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Solved MAT 2003 Paper With Solutions

The document discusses a team of 7 experts - Bhushan, Cyriac, Pramila, Ram, Suresh, Shekhar and Unni - who are to be divided into 3 panels for interviews, with some restrictions on the groupings. Cyriac does not want to be paired with Ram, and Unni had previously been paired with Shekhar. The question asks which expert did not participate based on these groupings.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
84 views59 pages

Solved MAT 2003 Paper With Solutions

The document discusses a team of 7 experts - Bhushan, Cyriac, Pramila, Ram, Suresh, Shekhar and Unni - who are to be divided into 3 panels for interviews, with some restrictions on the groupings. Cyriac does not want to be paired with Ram, and Unni had previously been paired with Shekhar. The question asks which expert did not participate based on these groupings.

Uploaded by

Anshuman Narang
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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MAT 2003

All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, distributed, or


transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying,
recording or otherwise, or stored in any retrieval system of any nature without the
permission of cracku.in, application for which shall be made to [email protected]

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Intelligence & Critical Reasoning
Instructions

Answer these questions based on the Following information.

A team of experts for conducting interviews consists of seven experts Bhushan, Cyriac, Pramila, Ram, Suresh, Shekhar
and Unni. Of these Bhushan, Cyriac and Pramila are experts in Social Sciences while Suresh and Unni are experts in
Basic Sciences. Ram and Shekhar had exposure in both basic sciences and social sciences. Three panels have to be
formed for the interview with a restriction that a panel should have representation from experts with social sciences
and basic sciences back ground. Moreover, at least one member should be an expert of only one area.

Question 1

If Cyriac does not like to be a member of panel with Ram, and Unni was in a panel with Shekhar, then the
expert who did not participate in the

A Pramila

B Cyriac

C Bhushan

D Any of these

Answer: D

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Question 2

If Pramila did not participate in the interview, then who wasthe person mostlikely to be with Unni?

A Suresh

B Bhushan

C Pramila

D Any of these

Answer: B

Question 3

Unni does notlike to be with Shekhar; Ram doesnotlike to be with Pramila and Bhushan had Suresh as
the partner. If both Ram and Pramila attended the interview, then who was the partner to Cyriac?

A Cyriac did not attend the interview

B Shekhar

C Pramila

D Unni

Answer: A

Instructions

These questions are baked on the following information.

A set of eight candidates A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are being interviewed by two panels of interviewers: Panel I and
Panel II — from 9.30 to 10.50 on a particular day. Each panel will spend about 10 minutes per candidate and at no

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time during the interview process will a panel be without any candidate. The original schedules of interviews for the
eight candidates are shown in the following table:

Due to requests from the candidates, the interview schedule was altered for several candidates. The alterations were
made in such a way that whenever a change was made,the time schedule for both the panels of a particular candidate
was exchanged in entirety with the time schedule of another candidate.
The following alterations were made:
I. A's place was taken by G
II. A in turn was accommodated in C's place
III. C in turn was accommodated in E's place
IV. E took H's place
V. H took G's place

Question 4

Which of the following candidates Finished the interviews along with E?

A A

B C

C D

D F

Answer: C

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Question 5

Which of the following candidates Finished the interviews before C?

A B

B D

C Both of these

D None of these

Answer: D

Question 6

If G and A had to leave together, then how muchtime did any of them has to wait?

A A has to wait 10 minutes

B G has to wait 20 minutes

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C None of them hasto wait

D G hasto wait 30 minutes

Answer: B

Question 7

Which one of the Following statementsis true?

A G could leave even before E's First interview was over

B F and left together

C D was the only candidate who could give companyto E

D All of these

Answer: C

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Instructions

Study the information given below to answer these questions.


(i) There is a family of 5 persons A, B, C, D and E.
(ii) They are working as a doctor, a teacher, a trader, a lawyer and a farmer.
(iii) B, an unmarried teacher, is the daughterof A.
(iv) E, a lawyer, is the brother of C.
(v) C, is husband of the only Married couple in the Family.
(vi) A, a farmer, is a father of two sons and an unmarried daughter.
(vii) Daughter-in-law of Ais a doctor.

Question 8

Which of the following is a group of female membersin the family?

A B and D

B D and E

C A,C and E

D B and C

Answer: A

Question 9

Which of the Following is the married couple?

A A and B

B C and D

C A and D

D B and D

Answer: B

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Question 10

Which of the following is a group of male membersin the family?

A A,B and C

B B and D

C A,C and E

D A,C and D

Answer: C

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Question 11

Who is the doctorin the family?

A A

B B

C C

D D

Answer: D

Question 12

Who is the traderin the family?

A A

B B

C C

D D

Answer: C

Instructions

On the basis of the following information, answer these questions.

Six people are sitting on the ground in a hexagonal shape. The hexagon's vertices are marked as A, B, C, D, E and F
but not in any order. However,all the sides of the hexagon are of same length. Ais not adjacent to B or C; Dis not
adjacent to C or E; B and C are adjacent; F is in the middle of D & C.

Question 13

If one neighbour of A is D, then whois the other one?

A B

B C

C E

D F

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Answer: C

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Question 14

Who is placed opposite to E?

A F

B D

C C

D B

Answer: A

Question 15

Who is at the same distance from D as Eis from D?

A B

B C

C D

D F

Answer: B

Question 16

Which of the following is not a correct neighbouring pair?

A B&E

B C&F

C D&F

D A&F

Answer: D

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Question 17

Which of the following is in the right sequence?

A B, C, F

B A, F, B

C D, A, B

D F, A, E

Answer: A

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Instructions

In these questions some of the letters are missing. The missing letters are given in the proper sequenceas oneof the
alternatives. Find the correct alternative.

Question 18

ab—abb—bba—b

A aba

B bba

C bab

D baa

Answer: C

Question 19

rst-vrs-uv-stu-rst-

A rstrsts

B uvtrstu

C uvtrsuv

D utrvuv

Answer: D

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Question 20

-c-ca-ab-bc-

A abcac

B babca

C ccabb

D bcabb

Answer: B

Instructions

In these questions, choose the appropriate number for the quadrant in which the question mark appears.

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Question 21

A 36

B 117

C 52

D 26

Answer: A

Question 22

A 30

B 24

C 18

D 12

Answer: B

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Instructions

Six products U, V, W, X, Y and Z are to be placed in display windows of a shop. There are six display windows —
numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and one product is to be put in one window. Moreover, U cannot be immediately to the left or
immediately to the right of V. W must be immediately to the left of X. Z can not be in window number 6.

Question 23

Which of the following products cannot be placed in window no. 1?

A U

B V

C W

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D X

Answer: D

Question 24

If X is placed in window no 3, then W must be placed in which window?

A 1

B 2

C 4

D 5

Answer: A

Question 25

11 U is placed in window no. 5, then which of the following products must be placed in window no. 6?

A V

B W

C X

D Y

Answer: B

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Instructions

In each of these questions, two statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assume the given
statementsto be true, even if they seem to beat variance with commonly knownfacts and then mark your answer as —

Question 26

Statements:
All players are smokers.
Some smokers are wine-addicts.
Conclusions:
I. All smokers are players.
II. Some wine-addicts are smokers.

A If only conclusion I follows

B If only conclusion II follows

C If both the conclusions follow

D If neither I nor II follows

Answer: D

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Question 27

Statements:
All women are ministers.
All ministers are simpleton.
Conclusions:
I. All women are simpleton.
II. All ministers are simpleton.

A If only conclusion I follows

B If only conclusion II follows

C If both the conclusions follow

D If neither I nor II follows

Answer: C

Question 28

Statements:
All cars are not trains.
All cars are four-wheeled vehicles.
Conclusions:
I. All trains are not four-wheeled vehicles.
II. Some trains are four-wheeled vehicles.

A If only conclusion I follows

B If only conclusion II follows

C If both the conclusions follow

D If neither I nor II follows

Answer: A

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Question 29

Statements:
All jails are guest houses.
All guest houses are comfortable.
Conclusions:
I. All jails are comfortable.
II. No jail is comfortable.

A If only conclusion I follows

B If only conclusion II follows

C If both the conclusions follow

D If neither I nor II follows

Answer: A

Instructions

Study the following information to answer these questions.

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A blacksmith has five iron articles A, B, C, D and E each having a different weight.
(i) Aweighs twice as much as B
(ii) Bweighs four and a half times as much as C
(iii) C weighs half as much as D
(iv) D weighs half as much as E
(v) E weighs less than A but more than C

Question 30

Which of the following is the lightest in weight?

A A

B B

C C

D D

Answer: C

Question 31

E is lighter in weight than which of the other two articles?

A A,B

B D,C

C A,C

D D,B

Answer: A

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Question 32

E is heavier than which of the following two articles?

A D,B

B D,C

C A,C

D A,B

Answer: B

Question 33

Which of the following articles is the heaviest in weight?

A A

B B

C C

D D

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Answer: A

Question 34

Which of the following represents the descending order of weights of the articles?

A A, B, E, D, C

B B, D, E, A, C

C A, B, C, D, E

D C, D, E, B, A

Answer: A

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Instructions

From the set of numbers given in the four alternatives, which one is the most similar to the given set:

Question 35

Given Set: (6, 15, 28)

A (50, 59, 71)

B (46, 56, 66)

C (60, 69, 72)

D (60, 69, 82)

Answer: D

Question 36

Given Set: (81, 77, 69)

A (56, 52, 44)

B (64, 61, 53)

C (92, 88, 79)

D (75, 71, 60)

Answer: A

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 37

There are many reasons whyindividuals want to run their own businesses. Some foresee more personal
satisfaction if they are successful in launching their own business, while others are interested mainly in
the prospect of larger financial rewards. Since 1980s and early 1990s tax regulation and liberal policies
nave encouraged increasing number of venture capitalists and entrepreneurs to start new enterprises.
Since 1990, some one-half million new ventures have been started. Not all have succeeded, of course.
The above statement makes which of the following assumptions?

A Successin starting a new business dependsin large part on sound financial planning.

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B Venture capitalists are motivated by non monetary gains.

C Social incentives motivate investors just as much as financial rewards.

D Most new business ventures succeedinitially but fail later on.

Answer: C

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Question 38

Many business offices are located in buildings having two to eight floors, if a building has more than
threefloors, it has a lift. If the above statements are true, then which of the following must also be true?

A Second floors do not havelifts.

B Seventh floors have lifts.

C Only floors abovethethird floors have lifts.

D All floors may be reachedbylifts.

Answer: B

Question 39

A highly cohesive work groupis a prerequisite for high team performance. Sociologists point that the
association between group cohesion and success is owing to the support individual team members give
to one another and their acceptance of the group's goals and activities. Each of the following, if true,
either provides support for or cannot weaken the sociologists’ assumption aboutthe relationship
between cohesive and success EXCEPT.

A A group of Japanese researchers found that successful work teams were headed by dominant leaders.

University researchers found that there was a significant correlation between team productivity and the extent to
B
which the team members understood and complied with the group's objectives.

C American researchers found that successful team members tended to rate their fellow members more favourably.

Industrial psychologists in UK found that work groups who tended to participate in after hours social activities were
D
more productive.

Answer: A

Question 40

"Some men are certainly intelligent, others are certainly notintelligent, but of intermediate men, we
should say,‘intelligent’? Yes, I think, so or no, I shouldn't be inclined to call him intelligent." Which of the
following most accurately reflects the intention of the writer of the above ?

A To call men intelligent who are not strikingly so must be to use the concept with undue imprecision.

B Every empirical concept has a degree of vagueness.

C Calling someoneintelligent or not depends upon one's whim.

D There is no need to be as indecisive as the writer of the above.

Answer: C

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Mathematical Skills
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 41

The sum of the 6th and 15th elements of an arithmetic progression is equal to the sum of 7th, 10th and 12th
elements of the same progression. Which element of the series should necessarily be equal to zero?

A 10th

B 8th

C 1st

D None of these

Answer: B

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Question 42

Mr. X's salary is increased by 20%. On the increase, the tax rate is 10% higher. The percentage increase
in tax liability is

A 20

B 22

C 23

D Indeterminate

Answer: D

Question 43

Rohit, Harsha and Sanjeev are three typists who, working simultaneously, can type 216 pages in four
hours. In one hour, Sanjeev can type as many pages more than Harshs as Harsha can type more than
Rohit. During a period of five hours, Sanjeev can type as many pages as Rohit can during seven hours
How many pages does each of them type pei hour?

A 16, 18, 22

B 14, 17, 20

C 15, 17, 22

D 15, 18, 21

Answer: D

Question 44

A box of light bulbs contains 24 bulbs. A worker replaces 17 bulbs in the shipping department and 13
bulbs in the accounting department. How many boxesof bulbs did the worker use?

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A 1
1
B 1 (4 )
3
C 1 (4 )

D 2
Answer: B

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Question 45

If there are 3 different roads from Delhi to Mumbai and 4 different roads from Mumbai to Chennai, then
how many roadsare there from Delhi to Chennai that go through Mumbai?

A 9

B 12

C 16

D 4

Answer: B

Question 46

What will Rs. 1000 be worth after three yearsif it earns interest at the rate of 5% compounded annually?

A 1057

B 1257

C 1157

D 1300

Answer: C

Question 47

A bag contains 2 red, 3 green and 2 blue balls. 2 balls are to be drawn randomly. Whatis the probability
that the balls drawn contain no blue ball?

5
A 7

10
B 21

2
C 7

11
D 21

Answer: A

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Question 48

If p, q, r, s are in harmonic progression and p > s, then

1 1
A ( ps ) < ( qr )

B q+r=p+s
1 1 1 1
C ( q) + (p) = ( r) + ( s)

D None of these

Answer: D

Question 49
2 1
A worker makes a basket in 3 of an hour. If he works for 7 ( 2 ) hours, then how many baskets will he
make?

3
A 10 ( 4 )
1
B 11 ( 4 )
1
C 12 ( 2 )

D 13
Answer: B

Question 50

The slope of a function y = x3 + kx at x = 2 is equal to the area under the curve z = a 2 + a between points
a = 0 and a = 3 Then the value of k is

A 1.5

B 5.5

C 6.5

D Cannot be determined

Answer: A

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Question 51

If 5 men take an hour to dig a ditch, then how long should 12 men take to dig a ditch of the same type?

A 25 minutes

B 30 minutes

C 28 minutes

D 20 minutes

Answer: A

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Question 52

The difference between the logarithms of sum of the squares of two positive numbers A and B and the
sum of logarithms of the individual numbers is a constant C. If A = B, then C is

A 2

B 1.3031

C log 2

D exp (2)

Answer: C

Question 53

How muchinterest will Rs- 10,000 earn in 9 months at an annual rate of 6 per cent?

A 450

B 500

C 475

D 600

Answer: A

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Question 54

There are four prime numbers written in ascending order. The product of the first three is 385 and that
of the last three is 1001. The first number is

A 5

B 7

C 11

D 17

Answer: A

Question 55

A train can travel 20%faster than a car. Both start from the point A at the same time and reach point B
75 km away from A at the same time. On the way, however, the train lost about 12.5 minutes while
stopping at the stations. The speed of the car is

A 50 kmph

B 55 kmph

C 60 kmph

D 65 kmph

Answer: C

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Question 56

Pintoo dealt some cards to Minto and himself from a full pack of playing cards andlaid the rest aside.
Pintoo then said to Mintoo, "If you give me a certain number of your cards I will have 4 times as many
cards as you have. If I give you the same numberof cards, I will have thrice as many cards as you have."
How manycards did Pintoo have?

A 31

B 32

C 29

D 30

Answer: A

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Question 57

An express train travelled at an average speed of 100 kmph, stopping for 3 minutes after every 75 km.A
local train travelled at a speed of 50 kmph, stopping for 1 minute after every 25 km. If the trains began
travelling at the same time, then how many kilometres did the local train travel in the time it took the
express train to travel 600 km?

A 307.5 km

B 900 km

C 1200 km

D 1000 km

Answer: A

Question 58

For an acute angle θ, sin θ + cos θ takes the greater value when θ is

A 30∘

B 45∘

C 60∘

D 90∘
Answer: B

Question 59

HCF of 3240, 3600 and a third number is 36 and their LCM is 24 × 35 × 52 × 72 . The third number is

A 24 × 53 × 72

B 22 × 35 × 72

C 23 × 35 × 72

5 2 2
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D 25 × 52 × 72
Answer: B

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Question 60

The cost function at production x is defined as C(x) = 3x3 − x + 2 and sale function at A cost x is defined
A1
as S(x) = ( x3 ). Which of the following is true?

2
3 3
A Min sales = (4 ) A
2
9 3
B Min sales = (2 ) A
2
3 3
C Max sales = ( 4 ) A
2
9 3
D Max sales = ( 2 ) A
Answer: C

Question 61

If x is a positive number, then which of the following fractions has the greatest value?

x
A x

(x+1)
B x

x
C (x+1)

(x+2)
D (x+3)

Answer: B

Question 62

Which values of x are satisfied by the inequality 2x2 + x − 3 < 0?

3
A − (2 ) < x < 1
2
B −1 < x < ( 3 )

C x>1
−2
D x<( 5 )

Answer: A

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Question 63
7 9
If the probability that A will live 15 years is ( 8 ) and that B will live 15 years is ( 10 ), then what is the
probability that both will live after 15 years?

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A 1
20
63
B 80

1
C 5

D None of these

Answer: B

Question 64

A shopkeeper sold a TV set for Rs. 17,940, with a discount of 8% and gained 19.6%. If no discount is
allowed, then whatwill be his gain per cent?

A 25%

B 26.4%

C 24.8%

D None of these

Answer: D

Question 65

The number of tangents that can be drawn to two non-intersecting circles is

A 4

B 3

C 2

D 1

Answer: A

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Question 66

A number is increased by 10% and then reduced by 10%. After this operation, the number

A Does not change.

B Decreases by 1%.

C Increases by 1%.

D Increases by 0.1%.

Answer: B

Question 67

The average of 11 numbersis 10.9. If the average of the first six numbers is 10.5 and that of the last six
numbersis 11.4, then the middle number is

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A 11.5

B 11.4

C 11.3

D 11.0

Answer: A

Question 68

A man sells an article at 5% profit. If he had bought it at 5% less and sold it for Re. 1 less, he would have
gained 10%. The costprice of the article is

A Rs. 200

B Rs. 150

C Rs. 250

D Rs. 240

Answer: A

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Question 69

A starts 3 min after B for a place 4.5 km distant B, on reaching his destination, immediately returns and
after walking a km meets A.if A can walk 1 km in 18 minutes, then whatis B's speed ?

A 5 kmph

B 4 kmph

C 6 kmph

D 3.5 kmph

Answer: A

Question 70

A company has 6,435 bars of soap, if the company has sold 20 per cent of its stock, then how many bars
of soap did it sell?

A 1237

B 1257

C 1287

D 1300

Answer: C

Question 71

A dairyman pays Rs. 6.4 per liter of milk. He adds water and sells the mixture at Rs. 8 per liter, thereby
making 37.5% profit. The proportion of water to milk received by the customers is

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1 : 15
A

B 1 : 10

C 1 : 20

D 1 : 12
Answer: B

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Question 72

Wheels of diameters 7 cm and 14 cm start rolling simultaneously from X and Y, which are 1980 cm apart,
towards each other in opposit directions. Both of them make same number of revolutions per second. If
both of them meet after 10 seconds, the speed of the smaller wheel is

A 22 cm/sec.

B 44 cm/sec.

C 66 cm/sec.

D 132 cm/sec.

Answer: C

Question 73

What is the eighth term of the sequence 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ...........?

A 8

B 64

C 128

D 200

Answer: B

Question 74

A bicycle originally costs Rs 100 and was discounted 10%. After three months it was sold after being
discounted 15%. How much was the bicycle sold for?

A 55.5

B 95.25

C 76.5

D None of these

Answer: C

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Question 75
1
( 2 ) log10 25 − 2 log10 3 + log10 18 equals

A 18

B 1

C log10 3

D None of these

Answer: B

Question 76

A bag contains Rs. 216 in the form of one rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise coins in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4. The
number of 50 paise coins is

A 96

B 144

C 114

D 141

Answer: B

Question 77

The length of the longest rod that can be placed in a room which is 12 m long 9 m broad and 8 m high is

A 27 m

B 19 m

C 17 m

D 13 m

Answer: C

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Question 78

Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at 46 km and 36 km per hr.
The faster train passes the slower train in 36 sec. The length of eachtrain is

A 50 m.

B 80 m.

C 72 m.

D 82 m.

Answer: A

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Question 79

The remainder when 784is divided by 342 is

A 0

B 1

C 49

D 341

Answer: B

Question 80

In a 800 m race around a stadium having the circumference of 200 m, the top runner meets the last
runner on the 5th minute of the race. If the top runner runs at twice the speed of the last runner, what is
the time taken by the top runner to finish the race?

A 20 min

B 15 min

C 10 min

D 5 min

Answer: C

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Data Analysis & Sufficiency


Instructions

These questions are based on the following table. The table shows the number of emergencies attended by 6 fire
brigade substations during May - October 2002.

Question 81

Number of emergencies attended by the 6 substations was the samein the months of

A May & June

B June & July

C August & September

D June & October

Answer: D

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Question 82

Which of the following substations showed a greater increase in the number of emergencies attended in
August as compared to July?

A A

B E

C D

D C

Answer: A

Question 83

Which substation attended to the maximum number of complaints in the given period?

A A

B B

C C

D F

Answer: B

Question 84

Which two months aggregated over 36%of the total number of emergencies in the six-month period?

A May and June

B July and October

C August and September

D July and September

Answer: D

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Instructions

Answer these questions based on the data given in the following table. The table shows the installment amounts for
monthly repayments (in Rupees) on housing society loans for different periods.

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Question 85

How much more money would be paid on a loan of Rs. 20,00,000 taken out over 20 years compared to
the same loan taken overa period of 15 years?

A Rs. 3,00,000

B Rs. 4,25,000

C Rs. 5,50,000

D Rs. 6,12,000

Answer: D

Question 86

What is the total amount repaid over 25 years on a loan of Rs. 15,00,000?

A Rs. 22,50,000

B Rs. 37,95,000

C Rs. 45,30,000

D Rs. 55,70,000

Answer: B

Question 87

The monthly repayment on o loan of Rs. 15,00,000 over 20 years is reduced to Rs. 12500. By how much
would this reduce the total amount on the loan over the full period?

A Rs. 1,30,000

B Rs. 2,40,000

C Rs. 2,24,000

D Rs. 1,26,000

Answer: B

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Question 88

Instead of taking a loan of Rs. 10,00,000 with o repayment period of 15 years, the society proposesto
take a loan of Rs. 15,00,000 to be paid back in 10 years to provide for a generator set. What is the
cumulative financial impact ?

A Rs. 4,54,000

B Rs. 4,74,000

C Rs. 5,67,000

D Cannot be assessed

Answer: B

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Instructions

Answer these questions based on the data given in the table below. The table shows the trends in the relative value in
the market of select groups of commodities (1999 - 2003):

Question 89

What is the average difference in the relative value of the six commodities in 2003 compared to 1999?

A +8

B -5

C -6

D +4

Answer: C

Question 90

Which value showed the greatest amount of change in 1999 compared to 2003?

A Milk

B Gas

C Fats & Oils

D Vegetables

Answer: A

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Question 91

Which commodity showedthe least variatron in value over the period 1999-2003?

A Cereals

B Gas

C Vegetables

D Fruits

Answer: D

Question 92

For which commodities is there a clearly discernible trend of decreasing relative value between 1999 -
2003?

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A Cereals and Gas

B Milk, Cereals, Fats & Oils

C Milk, Gas, Fats & Oils

D Vegetables, Fats & Oils

Answer: B

Instructions

Answer these questions based on the graph given below. The graph shows the net receipts (shaded) and mortgage
advances (unshaded) from December 2000 to April 2001 for a building society in Rs. lakh.

Question 93

In which two months were the same amountof building society mortgage advances made?

A December & January

B January & February

C February & March

D March & April

Answer: D

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Question 94

In which month was there the greatest excess of building society net receipts over mortgage advances?

A December

B January

C February

D March

Answer: A

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Question 95

What was the ratio of the society mortgage advancesto net receipts in April 2001?

A 1:8

B 1:6

C 1:3

D 1:4
Answer: C

Question 96

Assume that, by the end of May 2001, the building society net receipts and mortgage advances had
fallen by 50% and 25% respectively, compared to the figures for April 2001. What would the building
society turnover (obtained by adding net receipts to mortgage advances) have been for May 2001 in Rs.
lakh?

A 1,800

B 2,200

C 2,400

D 2,100

Answer: C

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Instructions

Answer these questions based on the table given below. The table shows number of new female and male employees
engaged by 5 employers from 1999 to 2003.

Question 97

What was the total number of new employees(female and male)in all the companies in 1999 & 2000?

A 234

B 257

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C 235

D 256

Answer: B

Question 98

What is the average number of new female employees per companyin 2001 ?

A 25

B 30

C 20

D 18

Answer: C

Question 99

Of the total number of the new male employees in all the five companies in 2002, what percentage did
companies B, C and D employ collectively ?

A 66%

B 62%

C 65%

D 67%

Answer: A

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Question 100

What was the ratio of the new female employees to new male employees in Company in 2000?

A 1:6

B 6:1

C 2:3

D 3:2
Answer: C

Instructions

The pie chart given below shows the funding arrangements for National Highways Development Projects: Phase 1.
Study the chart carefully to answer these questions.

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Question 101

Near about 25% of the funding arrangement is through

A Cess/Market borrowing

B External assistance

C Annuity

D SPVS

Answer: B

Question 102

The angle of the segment formed at the centre of the pie chart, representing Cess/Market borrowing is
approximately

A 90∘

B 100∘

C 180∘

D 200∘
Answer: D

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Question 103

If the toll is to be collected through an outsourced agency by allowing a maximum of 10% commission,
then how much amount should be permitted to be collected by the outsourced agency, so that the
project is supported with Rs. 1690 Crore?

A Rs. 1690 Crore

B Rs. 1859 Crore

C Rs. 16900 Crore

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D Inadequate data

Answer: B

Instructions

The table below gives the details of foreign tourist arrivals and foreign exchange earnings during the period 1995-
1996 to 2001-2002. Answer these questions based on the data given in the following table.

Question 104

The maximum percentage increasein foreign tourist arrivals during the given period has been in

A 2001-2002

B 2000-2001

C 1999-2000

D 1996-1997

Answer: B

Question 105

The estimated foreign exchange earnings have beensteadily increasing from the period

A 1995-1996 to 2001-2002

B 1995-1996 to 2000-2001

C 1999-2000 to 2001-2002

D None of these

Answer: B

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Question 106

"As a result of September 11, 2001 incidents in the United States, the tourist arrivals dropped by about
10 percent, when compared with the previous year."

A The data givenin the table supports the above statement.

B The above statement is not supported by the data given in the table.

C Additional information is required to arrive at the above conclusion.

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D None of these.

Answer: A

Instructions

Time and cost over-runs have been a major problem affecting the implementation of Central Sector Projects. The
trend of time over-runs and cost over-runs are given in the graphs below. Answer these questions based on these
graphs.

Question 107

The highest numberof delayed projects during the given period wasin the year

A 1991

B 1994

C 1997

D 1996

Answer: C

Question 108

The highest incidents of cost over-run during the given period has been in the year

A 1991

B 1994

C 1997

D Inadequate data

Answer: A

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Question 109

The number of delayed projects have been the samein the years

A 1990 and 1992

B 1989 and 2001

C Both 1 & 2 above

D None of these

Answer: B

Question 110

The percentage cost over-runs have been the samein the years 2000 and 2001. It implies that

A The cost over-runs have been the same.

B The cost over-run in 2000 has been morethan the cost over-run in 2001.

C The cost over-run in 2000 has been less than the cost over-run is 2001.

D None of these.

Answer: A

Instructions

Each question below has two statements, I and II. Mark your answer as:

Question 111

For an equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, its roots are


I. Real and different if b2 > 4ac.
II. Imaginary and equal if b2 < 4ac.

A If statement I is True, but not the other one.

B If statement II is True, but not the other one.

C If both the statements are True.

D If neither of the statements is True.

Answer: A

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Question 112

For on equation ax2 + bx2 + cx + d = 0, if its roots are α, β and γ , then


c
I. α+β+γ = a

II. αβγ = d

A If statement I is True, but not the other one.

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B If statement II is True, but not the other one.

C If both the statements are True.

D If neither of the statements is True.

Answer: B

Question 113

For a differential expression


d
I. dx (sin2 (3x)) = 2 cos(3x)
d du
II. dx (a u) = a u(log a) dx

A If statement I is True, but not the other one.

B If statement II is True, but not the other one.

C If both the statements are True.

D If neither of the statements is True.

Answer: B

Question 114

If y = 2x, then
2 tan x
I. sin y = 1+tan2 x

2 tan x
II. cos y = 1−tan2 x

A If statement I is True, but not the other one.

B If statement II is True, but not the other one.

C If both the statements are True.

D If neither of the statements is True.

Answer: A

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Question 115

IF z = x + iy, where i = (−1), then


I. z = 0, when x = 0, y ≠ 20
II. If a + bi = c + di, then a = c, b = d

A If statement I is True, but not the other one.

B If statement II is True, but not the other one.

C If both the statements are True.

D If neither of the statements is True.

Answer: B

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Instructions

In each of these questions, two statements I and II follow a question. Mark your answer as:

Question 116

There are three sets A, B and C . Find A ∩ (B ∩ C)


I. A ∪ B and A ∪ C are known.
II. A ∩ B and A ∩ C are known

A If the question can be answered by using any one statement alone, but not by using other statement alone.

B If the question can be answeredby using either of the statements alone.

If the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but it cannot be answered by using either
C
of the statements alone.

D If the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

Answer: A

Question 117

A moving train moves Y meters in t seconds. Find its acceleration.

I. Y = t3 − 4t2 + 16t − 2
II. Velocity at that moment was 20 m/sec.

A If the question can be answered by using any one statement alone, but not by using other statement alone.

B If the question can be answeredby using either of the statements alone.

If the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but it cannot be answered by using either
C
of the statements alone.

D If the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

Answer: C

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Question 118

Find the sum or a Geometric series 1, 3, 9, 27, 81 ......... for N terms.


I. N th term is 729.
II. Next term after the N th term is thrice of it.

A If the question can be answered by using any one statement alone, but not by using other statement alone.

B If the question can be answeredby using either of the statements alone.

If the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but it cannot be answered by using either
C
of the statements alone.

D If the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

Answer: A

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Question 119

Find 25 C10 .

I. 24 C14 =a
II. 24 C9 =b

A If the question can be answered by using any one statement alone, but not by using other statement alone.

B If the question can be answeredby using either of the statements alone.

If the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but it cannot be answered by using either
C
of the statements alone.

D If the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

Answer: B

Question 120

Meena wants to Find log70 96.

I. She knows the value of log96 70


II. She knows the value of log10 70

A If the question can be answered by using any one statement alone, but not by using other statement alone.

B If the question can be answeredby using either of the statements alone.

If the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but it cannot be answered by using either
C
of the statements alone.

D If the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

Answer: A

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Language Comprehension
Instructions

Given below is an analysis of the employment scenario in the country. Study it critically to answer these questions.
Passage I:

In view of the centrality of the employment objective in the overall process of socio - economic development as also to
ensure availability of work opportunities in sufficient numbers, Special/ Group On Targeting Ten Million Employment
Opportunities Per year Over The Tenth Plan Period was constituted by the Planning Commission under the
Chairmanship of Dr. S.P. Gupta, Member, Planning Commission. Considering the need for generating employment
opportunities which are gainful, the Special Group has recommended the use of Current Daily Status for measuring
employment, as this measure of employment is net of the varying degrees of underemployment experienced by those
who are otherwise classified employed on usual status
basis. The group has noted the decline in the rate of growth of population, labour and work force, but an increase in
the unemployment rate during 1993-94 and 1999-2000, although the overall growth performance of the economy has
been better than the previous decade. In view of the declining employment elasticity of growth, observed during the
period 1994-2000, the Group has recommended that over and above the employment generated in the process of
present structure of growth, there is a need to promote certain identified labour intensive activities. These sectors are
agriculture and allied activities, small and medium industries, information technology, construction, tourism, financial
sector, education and health, etc. With proper policy initiatives taken in these labour intensive sectors, an additional
20 million jobs will be created during the Tenth Plan. The report also identified ministry wise programmes/targets for
achieving the ten million employment opportunities per year.

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The Special Group recommended policies and programmes which would enable the skill levels of the labour force to
match those required for the new jobs to be created during the Tenth Plan. The recommendations of the Special Group
have been suitably incorporated in the employment strategy for the Tenth Five Year Plan by the Planning Commission.

Organised sector employment as on March 31, 2001 was 27.8 million out of which public sector employment stood at
19.1 million and private sector 8.7 million. The public sector accounted for about 69 percent of the total employment
in the organised sector in 2001. There was a marginal decrease of 0.6 percent in employment in the organised sector
in 2001 as compared to the previous year. While employments in the public sector declined by 0.9 percent in 2001
over 2000, employment in the private sector increased by 0.1 percent. Only a small percentage (8 to 9 percent) of the
total workforce of the country is employed in the organised sector. While employment growth in the private organised
sector significantly improved in the 1990s, the growth of employment in the public sector was negligible. Since the
public sector accounts for more than two thirds of the total organised sector employment, there was slow down of the
overall growth in the organised sector employment.

Question 121

Which one of the following is incorrect as per the findings of the special group constituted by the
Planning Commission?

A Decline in the rate of growth of population.

B Increase in the unemploymentrate during the last decade.

C Improved overall growth performance of the economy.

D Increasein the rate of growth of labour and workforce.

Answer: D

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Question 122

Which is/are the labour intensive sectors out of the following identified for promotion by the special
group?

A Agriculture

B Information technology

C Construction

D All of the above

Answer: D

Question 123

Whatis the forecaster numberof jobs that will be generated during the 10" plan with proper policy
initiatives?

A 10 million

B 20 million

C 30 million

D 40 million

Answer: B

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Question 124

Public Sector accounts for more than ........... of the total organised sector employment and only a small
percentage .......... of the total workforce of the country is working in the organised sector.

A One-third; Seven to Eight

B Two-third; Eight to Nine

C One-fourth; Six to Seven

D One-Fifth; Nine to Five

Answer: B

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Instructions

Read the following passage to answer these questions.

Passage II:

We are the failed generation—we who are now in our 40s and 50s. We do not have to look far to realise that our
generation has failed. The India we inherited was wonderful, but the one that we have bequeathed our children is
degraded in every way. We are the citizens of transition, with personal memories of our childhood when we lived in a
good, simple world where laws and morals had their place. And now we have first hand experience of an India stifled
by corruption and injustice, with breakdowns on every front. There is no point getting defensive about our failure.
There is no point denying it either. Perhaps time has come for us to face up to reality and try and understand why we
Failed. We were good and talented and grew up in a relatively safe and protected environment Then why and where
did we go wrong? Perhaps we must first rewind a bit. Our grandparents were the generation of freedom fighters. They
were brave and committed men and women fired with a vision of a free India. They made sacrifices, donated money
and property, their youth and even lived to achieve their goal. They were incredibly disciplined. And then came our
parents generation. They wanted to build a new India, a modern India where all citizens were equal. They were
incredibly thrifty. They worked hard and saved money and believed the best they could give their children was a good
education. And then came my generation, born in safety and security. We benefitted from a good education. Our
nationalistic goals had whittled down—we only wanted to make a difference. But we did not really manage to because
we were incredibly ambitious. We wanted to create a separate identity, push the frontiers of our personal capabilities
and professional parameters to a new high. We took pride in being unlike the rest. Highly individualistic, we became
the generation that abrogated civic responsibility. That hurt the social fabric—we wanted the best for our family, but
community and country could look after itself. Sure, we inherited problems from our parents’ generation. But we did
not do anything to set it right. So they got worse and around us India started to crumble. We saw it, were conscious
enough to protest, but not concerned enough to step in and stem the rot. We were unconcerned because we were
caught up in our own personal pursuits. We love to make a virtue of tolerance and indifference, as also
permissiveness.It is indifference, when we do not care deeply enough to do something about our problems.It is not
tolerance but permissiveness when we are too lazy to intervene. As we strove to prove our worth in professional
pursuits, role happily left nation building to politicians and bureaucrats. We abdicated our responsibility, our personal
role in shaping India's destiny. Politics and civic action soon became too dirty for us to soil our hands, our name, our
reputations. Some of us who belatedly want to do something about it, now discover that the system is too atrophied,
set in its ways, to let us enter. So we stand outside wringing our hands. Perhaps secretly glad that we cannot enter
this murky world. After all, we have accumulated too much to lose and in any case why bother. The system is too far
gone and we would be fools to sacrifice the comforts of our cocooned world. And our children, they worship money.
And when it is their parents’ money, they love it even more. Nowhere in the world do teenagers spend their parents
money as freely and without compunction as they do here. We are to be blamed for that too because we are being
permissive, not liberal. Parents are so involved in their work that they do not have time for their children. They buy
children's affection with guilt-money. So kids now have cars, electronic gadgets, designer clothes. India is a fading
figment of their parents’ nostalgia. All they want is a job that will give them good money so that they can pursue their
materialistic pursuits —preferably in America. But can you blame them? Look at the India they are living in—pollution
is high, crime is endemic, brute power is law, civic amenities deplorable, justice nonexistent, Merit has no place. It is
caste or connections that work. There are cases of affluence amidst unbelievable deserts of deprivation How long is
India really sustainable? Can it really remain stable and peaceful amidst such grotesqueills and inequities. Often we
are optimistic because we are afraid to be pessimistic. Impending scenarios scare the living daylights out of us. So we

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collectively believe that things will improve and gladly cite a variety of instances to prove that there are areas of
growth and excellence. We want to be optimistic because we do not want to give in to despair. After all, what is life
without hope?

Question 125

The author believes that he belongsto a failed generation because

A India is todaystifled with poverty and corruption

B He believes he is morally responsible for not being able to hand over an unblemished India to the next generation

C He believes that his generation has not acceptedfailure gracefully

D He is pessimistic

Answer: A

Question 126

The author believes that the earlier generation was mainly concernedwith

A Saving moneyfortheir children

B Changing the face of India

C Self sacrifice

D Giving their children a good education

Answer: A

Question 127

The authorthinks that his generation did not succeed in making a difference because

A It overlooked nationalistic goals

B Its objectives were unrealistic to be met

C In its quest for personal excellence, it forgot its duties to the society

D It did not manageto create a personalidentity for itself

Answer: C

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Question 128

While questioning India's sustainability, the author points out that

A Terrorism spread by brutes is rampant

B Caste dividestill exists which over powers merit

C There are pockets of prosperity in the midst of widespread poverty

D The pollution rate is alarmingly high causing denudation

Answer: C

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Question 129

In the opinion of the author the teenagers of today are spoilt by their parents because

A Parents wanttheir children to have as nice a childhood as theirs

B Parents do not have time for their children so that they compensate with luxuries

C Parents becomenostalgic and indulge their children with expensive items

D Parents wantto fulfill their children's dreams of materialistic pursuits in America

Answer: B

Instructions

Study the Following passage to answer these Questions:

Passage III:
Nothing is sure but death and taxes, and of course that north is north and south is south, and thus it has always been,
so they say. But they'd be wrong. You can perhaps be sure about death and taxes, but you might want to reconsider
the rest of it. In fact, at many times in our planet's history, north has become south and south has become north, in a
process called magnetic reversal.

Paleogeologists have discovered the existence of these mysterious phenomena(in a field study known as
paleomagnetism) by investigating rocks. When rocks are being formed from magmas, atoms within their crystals
respond to the earth's magnetic field by "pointing" towards the magnetic north people. By age dating the rocks and
nothing their magnetic alignment, scientists can determine where on earth the north pole was located at that time
because as the rocks solidified, they trapped that information within them. The study of ancient lava flows has
revealed that at certain periods in the earth's history magnetic north was directly opposite its presentlocation. In fact,
it has been determined that the north/south reversal has occurred on average every 500,000 years and that the last
reversal took place about 700,000 years ago. Scientists call those periods of "normal" polarity (the magnetic
orientation of our modern era) and “reversed” polarity (the magnetic orientation of reverse situation) by the name
"magnetic chrons."

Although the fact of such reversals is clear, why and how they happen and their effects on the planet are subjects of
considerable debate. Because no one knows precisely how the earth's magnetic field is produced, it becomes difficult
to say how it might be reversed. Among explanations proposed are a reversal of the direction of convection currents
in the liquid outer core of the earth and a collision between the earth and a meteorite or comet. And while the precise
effects of a reversal are not known, there can belittle doubt that the earth would receive during the process a great
deal more damaging ultraviolet radiation than it now does and that such occurrences have been correlated with the
extinction of certain species in the geologic past.

Question 130

The main purpose of the passageis to

A Present opposing hypotheses concerncing the earth's magnetic field and argue that one of them is adequate

B Explain what is meant by ‘normal’ polarity

C Set forth a time table for magnetic reversal

D Explain the process of magnetic reversal and how it was discovered

Answer: D

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Question 131

'Magnetic reversal’ refers to

A The reversal of direction in ancient lava flows

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B Areversal of the direction of convection currents in the outer core of the earth

C North becoming south and south becoming north

D The atomsin rock crystal pointing towards the magnetic north pole

Answer: C

Question 132

According to the passage, which of the following was crucial to the discovery of magnetic reversal?

A The rapid change from ‘normal to ‘reversal’ polarity

B Lava flows ‘pointing’ to magnetic north

C Solidification of rocks formed from magmas

D The extinction of certain species 700,000 years ago

Answer: C

Question 133

One can infer from the passage that

A If the earth collides wiih a meteorite, the magnetic field will be reversed

B A magnetic reversal could present a damage to humans

C The earth's magnetic field was produced about 700,000 years ago

D In spite of past reversals, ‘normal’ polarity is now firmly established

Answer: B

Free Gk Tests
Instructions

In these questions, each word in capital letters is followed by four words or phrases. Choose the one which is similar in
meaning to the word given in capital letters.

Question 134

FURLOUGH

A Soliders holiday

B Wild growth

C Wooden plough

D Till

Answer: A

Question 135

PUNCTILIOUS

A Prude

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B Wasteful

C Meticulous

D Timid

Answer: C

Question 136

ENCOMIUM

A Verve

B Eulogy

C Doggerel

D Force

Answer: B

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Question 137

INVIDIOUS

A Irritable

B Harsh

C Sinful

D Unpopular

Answer: A

Question 138

LACHRYMOSE

A Terse

B Mournful

C Indecent

D Lecherous

Answer: B

Instructions

In each of these Questions, a word is given in Capital letters followed by four options. Select the one which is farthest
in meaning from the given word.

Question 139

CONSOLE

A Balm

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B Comfort

C Keyboard

D Solace

Answer: C

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Question 140

PROLIFERATE

A Reproduce

B Thrive

C Impel

D Burgeon

Answer: C

Question 141

REMOTE

A Secluded

B Distant

C Slight

D Compunction

Answer: D

Question 142

IMMACULATE

A Spotless

B Sinless

C Omnipresent

D Innocent

Answer: C

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Question 143

OBLITERATE

A Delete

B Demur

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C Expunge

D Eliminate

Answer: B

Instructions

Choose the option which contains a pair of words related to each other in the same way as the pair given in
capitalletters.

Question 144

STABLE : ERRATIC: :

A Beautiful : Large

B Compact : Clumsy

C Puny : Mammoth

D Huge : Untidy

Answer: B

Question 145

WHIP : FLAY::

A Pigeon : Peace

B Chain : Punish

C Birth : Reward

D Switch : Chastise

Answer: B

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Question 146

IRK : APPEASE::

A Appreciate : Deprave

B Quibble : Clarify

C Ridicule : Decorate

D Stupefy : Debilitate

Answer: C

Question 147

PLAGIARIZE : BORROW::

A Pilfer : Steal

B Explode: Ignite

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C Export : Obtain

D Purify : Filter

Answer: C

Question 148

KING : CROWN::

A Priest : Mitre

B Soldier : Gun

C Teacher : Chalk

D Sculptor : Chisel

Answer: A

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Instructions

In each of the sentences given in these questions, two parts of the sentence are left blank. Choosethe set of words for
the blanksthat fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole in the best possible Way:

Question 149

The village headman was unlettered, but he was no fool, he could see through the ____ of the
businessman's proposition and promptly ............. him down.

A Deception —— forced

B Naivete —— turned

C Potential —— forced

D Sophistry —— turned

Answer: D

Question 150

The newly-opened restaurant at the District Centre ......... to the tastes of people from all walks of life
and one is likely to find an .......... group there

A Appeals - archetypal

B Panders - connoisseur

C Caters - ecletic

D Inhibits - diverse

Answer: C

Question 151

We must try to understand his momentary ......... for he has .......... more strain and anxiety than any
among us.

A Vision —— forgotten

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B Aberration —— undergone

C Outcry —— described

D Senility ——— understood

Answer: B

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Instructions

In each of these questions, in the given sentences, a part of the sentenceis underlined. Beneath each sentence, four
different ways of phrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative.

Question 152

Eaten in Portugal only, the Indian viewed the potato with suspicion for they assumed it had poisonous
properties since only the white-skinned people consumed it.

A Indians viewed the potato with suspicion for they

B Indians were suspicious of the potato, and they

C Potato was viewed with suspicion by Indians who

D Potato was suspicious to Indians, and it was

Answer: C

Question 153

Though he was more faster then his opponent on the field, his chances of winning the race was low as he
lacked the killer instinct.

A Though he was more faster than his opponentonthefield

B As he was morefaster than his opponentonthefield

C Though he was morefast from his opponent on thefield

D Though he wasfaster than his opponent on thefield

Answer: D

Question 154

The local library has recommended that the books put up for the used book sale should be in good
condition and should have no writing in them or be underlined.

A And should have no writing in them or be underlined.

B And should not have writing in them or not be underlined.

C And contain no writing or underlining.

D Without containing writing or underlining.

Answer: A

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Question 155

The news of her elopment soon circulated around the small town.

A Circulated round the small town.

B Circulated in the small town

C Was circulating across the small town.

D Wascirculating within the small town.

Answer: B

Instructions

In each of these questions, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases marked A, B, C and D. Choose one
word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

Question 156

He is one (A) of the shrewdest men (B) that is (C) in the (D) administration.

A A

B B

C C

D D

Answer: C

Question 157

No sooner had he (A) come from Mumbai when (B) he was asked (C) to proceed to (D) Delhi.

A A

B B

C C

D D

Answer: B

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Question 158

Drug abuse have (A) become one of (B) our most (C) serious social problems. (D)

A A

B B

C C

D D

Answer: A

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Question 159

Alexander Calder, who was originally (A) interested in (B) mechanical engineering later (C) became a
sculpture. (D)

A A

B B

C C

D D

Answer: D

Question 160

Studying (A) the science of (B) logic is one way to (C) cultivate one's reason (D) skills.

A A

B B

C C

D D

Answer: D

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Indian & Global Development


Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 161

Who is not a well known Indian Fashion designer?

A Ravi Bajaj

B Rohit Bal

C Shefali Talwar

D Suneet Verma

Answer: C

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Question 162

'Bottle neckinflation’ means

A No rise in prices despite increase in aggregate demand

B Rise in prices without increase in aggregate demand

C Decline in prices due to increase in aggregate demand

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D Noneof these

Answer: B

Question 163

The United Nations cameinto existence in the year

A 1945

B 1950

C 1946

D 1947

Answer: A

Question 164

Kalpakkam Atomic Power Plant located in

A Rajasthan

B Orissa

C Tamil Nadu

D UP

Answer: C

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Question 165

Whois not a well known personality in the field of advertising?

A Alyque Padamsee

B Frank Simoes

C Kamlesh Pande

D Anurag Mathur

Answer: D

Question 166

Ashok Leyland is owned by the

A Tatas

B Birlas

C Hindujas

D None of these

Answer: C

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Question 167

World Population Day is observed on

A July 15

B July 11

C October 8

D September 5

Answer: B

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Question 168

Which companyusesthe adline, 'Knowing is everything’?

A BBC World

B Star

C Sony

D Zee

Answer: A

Question 169

The book ‘Cricket My Style’ is written by

A Sunil Gavaskar

B Sachin Tendulkar

C Kapil Dev

D Mohinder Amarnath

Answer: C

Question 170

Varishtha Pension Bima Yojaria has been launched by

A National Insurance Co.

B United India Insurance Co.

C LIC of India

D Oriental Insurance Co.

Answer: C

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Question 171

Makers of which tyres sponsor Indian racing ace Narain Karthikeyan?

A JK

B MRF

C Dunlop

D MOdi

Answer: B

Question 172

The part of profit or other surpluses of a company distributed proportionately among shareholders is
called

A Preference Share

B Equily Share

C Face Value

D None of these

Answer: B

Question 173

Tenth Five-Year Plan covers the period

A 2001-2006

B 2002-2007

C 2003-2008

D 2000-2005

Answer: B

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Question 174

Recession in the market implies

A Slumpin trade & industry dueto fall in demand

B Increase in trade and industry due to rise in demand

C No changein trade and industry due to stability in demand

D None of these

Answer: A

Question 175

In the recent past, Reliance has found the gasin

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A Mumbai off shore

B Mahanadibasin

C Krishna-Godavari basin

D Kaveri basin

Answer: C

Question 176

River Ganga does not pass through the State of

A UP

B Bihar

C Haryana

D West bengal

Answer: C

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Question 177

Which brand/company usesthe ad line "We know India better"?

A Max New York Life Insurance

B LIC of India

C Amul

D Bajaj

Answer: B

Question 178

Hirakud Dam Project has been built over the river

A Ganga

B Yamuna

C Godavari

D Mahanadi

Answer: D

Question 179

Kaziranga National Parkis located in

A Bihar

B West Bengal

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C UP

D None of these

Answer: D

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Question 180

The capital of New Zealand is

A Hamilton

B Sofia

C Logos

D Wellington

Answer: D

Question 181

Which is South Korea's largest car manufacturing company?

A Hyundai

B Honda

C Suzuki

D Toyota

Answer: A

Question 182

Which petroleum companyhas introduced an improved quality petrol called 'Speed'?

A Bharat Petroleum

B Indian Oil

C Hindustan Petroleum

D None of these

Answer: A

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Question 183

To permit operations of private life insurance companies in India, Government of India revised the
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) Act in the year

A 1999

B 1998

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C 2000

D 2001

Answer: A

Question 184

Ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabhais the

A Prime Minister of India

B Deputy Prime Minister of India

C Vice-President of India

D President of India

Answer: C

Question 185

Nandan Nilekani is associated with which company?

A Satyam Computers

B Wipro

C Infosys

D Polaris

Answer: C

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Question 186

Farakka Barraaeis localed in

A Tripura

B Bihar

C West Bengal

D Jharkhand

Answer: C

Question 187

WLL standsfor

A Wireless in Local Loop

B Walking Land Line

C Walking Loop Line

D Wireless Land Line

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Answer: A

Question 188

Headquarters of World Trade Organisation (WTO)is located in

A New York

B Tokyo

C Geneva

D Berlin

Answer: C

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Question 189

NABARD stands For

A National Bank of Agriculture and Regional Development

B National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development

C National Bureau of Aeronautical Research and Development

D None of these

Answer: B

Question 190

Sania Mirza of India wonthe Girls Wimbledon Doubles Championship 2003 partnering with

A Sunitha Roa

B Isha Lakhani

C Sanaa Bhambri

D Alisa Kleybanova

Answer: D

Question 191

Which is the largest tea producing country in the world?

A Kenya

B Indonesia

C China

D India

Answer: D

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Question 192

Suvidha Fixed Deposit scheme was launched by which bank?

A IDBI

B ICICI

C SBI

D City Bank

Answer: A

Question 193

Philip Kotler is a widely known personality in the field of

A Fine arts

B Sports

C Music

D Management

Answer: D

Question 194

BPOis an abbreviation for

A Bharat Petroleum Organisation

B Business Process Outsourcing

C Business Products Outsourcing

D Bharat Pesticides Outlet

Answer: B

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Question 195

Which of the following countries does not belong to the group of G-8 nations?

A Itally

B Canada

C Germany

D Australia

Answer: D

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Question 196

Hamburg Masters Hockey Trophy 2003 was won by

A India

B Australia

C Germany

D Pakisthan

Answer: A

Question 197

In the last decade, population growth rate of which State has been the lowestin the country?

A Kerala

B Tamil Nadu

C Andhra Pradesh

D Orissa

Answer: A

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Question 198

K.L.M. Royal Airlines belongs to

A Itally

B Japan

C Netherlands

D Austria

Answer: C

Question 199

. Who amongthe following personsis closely associated with the leading company ITC Ltd?

A M.S. Banga

B K. Gopalkrishnan

C Yogi Deveshwar

D Deepak Satwalekar

Answer: C

Question 200

Which one of the following is not manufacturing mobile telephone handsets?

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A Samsung

B Nokia

C Videocon

D Sony

Answer: C

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MAT Free Solved Previous Papers

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Daily Free Topic Test

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