IT'S TIME TO

MAKE THE
FAST TRACK - 2020 BATCH
RIGHT
HOW TO CRACK
DECISION.
NEET
IN
40 DAYS ?

Strong HOW TO
Fundamentals Dedication
PREPARE
FOR
Practice NEET ? Consistency

Right Study Evaluation

Material

Contact
Mob: 96633 94904
98444 02752

HEAD OFFICE:
#166, 2nd & 3rd Floor, 5th Main Road,
(Near Makkala Koota park)
Indian Bank Building,
Chamrajpet, Bangalore 560018
 IT'S TIME TO
MAKE THE
FAST TRACK - 2020 BATCH
RIGHT
HOW TO CRACK
DECISION.
NEET
IN
40 DAYS ?

Strong HOW TO
Fundamentals Dedication
PREPARE
FOR
Practice NEET ? Consistency

Right Study Evaluation

Material

Contact
Mob: 96633 94904
98444 02752

HEAD OFFICE:
#166, 2nd & 3rd Floor, 5th Main Road,
(Near Makkala Koota park)
Indian Bank Building,
Chamrajpet, Bangalore 560018
 ADMISSIONS OPEN FOR NEET/KCET

FAST TRACK - 2020 BATCH

TRAINING PROGRAMME FOR
NEET/JEE MAIN/ KCET - 2020

“We Don’t
Speak
But Our
Results Do”

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NU CE TIES
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#166, 2nd & 3rd Floor, 5th Main Road,
(Near Makkala Koota park)
Mob: 96633 94904 4 i
25 54 C Indian Bank Building,
98444 02752 n 1
i Chamrajpet, Bangalore 560018
 ADMISSIONS OPEN FOR NEET/KCET

FAST TRACK - 2020 BATCH

TRAINING PROGRAMME FOR
NEET/JEE MAIN/ KCET - 2020

“We Don’t
Speak
But Our
Results Do”

" IF YOU CAN

DREAM IT,
YOU CAN
AM N
DO IT." EX TIO
RA
DU s )
our 00 PM
IN 3H
0P
Mt
o 5
TA
:
L

JO OW
(2 : 0 TO IONS
T
TE ES s)
DA 3 QU M CQ
AM
N EX Ma
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20
20 NG
18
0 ( R OF
MB
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NU DIDA (2019
TE
S )

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UC TY E EAT C A N
TE
R E D
75
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ITE AP
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W et.
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OF S
BE TR
E HEAD OFFICE:
Contact M
ST
TE ND
N
NU CE TIES
CI tres
n
A 6 Ce ties
#166, 2nd & 3rd Floor, 5th Main Road,
(Near Makkala Koota park)
Mob: 96633 94904 4 i
25 54 C Indian Bank Building,
98444 02752 n 1
i Chamrajpet, Bangalore 560018
 Module Online Examination 2020
Date: 17-April-2020

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(ACADEMIC SESSION 2019-2020)
TARGET MEDICAL : NEET - 2020
MODULE - I TEST(Online Examination)
Roll Number :

Instructions
* Duration of test 3 hours and questions Paper contains 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
* Each section contains three parts Zoology, Botany, Chemistry and Physics.
* Three are four parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part is as under
for each correct response.
Park - A Zoology (240 Marks) question No 1 to 45 consist 4 marks for each correct response.
Park - B Botany (240 Marks) question No 46 to 90 consist 4 marks for each correct response.
Park - C Chemistry (240 Marks) question No 91 to 135 consist 4 marks for each correct response.
Park - D Physics (240 Marks) question No 136 to 180 consist 4 marks for each correct response.
* For each correct response the candidate will get four marks. For each incorrect response one mark will be
deducted from the total score. If the candidate has not marked any response, no deduction will be made.
* Students can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination.

Zoology : Animal Kingdom

Botany : The Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom
Physics : Physical World and Measurement, Kinematics-I & II
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 Atomic Academy Bangalore
ZOOLOGY
1. Mark the phylum in which radial symmetry and tube within tube body plan are present?
(1)Annelida (2)Arthropoda
(3)Coelenterata (4)Echinodermata
2. Study the statements given below
A : In poriferans, fertilisation is internal and development is indirect.
B : In echinodermates, fertilisation is usually external and development is indirect.
(1)A is correct and B is incorrect
(2)A is correct and B is correct
(3)A and B, both are correct
(4)A and B, both are incorrect
3. Metagenesis is shown by
(1)Hydra (2)Ctenoplana
(3)Nereis (4)Physalia
4. Which of the following is the correct sequence of various larvae formed during life cycle of
Fasciola?
(1)Miracidium  Cercaria  Sporocyst  Rediae  Metacercaria
(2)Miracidium  Sporocyst  Rediae  Metacercaria  Cercaria
(3)Miracidium  Sporocyst  Rediae  Cercaria  Metacercaria
(4)Metacercaria  Sporocyst  Rediae  Cercaria  Miracidium
5. Read the following statements and answer the question which follows them
a.Anus is present in last segment of Taenia.
b.Both mouth and anus are present in earthworm.
c.All cnidarians are active free swimmers.
d.In ctenophora, flagellated comb plates help in locomotion.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(1)One (2)Two
(3)Three (4)Four
6. Common character between Ctenoplana and Pheretima is
(1)Triploblasticity (2)Radial symmetry
(3)External fertilisation (4)Unisexuality
7. Identify the organism that has presence of three germ layers, closed circulation and is dioecious
Module Online Examination 2020

with direct development.

(1)Hirudinaria (2)Pinctada
(3)Loligo (4)Cucumaria
8. Water vascular system performs all of the following functions except
(1)Locomotion (2)Capture and transport of food
(3)Protection (4)Respiration
9. Which one of the following set of animals belongs to enterocoelomate category?
(1)Sea hare, Silver fish, Sea cucumber
(2)Sea urchin, Sea lily, Squid
(3)Star fish, Lancelet, Hagfish
(4)Lamprey, Sea urchin, Tusk shell

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 Module Online Examination 2020
10. Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?
Organism Respiratory Excretory organ
organ
(1) Pheretima Skin Nephridia

(2) Balanoglossus Gills Proboscis gland

(3) Prawn Gills Green gland

(4) Pila Gills Radula

11. Read the statements A, B, C and D given below. Select the option which correctly states
whether the statement is True (T) or False (F).
A.In ctenophores, reproduction takes place by sexual means only
B.Three characteristics that set animals apart from other kingdoms are heterotrophy,
multicellularity, and lack of cell walls
C.The pseudocoelom is body cavity which is not completely lined by mesoderm
D.All flatworms are parasite
A B C D
(1) T T T T
(2) F T T T
(3) F T T F
(4) T T T F
12. Match the animal with its excretory structure
Column I Column II
(Animal) (Excretory cells/organ)
a.Balanoglossus (i)Flame cells
b.Asterias (ii)Proboscis gland
c.Liver fluke (iii)Nephridia
d.Pheretima (iv)Absent
(1)a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2)a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(3)a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4)a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
13. How many statements given below are true?
(1)Malpighian tubules help in respiration
(2)In crustaceans e.g., crabs and prawns the body is divided into cephalothorax and abdomen
with two pairs of antennae
(3)The scolex in flatworms is used for ingesting food
(4)In Ascaris, male lacks a separate gonopore
(1)One (2)Two
(3)Three (4)Four
14. Echinodermata, a group of invertebrates like sea urchins, sea cucumbers, star fishes, sea lily
have characteristics which are :
A.Calcareous endoskeleton derived from mesoderm
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B.Open circulatory system

C.Indirect development
D.Excretory system absent
E.Blastopore forms mouth
Choose the correct option which include the characteristic shared by these organisms.
(1)B & C only (2)A, B & C only
(3)A, B, C & D only (4)B, C, D & E only

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 Atomic Academy Bangalore
15. Which of the following is not correct comparison between phylum Aschelminthes and
Platyhelminthes?
Characters Aschelminthes Platyhelminthes
(1)Body cavity Pseudocoelom Acoelomate
(2)Sexes Dioecious Generally monoecious
(3)Development Direct /Indirect Usually indirect, through larval stages
(4)Body plan Tube within tube with Blindsac. Alimentary canal is incomplete.
single opening
16. Each of the following cells are specialised to perform a special function, except
(1)Cnidoblast (2)Choanocytes
(3)Colloblasts (4)Interstitial cells
17. The scientific names and common names of certain animals are given below. Mark the correct
option
Scientific Name Common Name
a.Dentalium Tusk shell
b.Gorgonia Sea pen
c.Ophiura Sea cucumber
d.Wuchereria Hookworm
e.Antedon Sea lily
(1)a and e are correct; b, c and d are wrong
(2)a and d are correct; b, c and e are wrong
(3)a, d and e are correct; b and c are wrong
(4)a and c are wrong, b, d and e are correct
18. Which of the following is false statement w.r.t. animal illustrated and characteristics of phylum
to which it belongs?
Module Online Examination 2020

(1)It is male Ascaris, belongs to phylum aschelminthes

(2)They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and pseudocoelomate
(3)It is dioecious
(4)Males are shorter than females and have straight post anal tail
19. All of the following statements describe Sycon, except
(1)Exhibit sycon type canal system
(2)Digestion is intracellular
(3)Hermaphrodite and self fertilisation
(4)Present in marine water

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 Module Online Examination 2020
20. Which of the following is not the correct comparison of organism (A) and (B)?

A. B.

Characters (A) (B)

(1)Sex Dioecious Monoecious
(2)Appendages Parapodia Lack parapodia and setae
and setae present
(3)Circulatory system Closed Open
(4)Development Trochophore Trochophore
larval stage larval stage
21. Which of the following respires by book gills and is a living fossil?
(1)Peripatus (2)Limulus
(3)Neopilina (4)Proterospongia
22. Cephalopods can blend in with their surroundings, because
(1)They release a dark inky fluid which makes their skin appear darker.
(2)They have chromatophores located in the outer layer of mantle
(3)They have jet propulsion mechanism
(4)They have small internal shells
23. Complete the following analogy.
Nephridium : Excretion : : Parapodia : _________
(1)Digestion (2)Circulation
(3)Excretion (4)Locomotion
24. Tapeworms (Taenia) are characterised by all of the following, except
(1)They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and acoelomate animals with organ level of
organisation
(2)Absorb nutrients from host directly through the body surface
(3)Sexes are not separate
(4)They exhibit true metamerism.
25. Which of the following is intermediate host of the blood fluke Fasciola?
(1)Pig (2)Cattle
(3)Snails (4)Dog
26. Jaws and scales are absent in
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(1)Hippocampus, Exocoetus
(2)Anabas, Pterophyllum
(3)Petromyzon, Myxine
(4)Myxine, Anguilla

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 Atomic Academy Bangalore
27. Presence of notochord only in the tail of larva and is lost during metamorphosis is the
characteristic feature of
(1)Branchiostoma (2)Balanoglossus
(3)Ascidia (4)Myxine
28. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1)Petromyzon is ectoparasite on fish
(2)Petromyzon shows catadromous migration in its breeding season
(3)Petromyzon lacks paired fins
(4)Ammocoete is the larva of Petromyzon which migrates from fresh water to ocean after
metamorphosis
29. Which of the following characteristics is not found in all chordates?
(a)Dorsal, hollow nerve cord
(b)Post anal tail
(c)Muscular diaphragm
(d)Pharyngeal gill slits
(e)Cranium
(1)(c) & (e) only (2)(a) & (b) & (c) only
(3)(b) & (c) & (e) only (4)(b) & (c) only
30. Observe the table below and choose the row with incorrect information
Row Group Characteristic

(1) Invertebrate Lack a backbone

chordates

(2) Jawless fishes Lack a notochord

(3) Bony fish Mesodermal cycloid

or Ctenoid scales

(4) Cartilaginous Scroll valve in

fishes intestine

31. Mark the correct statement

(1)Turtles, lizards and snakes have thecodont dentition.
(2)Viper venom causes death due to paralysis of respiratory muscles and asphyxiation.
(3)Phrynosoma and Chameleon are viviparous lizards
Module Online Examination 2020

(4)Jacobson’s organ in crocodiles and lizards helps in regulating body temperature.

32. Oil glands, sweat glands and mammary glands are responsible for which functions respectively?
(1)Hair and skin maintenance, temperature regulation, milk production
(2)Reproduction, hair and skin maintenance, temperature regulation
(3)Temperature regulation, milk production, reproduction
(4)Milk production, oxygen delivery, hair and skin maintenance
33. Which is not a characteristic of duck-billed platypus?
(1)Presence of mammary glands
(2)Egg laying ability
(3)Three chambered heart
(4)Absence of pinna

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 Module Online Examination 2020
34. In which of the animals the heart does not have the left and right auricles?
(1)Cartilaginous and bony fish
(2)Frogs and toads
(3)Lizards and snakes
(4)Crocodiles and alligators
35. Out of the following set of characters, how many are found in bony fishes?
Placoid scales, Homocercal tail fin, Swim bladder,
Claspers, Operculum
(1)Two (2)Three
(3)Four (4)Five
36. The following characteristics are true for Crocodilus, except
(1)Thecodont dentition
(2)Heart with foramen of Panizzae
(3)Amnion around developing embryo
(4)Mesodermal scales on the body lubricated by oil glands
37. Which of the following is not a matching set of a class and its three examples?
(1)Mammalia  Canis, Felis, Manatee
(2)Aves  Neophron, Psittacula, Aptenodytes
(3)Reptilia  Chelone, Columba, Calotes
(4)Osteichthyes  Petrophyllum, Betta, Anabas
38. What is common to Aptenodytes and Hemidactylus?
(1)Feathers
(2)Presence of diaphragm
(3)Monocondylic skull
(4)Pneumatic bones
39. In amphibians, alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracts open into common chamber
called
(1)Ovisac (2)Brood pouch
(3)Cloaca (4)Scrotum
40. Which of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated
against them?
(1)Echidna and Macropus – Presence of marsupium
(2)Testudo and Crocodilus – Four chambered heart
(3)Hippocampus and Hyla – Poikilotherms
(4)Columba and Calotes – Lungs with air sacs
41. Which of the following comparative account of amphibians, reptiles and birds is not correct?
Amphibia Reptilia Aves

(1) Moist skin with Dry cornified skin Feathers and

no scales with scales scales on legs
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(2) Tympanum Tympanum Three auditory

Present Present ossicles
Heart is usually
(3) Heart is three Heart is four
chambered three chambered chambered
(4) Poikilotherms Poikilotherms Endotherms
42. In which of the following protochordate notochord persists throughout the life?
(1)Lancelet (2)Herdmania
(3)Saccoglossus (4)Neophron

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 Atomic Academy Bangalore
43. What is common between Columba (Pigeon) and Struthio (Ostrich)?
(1)Body covered with feathers
(2)Presence of preen gland at the base of the tail
(3)Feet adapted for flying
(4)Sternum with keel
44. Given below is the classification chart of subphylum vertebrata
Vertebrate division

Agnatha Gnathostomata
Superclasses

Pisces Tetrapoda

Class A Classes Classes

(i) Chondrichthyes (i) Amphibia
(ii) B (ii) C
(iii) D
(iv) Mammals
Which of the taxa include poikilothermic animals with bony endoskeleton and external
fertilization?
(1)A, B, C & D (2)A, B & C
(3)Only B (4)B & C
45. Each of the following statements is false. Make the statements true by replacing the italicized
word with the correct term
A.The atrium is a chamber that receives the digestive wastes, urinary wastes and eggs or sperms
before they leave the body.
B.Amphibians have tympanic membranes to protect their eyes from drying out.
C.Larval amphibians respire by buccal cavity.
D.Order Anura of amphibian include tailed amphibians.
(1) A – Rectum; B – Nictitating membrane;
C – Lungs; D – Limbless
(2) A – Cloaca; B – Nictitating membrane;
C – Gills; D – Tail-less
(3) A – Cloaca; B – Cunjunctiva;
C – Gills; D – Limb-less
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(4) A – Rectum; B – Cunjunctiva;

C – Lungs; D – Limbless

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 BOTANY

Module Online Examination 2020

46. Read the following statements and state True (T) or False (F)
A.All organisms from prokaryotes to the complex eukaryotes can sense various changes up to
variable degrees in their surroundings.
B.Properties of tissues are present in the constituent cells.
C.Consciousness is the most obvious and technically complicated feature of all living organisms.
D.Increase in mass and increase in number of individuals are twin characteristics of growth.
A B C D
(1) T F T F
(2) F T T F
(3) T F T T
(4) T T F F
47. How many of the given characteristics are considered as defining properties of living organisms?
External growth, Metabolism, Self consciousness,
Reproduction, Cellular organisation, Internal growth
(1)3 (2)4
(3)5 (4)2
48. Statement A : Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal breeders, both plants and animals.
Statement B : Living organisms are self replicating, evolving and self regulating interactive
systems capable of responding to external stimuli.
(1)Only statement A is incorrect
(2)Only statement B is incorrect
(3)Both statements A and B are incorrect
(4)Both statements A and B are correct
49. Identify the mismatched pair
(1)Hominidae – Family
(2)Insecta – Order
(3)Diptera – Order
(4)Dicotyledonae – Class
50. Read the following statements and identify the incorrect ones.
a.Each rank or taxon, represents a unit of classification.
b.Solanum is a monotypic genus.
c.Genera are aggregates of closely related species.
d.Cat, dog, tiger and leopard are placed in the family Felidae.
e.Class carnivora includes families like Felidae and Canidae.
(1)a, b & c (2)All except a
(3)d & e only (4)b, d & e
51. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. taxonomical aids.
(1)The collection of actual specimens of plants and animals species is the prime source of
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taxonomic studies.
(2)In museums, plant and animal specimens can be preserved as dry specimens.
(3)Taxonomic keys are tools that help in identification based on characteristics.
(4)Botanical gardens and zoological parks are in-situ conservation strategies of plants and
animals, respectively.

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 Atomic Academy Bangalore
52. All the following characteristics form the basis of Whittaker’s classification, except
a.Cell structure
b.Habitat
c.Reproduction
d.Mode of nutrition
e.Evolutionary relationship
f.Thallus organisation
(1)b & e only (2)c & e
(3)b only (4)a & f
53. Eubacteria and archaebacteria were included in the common kingdom in
a.Classification proposed by Copeland.
b.Carl Woese’s classification.
c.Five kingdom classification.
(1)a & b only (2)b & c only
(3)a & c only (4)a, b & c
54. How many among the followings have nuclear membrane and show autotrophic mode of
nutrition?
Vibrio, Riccia, Paramoecium, Thiobacillus,
Thiobacillus, Trypanosoma, Euglena, Nostoc,
Albugo, Gonyaulax
(1)5 (2)4
(3)3 (4)6
55. Carl Woese naturally clustered kingdoms into three domains of life on the basis of
(1)Presence of peptidoglycan in cell walls.
(2)Occurrence of branched chain lipids in the cell membrane.
(3)16S ribosomal RNA genes sequence.
(4)18S ribosomal RNA genes sequence.
56. Select the members from the list below which show most common mode of nutrition present
in bacteria.
a.Nitrocystis b.Pseudomonas
c.Bacillus d.Beijerinckia
e.Nitrosomonas f.Leptothrix
g.Rhizobium h.Clostridium
Module Online Examination 2020

i.Chlorobium j.Nitrobacter
(1)b, c, d, g, h (2)a, c, e, f, g, j
(3)c, f, g, h, i (4)a, d, e, g, i
57. The boundaries of the kingdom protista is not well-defined because
(1)They are unicellular
(2)They have different types of pigments
(3)Cell body contains a well defined nucleus and other membrane bound organelles
(4)They are photosynthetic protists to one biologist or may be a plant to another
58. Red tides forming organism shows
(1)Two same type of flagella in apical part
(2)Release of saxitoxin
(3)Stiff cellulosic plates on the inner surface of the cell wall
(4)Both (2) & (3)

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 Module Online Examination 2020
59. Protists which have photosynthetic pigments, identical to those present in higher plants can be
identified by
a.Their occurrence in running fresh water
b.Flexible body due to proteinous cell wall
c.Two dissimilar flagella of flagellin protein exposed outside the body
d.Heterotrophic nutrition by predation when deprived of sunlight
(1)a, b, c & d (2)b & c
(3)a & d (4)only d
60. Cellulosic cell wall is present in vegetative stage of how many organisms mentioned below?
Physarum, Gymnodinium, Euglena,
Dictyostelium, Gonyaulax, Physarella
(1)Four (2)Three
(3)Five (4)Two
61. Find the correct option after matching the columns.
Column I Column II
a.Coprophilous fungi (i)Rhizopus
b.Thick walled diploid sexual spore (ii)Trichoderma
c.Fruiting body with haploid exogenous (iii)Mucor
sexual spore
d.Imperfect fungi (iv)Agaricus
(1)a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(2)a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(3)a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(4)a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
62. Which one of the following is correct binomial epithet for mango?
(1)Mangifera Indica
(2)Mangifera indica Linn
(3)Mangifera Indica Linn.
(4)Mangifera indica
63. Select the correct statement for taxonomic category genus.
(1)A group of individuals with fundamental similarities
(2)Has one or more than one species representing monotypic or polytypic species condition
(3)Has more characters in common in comparison to species of other genera
(4)Aggregates of related and unrelated species
64. Hominidae is equivalent to which category in taxonomic hierarchy of mango?
(1)Sapindales (2)Mangifera
(3)Anacardiaceae (4)Dicotyledonae
65. The taxonomical aid used for identification of plants and animals based on the similarities and
dissimilarities
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(1)Also show actual account of habitat

(2)Maintains collections of preserved plant and animal specimens
(3)Is generally analytical in nature
(4)Is associated with in-situ conservation strategies

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 Atomic Academy Bangalore
66. Both carbon and nitrogen reducing enzymes are present in how many members listed below?
Chlorella, Oscillatoria, Rhizobium,
Nitrococcus, Azotobacter, Anabaena,
Frankia, Bacillus, Nitrocystis
(1)Six
(2)Five
(3)Four
(4)Two
67. Which one of the following statement is incorrect for methanogens?
(1)Devoid of peptidoglycan in cell wall
(2)Parasitic association in the gut of animals for nutritional benefit
(3)Responsible for the production of biogas
(4)Are strictly anaerobes
68. Heterocysts of Anabaena
(1)Are thin walled and do not help in nitrogen fixation
(2)Have both PS I and PS II
(3)Contain nitrogenase enzyme
(4)Are meant for sexual reproduction
69. Identify the organisms shown by the figures and select the similarity in features between them.

(1)Nature of cell wall and nutrition in presence of light

(2)In having apparatus for trapping light energy
(3)Body organisation and cell type
(4)Habitat, nuclear dimorphism and sexual reproduction
70. Nutritionally protozoans are
(1)Predators only
(2)Predators + parasites
(3)Parasites + saprophytes
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(4)Predators + saprophytes
71. In how many members, asexual reproduction commonly occurs by endogenously formed motile
spore [A] and with non-motile exogenous spore [B]?
Rhizopus, Neurospora, Pythium, Penicillium,
Saccharomyces, Saprolegnia, Agaricus,
Aspergillus, Polyporous
(1)A - 4, B - 2 (2)A - 2, B - 3
(3)A - 4, B - 3 (4)A - 6, B - 4

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 ATOMIC ACADEMY BANGALORE

Module Online Examination 2020

72. Find the correctly matched option.
Column I Column II
a.Penicillium (i)Zygospore
b.Rhizopus (ii)Conidia
c.Ustilago (iii)Ascospore
d.Colletotrichum (iv)Basidiospore
(1)a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2)a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(3)a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4)a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
73. How many members produce edible fruting bodies amongst the following?
a.Wheat rust fungi
b.Smut fungi
c.Amanita caesarea
d.White rust fungi
e.Truffles
f.Morels
g.Mushroom
(1)a, c, f & g (2)e, f & g
(3)b, e & f (4)d, f & g
74. Find the odd one w.r.t. infectious genetic material as single stranded RNA from the given viruses
and virus entity.
a.CaMV (Cauliflower mosaic virus)
b.TMV
c.Rice dwarf virus
d.T4-phage
e.Influenza virus
f.Mumps virus
(1)a, c & d (2)a, b & e
(3)b, e & f (4)d, e & f
75. Lichens are symbiotic associations between heterotrophic organisms with A walls and
photoautotrophic organisms like B .
(1)A - Cellulosic, B - Blue-green algae
(2)A - Chitinous, B - Protista
(3)A - Chitinous, B - Cyanobacteria or green algae
(4)A - Peptidoglycan, B - BGA or green algae
76. What is the chromosome number in capsule, gemma and protonema respectively if spore
mother cell contains 20 chromosomes?
(1)10, 10 and 20 (2)10, 20 and 10
(3)20, 10 and 10 (4)10, 10 and 10
77. Which of the following are heterosporous with dependent male and female gametophyte?
Atomic Academy Bangalore

(1)Adiantum, Selaginella and Salvinia

(2)Cycas, Pinus and Ginkgo
(3)Cedrus, Selaginella and Adiantum
(4)Salvinia, Cycas and Dryopteris

13
 Atomic Academy Bangalore
78. Which of the following structures degenerate after fertilization?
(1)Polar nuclei and central cell
(2)Antipodals and synergids
(3)Synergids and central cell
(4)Central cell and antipodals
79. Which of the following is correct?
(1)In Pinus, pollen grains are developed inside the megasporangia
(2)Coralloid roots are associated with Frankia
(3)Male and female cones are borne on the same tree in Pinus
(4)In Cycas, the pinnate simple leaves persist for many years
80. In Gymnosperms
(1)Microspore develops into female gametophyte
(2)Mature female gametophyte is unicellular
(3)Male and female gametophytes have an independent free living existence
(4)Female gametophyte bears two or more archegonia
81. Examine the following figures and select the right choice.

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
(1)(a) – Aquatic embryophyte; (b) – Stonewort
(2)(c) – Polysiphonia; (d) – Brown alga
Module Online Examination 2020

(3)(a) – Aquatic green alga; (d) – Fucus

(4)(b) – Chara; (c) – Leafy bryophyte
82. Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps involved in the life cycle of liverworts?
[A - Meiosis, B - Gametogenesis, C - Gametophyte, D - Syngamy, E - Zygote, F - Sporophyte,
G - Spore]
(1)F  A  G  D  B  C  E
(2)F  A  G  C  E  B  D
(3)C  D  E  G  F  A  G
(4)C  B  D  E  F  A  G

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 Module Online Examination 2020
83. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
a.Chilgoza (i)Cycas revoluta
b.Sago (ii)Abies sp.
c.Canada balsam (iii)Pinus gerardiana
d.Anti-cancer drug (iv)Taxus sp.
(1)a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(2)a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3)a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(4)a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
84. PEN is formed during fertilization in
(1)Cycas, Ginkgo, Pinus
(2)Wolffia, Eucalyptus, Pinus
(3)Sunflower, Wolffia, Eucalyptus
(4)Ginkgo, Wolffia, Cycas
85. Select the incorrect match
(1)Covered seed - Cedrus
(2)Largest gymnosperm - Sequoia
(3)Branched stem - Pinus
(4)Pinnate leaves - Cycas
86. Consider the following statements w.r.t mosses and select the right choice
a.The sporophyte is less elaborate than that of liverworts.
b.Zygote develops into green filamentous structure.
c.Sex organs are produced at the apex of the leafy shoots.
d.Leafy stage is developed from secondary protonema.
(1)a, b & c are correct
(2)Only a is incorrect
(3)c and d are correct
(4)Only d is correct
87. A and B are unicellular algae rich in protein and used as food supplements even
by space travellers.
(1)A – Chlamydomonas, B – Ulva
(2)A – Chlorella, B – Spirullina
(3)A – Chlorella, B – Porphyra
(4)B – Dictyota B – Laminaria
88. How many features are common in bryophytes and pteridophytes?
a.True leaves
b.Diploid sporophyte
c.Jacketed sex organs
Atomic Academy Bangalore

d.Motile male gametes

e.Haplo-diplontic life-cycle
(1)Three
(2)Four
(3)Two
(4)One

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 Atomic Academy Bangalore
89. In liverworts, gemmae are
(1)Non-green, multicellular vegetative structure
(2)Green, unicellular asexual bud
(3)Non-green, unicellular vegetative bud
(4)Green, multicellular asexual bud
90. Consider the characters of algae given below
a.Fucoxanthin
b.Two apical flagella
c.Haplontic life-cycle
d.Chlorophyll-a
e.Sulphated phycocolloids in cell membrane
f.Air bladder
g.Filamentous body
Which of the given set of characters belongs to Ectocarpus?
(1)a, d and g (2)b, c and g
(3)d, e and f (4)c, d and g

CHEMISTRY
91. Equivalent weight of H3PO2 will be
34
(1)66 (2)34 (3)33 (4)
w 3
92. 3.65%   HCl acid is found to have density of 1.4 gmL–1. The molarity of solution is
w
(1)1.4 M (2)2.8 M (3)14 M (4)28 M
93. In a metal oxide, 20% by weight oxygen is present, calculate equivalent weight of metal
sulphate
(1)52 (2)40 (3)80 (4)96
80%
94. KClO3 (s) 
yield
 KCl(s)  O 2 (g)

If 2 mol KClO3 were used in above reaction, then volume of oxygen form at NTP will be
(1)22.4 Lt (2)53.76 Lt (3)67.2 Lt (4)13.4 Lt
95. Which graph is true for ‘4p’ orbital of H-like atom?
(RPF : Radial probability function)
  

RPF RPF RPF RPF
Module Online Examination 2020

(1) (2) (3) (4)

r r r r
96. Which is true?
(1)e/m values of cathode rays generated by discharge of different gases are different
(2)(e/m) value of anode rays generated by discharge of different gases is same
e e
(3)  m   
proton  m electron
e e
(4)  m   
proton  m particle
97. Gap between Bohr’s atomic radii of He+ of 3rd orbit and 5th orbit will be
(1)0.472 A° (2)4.23 A° (3)9.44 A° (4)0.944 A°
98. For a microscope particle, x = v, calculate uncertainity in its position, if its mass is ‘m’
1 h h h 4h
(1) (2) 3 (3) (4)
2 m 4m 4m m

16
 Module Online Examination 2020
99. Among the following solutions, normality and molarity are same for
(1)H3PO3(aq) (2)H2SO4(aq) (3)H3BO3(aq) (4)NaH2PO4(aq)
100. Mole fraction of solute in an aqueous solution is 0.2 molality of solution (if molar mass of solute
is 40) will be
(1)13.9 m (2)14.9 m (3)16.9 m (4)17.9 m
101. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1)3s orbital is lower in energy than 3p orbital for N-atom
(2)All five orbitals of d subshell have the same energy in H-atom
(3)Screening effect of 3p orbital is more than 3s orbital.
(4)The most probable radius for finding the electron in H atom is 0.529 Å from nucleus
102. Angular momentum of electron in 5th orbit of hydrogen atom is given by
5h 25h 2.5h 5h 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
 2  2 2
103. The correct set of quantum numbers (n, l and m) respectively of the electron of outermost orbit
of chromium atom is
1 1 1
(1)3, 2, 1, 0 (2)4, 0, 0, (3)4, 2, 1, (4)3, 0, 0, –
2 2 2
104. e/m ratio of electron was determined by
(1)J. J. Thomson (2)Dalton (3)Chadwick (4)Goldstein
105. The orbital diagram in which Aufbau principle is violated, is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
106. Radial nodes present in 3s and 3p orbitals are respectively
(1)3, 3 (2)2, 2 (3)2, 1 (4)3, 1
–
107. Species which is isoelectronic with CN , is
(1)CO (2)O2+ (3)F2– (4)O2
108. In the emission of photoelectrons, the number of photoelectrons emitted per unit time depends
upon the
(1)Energy of incident radiations
(2)Frequency of incident radiations
(3)Intensity of incident radiations
(4)Wavelength of incident radiation
109. In an atom with 2K, 8L, 13M and 2N electrons. Maximum possible electrons with m = 0; s =
1
 is
2
(1)2 (2)7 (3)8 (4)16
110. The shortest wavelength of H atom in Lyman series is x, then longest wavelength in Paschen
series of Li2+ is
1 1
Atomic Academy Bangalore

x 7
(1) 16 (2) 1 5 (3) (4)
7 x x 2x

17
 Atomic Academy Bangalore
111. Correct statement among the following is
(1)With increasing principal quantum number, the energy difference between adjacent orbit
increases
(2)With increasing principal quantum number, the size of subshells decreases
(3)In the presence of magnetic field the degeneracy of d orbital is lost
(4)On increasing principal quantum number, the number of orbitals in a shell decreases
112. Which of the given match is incorrect?

(1) : No angular node

....... ..
(2) . . : Two radial nodes
3s
(3) : Electron probability is maximum at yz plane
3pX
(4)All of these
113. Which one is the best example of law of conservation of mass?
(1)6 g of carbon is heated in vacuum, there is no change in mass
(2)6 g of carbon combine with 16 g of oxygen to form 22 g of CO2
(3)6 g water is completely converted into steam
(4)A sample of air is heated at constant pressure when its volume increases but there is no
change in mass
114. Zinc sulphate (anhyd.)contains 40.37% Zn, then the mass of zinc required to give 40 g zinc
sulphate will be (At. wt. of Zn = 65)
(1)90.6 g (2)9.06 g (3)0.859 g (4)16.14 g
115. The largest number of molecules are in
(1)28 g CO
(2)46 g C2H5OH
(3)36 g H2O
(4)54 g N2O4
116. An atom of element ‘x’ weighs 6.4 × 10–23 g. The number of gram atoms in 30 kg of it is nearly
(1)310 (2)100 (3)178 (4)778
117. The volume of CO2 released at STP on heating a mixture of 9.85 g of BaCO3 and 10.3 g Na2CO3
will be (Atomic mass of Ba = 137)
(1)0.84 L (2)2.24 L (3)4.06 L (4)1.12 L
Module Online Examination 2020

118. 2+
If an enzyme contains 0.04% of Fe by mass, then the minimum molecular weight of enzyme
is (At. wt. of Fe is 56)
(1)250000 (2)140000 (3)35000 (4)18000
119. Equivalent mass of KCl·MgCl2·6H2O
(Molar mass of salt = M)
M M M
(1)M (2) (3) (4)
3 6 12
120. 2.8 g of CO have a volume of x L at STP. What will be the molecular mass of another gas A,
if 3.5 g of gas A occupied a volume of 2x L under the same condition?
(1)35.5 (2)17.5 (3)28.5 (4)15.6
121. An element x has the following isotopic composition : x (90%), x (8%) and 94x (2%). The
92 93

weighted average atomic mass of naturally occurring element x is closest to

(1)92.12 (2)95.6 (3)93.8 (4)94.1

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 Module Online Examination 2020
122. The volume of O2 required at 0°C and 1 atm to burn completely 1 L of isobutylene gas under
the standard conditions is
(1)22.4 L (2)11.2 L (3)6 L (4)5.6 L
3
123. 0.3 g of an acid is neutralized by 40 cm of 0.5 N NaOH. Equivalent mass of the acid is
(1)15 (2)30 (3)28 (4)14
124. Isobars are the atoms of
(1)Same elements having same atomic number
(2)Same elements having same mass number
(3)Different elements having same atomic mass
(4)Different elements having same difference in number of neutrons and protons
125. What is the maximum number of electrons that can be associated with the following set of
quantum numbers?
n = 3, l = 2 and m = –1
(1)6 (2)10 (3)2 (4)4
126. The radius of the first orbit of H atom is r. Then the radius of first excited state of Li2+ will be
r r 4
(1) (2) (3)3r (4) r
9 3 3
127. The correct set of four quantum number for the valence electron of Kr (Z = 36) having highest
value of (n + l)
1 1 1
(1)5, 0, 0, (2)4, 1, –1, (3)4, 2, –2,  (4)4, 1, –1, 0
2 2 2
128. In any subshell, the maximum number of electron having same values of spin quantum number
is
(1) l  (l  1) (2)l + 2 (3)2l + 1 (4)4l + 2
129. The atomic number of elements X is 29. How many electrons are present in penultimate shell?
(1)10 (2)18 (3)17 (4)15
130. Which orbital gives an electron that has greatest probability of being found closer to the nucleus?
(1)3 p
(2)3 d
(3)3 s
(4)Equal probability for all
131. Number of electron present in 18 g of water is
(1)3.01 × 1023 (2)6.02 × 1023 (3)6.02 × 1024 (4)3.01 × 1024
132. An electron in the hydrogen atom absorbs energy and jumps to 5 th orbit. It jumps back to
ground state. Total number of lines obtained in Balmer series are
(1)2 (2)3 (3)10 (4)6
133. Light of wavelength  strikes on a metal surface with intensity X and metal emits Y electrons
per second of average energy Z. What will happen to Y and Z if X is doubled?
(1)Z will remain constant and Y will increase
(2)Both Z and Y will remain constant
Atomic Academy Bangalore

(3)Z will decrease and Y will increase

(4)Both Z and Y will increase
134. Which d orbital has its four lobes along the axis?
(1)dxy (2)dyz (3)dzx (4) d x 2  y 2
135. If velocity of electron becomes equal to the velocity of light, then mass of electron will be
(1)Decrease (2)Infinity (3)Remain same (4)Zero

19
 PHYSICS

Atomic Academy Bangalore

136. The unit of impulse is the same as that of
(1) moment of force (2) linear momentum
(3) rate of change of linear momentum (4) force
137. If force ‘F’, velocity ‘v’ and acceleration ‘’ taken as fundamental quantities, then dimensional
formula for time period of simple pendulum is
(1)[F0 v1 –1] (2)[F1 v1 1] (3)[F0 v–1 1] (4) [F0 v1 –2]
138. Two values are taken as A = 3.00 × 108 and B = 4.00 × 105. The correct value of AB with
regards to significant figures is
(1)12 × 1013 (2)12.0 × 1013 (3)12.0 × 1014 (4)12.00 × 10 14
139. Rounding off the value 324.14821 up to four significant digits is
(1)324.1 (2)324.14 (3)324.3 (4) 324.2
140. The SI unit of Stefan’s constant is
(1) W s –1 m–2 K– 4 (2) J s m –2 K– 4 (3) J s –1 m –2 K–1 (4) Wm –2 K– 4
141. The position y of the oscillating particle is given as y = A sin[Bx + Ct + D], where A, B, C and D are
the constants. Then select the correct option
C
(1)The dimension of AB is [L] (2)The dimension of is [T–1]
D
DC
(3)The dimension of is [L2T–3] (4)A is a dimensionless quantity
B
142. If p is linear momentum and c is speed of light, then dimensions of p2c2 is
(1)[M2L4T–4] (2)[ML4T–2] (3)[ML4T4] (4) [ML2T–2]
143. Which of the following pairs does not have same dimensions?
(1)Angular momentum and Planck’s constant
(2)Angular velocity and velocity gradient
(3)Velocity gradient and angular frequency
(4)Angular frequency and potential energy gradient
144. The length, breadth and thickness of a strip are (10.0 ± 0.1) cm, (1.00 ± 0.01) cm and (0.100 ±
0.001) cm respectively. The most probable error in its volume is
(1)± 0.111 cm 3 (2)±0.012 cm 3 (3)± 0.013 cm 3 (4)±0.03 cm 3
 a 
145. The equation of state of a real gas can be expressed as  P   V  b   cT where P is the pres
 V2 
Module Online Examination 2020

sure, V the volume, T the absolute temperature and a, b and c are constants. What are the dimen
sions of a?
(1) M0L3T–2 (2) ML5T–2 (3) M0L3T0 (4) ML–2T5
146. The radius of a spherical body is (10.0 ± 0.5) cm. Then correct option(s) is/are
(1)The percentage error in radius is 5% (2)The percentage error in volume is 10%
(3)The percentage error in volume is 15% (4)Both (1) & (3)

B2
147. The dimensional formula of is [where B is magnetic field, q is charge, V is electric
0 qV
potential and 0 is permeability]
(1)[M0 L–3 T0] (2)[ML–3 T0] (3)[M0 L3 T0] (4) [M L3 T0]
148. An object moves along x-axis such that its position varying with time t is given as x = 4t – t2
(x is in metre and time t in second). The distance travelled by the object from t = 0 to t = 3 s
is
(1)3 m (2)5 m (3)12 m (4) 21 m

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 Module Online Examination 2020
149. A body moving along straight line covers a distance in three equal parts with speed 2 m/s, 3
m/s and 4 m/s, then its average speed is
13 36 12
(1)3 m/s (2) m/s (3) m/s (4) m/s
12 13 13
150. The position x (in metre) of a particle along a straight line is given as x = 3t2 – 18t. The
maximum speed in the time interval t = 0 to t = 2 s is
(1)18 m/s (2)6 m/s (3)12 m/s (4)20 m/s
151. A body moving with uniform acceleration is having velocity 2 m/s and 8 m/s at time t = 1 s
and t = 4 s respectively. Then average velocity of particle in the time interval t = 1 s to t = 4 s
is
(1)2 m/s (2)3 m/s (3)6 m/s (4) 5 m/s
152. A juggler throws next ball when previous ball is at maximum height. If he throws two balls
per second then maximum height attained by each ball is [g = 10 m/s2]
(1)5 m (2)12.5 m (3)1.25 m (4) 0.125 m
153. A person takes T1 second on the stationary escalator to cover some distance. The person takes
T2 second in the moving escalator to cover same distance by same velocity. If person is at rest
on the escalator then time taken by him to cover same distance is
T12  T22 T2 T1 T2 T1 T T
(1) T  T (2) (3) (4) 2 1
2 1 T2  T1 T1  T2 2
154. A police van moving with a speed of V 0 km/h on the road fires a bullet at a thief’s car
speeding away in the same direction with a speed 6V0 km/h. If the muzzle speed of the bullet
is 20V0 km/h, then the speed of the bullet by which it hits the thief’s car is
(1)15V 0 (2)V0 (3)2V0 (4) 13V 0
155. The velocity v of a particle moving in positive x-axis is according to relation v = 4x . If at t =
0 particle is at x = 0, then the velocity and acceleration at t = 2s are given as respectively
(1)4 m/s, 4 m/s2 (2)2 m/s, 2 m/s2 (3)2 m/s, 4 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s, 2 m/s2
156. An object is released at one bank into a river flowing with speed 5 km/h towards east. Air is
blowing with speed 5 km/h towards north. If width of river is 200 m, then minimum time
taken by floating object to reach the other bank is (consider ideal situation)
(1)144 minute (2)3.4 second (3)144 second (4) 14.4 second
157. A body is projected with speed V0 at some angle from the ground so that its horizontal range
is two times the maximum height. Then maximum height is (g = 10 m/s2)
V02 2V02 V02 3V02
(1) (2) (3) (4)
25 25 5 25
x2
158. The equation of trajectory of a projectile is given as y  2 x  . The maximum height of
2
projectile is (Symbols have usual meanings and SI unit)
(1)4 m (2)1 m (3)2 m (4) 10 m
159. A projectile is thrown at an angle 37° from the vertical. The angle of elevation of the highest
point of the projectile from point of projection is
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3 1  2 1  3  8
(1) tan1   (2) tan   (3) tan   (4) tan1  
2  3 8 3
160. A particle moving with initial velocity (3iˆ  2 jˆ) m/s has acceleration as (5iˆ  3 jˆ) m/s2. Then path
of the particle is
(1)Circle (2)Ellipse (3)Straight line (4) Parabola

21
 Atomic Academy Bangalore
161. A particle is moving in a circle of radius 3 m with an angular speed 2 radian per second in
clockwise direction as given in the diagram. The acceleration (in m/s2) of particle at point P is
Y
P

60°
X


(1) 6iˆ  6 3 ˆj (2) 6 3 iˆ  6 jˆ (3) 6 iˆ  6 3 ˆj (4) 6 iˆ  6 3 ˆj

162. A car moves on a circular path of radius 5 m. At one instant the speed of car is 5 m/s and it
is decreasing at a rate of 5 m/s2. The angle between acceleration vector and velocity vector at
this instant is
  2 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 6 3 4
163. For the free falling object in the presence of air which of the following is correct?
(1)Momentum of object is conserved (2)Mechanical energy is conserved
(3)Energy is conserved (4)Potential energy is conserved
164. The dimensions of self inductance are
(1) ML2 T–2 A–1 (2) ML2 T–2 A–2 (3) ML–2 T–2 A–1 (4) ML–2 T–2 A–2
165. The dimensions of capacitance are
(1) M–1 L–2 TA2 (2) M–1 L–2 T2 A2 (3) M–1 L–2 T3 A2 (4) M–1 L–2 T4 A2
166. Frequency (n) of a tuning fork depends upon length (l) of its prongs, density (  ) and Young’s
modulus (Y) of its material. Then frequency and Young’s modulus will be related as
1 1
(1) n  Y (2) n  Y (3) n  (4) n 
Y Y
167. Two resistors of resistances R1   100  1  and R2   200  2   are connected in parallel. The
resistance of the parallel combination is
(1) (66.67   0.67)  (2) (66.67   0.7)  (3) (67  1)  (4) (66.7   0.7) 
168. In a simple pendulum length increases by 4% and g increases by 2%, then time period of simple
pendulum
(1)Increases by 4% (2)Increases by 3% (3)Decreases by 3% (4) Increases by 1%
a
169. If momentum P and velocity v are related as P  , then dimensional formula of [ab–2] is
b  v2
(1)[MLT–1] (2)[M2L2T–1] (3)[M2L2T–2] (4) [ML2T–2]
170. In an experiment the angles are required to be measured using an instrument whose 29
Module Online Examination 2020

divisions of the main scale exactly coincide with the 30 divisions of the vernier scale. If the
smallest division of the main scale is half a degree (= 0.5°) then the least count of the instrument
is
(1)One minute (2)Half minute (3)One degree (4) Half degree
171. If velocity V, time period T and force F are used as fundamental physical quantities, then the
dimensional formula of work is
(1)[VTF] (2)[V–1T–1F] (3)[V–1TF] (4) [VT–1F]
172. If R is electric resistance, e is electric charge and h is Planck’s constant then choose the correct
relationship among the following.
h  2 h 
(1) R     (2)  R   he  (3)  R   he  (4) R    
e
   e2 

22
 Module Online Examination 2020
173. If L, R and C represent inductance, resistance and capacitance respectively, then the
1 L
dimensional formula for is same as that of
R C
(1)Absolute permeability (2)Speed of light
(3)Absolute permittivity (4)Dimensionless
174. A car starts from rest, moves with an acceleration 6 m/s2 then decelerates with 2 m/s2 for some
time to come to rest. If the total time taken is 16 s, then the time in which car attains of
maximum velocity is
(1)8 s (2)12 s (3)4 s (4) 10 s
2
175. Acceleration of a body is given by the equation a = (4 – 3v) m/s . Speed v is in m/s and t is in
second. If initial velocity is zero then terminal velocity of the body is
4 3
(1) m/s (2) m/s (3)4 m/s (4) Infinite
3 4
176. Figure given below shows the graph of velocity v of particle moving along x-axis as a function
of time t. Average acceleration during t = 1 s to t = 7 s is
v (m/s)

30

20

0 t (s)
2 6 8
(1)1.5 m/s2 (2)1 m/s2 (3)2 m/s2 (4) 2.5 m/s2
177. Given graph (for a projectile motion) shows variation of vertical velocity (y-component of vector)
with time. Then the maximum height of projectile is [g=10 m/s2]
vy (m/s)

1
0 t (s)

(1)10 m (2)20 m (3)5 m (4) Data is insufficient

178. Initially car A is 21 m ahead of car B. Both start moving at time t = 0 in same direction along
straight line. If A is moving with constant velocity 20 m/s and B starts from rest with an
acceleration 2 m/s2 towards A, then the time when car B will catch the car A is
(1)21 s (2)22 s (3)10 s (4) Can never catch A
 ˆ
179. A gun is fitted on platform moving with velocity v1  10i m/s. A bullet is fired from the gun

with velocity v 2  (40iˆ  20 jˆ) m/s with respect to the platform. Then the horizontal range of
projectile is
(1)100 m (2)400 m (3)200 m (4) 300 m
180. A body is thrown vertically upward with speed 25 m/s. The distance covered by the body in
3rd second is
(1)1.25 m (2)2.5 m (3)Zero (4) 5 m

***
Atomic Academy Bangalore

23
 ARNAVA EDUCATIONAL TRUST
TRAINING PROGRAMME FOR
PARISHRAMA - TARGET MEDICAL
NEET/JEEMAIN/KCET-2020
Hearty Congratulations to Our Achievers

FOURTH BATCH ACHIEVERS IN NEET - 2019

NANDISH GOWDA A KAVITHA M SUSHMA D BIRADAR HEMA R N BHUVANA C S MAHALAKSHMI K Y

Bangalore Medical College, Mysore Medical College, Karnataka Institute of Medical Mandya Medical College, Hassan Institute of Hassan Medical College,
Bangalore Mysore Science, Vidyanagar, Hubballi Mandya Medical Sciences, Hassan Hassan
NEET No: 270224682 NEET No: 270211642 NEET No: 270229145 NEET No: 270236832 NEET No: 270227504 NEET No: 270234510
NEET Marks: 607 NEET Marks: 579 NEET Marks: 566 NEET Marks: 545 NEET Marks: 533 NEET Marks: 528
FROM : BANGALORE FROM : CR PATNA FROM : BIDAR FROM : MYSORE FROM : CR PATNA FROM : HASSAN

RANJITHA H G SHAMBHAVI A M YASHASWINI J POOJA D S MANJUNATH H M SAHUKARA S V

Shimoga Medical College,

Shimoga Hassan Medical College, Gadag Medical College, Shimoga Govt. Medical & Basaveshwara Medical KBN Institute of
NEET No: 270202143 Hassan Gadag Veterinary College, Shimoga College, Chitradurga Medical College, Gulbarga
NEET Marks: 521 NEET No: 270803027 NEET No: 270236952 NEET No: 270231384 NEET No: 270805783 NEET No: 270224682
FROM : HASSAN NEET Marks: 515 NEET Marks: 482 NEET Marks: 440 NEET Marks: 418 NEET Marks: 364
FROM : CR PATNA FROM : CHIKKAMANGALORE FROM : DAVANAGERE FROM : CR PATNA FROM : DAVANAGERE

MUKTHA K S PRAJWAL P SHIVANAND PATIL RAKSHITHA SHEEMA SAI KIRAN

ACS Medical College, D. Y. Patil Medical College, MS Ramaiah Dental College, HKES Dental College, Subbaiah Institute of S.B Patil Dental College,
Chennai Kolhapur Bangalore Gulbarga Dental College, Shimoga Bidar
FROM : CR PATNA FROM : DAVANAGERE NEET No: 270202466 NEET No: 270208368 FROM : SHIMOGA FROM : BIDAR
NEET Marks: 405 NEET Marks: 396
FROM : GULBARGA FROM : YADGIR

LAKSHMI M POOJA BIRADAR AISHWARYA KANJEK CHANNABASAVA ROSHAN R VENNELA JOGI

Sri Hassan Amba Dayanand Sagar HKES Dental College, HKES Dental College, KVG Dental College, TARANATH Govt.Ayurvedic
Dental College, Hassan Dental College, Bangalore Gulbarga Gulbarga Dakshinakannada Medical College, Bellary
FROM : BELUR FROM : BIDAR FROM : BIDAR NEET No: 270502209 FROM : BANGALORE NEET No: 270202695
NEET Marks: 365 NEET Marks: 409
FROM : BHALKI FROM : YADGIR

AKSHAY S SUPREETHA M R VINUTHA K N RACHANA

Manipal Ayurvedic SSC of Ayurvedic College, Govt. Ayurvedic GKVK College of

Medical College, Udupi Bangalore Medical College, Mysore Agriculture, Bangalore
FROM : SHIMOGA FROM : BELLARY NEET No: 270244567 FROM : KOPPAL
NEET Marks: 402
FROM : CR PATNA

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Study Center : # 166, 2nd &3rd Floor, 5th main Road, ARNAVA HOSTEL
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 Test Date
Student’s Name

Father’s Name

College

Class Roll Number Physics Chemistry Botany Zoology

01 1 2 3 4 46 1 2 3 4 91 1 2 3 4 136 1 2 3 4

I PU 0 0 0 0 0 0 02 1 2 3 4 47 1 2 3 4 92 1 2 3 4 137 1 2 3 4

II PU 1 1 1 1 1 1 03 1 2 3 4 48 1 2 3 4 93 1 2 3 4 138 1 2 3 4

2 2 2 2 2 2 04 1 2 3 4 49 1 2 3 4 94 1 2 3 4 139 1 2 3 4
Booklet
3 3 3 3 3 3 05 1 2 3 4 50 1 2 3 4 95 1 2 3 4 140 1 2 3 4

4 4 4 4 4 4 06 1 2 3 4 51 1 2 3 4 96 1 2 3 4 141 1 2 3 4
A
5 5 5 5 5 5 07 1 2 3 4 52 1 2 3 4 97 1 2 3 4 142 1 2 3 4
B
6 6 6 6 6 6 08 1 2 3 4 53 1 2 3 4 98 1 2 3 4 143 1 2 3 4
C
7 7 7 7 7 7
09 1 2 3 4 54 1 2 3 4 99 1 2 3 4 144 1 2 3 4
D
8 8 8 8 8 8
10 1 2 3 4 55 1 2 3 4 100 1 2 3 4 145 1 2 3 4

11 1 2 3 4 56 1 2 3 4 101 1 2 3 4 146 1 2 3 4
9 9 9 9 9 9
12 1 2 3 4 57 1 2 3 4 102 1 2 3 4 147 1 2 3 4

INSTRUCTIONS : 13 1 2 3 4 58 1 2 3 4 103 1 2 3 4 148 1 2 3 4

1) Use Black Ball point pen to shade 14 1 2 3 4 59 1 2 3 4 104 1 2 3 4 149 1 2 3 4

the appropriate circle completely. 15 1 2 3 4 60 1 2 3 4 105 1 2 3 4 150 1 2 3 4

2) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for
answering each question. 16 1 2 3 4 61 1 2 3 4 106 1 2 3 4 151 1 2 3 4

3) Answer once shaded is Final. 17 1 2 3 4 62 1 2 3 4 107 1 2 3 4 152 1 2 3 4

No Change is permitted. 18 1 2 3 4 63 1 2 3 4 108 1 2 3 4 153 1 2 3 4

4) Please do not make any stray mark
on the answer sheet. 19 1 2 3 4 64 1 2 3 4 109 1 2 3 4 154 1 2 3 4

5) Rough work must not be done on 20 1 2 3 4 65 1 2 3 4 110 1 2 3 4 155 1 2 3 4

the answer sheet.

21 1 2 3 4 66 1 2 3 4 111 1 2 3 4 156 1 2 3 4
6) Use space on Question paper
provided for rough work. 22 1 2 3 4 67 1 2 3 4 112 1 2 3 4 157 1 2 3 4

23 1 2 3 4 68 1 2 3 4 113 1 2 3 4 158 1 2 3 4

24 1 2 3 4 69 1 2 3 4 114 1 2 3 4 159 1 2 3 4
Completely fill OMR Circles like this
Correct Method
25 1 2 3 4 70 1 2 3 4 115 1 2 3 4 160 1 2 3 4

A C D 26 1 2 3 4 71 1 2 3 4 116 1 2 3 4 161 1 2 3 4

27 1 2 3 4 72 1 2 3 4 117 1 2 3 4 162 1 2 3 4

Do not fill OMR Circles like this

28 1 2 3 4 73 1 2 3 4 118 1 2 3 4 163 1 2 3 4

Wrong Method 29 1 2 3 4 74 1 2 3 4 119 1 2 3 4 164 1 2 3 4

A B D C C C 30 1 2 3 4 75 1 2 3 4 120 1 2 3 4 165 1 2 3 4

31 1 2 3 4 76 1 2 3 4 121 1 2 3 4 166 1 2 3 4

Course 32 1 2 3 4 77 1 2 3 4 122 1 2 3 4 167 1 2 3 4

33 1 2 3 4 78 1 2 3 4 123 1 2 3 4 168 1 2 3 4

34 1 2 3 4 79 1 2 3 4 124 1 2 3 4 169 1 2 3 4

35 1 2 3 4 80 1 2 3 4 125 1 2 3 4 170 1 2 3 4

Student’s Signature 36 1 2 3 4 81 1 2 3 4 126 1 2 3 4 171 1 2 3 4

37 1 2 3 4 82 1 2 3 4 127 1 2 3 4 172 1 2 3 4

38 1 2 3 4 83 1 2 3 4 128 1 2 3 4 173 1 2 3 4

39 1 2 3 4 84 1 2 3 4 129 1 2 3 4 174 1 2 3 4

40 1 2 3 4 85 1 2 3 4 130 1 2 3 4 175 1 2 3 4

Invigilator’s Signature 41 1 2 3 4 86 1 2 3 4 131 1 2 3 4 176 1 2 3 4

42 1 2 3 4 87 1 2 3 4 132 1 2 3 4 177 1 2 3 4

43 1 2 3 4 88 1 2 3 4 133 1 2 3 4 178 1 2 3 4

44 1 2 3 4 89 1 2 3 4 134 1 2 3 4 179 1 2 3 4

Certified that all the entries in this section

have been properly filled by the student
45 1 2 3 4 90 1 2 3 4 135 1 2 3 4 180 1 2 3 4

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