si:O ratio for forsterite is

(a). 1:4 (b). 2:7 (c). 1:3 (d). 4:11

2. The Si:O ratio of pyrope is

(a). 1:4 (b). 2:7 (c). 1:3 (d). 4:11

3. The Si:O ratio of Quartz is

(a). 1:4 (b). 2:7 (c). 1:2 (d). 4:11

4. The Si:O ratio of Biotite is

(a). 1:4 (b). 2:5 (c). 1:3 (d). 4:11

5. The Si:O ratio of Enstetite is

(a). 1:4 (b). 2:7 (c). 1:3 (d). 4:11

6. A mineral with crystal symmetry showing 4 axis of 3 fold symmetry, the mineral belongs the
crystal system
(a). Isometric (b). Tetragonal (c). Hexagonal (d). monoclinic

7. Mineral with one axis of 6 fold symmetry, the mineral belongs to the system
(a). Isometric (b). Tetragonal (c). Hexagonal (d). monoclinic

8. Crystal having all axis equal and mutually perpendicular, belongs to crystal system
(a). Isometric (b). Hexagonal (c). Monoclinic (d). Orthorhombic

9. Crystal having all axis unequal and mutually perpendicular, belongs to crystal system
(a). Isometric (b). Hexagonal (c). Monoclinic (d). Orthorhombic

10. Crystal having all axis unequal and α= 90 β≠90 & γ=90, belongs to crystal system
(a). Isometric (b). Hexagonal (c). Monoclinic (d). Orthorhombic

11. Crystal having all axis unequal and α, β & γ ≠ 90, belongs to crystal system
(a). Isometric (b). Triclinic (c). Monoclinic (d). Orthorhombic

12. Crystal having 2 out of 3 axis equal and mutually perpendicular, belongs to crystal system
(a). Isometric (b). Hexagonal (c). Monoclinic (d). Tetragonal

13. Crystal having 3 of 4 axis equal and 3 axis making 120o and c axis making 90o making to rest 3
axis, belongs to crystal system
(a). Isometric (b). Hexagonal (c). Monoclinic (d). Orthorhombic
14. Which of the crystal is uniaxial anisotropic mineral,
(a). Quartz (b). Garnet (c). Pyroxene (d). diamond

15. Which of the crystal is uniaxial anisotropic mineral,

(a). Beryl (b). Garnet (c). Pyroxene (d). diamond

16. Which of the crystal is uniaxial anisotropic mineral,

(a) Diamond (b). Garnet (c). Pyroxene (d). Calcite

17. Which of the crystal is isotropic mineral,

(a). Quartz (b). Garnet (c). Pyroxene (d). Beryl

18. Which of the crystal is isotropic mineral

(a). Diamond (b). Quartz (c). plagioclase (d) calcite

19. Which of the mineral is biaxial mineral

(a). quartz (b). Beryl (c). calcite (d). Biotite

20. Which of the following is not biaxial mineral

(a). Biotite (b). Muscovite (c). Pyroxene (d). calcite

21. Which is an anisotropic mineral

(a). quartz (b). diamond (c) Garnet (d) Pyrite

22. Which one is an isotropic mineral

(a). quartz (b). diamond (c). calcite (d). biotite

23. Biaxial mineral which is optically positive, its acute bisectrix is

(a) X (b) Y (c) Z (d) we can not say

24. Biaxial mineral which is optically negative, its acute bisectrix is

(b) X (b) Y (c) Z (d) we can not say

25. Number of optic axis in biaxial minerals is

(a). 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d). 4

26. Number of optic axis in uiaxial minerals is

(a). 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d). 4
27. Pleochroism is observed under
(a). unpolarized light (b). plane polarized light (c). cross polarized (d). hand specimen

28. Interference patter of a mineral can be observed under

(a). unpolarized light (b). plane polarized light (c). cross polarized light (d). hand specimen

29. Pleochroism is observed in

(a). biaxial mineral (b). uniaxial mineral (c). isotropic minerals (d). hand specimen

30. A cube has ____________ mirror planes.

(a). 6 (b). 9 (c). 12 (d) 3

31. A cube has _________ numbers of 2 fold axis.

(a). 6 (b). 9 (c). 12 (d) 4

32. A cube has _________ numbers of 4 fold axis.

(a). 6 (b). 9 (c). 3 (d) 4

33. A cube has _________ numbers of 3 fold axis.

(a). 6 (b). 9 (c). 3 (d) 4

34. On Mohs’ hardness scale, ordinary window glass has a hardness of about
(a). 2–3 (b). 3–4 (c). 5–6 (d). 7–8

35. The bonding between Cl and Na in halite is

(a). ionic (b). covalent (c). metallic (d). male

36. Which of the common minerals is not a silicate?

(a). quartz (b). calcite
(c). pyroxene (d). feldspar

37. The ability of a mineral to break along preferred directions is called

(a). fracture ( b). crystal form
(c). hardness (d). cleavage

38. Which is not silicate structure

(a). phyllosilicate (b). Inosilicate (c). pentasilicate (d) phyllosilicate

39. Lawsonite belongs to the silicate system

(a). Orthosilicate (b). Sorosilicate (c). inosilicate (d). Phyllosilicate
40. Fyalite belongs to the silicate system
(a). Orthosilicate (b). Sorosilicate (c). inosilicate (d). Phyllosilicate

41. Orthopyroxene belongs to the silicate system

(a). Orthosilicate (b). Sorosilicate (c). inosilicate (d). Phyllosilicate

42. Amphibole belongs to the silicate system

(a). Orthosilicate (b). single chain silicate (c). double chain silicate (d). Phyllosilicate

43. Biotite belongs to the silicate system

(a). Orthosilicate (b). Sorosilicate (c). inosilicate (d). Phyllosilicate

44. Plagioclase belongs to the silicate system

(a). Orthosilicate (b). Tectosilicate (c). inosilicate (d). Phyllosilicate

45. Garnet belongs to the silicate system

(a). Nesosilicate (b). Sorosilicate (c). inosilicate (d). Phyllosilicate

46. K Mg 3 (Al Si 3 O 10 ) (OH) 2 is known as

(a). Phlogopite (b). Augite (c). Garnet (d). Amphibole

47. Mg 2 SiO 4 is chemical formula of mineral is

(a). Enstatite (b). Forsterite (c). Fyalite (d). pyroxene

48. 2(Mg Si 2 O 6 ) is the chemical formula of

(a). Enstatite (b). Forsterite (c). Fyalite (d). Augite

49. Mg 3 Al 2 Si 3 O 12 is the chemical formula of

(a). Pyrope (b). Almandine (c). Spessartine (d). Grossular

50. Fe 3 Al 2 Si 3 O 12 is the chemical formula of

(a). Pyrope (b). Almandine (c). Spessartine (d). Grossular
 Geochemistry

1. If decay constant is 1.42 x 10-11 per year then the half life of the system would be
(a). 48.8 x 109 (b). 48.8 x 1010 (c). 48.8 x 106 (d). 48.8 x 108

2. If half life is 106 billion years then the decay constant of the system would be
(a). 6.54 x10-10 (b). 6.54 (c). 6.54 x10-12 (d). 6.54 x10-13

3. If half life of U with atomic mass 238 is 4.5 billion years then the decay constant of the
system would be
(a). 1.55 x10-10 (b). 1.56 (c). 1.55 x 1012 (d). 1.54 x10-13

4. If decay constant of U with atomic mass 235 is 9.85 per year then the half life of the system
would be
(a). 0.7 Ga (b). 0.7 x 1010 (c). 0.7 x 106 (d). 6 x 108

5. Sm:Nd ratio is highest in the rock

(a). Peridotite (b). Gabbro (c). Monzonite (d). Granite

6. Sm:Nd ratio is lowest in the rock

(a). Peridotite (b). Gabbro (c). Monzonite (d). Granite

7. Sr will be enriched in the mineral

(a). Quartz (b). Olivine (c). Anorthite (d). hematite

8. Rb is least enriched in the mineral

(a). Muscovite (b). K-felspar (c). Biotite (d). Quartz

9. Isotope used in geothermometry is

(a). 18O:16O (b). 13C:12C (c). 238U:206Pb (d). 232Th:208Pb

10. The standard ratio for carbon stable isotope is

(a). VSMOW (b) PDB (c). both (d). none of this

11. 18O:16O is highest in which of the sample

(a). water sample from dead sea (b). water sample from delta
(c). water sample from river (d). water sample from glacier

18
12. O:16O is lowest in which of the sample
(a). water sample from dead sea (b). water sample from delta
(c). water sample from river (d). water sample from glacier
13. REE are not compatible as,
(a). large ion size
(b). small ion size
(c). low ionic charge
(d). none of these

14. Uranium is enriched in

(a). Basalt
(b). Granite
(c). kimberlite
(d). monzonite

15. Uranium is enriched in felsic rock as

(a). Uranium is incompatible element
(b). Uranium is heavy element
(c). Uranium is of least density
(d). none of above

16. Eu is enriched in
(a). olivine (b). pyroxene (c). plagioclase (d). garnet

17. As the magma starts crystallizing and Eu starts decreasing sharply in melt, indicating
(a). crystallization of olivine
(b). crystallization of plagioclase
(c). crystallization of pyroxene
(d). crystallization of quartz

18. Mass spectrometry use _____________ to separate different ions.

(a). mass : charge
(b). charge : mass
(c). density :charge
(d). charge : density

19. Earth crust is rich in

(a). H (b). Fe (c). Si (d) C

20. Bulk earth is rich in

(a). H (b). Fe (c). Si (d) C
 Cosmology and planetary science

1. Plate tectonics is a result of Earth’s internal heat engine, powered by

a. the Sun. b. gravity.
c. internal heat of the Earth d. all of above

2. Volcanic island arcs are associated with

a. transform boundaries b. divergent boundaries
c. ocean-continent convergence d. ocean-ocean convergent boundaries

3. The largest zone of Earth’s interior by volume is the

a. crust b. mantle
c. outer core d. inner core

4. Oceanic and continental crust differ in

a. composition b. density
c. thickness d. all of the above

5. The forces generated inside Earth that cause deformation of rock as well as vertical and
horizontal movement of portions of Earth’s crust are called
a. erosional forces b. gravitational forces
c. tectonic forces d. all of the preceding

6. The lithosphere is
a. the same as the crust b. the layer beneath the crust
c. the crust and uppermost mantle d. only part of the mantle

7. Erosion is a result of Earth’s external heat engine, powered by

a. the Sun b. gravity
c. heat flowing from Earth’s interior outward d. all of the above

8. The boundary that separates the crust from the mantle is called the
a. lithosphere b. asthenosphere
c. Mohorovicic discontinuity d. none of the preceding

9. The core is probably composed mainly of

a. silicon b. sulfur
c. oxygen d. Fe-Ni alloy

10. The principle of continents being in a buoyant equilibrium is called

a. subsidence b. isostasy
c. convection d. rebound
11. The S-wave shadow zone is evidence that
a. the core is made of iron and nickel
b. the inner core is solid
c. the outer core is fluid
d. the mantle behaves as ductile material

12. Characteristic of mid-oceanic ridges?

a. shallow-focus earthquakes
b. high heat flow
c. basalt eruptions
d. all of the above

13. Oceanic trenches

a. are narrow, deep troughs
b. run parallel to the edge of a continent or an island arc
c. are often 8 to 10 kilometers deep
d. all of the above

14. Reefs parallel to the shore but separated from it by wide, deep lagoons are
a. fringing reefs b. barrier reefs
c. atolls d. lagoonal reefs

15. Rock sequences of basalt and marine sedimentary rock that may be slices of the ocean floor
are
a. guyots b. ophiolites
c. seamounts d. fracture zones

16. The Vine-Matthews hypothesis explains

a. polar wandering
b. seafloor magnetic anomalies
c. continental drift
d. mid-oceanic ridges

17. It is most likely to find _______________ ocean-ocean convergence boundary

a. suture zone
b. island arc
c. mid oceanic ridge
d. sea mounts

18. The Hawaiian Islands are result of

a. subduction
b. midocean ridge volcanics
c. mantle plumes
d. ocean-ocean convergence
19. The Wilson Cycle describes
a. the cycle of uplift and erosion of mountains
b. the movement of asthenosphere
c. the block-faulting that occurs at mountains
d. the cycle of splitting of a supercontinent, opening of an ocean basin, followed by closing
of the basin and collision of continents

20. “Geological processes operating at present are the same processes that have operated in
the past” is the principle of
a. correlation b. catastrophism
c. uniformitarianism d. none of the preceding

21. Periods are subdivided into

a. eras b. epochs
c. ages d. time zones

22. The core of a comet is

a. molten iron b. frozen gases
c. liquid hydrogen d. uranium

23. Elements heavier than Fe-Ni are formed by

a. Supernova event
b. In the core of star
c. Black hole
d. In the planets core

24. Energy radiating out from a really massive star like AGB star (as compare to earth will be)
a. High energy low wavelength
b. Low energy low wavelength
c. High energy high wavelength
d. Low energy high wavelength

25. The value of g will be highest near

a. Poles of earth
b. Equator of earth
c. 30o N of earth
d. 30o S of earth

26. Shape of earth is

a. Prolate spheroid b. Oblate spheroid
b. Elliptical d. spherical
 27. Which is not a dwarf planet
a. Pluto
b. Ceres
c. Eris
d. Io

28. We rarely see meteorite impact in our planet earth (unlike mars and moon), because
a. Erosion and tectonics of earth
b. Because of magnetic shield of our planet
c. Because rarely meteorite lands on the surface of earth
d. Because of high gravity Sun

29. Suppose the planet earth is a perfect sphere and it’s radius is 6371 km, then its velocity to
rotate in its own axis is _________________.
Ans. 1667.08 km/hour

30. Oldest rock in India belongs to

a. Dharwar craton
b. Vindhyan group
c. Cuddapah
d. Arrawali

31).Which hypothesis describe the origin of earth and other planets in solar system?

a.Nebular hypothesis

b. Planetesimal hypothesis

c.Binary star hypothesis

d.all of the above

32).Nebular Hypothesis was put forward by:

a.Jeans and Jeffery in 1925

b.Chamberlin and Moulton in 1904

c.Kant and Laplace

d.Lyttleton in 1938
33). Planetesimal Hypothesis was put forward by:

a.Jeans and Jeffery in 1925

b.Chamberlin and Moulton in 1904

c.Kant and Laplace

d.Lyttleton in 1938

34).A hypothesis that suggests that the sun and planets,including earth have formed from a
disc shaped rotating nebula.Name it.

a.Nebular hypothesis

b. Planetesimal hypothesis

c.Binary star hypothesis

d. Gaseous Tidal hypothesis

35).Age of the earth can be calculated by which of the following methods:

a.Radiometric dating

b.From rate of sedimentation

c.From rate of cooling

d.all of the above

36)Total number of gaseous planets in the solar system are:

a.2

b.3

c.4

d.5
37)Which among the following is termed as dwarf planet?

a.mars

b.venus

c.mercury

d.pluto

38).Distance of Earth from Sun is:

a.145.2 million km

b. 149.6 million km

c.155.9 million km

d.172.3 million km

39).Total number of dwarf planets in our solar system:

a.0

b.1

c.3

d.5

40).Phobos and Deimos ar the moons of which of the following planet?

a.mars

b.jupitor

c.uranus

d.saturn
41).Which among the following statements are true:

a.jupitor has 67 moons

b. Galilean moons are largest of Jupiter’s moons

c. Jupiter has the shortest day of the eight planets.

d.all of the above

42). Largest moon in the solar system is :

a. Ganymede

b. Phobos

c. Deimos

d.none of the above

43).Which among the following statements are true:

a. Venus is sometimes referred to as the “morning star” and “evening star”

b. One day on Venus is longer than one year

c. Venus is the hottest planet in the solar system with an average surface temperature of
462°C (863°F).

d.all of the above

44).Which among the following is true fact about sun:

a. The Sun rotates in the opposite direction to Earth

b. Temperatures inside the Sun can reach 15 million degrees Celsius

c. The Sun generates solar winds.

d.all of above
45).Age of the universe is:

a.14billion years

b. 13.5 billion years

c. 13.7 billion years

d. 14.1 billion years

46).Which is the 2nd most abundant element in the solar system:

a.H

b.He

c.O

d.C

47).Which is the most abundant metal in the universe?

a.Fe

b.Mg

c.Ni

d.Zn

48).Location of Milky Way Galaxy in Solar system is:

a.Orion arm

b.Saggitarius arm

c.Norma arm

d.Perseus arm
49).A day on mercury approximately equals to how many days on Earth?

a.56 days

b.57 days

c.58 days

d.59 days

50).Radius of Sun is:

a. 605,700 km

b. 795,700 km

c. 695,700 km

d. 425,700 km
 PETROLOGY

1).Factors that influence viscosity of lava is:

a)silica content of lava

b)temperature of lava

c)gases dissolved in magma

d)all of above

2).Term not related to a volcanic event is

a)crator

b)cavern

c).caldera

d).conduit

3).Some volcanic vent emit only water vapour with foul smelling sulphur compound are known
as:

a)hot springs

b)fumaroles

c)geysers

d)mudpot

4). Process of groundwater coming in contact to magma is termed as:

a)hot springs

b)fumaroles

c)geysers

d)mudpot
5). Volcanoes that are gently sloping between 20-100 & consist of low viscosity lava flow are:

a)Cinder cone

b)Shield volcano

c)Composite volcano

d)Pyroclastic cone

6).Volcano formed exclusively of pyroclast & slope of volcano is approximately 300 is termed
as:

a)Cinder cone

b)Shield volcano

c)Composite volcano

d)Spatter cone

7).Chalcophile is the term used for element whose affinity towards:

a)silicate phase

b)sulphide phase

c)metallic phase

d)atmosphere

8).Lithophile is the term used for element whose affinity towards:

a)silicate phase

b)sulphide phase

c)metallic phase

d)atmosphere
9).Siderophile is the term used for element whose affinity towards:

a)silicate phase

b)sulphide phase

c)metallic phase

d)atmosphere

10)volcanic equivalent of granite is:

a)dacite

b)trachyte

c)latite

d)rhyolite

11)volcanic equivalent of syenite is:

a)dacite

b)phonolite

c)latite

d)rhyolite

12)volcanic equivalent of granodiorite is:

a)dacite

b)trachyte

c)latite

d)rhyolite
13)Plutonic equivalent of basalt is:

a)gabbro

b)granite

c)syenite

d)diorite

14)Pyroclastic rock with fragments of size in between 2-6 mm are termed as:

a)bomb

b)block

c)lapilli

d) ash

15)Type of zoning in which sodic inner and calcic outer zones is called:

a)reverse zoning

b)normal zoning

c)oscillatory zoning

d)none of above
16)Texture in which overgrowth of plagioclase on alkali feldspar takes place:

a)cumulate texture

b)variolitic texture

c)spherulitic texture

d)rapakivi texture

17) Secondary Texture consisting of rods of quartz in a plagioclase host adjacent to alkali
feldspar grains:

a) spherulitic texture

b)myrmekite texture

c) cumulate texture

d)porphyritic texture

18)Texture in which replacement of plagioclase by epidote takes place:

a)Uralitization

b)saussurtization

c)biotitization

d)seritization

19)Texture in which replacement of pyroxene or amphibole by biotite takes place:

a)Uralitization

b)saussurtization

c)biotitization
d)seritization

20)Texture in which replacement of feldspar or feldspathoids by fine white mica takes place:

a)Uralitization

b)saussurtization

c)biotitization

d)seritization

21) The most significant agent of chemical weathering at Earth’s

surface is

a. water H 2 O

b. hydrochloric acid HCl

c. carbon dioxide CO 2

d. carbonic acid H 2 CO 3

22) The most common end product of the chemical weathering of quartz is

a. clay minerals

b. calcite

c. amphibole

d. quartz does not usually weather chemically

23) Particles of sediment from 1/16 to 2 millimeters in diameter are of what size?

a.sand

b. clay

c. silt

d. gravel

24. Clues to the nature of the source area of sediment can be found in

a. sedimentary structures

b. rounding of sediment

c. . the composition of the sediment

d. all of the above

25. What is likely to occur, If sea level drops or the land rises?

a. flood

b. regression

c. transgression

d. no geologic change will take place

26. Thick accumulations of graywacke and volcanic sediments indicate

a. convergent plate boundary

b. divergent boundary

c. transform boundary

d.all of above
27. A sedimentary rock made of fragments of preexisting rocks is

a. organic

b. clastic

c. chemical

d.biogenic

28. In the following choose which is not chemical or organic sedimentary rock?

a. limestone

b. gypsum

c. rock salt

d. shale

29. The major difference between breccia and conglomerate is

a. size of grains

b. composition of the grains

c. rounding of grains

d. all of the above

30. Rounding can be defined as

a. a type of mineral

b. the abrading away of sharp edges and corners of detrital rock during transportation

c. a grain in a spherical shape

d. none of the above

31. The element present in dolomite but absent in limestone :

a. Ca

b. Mg

c. Fe

d. Sb

32. Particle size in a finning upward graded bedding is:

a. decreases downward

b. decreases upward

c. stays the same

d. increases in the direction of the current

33. Compaction and cementation are two common processes of

a. lithification

b. transportation

c. deposition

d. erosion

34.In the following which isn’t a sandstone type?

a. quartz rich sandstone

b. coal

c. greywacke

d. arkose
35. Shale differs from mudstone because:

a. shale has smaller grains

b. shale has larger grains

c. shale is visibly layered and fissile; mudstone is massive and blocky

d. there is no difference between shale and mudstone

36. A body or rock of considerable thickness with characteristics that distinguish it from adjacent
rock units is called :

a. bedding plane

b. formation

c. outcrop

d. contact

37)which of following is not a tool mark?

a.prod

b.skip

c.scour mark

d.bounce mark
38) . The most common end product of the chemical weathering of feldspar is

a. clay minerals

b. pyroxene

c. amphibole

d. calcite

40. Which mineral in a metamorphic rock indicates low grade metamorphism?

(a). Chlorite (b). Sillimanite (c). Kyanite (d). muscovite

41. Snow ball garnet is a result of

(a). syn-kinematic deformation (b). Post – kinematic deformation
(c). Pre- Kinematic deformation (d). none of these

42. Which of the following metamorphic facies is representing low T but high P
(a). Green schist (b). Blue schist (c). Granulite (d) eclogite

43. Garnet-muscovite-biotite-sillimanite-quartz, this mineral assemblage is found in the

metamorphic facies:-
(a). Zeoloite (b). green schist (c). Amphibolite (d). granulite

44. Metamorphic facies is characterized by the pyrope rich garnet with omphacite assemblage is
(a). Blue schist (b). Granulite (c). Sanidinite (d). Eclogite

45. Near subduction zone the high possibility of getting _______________ metamorphic facies.
(a). Blue schist (b). Eclogite (c). Granulite (d). Green Schist

46. Metamorphic facies indicating increasing depth is

(a). greenschist, eclogite, blueschist
(b). greenschist, blueschist, eclogite
(c). Green schist, amphibolites, sanidinite
(d). green schist, Granulite, amphibolites

47. In metamorphism the melting of mica group minerals indicate

(a). hydration of minerals (b). uplifting of rock (c). dehydration of rock (d). Under cooling
48. A granofelic texture metamorphic rock consists of pyroxene, plagioclase and quartz was formed
because of __________ metamorphism.
(a). cataclastic (b). Regional (c). impact (d). contact

49. In a metamorphic terrain, crenulations at the hinge zone of a fold along with the development
of axial plane foliation is an evidence of
(A) one phase of deformation
(B) at least two phases of deformation
(C) no deformation
(D) extensional regime of the deformation

50. Metamorphic facies rich in minerals like glucophane is

(a). prehenite pumpellyite facies (b). blue schist facies (c). eclogite facies (d). all of these.
 Palaeontology and Stratigraphy

1. The structure Calice is present in clade

(a). Hexacorallia (b). Mollusca (c). Brachiopoda (d). Echinoidea

2. Most of the _____________ are equivalve and inequilateral valves.

(a). Lamellibranchia (b). brachiopoda (c). gastropoda (d). Ammonites

3. Most of the _____________ are inequivalve but equilateral valves.

(a). Lamellibranchia (b). brachiopoda (c). gastropoda (d). Ammonites

4. Pallial sinus in bivalvia is always present on

(a). anterior of the animal (b). Posterior of the animal (c). Dorsal of the animal (d). none

5. Patella is a genus that belong to class ___________ of phylum Mollusca.

(a). Bivalvia (b). Gastropoda (c). Nautiloidea (d). Ammonites

6. Orthoceras is a genus that belong to the subclass ___________ of phylum Mollusca.

(a). Nautiloidea (b). Brachiopoda (c). Ammonites (d). Blemanites

7. Septal neck is projected away from aperture opening side belongs to ____________.
(a). Nautiloidea (b). Ammonoidea (c). Palycephoda (d). gastropoda

8. Septal neck is projected towards aperture opening side belongs to ____________.

(a). Nautiloidea (b). Ammonoidea (c). Palycephoda (d). gastropoda

9. Geological time period of Orthoceras is ranging from

(a). Ordovician to Triassic (b). Permian to Triassic
(c). Silurian to Permian (d) Jurassic to Cretaceous.

10. Extinction of ammonites took place at

(a). Permian-Triassic extinction (b). K-Pg extinction
(c). Triassic Jurasic extinction (d). Late Ordovician extinction

11. Blemanite has a guard, which is an

(a). endoskeleton (b). ectoskeleton (c). both (d). there is no such structures

12. In brachipoda the larger valve is

(a). Pedicle valve (b). Brachial valve (c). left valve (d). right valve

13. Hinge structure is present in

(a). Articulata brachiopoda (b). inarticulate brachiopoda (c). gastropoda (d). ammonites
14. Which of the clade is best fossil index for the biostratigraphy of Mesozoic era.
(a). Ammonites (b). graptolites (c) trilobites (d). conodonts

15. Pygidium is a part of clade

(a). Mollusca (b). Trilobite (c). graptolite (d). echinoidea

16. The meaning of arthropoda is

(a). joint appendages (b). compound eyes (c). many feet (d). one mouth

17. Periproct is in echinoidea is located in

(a). aboral side (b). oral side (c). anterior side (d). posterior side

18. Nema is a part in

(a). Graptolite (b). Echinoidea (c). Trilobite (d). ammonite

19. Mammals appeared in time period

(a). Permian (b). Jurassic (c). paleogene (d). Silurian

20. First bird (avian dinosaur) appeared in the period

(a). Permian (b). Jurassic (c). cretaceous (d). Triassic

21. Dinosaurs is a clade having common characteristic

(a). Large size (b). erect stance (c). only scales all over body (d). all of them

22. Trilobite extinction took place at this mass extinction

(a). Late Ordovician (b). Permian Triassic (c). K-Pg (d). Cambrian

23. Coal is formed by terrestrial plant material that fall under

(a). Kerogen type I (b). Kerogen type II (c). Kerogen type III (d). none

24. The foraminifera found in polar regions is

(a) Globigerina pachyderma (b). Globorotalia truncatulinoides

(c). Pulleniatina obliquiloculata (d). Globoquadrina conglomerate

25. The foraminifera found near equator is

(b) Globigerina pachyderma (b). Globorotalia truncatulinoides

(c). Pulleniatina obliquiloculata (d). Globoquadrina conglomerate

 26. Radiolarian test is composed of
(a). Calcareous (b). siliceous (c). phosphate (d). organic

27. Conodont composition is

(a). Calcareous (b). siliceous (c). phosphate (d). organic

28. Father of stratigraphy is:

a.James hutton

b. William Smith

c.Henry Hess

d. Georges Cuvier

29.Match the time unit with rock unit:

Time Unit Rock unit

P. ERA 1.SYSTEM
Q. PERIOD 2.GROUP
R.EPOCH 3.STAGE
S. AGE 4.SERIES

a. P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4

b.P-4,Q-2,R-1,S-3

c.P-2,Q-1,R-4,S-3

d.P-3,Q-2,R-1,S-4

30. Which among the following if of Mesozoic Era?

a.Lutetian

b.Maestrichtian

c.Thenetian

d.Acadien
31. Which among the following if of Paleozoic Era?

a.Lutetian

b.Maestrichtian

c.Thenetian

d.Acadien

32. Which among the following if of Cenozoic Era?

a.Danian

b.Maestrichtian

c.Thenetian

d.Acadien

33. Age of Precambrian- Cambrian boundary is:

a.542 ma

b.540ma

c.251ma

d.255ma

34. Age of Permian-Triassic boundary is:

a.542 ma

b.540ma

c.251ma

d.255ma
35. Age of Creataceous-Paleogene boundary is:

a.68ma

b.70ma

c.60ma

d.66ma

36. First life appeared on earth, nearly

(a). 4.5 bya

(b). 3.5 bya

(c). 600 mya

(d). 500 mya

37. Fenestella shale is overlain by:

a.agglomeratic shale

b.panjal trap

c.Zewan fm

d.Muth quartzite

38. Which one among the following is a lower gondwana fossil?

a.Mastodonasaurus

b.Glossopteris

c.Ptillophyllum

d.Nissonia
39. Salkhala Group is overlain by:

a. kamlial fm

b.Dogra slate

c.dhokpathan fm

d.nagri fm

40. First plant appear on land in which era?

a.cambrian

b.silurian

c.ordovician

d.devonian

41. Sargur schist complex is overlain by:

a.peninsular gneissic complex

b.bababudan group

c.chitradurga group

d.closepet granite

42. Diamonidiferous conglomerate occurs in:

a.kaimur group

b.bhander group

c.saimur group

d.rewa group
43. Banded Gneissic Complex is overlain by

a.Delhi Supergroup

b.Aravalli group

c.Jodhpur sandstone

d.Melani igneous suite

44. Fawn limestone contain :

a.collenia columnaris

b.conophyton cylindricus

c.collenia sp.

d.all of above

45. Triassic begins with the first appearance of:

a.nautilus

b.Otoceras woodwardi

c.macrocephalites

d.olenus

46. The base of Paleozoic Era is marked by the first appearance of:

a.trilobite

b.corals

c.brachiopod

d.all of the above

47. The Geological Time Scale(ICS 2009) contains:

a.2 eons

b.3 eons

c.5 eons

d.7 eons

48. Patcham Formation is best developed in:

a.Jaisalmer basin

b.Kutch basin

c.Godavari basin

d.Spiti basin

49. Find odd one out :

a.system

b.group

c.stage

d.era

50. Fundamental unit of chronostratigraphic classification is:

a.erathem

b.stage

c.series

d.system
 Structural Geology

1. A sausage structure that forms by the segmentation of pre-existing bodies is called

(a). Folds
(b). Boudinage
(c). Pebbles
(d). Rodding

2. Example of passive strain marker is

(a). conglomerate in shale
(b). muscovite in granite
(c). Garnet in mica schist
(d). Oolites in carbonates

3. The principle of continents being in a buoyant equilibrium is

(a). subsidence
(b). isostasy
(c). convection
(d). rebound

4. Which processes can be attributed to the formation of both outliers and inliers:
(a). Folding
(b). Faulting
(c). Erosion
(d). all of the above

5. Foliation may be developed in

(a). igneous rock
(b). metamorphic rock
(c). sedimentary rock
(d). all of the above

6. Which term will be more appropriate for the slate rock

(a). slaty cleavage
(b). schistosity
(c). continuous cleavage
(d). gneissose structure

7. Which one is open fold, if the given interlimb angle is

(a). 125 (b). 80 (c). 40 (d). 20
8. Fold isogon are in such a way that, greater curvature on inner arc than outer arc and
orthogonal thickness of folded bed is equal everywhere, the kind of fold it is
(a). 1B (b) class 2 fold (c). class 3 fold (d) 1C

9. Interlimb angle of gentle fold is

(a). 130 (b). 110 (c) 90 (d). 100

10. A superimposed fold showing boomerang (mushroom) like pattern after erosion, the kind of
superimposed fold it will be
(a). Type 0 (b) Type 1 (c) Type 2 (d) Type 3

11. If the dip of fault plane is 30 degree then the hade of the fault would be ____________.
(a). 30 (b). 60 (c). 45 (d). 90

12. Pitch of the net slip in strike slip fault is,

(a). 0 (b). 90 (c). 45 (d). 30

13. Rake of the net slip of a dip slip fault (in degree) is,
(a). 0 (b) 90 (c). 45 (d). 30

14. When the minimum principal stress axis is vertical, the kind of fold generated
(a). Thrust fault (b). Gravity fault (c). strike slip fault (d). we cannot say

15. When the maximum principal stress axis is vertical, the kind of fold generated
(a). Thrust fault (b). Gravity fault (c). strike slip fault (d). we cannot say

16. When the intermediate principal stress axis is vertical, the kind of fold generated
(a). Thrust fault (b). Gravity fault (c). strike slip fault (d). we cannot say

17. A positive gravity anomaly indicates that

(a). tectonic forces are holding a region up out of isostatic equilibrium
(b). the land is sinking
(c). local mass deficiencies exist in the crust
(d). all of the preceding

18. Klippe is a structure in which

(a). younger rock surrounding older rock
(b). older rock surrounding younger rock
(c). elevated region is surrounded by less elevated region but both are of same age
(d). formed by folding
19. Window is a structure in which
(a). younger rock surrounding older rock
(b). older rock surrounding younger rock
(c). elevated region is surrounded by less elevated region but both are of same age
(d). formed by folding

20. A positive magnetic anomaly could indicate

(a). a body of magnetic ore
(b). the magnetic field strength is higher than the regional average
(c). an intrusion of gabbro
(d). all of the preceding

21. Fracture plane along which no relative movement has ever taken place is called
(a). fault (b). fold (c). joint (d). lineation

22. Sedimentary beds resting over a metamorphosed basement rock is a

(a). non conformity (b). angular unconformity (c). Disconformity (d). paraconformity

23. A sequence of folded sedimentary beds below the sequence of horizontally oriented
sedimentary beds, is a kind of
(a). non conformity (b). angular unconformity (c). Disconformity (d). paraconformity

24. In a thrust, the block which moves is called

(a). Autochthonous (b). allochthonous (c). foot wall (d). Decollement

25. Which one of this is a shear sense indicator

(a). delta structure (b). phi structure (c) theta structure (d) porphyroclast

26. Kinematic vorticity number for simple shear is

(a). 1 (b). 2 (c). between 0 and 1 (d) 0

27. Kinematic vorticity number for pure shear is

(a). 1 (b). 2 (c). between 0 and 1 (d) 0

28. Kinematic vorticity number for simple shear is

(a). 1 (b). 2 (c). between 0 and 1 (d) 0

29. Example of coaxial deformation is

(a). Pure shear (b). simple shear (c). both (d). none of these

30. Example of non-coaxial deformation is

(a). Pure shear (b). simple shear (c). both (d). none of these
31. Instrument to measure seismic waves
(a). seismometer (b). seismograph (c). seismogram (d). none of these

32. Device to record seismic waves

(a). seismometer (b). seismograph (c). seismogram (d). none of these

33. Record of seismic waves is

(a). seismometer (b). seismograph (c). seismogram (d). none of these
34. which of the seismic wave is longitudinal wave
(a). Primary wave (b). secondary wave (c). Love wave (d). Rayleigh wave

34. . which of the seismic wave is transverse wave

(a). Primary wave (b). secondary wave (c). Love wave (d). Rayleigh wave

35. . which of the seismic wave behaves like rolling oceanic waves
(a). Primary wave (b). secondary wave (c). Love wave (d). Rayleigh wave

36. . which of the seismic wave horizontal to ground and shows side to side motion
(a). Primary wave (b). secondary wave (c). Love wave (d). Rayleigh wave

37. Which focal depth is of shallow focus earth quake

(a). 60 km (b). 80 km (c). 360 km (d). 75 km

38. Which focal depth is of intermediate focus earth quake

(a). 380 km (b). 370 km (c). 360 km (d). 340 km

39. Which focal depth is of deep focus earth quake

(a). 340 km (b). 360 km (c). 330 km (d). 320 km

40. Which of the triple junction tectonic position is stable in all condition
(a). RRR (b). TTT (c). FFF (d). TTF

41. Which of the triple junction tectonic position is unstable in all condition
(a). RRR (b). TTT (c). FFF (d). TTF

42. Fault associated with MOR

(a). Transform fault (b). reverse fault (c). normal fault (d). listric fault

43. Fault associated with crustal shortening

(a). Transform fault (b). reverse fault (c). normal fault (d). listric fault

44. Fault associated with crustal extension

(a). Transform fault (b). reverse fault (c). thrust (d). domino style fault
 45. By increasing pore pressure the radius of the mohr circle will
(a). increase (b). decrease (c). no change (d). can not tell

46. By increasing pore pressure the mohr circle will shift towards
(a). Right (b). left (c). no change (d). can not tell

47. By decreasing pore pressure the mohr circle will shift towards
(a). Right (b). left (c). no change (d). can not tell

Common statement for Q. 48, 49 and 50: The maximum minimum and intermediate principal stress
axis is same for a granite and shale.

48. The radius of mohr circle of granite is R and for shale is r, and the relationship between R
and r would be
(a). R>r
(b). R<r
(c). R=r
(d). R=2r

49. If the position of center of mohr circle from (0,0) coordinate in mohr diageram for granite is
C and of shale is c then the position if C and c in mohr diagram is
(a). same position
(b). C is more far as compare to c from (0,0)
(c). c is more far as compare to C from (0,0)
(d). cannot tell

50. The coulomb’s failure envelop for granite and shale are
(a) Exactly same
(b) Different
(c) Different intercept but same slope
(d) Cannot say