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ar Go) hee 2017
papell (Prelim) E 20%
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we aber & qed an a wa ace Tat Bae
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we ae oeO TT, St dae: HA tal FG eat
AMC-D-CLYS/71A,
rem st safe gee Rares wom ae 8 Pe we
deer wen &, sft sash wight A wena eet arch
7s eae a fis a ea oe Gea a aA
Real A gM wea Bae al walt Pet oh fee
send Ah oi ont ag Tee B)
2. ea ahede 2 Pree? aren yee eT 8?
fa) Brea Fares vee! we aiieu, Me
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(h) A feat game A a Bar afee, gi
feat aed ant ce ara Tea TRG
(co) WA fararit HH ea sere tar Te,
(@) ata gatas ak wrata-aige
ar are
aiede—3
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afte Tea ak Sst 8 first a 8, ate ath ag Ae
a a oft 28 or Oh 81 fee oH erat, er
ag A) ah ar afer IMT 30 ite TH Te TT I
iar A sa FA A aA a ag artes
areara %, fred yaa rey vind wf, foa-fia a a
ar dee a SH TAT RL
3, see otae 8, Prieta 1 a aa-a
‘ratte Frottares aeaer cart ear 8?
(a) reg aicoia are, sabe ste EG
seaate Bt yeg Fa ATA are A TE
a
(o) Bi gs A THA BBP
ae & fore 8 aot ya 8 cera
‘fea ST aaa 81
fo) ya gst Fa A ord a A
wren gS arth
(@) 3ray ved & ye mast A
sesh & fery vee Seva 7 8Directions for the following 8 (eight) items :
Read the following eight passages and answer
the items that follow the passages. Your
answers to these items should be based on the
passages only.
Passage—1
What climate change will undeniably do is
cause or amplify events that hasten the
reduction of resources. Competition over these
diminishing resources would ensue in the form
of political or even violent conflict. Resource-
based conflicts have rarely been overt and are
thus difficult to isolate, Instead they take on
veneers that appear more politically palatable.
Conflicts over resources like water are often
cloaked in the guise of identity or ideology.
1, What does the above passage imply?
(a) Resource-based conflicts. are
always politically motivated.
() ‘There are no political solutions to
resolve environmental and resource-
based conflicts.
() Environmental issues contribute
to resource stresses and political
conflict.
(A) Political conflict based on identity
or ideology cannot be resolved,
Passage—2
‘The man who is perpetually hesitating which of
the two things he will do first, will do neither.
The man who resolves, but suffers his
tesulution (y be changed by the first counter-
suggestion of a friend—who fluctuates from
opinion to opinion and veers from plan to
plan—can never accomplish anything. He will
‘at best be stationary and probably retrograde in
all. It is only the man who first consults wisely,
then resolves firmly and then executes his
purpose with inflexible perseverance,
undismayed by those petty difficulties which
AMC-D-CLYS/71A
daunt a weaker spirit—that can advance to
eminence in any line,
2. The keynote that seems to be emerging
from the passage is that
(@) we should first consult wisely and
then resolve firmly
(o) we should reject suggestions of
friends and remain unchanged
(c) we should always remain broad-
minded
(d) we should be resolute and
achievement-oriented
Passage—3
During the summer in the Arctic Ocean, sea ice
has been melting earlier and faster, and the
winter freeze has been coming later. In the last,
three decades, the extent of summer ice has
declined by about 30 per cent. ‘The lengthening,
period of summer melt threatens to undermine
the whole Arctic food web, atop which stand
polar bears
3. Which among the following is the most
crucial message conveyed by the
above passage?
(a) Climate change has caused Arctic
summer to be short but
temperature to be high.
(6) Polar bears can be shifted to South
Pole to ensure their survival.
() Without the presence of polar
bears, the food chains in Arctic
region will disappear.
(d) Climate change poses a threat to
the survival of polar bears.
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Ty ar Bias Sa wi, eal SR carl pea BN BAA
Re Ba aif ara sel HoH Sree, Sh aA eH GE
aoxha A yer ar say Ho area %, ga aA wT
“ane sec Ber ste a fe Te @ ge ST
4. age vite: a, Aafia 3 a a
weft Froias aetat aan dhe 8?
(a) Yaar sth aga & ane gaa MR aA
fe se crt % fem 8 een 7
eT!
(o) Seis amet den share se
shcral a arch Peat oat em A ara
Raf ones
(oar si geet ore aa ae aA
(a) rit Aa amie jee sik a a
Waite (eae) wT ae eI
uftete—s
fred A emai H, fa} wea ste se (GDP) ¥
50 irra of gfe gf @ wal waraeh wert A
6 itera adi @1 wer aaal 4, GDP-arfera snes
roves 3 ra ht Set verde wer a sik sina,
sot Gi set Sell orp wane at Aare sft BH ARATE
21 Rea 2 cea 4, fe A ara Sh, sh ga aaah
AMC-D-CLYS/714
war 57 vite %, Sa 8 sft A ad, wal
refs weer #, sh ger aaah Gera at 23. fer
%, Rarer H 30 sft A finrae aif)
8. frst 4 a Ram, aes sede
ralfrs Froters Pend (ganta) #7
(a) wrerfees weyer % feerra we otk afte ae
fear art =afte|
(o) Fae Gpp-dantea Fahe 3 a area
878 area 8h
(oy Rea % Rei a ont eres era
wits
(a aa oR A aA ste oes
saa a A rare 81
uieie—o
2020 7, wa afte siaaen 2 56 Fie
(96 fates) gars A ah 83 A carsian 8 va oT
a 47 ite (47 fife) ade gars ate
ag &C wear 81 ana 4 2 sit F fen Fm ee
2am ant er an quel a ah ae a oe: Se
fen area 81 2014 4, aa aI ara SaRET
ent 40 after a8 aI sree aT, A TE aa AT
93 after sri Ba Hat fara zarw 3 theme A
wera aie dy a [wake Gea De
(CAGR)] 05 wftea wa FO GA ah, set Rea ah
de ar 1-4 akg (14 fifteen) Aaa gia eePassage—4
Why do people prefer open defecation and not
want toilets or, if they have them, only use them
sometimes? Recent research has shown two
critical elements : ideas of purity and pollution,
and not wanting pits or septic tanks to fill
because they have to be emptied, These are the
issues that nobody wants to talk about, but if
we want to eradicate the practice of open
defecation, they have to be confronted and dealt
properly.
4. Which among the following is the most
crucial message conveyed by the above
passage?
(a) The ideas of purity and pollution
are so deep-rooted that they cannot
be removed from the minds of the
People.
(0) People have to perceive toilet use
and pit-emptying as clean and not
polluting.
(c) People cannot change their old
habits.
(a) People have neither civic sense nor
sense of privacy.
Passage—S
In the last two decades, the world’s gross
domestic product (GDP) has increased by
50 per cent, whereas inclusive wealth has
increased by a mere 6 per cent, In recent
decades, GDP-driven economic performance
has only harmed inclusive wealth like human
capital; and natural capital like forests, land
AMC-D-CLYS/71A
and water. While the world’s human capital
which stands at 57 per cent of total inclusive
wealth grew by only 8 per cent, the natural
capital which is 23 per cent of total inclusive
wealth declined by 30 per cent worldwide in the
last two decades.
5. Which of the following is the most
eructal inference from the above
passage?
(@) More emphasis should be laid on
the development of natural capital.
(b) The growth driven by GDP only is
neither desirable nor sustainable.
(c) The economic performance of
the countries of the world is not
satisfactory.
(a) The world needs more human
capital under the _ present
circumstances,
ge
By 2020, when the global economy is expected
to mun short of 56 million young people, India,
with its youth surplus of 47 million, could
fill the gap. It is in this context that labour
reforms are often cited as the way to unlock
double-digit growth in India. In 2014, India’s
labour force was estimated to be about
40 per cent of the population, but 93 per cent
of thio force was in unorganized sector. Over
the last decade, the compound annual growth
rate (CAGR) of employment has slowed to
05 per cent, with about 14 million jobs created
[P70wate aaa 3 er 15 mie (15 fife) A af
@
6. fafefes #8 aaem, aan whee
“aatftre mia Frert (garte) 87
fq) Sra A seh orion gE H sa A
‘Peta aac ate, oT eee Alora
wr ea
(6) ia % fee wraS et sere eT a
ween seein we Ferg area He Gat
Al reer 1
fo) ra aaftea & sist a Bara we a
ASK SoRR F)
(@) aKa oy i A eae Fas A
yaa ican ti
aitae—7
aaa vee TS, BA ea aa Ter ar Tate wa eH A
ame & fore vain ad Oye a, ae tH ad a A
‘aan 8 yd cada sonst &, ah wa are eT
caafey, sai en ard % sr fea a Fae TA wa
aaa 8, a oa we Pee aR seit are Bae A,
ae faur fra @ fe ara wonft, af aed eT ae a
2%, @ yard Oe od oooh eH ge Riga 8 aa aA
werd €1 ee a ee a Eee Ta Pw A-STeT
foam saarm 23 4 aed a wat 81
7, wee aide ar ae yee Fran 2 fe
(a) "aa % fey ze seam & fr eH wt
(&) sr wa sara & nea ager ee ae,
fo) ard ae wee Frege 8 Poet eh aT
wor A rem
(@) yaa & fee ard A ope aT
sree
AMC-D-CLYS/71A
aftete—s
area #1 ORR Be a ah ae t, wa Tw PA
cored ober 3 tt) aaa 4 ert 8 ofiein cm,
aredt % Bee & ae Fe afte A srafera ea BH
owt radi 8 ae @ ord tt aan sam are A
aig ore Sa TR eH Pea ae ea waa! 8 she
8 afer A ace wae 1 a eH ayE-ah SA ae
ame at A ame wa @, fare, wie wr ee aK AMT oI
wre fren ta aon ae, th sea TH iT
Seer FA STE
8, dare a1 qua 8 fi ont
(a) ORR saa Bl Hioa sare &
(b) Bah staa 8 am ete
fe) aR fre sien arrers ach &
(ay Ba Shem A ae wart
freateritaa 2 (at) wetivit & form fea:
Saf ara @ Ran Ay sik ses 43 a aa a
seria & an Afr
“xza’ aad farts, oh zat arn an otk sae
afar A rif ar ads aan a, “ya aa
rresiva % fore tan al a; fea saa a gw ‘Yee
A Raa
9. aie arat & wei 4, fafa 7a
aaa ae ea GT Gh TAR?
(a ‘Ya % go amie, ‘Xe BMT
radar % fee were ae FRI
(e) ‘Yel a nape eH ai te R,
Axa’ % Reh ands A fia} wy
A arm a)
() ‘xe’ % fet ois 3 2% after A
volte: a anes agi Fa)
(@ ‘Xa’ Fe Mh ois zt a
arm emduring last year when the labour force
increased by about 15 million.
6. Which of the following is the most
rational inference from the above
passage?
(a) India must control its population
growth s0 as to reduce its
unemployment rate
(b) Labour reforms are required in
India to make optimum use of its
vast labour force productively.
(c) India is poised to achieve the
double-digit growth very soon,
(d) India is capable of supplying the
skilled young people to other
countries.
Passage—7
‘The very first lesson that should be taught to us
when we are old enough to understand it, is
that complete freedom from the obligation to
work is unnatural, and ought to be illegal, as
we can escape our share of the burden of
work only by throwing it on someone else’s
shoulders, Nature ordains that the human race
shall perish of famine if it stops working. We
cannot escape from this tyranny. The question
we have to settle is how much leisure we can
afford to allow ourselves.
7. The main idea of the passage is that
(a) it is essential for human beings to
work
() there should be a balance between
work and leisure
(c) working is a tyranny which we have
to face
(a) human’s understanding of the
nature of work is essential
AMC-D-CLYS/71A,
Passage—8
‘There is no harm in cultivating habits so long
as they are not injurious. Indeed, most of us are
little more than bundle of habits. Take away our
habits and the residuum would hardly be worth
bothering about. We could not get on without
them. They simplify the mechanism of life. They
enable us to do a multitude of things
automatically, which, if we had to give iresh
and original thought to them each time, would
make existence an impossible confusion.
‘The author suggests that habits
(a) tend to make our lives difficult
(b) add precision to our lives
()_ make it easier for us to live
(4) tend to mechanize our lives
Directions for the following 2 (two) items :
Consider the given information and answer the
two items that follow.
No. supporters of ‘party X’, who knew Z and
supported his campaign strategy, agreed for the
alliance with ‘party ¥’; but some of them had
friends in ‘party Y’.
‘9. With reference to the above information,
which one among the following
statements must be true?
(a) Some supporters of ‘party Y’ did
not agree for the alliance with the
‘party x,
() There is at least one supporter of
‘party Y’ who knew some supporters
of ‘party X’ as a friend.
() No supporters of ‘party x”
supported Z's campaign strategy.
(4) No supporters of ‘party X’ knew Z.
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‘fara Fifig, :
1. (xae & go ons, 2a or aL
2. (xz & ge wads, Fz % ofan
Awol & PMH a, Za TAAL
3. ‘xe & feet are a 2% aba hh
corhife at ands ef Pa)
art fig me ae Fa Aa-a/a we at
ae
(@) ¥aa 1
(b) FRI2aR3
(co) ¥aa 3
(a) 1, 233
1a. 3 em wre A daa gaa stk ster PAK
ren wo eae par ore 3 fr aA Te
hy we fehl 3 Pee ore ch a
Radi @ =gam ten eT eh
(a) 23
(b) 22
(o) 21
(a) 20
1a. fe teh aig fa fe fat agera A -faere
(1/3) stad fa ad es ta wh Steet PAA
en Tae aw, fost ate ae ae
agen @ du wd snare ar Oh, aR eR
safe & der sien A ant ste ag gfe 3
wea
(a) saReN I 16 /243aT AT
(b) 3AeN I 32/243a1 AT
AMC-D-CLYS/71A,
fo) sete 92/7299! HH
(a) REN a 64/7298 HMI
13, Wieser, tarafar, ara sik stata A
ar ifend an efits Radi a A arf &, Peg
araere wai fH wert wi aa A ai
vifteiar A aden se ver 8 wet A Te
fort strata th are fier any caret th
dat 2 chert fag ora % ate ate BA EL
‘fore aden aia 4 Aig?
(a) Mirae
() sraPer
fo) afr
(a) Tarra
14, 43h BA aH aM Ca DA afer
ama a afte ta sit cA ara a an
Batt DA alttiea sr % aT 8) WE
sfater, af ara B atk DA afters sa
& meh 81 alten ora fare 8710. With reference to the above information,
consider the following statements
1, Some supporters of ‘party X" knew Z.
2. Some supporters of ‘party X’, who
opposed Z’s campaign strategy,
knew Z.
3. No supporters of ‘party X”
supported Z's campaign strategy.
Which of the statements given above
is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
11. If second and fourth Saturdays and all
the Sundays are taken as only holidays
for an office, what would be the
minimum number of possible working
days of any month of any year?
(a) 23
(b) 22
@ 21
(a) 20
12. If there is a policy that 1/3rd of a
population of a community has
migrated every year from one place to
some other place, what is. the leftover
population of that community after the
sixth year, if there is no further growth
in the population during this period?
(a) 16/243rd part of the population
(b) 32/243rd part of the population
AMC-D-CLYS/71A
(©) 32/729th part of the population
() 64/729th part of the population
13. Four tests—Physics, Chemistry, Mathe-
matics and Biology arc to be conducted
on four consecutive days, not
necessarily in the same order. The
Physics test is held before the test which
is conducted after Biology. Chemistry is
conducted exactly after two tests are
held. Which is the last test held?
(a) Physics
(b) Biology
() Mathematics
(a) Chemistry
14, The sur of ineume of A aud Bis more
than that of C and D taken together.
‘The sum of income of A and C is the
same as that of Band D taken together.
Moreover, A earns half as much as the
sum of the income of B and D. Whose
income is the highest?
(a) A
(b) B
f Cc
(qj) D
[P.2.0.15. frafafea 7 fran Fife :
A:
Seon Sa we Taff win 2 ates ita a
a A saft oft ae weria & fore rere axa
eT THC
Pramd
1. Fatt sional aufero tere
A aera eel 81
fal ar ee oar a WA Ko a rT
we TA TAG
sage ser oh fast & wat 3 fees &
ao UH ee?
(a) Re A eae Fret 1 ata tre Bh
(o) wR A Aaa Hemi sgn Ben
a
() EAD A fem 1 ayia tnt
wy Fred 11.
(@) owe aa wt fend 1 signi eet
a8 fed
16. fia Sart & de ay x, y a zt
waftal a, Bo CaRE: FGA Tw e
WaT FaT YS See E1 UH ara HA, XT
6.cm Wart 8 fq 1m AA fama aT ft
B, YT 7 om Aeh % firq 3.cm AS Pree
art 81 C, ZR 65 cm Tar & fq 2 cm
fA fia ont 21 a sat a wats Hed =
ah uit aw eee & faq 40 seta we
gan, daa BP art A Saf at?
(a) 161 om
(b) 163 cm
() 182 cm
(a) 210 cm
17, “sitter, ate 3 arate frat & fee
swafterd, armies ara 3A gw feet wert
a”
AMC-D-CLYS/71A,
10
wa me & oithes 4, fafa 4a ee
anftraart A wel aaron 87
(a) after an ste aa Aaftrs sea BI
) ater a ste taa ames sea
a
fo) aver’ wr aden Aan wou othe
‘arenes sea St Bh
(@) after an sea ernie eer & fea
‘Safen rat)
18. 52 faeniiat #1 cH mer #15 frend agehh
Bal sgh Penal & am ear A are,
Beran woe oA Te A ag Te BAe et
wr sm 8 22af 2) fa 8 ca eR
arm t?
(a) 188%
(6) 17a
(co) 16a
(a) 1sat
19. frfafan m fran Afar :
A+BRaEREA, BARA
A- Bw BERT A, BA THA
aia P+ R- Qa od aR?
@ QPmyt
(6) Q, PHAR
() Q, Parfit
(a) safe 88 ae ae
20, Tera 3 um Ba Bt ater she TA 10% aH
aem A aa fn ae 4, maT
thre @t 10% wa saree Fa gn TET
‘aft erat ea fore wera A, th Teh Rat
er rh?
(@q) Taha, 76 aA
(b) BR 1%
(o) FH 1%
(a), 05%15. Consider the following :
Statement
Good voice is a natural gift but one has
to keep practising to improve and excel
well in the field of music.
Conclusions :
I. Natural gifts need nurturing and
II, Even though one’s voice is not
good, one can keep practising.
Which one of the following is correct
in respect of the above statement and
conclusions?
fa) Only conclusion I follows from the
statement.
(®) Only conchusion II follows from the
statement.
(c) Either conclusion I or conclusion I
follows from the statement.
(d) Neither conclusion 1 nor
conehision I follows from the
statement.
16. There are three pillars X, Y and Z of
different helghts. Three spiders 4, BD
and C start to climb on these pillars
simultaneously. In one chance, A climbs
on X by 6cm but slips down 1 cm.
B climbs on Y by 7 cm but slips down
3em. C climbs on Z’ by 65cm but
slips down 2cm. If each of them
requires 40 chances to reach the top of
the pillars, what is the height of the
shortest pillar?
(a) 161 cm
(b) 163 cm
() 182 em
(4) 210 cm
17. “Rights are certain _ advantageous
conditions of —aocial well-being
indispensable to the true development
of the citizen.”
AMC-D-CLYS/71A
a
In the light of this statement, which
one of the following is the correct
understanding of rights?
(a) Rights aim at individual good only.
(b) Rights aim at social good only.
(6) Rights aim at both individual and
social good.
(@) Righto aim at individual good
devoid of social well-being.
15 students failed in a class of 52. After
removing the names of failed students,
a merit order list has been prepared in
which the position of Ramesh is 22nd
from the top. What is his position from
the bottom?
(a) 18th
() 17h
() 16th
(@) 15th
19. Consider the following :
A+B means A is the son of B
A~B means A is the wife of B.
What does the expression P+R-Q
mean?
(a) Qis the son of P.
(b) Qis the wife of P.
() Qis the father of P.
(d) None of the above
20. Gopal bought a cell phone and sold it to
Ram at 10% profit, Then Ram wanted to
sell it back to Gopal at 10% loss. What
will be Gopal’s position if he agreed?
(a) Neither loss nor gain
(b) Loss 1%
() Gain 1%
(a) Gain 05%
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AMC-D-CLYS/71A
12
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22, safe atede & argu, Prafiem Ha se
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‘aDirections for the following 7 (seven) items :
Read the following seven passages and answer
the items that follow the passages. Your
answers to these items should be based on the
passages only.
Passage—1
We have hard work ahcad. There is no resting
for any of us till we redeem our pledge in
full, till we make all the people of India what
destiny intends them to be. We are citizens of a
great country, on the verge of bold advance, and
we have to live up to that high standard, All
of us, to whatever religion we may belong,
are equally the children of India with
equel rights, privileges and obligations. We
cannot encourage communalism or narrow-
mindedness, for no nation can be great whose
people are narrow in thought or action.
21. The challenge the author of the above
passage throws to the public is to
achieve
(@) high standard of living, progress
and privileges
() equal privileges, fulfilment of
destiny and political tolerance
(6) spirit of adventure and economic
parity
(a) hard work, brotherhood and
national unity
Passage—2
“The individual, according to Rousseau, puts
his person and all his power in common under
the supreme direction of the General Will and in
AMC-D-CLYS/71A
13
our corporate capacity we receive each member
as an indivisible part of the whole.”
22. In the light of the above passage,
the nature of General Will
best described as
(a) the sum total of the private wills of
the individuals
(b) what is articulated by the elected
representatives of the individuals
() the collective good as distinct from
private wills of the individuals
(a) the material
community
interests of the
Passage—3
In a democratic State, where a high degree of
Political maturity of the people obtains, the
conflict between the will of the sovercign law-
making body and the organized will of the
people seldom occurs.
23. What does the above passage imply?
(a)
In a democracy, force is the main
phenomenon in the actual exercise
of sovereignty,
fb) In a mature democracy, force to
a great extent is the main
phenomenon in the actual exercise
of sovereignty.
(e) Ina mature democracy, use of force
is irrelevant in the actual exercise
of sovereignty.
(4) In @ mature democracy, force ix
narrowed down to a marginal
phenomenon in the actual exercise
of sovereignty.
(Pro.wiete—4
armel cheria corte A ore ofS we srfterd oe Fake
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24, ae uiteae fed waste 87
(a) WER a aa
(o) Aer a after
(ce). aR A ea
(ay Tea arena a sitar
uiia—s
fret vaca ear 8, Fe Ah fea oem agaA aren aa
‘arnrera: sage fer te aeren aren ats rot 81
any Gh, Seem atgars we Sat of arraa: tra Chat &
fa ae ya faite ae age, wif star ore aT
38 ae artis aii at Sen on aa 8) fg Be
arrange & are A ae ean wea ae ee; aw. wa:
carrhh ar HFA Tee ahi A te or 8, oe aT
a fab ae 2a Ai gas feta Fare A
25. Fa vitede 4 ae gern a wea eer 8
(a) Fa ah ah feats aT Ga a
amt
o) Fa fos Poh ae 20% a A ET
rar
(o) fea A A we aR aR Ta
“ey fs seer er rer 8 OE eR
(4) feat tr a wh ee fom A afore
aaah rarer Hie &
wie
catell amfa a Pita arra-snft & fore aaa ag aera,
‘Fafara wa B, sitter were a1 aa at tft safe a
AMO-D-CLYS/71A,
14
ae vtas 4 pet fart aon an arate oa A sei
fea or aaa %, ae aga sits ag 2 fed Gerd H
wa & sin A aera seh ah etm we fer
wal 81 Bret pera & ara } sen & agen HI seh
cae aah fae 8, A ctor weer gece a a BR
8, went Aw sewer EM Fea eA A
Ses arin fen ort A anita eR ae wht
awe bt glea Remedi cet BL
26. sade oes & ae a Prafafen duro
aA RS: ‘
1. geen aaa wh ain ate Seen Be
aa 8 ae wea Tea sik safes ste
‘araay afta ae & fey ara EI
2.0 ge cit an yeaa} ara a, es ah
fers its & seared & fer, seat fara
‘arr Gh arash a Be ita wer Bh
ett 8 ahaa qhereon queen au 8/87
(@) F741
(b)" Fa 2
() 13k 2 a4
(@ aatisane
ufteee—7
a sfteer A fefaa a ad ots ward 8 fe
“amie wens A gerne! caren % faq ane
rere a arias ae ear stares 2”! fq fre
fear A waar & 3 meq we a, sat fata oa a
itera A wie, cere % sees 8 Mh ae seach a
aa Od FS-4-ge Fe OT, BH Gl ow a
frm was ota € at ge ae 8 om tn at A
aftern waa 81 ya we % serG a gs ty she
frteat santa ehh, fed frst & fae sie
areata gisik 3 sfiaa aftat sf, faa arePassage—4
A successful democracy depends upon
widespread interest and participation in
Politics, in which voting is an essential part.
To deliberately refrain from taking such an
interest, and from voting, is a kind of implied
duucly, it is to refuse one’s political
responsibility while enjoying the benefits of a
free political society.
24, This
(a)
(2)
«©
(a)
passage relates to
duty to vote
right to vote
freedom to vote
right to participate in politics
Passage—5
In a free country, the man who reaches the
position of leader is usually one of outstanding
character and ability. Moreover, it is usually
possible to foresee that he will reach such a
position, since early in life one can see his
qualities of character. But this is not always
true in the case of a dictator; often he reaches
his position of power through chance, very often
through the unhappy state of his country.
25, The passage seems to suggest that
(a)
(b)
a leader foresees his future position
a leader is chosen only by a free
country
() a leader must see that his country
is free from despair
@
despair in a country sometimes
leads to dictatorship
Passage—6
‘The greatest blessing that _ technological
Progress has in store for mankind is not,
of course, an accumulation of material
AMC-D-CLYS/71A,
18
posséssions. The amount of these that can be
effectively enjoyed by one individual in one
lifetime is not great. But there is not the same
narrow limit to the possibilities of the
‘enjoyment of leisure, The gift of leisure may be
abused by people who have had no experience
of making use of it. Yet the creative use of
leisure by a minority in societies has been the
matnspring of all human progress beyond the
primitive level.
26, With reference to the above passage, the
following assumptions have been made :
1, People always see the leisure time
as a gift and use it for acquiring
more material possessions.
2. Use of leisure by some people to
produce new and original things
has been the chief source of human
progress.
Which of these assumptions
valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
is/are
() Both 1 and 2
(@) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage—7
There is more than a modicum of truth in
the assertion that “a working knowledge of
ancient history ig necessary to the intelligent
interpretation of current events”. But the sage
‘who uttered these words of wisdom might well
have added something on the benefits of
studying particularly the famous battles of
history for the lessons they contain for those of
us who lead or aspire to leadership. Such a
study will reveal certain qualities and attributes
which enabled the winners to win—and certain,
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FA ahaa orem ured au 8/8?
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(a) *aa1
() Pen
(by Fae 2
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fo) 13m 2 tH
@ ahi sada 30, P= (A #1 40%) + (BAI 65%) war
Q= (AI 50%) + (BI 50%)
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(%) Q, Pam
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AMC-D-CLYS/71A 16deficiencies which caused the losers to lose. 29. In a group of six women, there are
‘And the student will see that the same pattern four tennis players, four postgraduates
recurs consistently, again and again, in Sociology, one postgraduate in
throughout the centuries. Commerce and three bank employees.
Vimala and Kamla are the bank
employees while Amala and Komala are
unemployed. Komala and Nirmala are
among the tennis players. Amala,
Kamla, Koala aud Nirwala we
postgraduates in Sociology of whom two
are bank employees. If Shyamala is a
2. Studying the history is essential for Pee ete ete cs PO
anyone who aspires to be a leader. pine fe lowing ja beer = teal playouaDd|
a bank employee?
27. With reference to the above passage, the
following assumptions have been made :
1. A study of the famous battles of
history would help us understand
the modern warfare,
Which of these assumptions is/are
aa (@) Amala
fa) 1 only
(©) Komala
(b) 2 only
{c) Nirmala
() Both 1 and 2
(4) Shyamala
(@) Neither 1 nor 2
30. P = (40% of A) + (65% of B) and Q= (50%
of A)+ (50% of B), where A is greater
28. Suppose the average weight of 9 persons aaa
is 50 kg. The average weight of the first
5 persons is 45 kg, whereas the average
weight of the last 5 persons is 55 kg.
‘Then the weight of the Sth person
In this context, which of the following
statements is correct?
will be
fa) Pis greater than O.
(a) 45 kg
(b) Q is greater than P.
() 475 ke
() Piv equal to Q.
() 50 kg
(A) None of the above can be concluded
(d) 525 kg with certainty.
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‘AMC-D-CLYS/71A,
18
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fo) 132 at
( ahi seat81. Awatch loses 2 minutes in every 24 hours
while another watch gains 2 minutes in
every 24 hours. At a particular instant,
the two watches showed an identical
time. Which of the following statements
is correct if 24-hour clock is followed?
fa) The two watches show the
identical time again on completion
of 30 days,
(b) The two watches show the
identical time again on completion
of 90 days.
() The two watches show the
identical time again on completion
of 120 days.
[4) None of the above statements is
correct.
82. In a city, 12% of households earn less
than © 30,000 per year, 6% households
earn more than ? 2,00,000 per year,
22% households earn more than
® 1,00,000 per year and 990 house-
holds earn between € 30,000 and
© 1,00,000 per year. How many
households earn between © 1,00,000
and 2,00,000 per year?
(a) 250
(b) 240
{co} 230
(a) 225
AMC-D-CLYS/71A,
19
93. A clock strikes once at 1 o'clock, twice at
2 o'clock and thrice at 3 o'clock, and so
on, If it takes 12 seconds to strike at
5 o'clock, what is the time taken by it to
strike at 10 o’clock?
(2) 20 seconds
(b) 24 seconds
() 28 seconds
(d) 30 seconds
34, Consider the given statement and the two
conclusions that follow :
Statement :
Morning walk is good for health.
Conclusions :
1. All healthy people go for morning
walk.
a is essential for
maintaining good health.
What is/are the valid conclusion/
conclusions?
fa} 1 only
(2) 2 only
fc) Both 1 and 2
(a) Neither 1 nor 2
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AMC=D-CLYS/71A
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(a) xine orate 888. There are thirteen 2-digit consecutive
odd numbers. If 39 is the mean of the
first five such numbers, then what is
the mean of all the thirteen numbers?
(@ 47
() 49
() 51
(a) 45
36. Six boys A, B, C, D, Eand F play a game
of cards. Bach has a pack of 10 cards.
F borrows 2 cards from A and gives
away 5 to C who in turn gives 3 to B
while B gives 6 to D who passes on
1 to E. Then the number of cards
possessed by D and £ is equal to the
number of cards possessed by
(a) A, Band C
©) B, Cand F
(A, Band F
(@) A, Cand F
37. There is a milk sample with 50% water in
it 1 1/3rd of this milk is added to equal
amount of pure milk, then water in the
ew uiixture will fall down to
fa) 25%
(b) 30%
fe) 35%
(a) 40%
AMC-D-CLYS/71A,
aL
‘There are 4 horizontal and 4 vertical
lines, parallel and equidistant to one
another on a board. What is the
maximum number of rectangles and
squares that can be formed?
(a) 16
fb) 24
fo) 36
(ay 42
89. A freight train left Delhi for Mumbai at an
average speed of 40 km/hr. Two hours
later, an express train left Delhi for
Mumbai, following the freight train on a
parallel track at an average speed of
60 km/hr. How far from Delhi would the
express train meet the freight train?
(a) 480 ten
(b) 260 km
fo) 240 km
(a) 120 km
40. In a test, Randhir obtained more marks
than the total marks obtained by Kunal
and Debu. The total marks obtained by
Kunal and Shankar are more than those
of Randhir. Sonal obtained more marks
than Shankar. Neha obtained more
marks than Randhir, Who amongst
them obtained highest marks?
(a) Randhir
(6) Neha
() Sonal
(@) Data are inadequate
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AMC-D-CLYS/71A
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am ot ae & wra-8ai vA alone set z, a8 GarDirections for the following 8 (eight) items :
Read the following seven passages and answer
the items that follow the passages. Your
answers to these items should be based on the
passages only.
Passage—1
Disruption of traditional institutions, identifica-
tions and loyalties is likely to lead to ambivalent
situations. It is possible that some people may
tenew their identification with traditional
groups whereas others align themselves with
new groups and symbols emergent from
processes of political development. In addition,
political development tends to foster group
awareness of a variety of class, tribe, region,
clan, language, religion, occupation and others.
41, Which one of the following is the best
explanation of the above passage?
(a) Political development is not a
unilinear process for it involves
both growth and decay.
(b) Traditional societies succeed in
resisting positive aspects of
political development.
() It is impossible for traditional
societies to break away from
lingering loyalties
(a) Sustenance of traditional loyalties
is conducive to _political
development,
Passage—2
There has been a significant trend worldwide
towards regionalism in government, resulting
in a widespread transfer of powers downwards
towards regions and communities since 1990s.
This process, which involves the creation of new
political entities and bodies at a sub-national
level and an increase in their content ‘and
AMC-D-CLYS/71A
23
powers, is known as devolution. Devolution has
been characterized as being made up of three
factors—political legitimacy, decentralization of
authority and decentralization of resources.
Political legitimacy here means a mass demand
from below for the decentralization process,
which is able to create a political force for it to
take place. In many cases, decentralization is
iniiated by the upper ter of government
without sufficient political mobilization for it at
the grassroots level, and in such cases the
decentralization process often does not fulfil its
objectives.
42. Which among the following is the most
logical, rational and critteal
inference that can be made from the
above passage?
(a) Emergence of powerful mass leaders
is essential to create sub-national
political entities and thus ensure
successful devolution and
decentralization.
The upper tier of government
should impose’ devolution and
decentralization on the regional
communities by law or otherwise.
Devolution, to be successful,
requires a democracy in which
there is free expression of the will
of the people at lower level and
their active participation at the
grassroots level.
For devolution to take place, a
trong feeling of regionalism in the
masses is essential.
Passage—3
We live in digital times. The digital is not just
something we use strategically and specifically
to do a few tasks. Our very perception of who
we are, how we connect to the world around us,
and the ways in which we define our domains of
(b)
fc)
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mraesT % iat WA, BH sratT Ae} (Gadgets) %
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fad ua sree a OA a safte, ae een ott wet
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fo) Rea wea A ars eM wt
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(co) Wad caren sk ee et fie
meni & fia afters ag fet on
aa
(a) fees dat ar sein wer A ara
cafe & fara srearaea 21
uiraia—o
Ime 3 ea Rees & A UBM AL A A ae
apforreeoh & wna ‘neas-ona are (fifteen
40)' Avg oh wr ane wer go RI yea ara ae
Sw 2a A ofea ora, sh fe aa ae aah a aah
Te tw fig 8 om aon ae a haw ter
AMC-D-CLYS/714,
fg ah Re faite ofioh arg A srr & anh aH RI
IMF, SURES FORT a cee an densi Te 3k
arate 3a 8 sage aae-snfies | (tateEtis)
email a, seTH-sTE Se a HE aT At Vea AT
fart 8 etd of onarhrre rei 8) Weg, IMP eeeT
8 fe adeter erm sees A ofa H freee 1
a4, ange vikée 0 foie fa em
wats ws, wena ath eer
‘Prant (gente) Praren ar aaa 8?
(a) feet 2m aem-37y ae FH oga a
eh sererer 4 ora BA GAT eT
%, free stormed ona A ge TH
sari &1
(o) Remo srt A dan Bh a ae we
adecaeenstt ce wars fare 2)
fo) Wien A sae aE aderaeansit % fae
fa A aff A wre cal A] HE oT
wit
(a) we we serena A Bf a We 2,
win A rleraensii a1 Rere
Harare TE 21
uiae—s
waveirand (gitaita) set wera A eae
tenth 4 ft saa der ferae vt sete & site
gam anim) waxed wer Red aed gE aus
Sar ae ae ett sik Ga Mette A sere
BA wd cael @ ge a BHA Bf oh WH-IRA
Gies-sita) Prin sik Rast & ata ger F
wet ye fate a, ae-eeT & ag H GAT zi
ara A R&D wires ok fafrarcrt a me
amt A seed oer wad & fore sites ax celife, labour and language are hugely structured
by the digital technologies. The digital is
everywhere and, like air, invisible. We live
within digital systems, we live with intimate
gadgets, we interact through digital media, and
the very presence and imagination of the digital
has dramatically restructured our lives. The
digital, far from being a tool, is a condition and
context that defines the shapes and boundarice
of our understanding of the self, the society,
and the structure of governance.
43. Which among the following is the
most logical and essential message
conveyed by the above passage?
(a) All problems of governance can be
solved by using digital technologies.
(b) Speaking of digital technologies is
speaking of our life and living.
(c) Our creativity and imagination
cannot be expressed without digital
media.
(d) Use of digital systems is imperative
for the existence of mankind in
future,
Passage—4
The IMF has pointed out that the fast growing
economies of Asia face the risk of falling into
‘middle-income trap’. It means that average
incomes in these countries, which till now have
been growing rapidly, will stop growing beyond
a point—a point that is well short of incomes
in the developed West. The IMF identifies a
number of causes of middle-income trap—none
of which is surprising—from infrastructure to
AMC-D-CLYS/71A
25
weak institutions, to less than favourable
macroeconomic conditions. But the broad,
overall cause, says IMF, is a collapse in the
growth of productivity.
44, Which among the following is the most
logical, rational and eriticat
inference that can be made from the
above passage?
(a) ‘Once a country reaches middle-
income stage, it runs the risk of
falling productivity which leads to
stagnant incomes.
(b) Felling into middle-income trap
is a general characteristic of fast
growing economies.
(<) There is no hope at all for emerging
Asian economies to sustain the
growth momentum.
(a) As regardo growth of produotivity,
the performance © of Asian
economies is not satisfactory.
Passage—S
An innovative India will be inclusive as
well as technologically advanced, improving
the lives of all Indians. Innovation and R&D
can mitigate increases in social inequality
‘and relieve the pressures created by rapid
urbanization, The growing divergence in
productivity between agriculture and.
knowledge-intensive manufacturing and services
threatens to increase income inequalily. By
encouraging India’s R&D labs and universities
to focus on the needs of poor people and by
improving the ability of informal firms to absorb
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arm A AR wa eo wer aha cit * fie
STA STA 3 STAR TATA A HART BI
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Rare otk fea He aad eeeafe ag 81 re aT SHA
a ana 8 ae 8 f& sieag oheada waar & ye ar
3 ey a8 ard atm ae sea } aR AA TA
wonfidt A wear @, aa A 8 eam ae wer
AMC-D-CLYS/71A.
‘ten? srerarg farts are st sieetdie wae Bar &,
sam ae sft oer fear ren 81 veg sara 3
‘werarg-warfat ciel %, ail 4 see A gq waRa St sf
Tear A we af seh rensit a shet waR a
‘fran 1 BR
46. 3m vite 4, fifa 4 a ay-a
aalfirs whee frat (genta) Haren sn
wom tT
fq) Re, Bera te seas a AA
are wena wae a ae el AL
aren
(6) Feng aaa a atk ort ast 8 ta
& form el atts othe aren Gea wife
(co) site 4 seer aia cit 3 sae a
alti aeeaqel ere erm
(a) soerg vitada she wae % ate wear
sash sf at a A are vel eT 21
aftsda—7
ate Pear waa A wf gat ae Ha a are
fay deatta Ferra a sei wea G1 ge feed
ail 4d Htearaat A ara 3000 wa vfs tata aa
wea HRI gubcam, dell wg ele BA RD ahha A
orafitta fara at @ st Sh ae at &,
‘swirl & career site vaiaer eh aat 4 sre 31
arate Hears ear: vatae A TT aI ted #1
ara-jaen 4 yan a a gaia fem Fae aT
canes (Rei) age sea wa Be
stung sratt & stormed lal A Aleaeral fee
sofia Prevage &, smepfter rigaa Hi oreadh ge 8
ot fia waReat a1 aren frat a gar 3 Pie a ae
ag) ares emer a arr a opts tgs
Pam aon ah seared wa wala % fey
teargra efter dian 8, ae 2 eel a ya A steknowledge, an innovation and research agenda
can counter this effect. Inclusive innovation can
lower the costs of goods and services and create
income-earning opportunities for the poor
people.
48, Which among the following is the most
logical and rational assumption that
can be made from the above passage?
(@) Innovation and R&D is the only
way to reduce rural to urban
migration.
(b) Every rapidly growing country
needs to minimize the divergence
between productivity in agriculture
and other sectors.
() Inclusive innovation and R@&D can
help create an egalitarian society.
(a) Rapid urbanization takes place
uuly when @ country’s economic
growth is rapid.
Passage—6
Climate change is likely to expose a large
number of people to increasing environmental
risks forcing them to migrate. The international
community is yet to recognize this new category
of migrants, There is no consensus on the
definition and status of climate refugees owing
to the distinct meaning the term refugees carry
under international laws. There are still gaps in
understanding how climate change will work as
the root cause of migration. Ken if there is
recognition of climate refugees, who is going to
provide protection? More emphasis has been
given to international migration due to climate
AMC-D-CLYS/71A
27
change. But there is a need to recognize the
migration of such people within the countries
also so that their problems can be addressed
properly.
46. Which of the following is the most
rational inference from the above
passage?
(a) The world will not be able to cope
with large-scale migration of
climate refugees.
() We must find the ways and means
to stop further climate change.
() Climate change will be the most
important reason for the migration
of people in the future.
(a) Relation between climate change
and migration is not yet properly
understood.
Passage—7
Many farmers use synthetic pesticides to kill
infesting insects. The consumption of pesticides
in some of the developed countries is touching
3UUU grams/hectare. Unfortunately, there are
reports that these compounds possess inherent
toxicities that endanger the health of the farm
operators, consumers and the environment.
Synthetic pesticides are generally persistent in
environment. Entering in food chain they
destroy the microbial diversity and cause
ecological imbalance. Their indiscriminate use
has resulted in development of resistance
among insects to insecticides, upsetting of
balance in nature and reourgence of treated
populations, Natural pest control using the
botanical pesticides is safer to the user and the
environment because they break down into
harmless compounds within hours or days in
the presence of sunlight. Plants with pesticidal
properties have been in nature for millions of
years without any ill or adverse effects on the
ecosystem, They are easily decomposed by
[P.7.0.Hh go Ha area Rel HA PRG aha aE
Feanh Petes a aE Aa erat act a, oTife
daw SE woe oo aftge we oe fea, We A
shag £1 srfirein gait # sche oe ore sa ara ss
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Site Rua A are wal ate safacota Sago aT
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a aay nw anes Aerie Sa Refeela
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47. safe vide & oem w Prater earond
aad EE:
1. Snafe eft 4, afta feral a
sear att of ae oT arf
2. oot gt a ow Rea ae
Rae origer a ghia son 81
3. area Fears, eras Hera
A Gera, afr wraaTd AB
ages qeronaii #8 ate-ar/a wel 8/8?
(@) Fa 1 a2
(o) *aa2
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48. ta Aereat % fea 4 Pata art 4a
r-a/a wa BR?
1. Qandia aie & fore aac ai 8
2. Avatar 4 oan i eA BI
3.03 Pehl offers aa A aa Po
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(6) Fa 1 ak 2
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@ 1,233
AMC-D-CLYS/71A
28
49. Fo 3-siery Teal A Presenters fase F :
1. Wi de sis fira-fts 81
2, Fen 7 8 Praia ee 81
3. ten % sal st sae 3 a a at
Wea 7 8 Pasar eh 1
teh fart 3-3fa deat Bi waa 8?
(aj) 2
(bh) 4
@ 6
(a) 8
80. Rraferfirs sedi A aden Afi :
1 wher gaat
2. Fem yee
3, ate er gue Aa tL
4, Beware
aft wer 4 aes 8, a fife ao am frond
‘Fraren HT aT BP
jy idem
(b) 3WaRl
(co) 2 3A RI
(@) 13a RImany microbes common in most soils, They
help in the maintenance of biological diversity
of predators and the reduction of environmental
contamination and human health hazards.
Botanical pesticides formulated from plants are
biodegradable and their use in crop protection
is a practical sustainable alternative.
47. On the basis of the above passage, the
following assumptions have been made
1. Synthetic pesticides should never
be used in modem agriculture.
One of the aims of sustainable
agriculture is to ensure minimal
ecological imbalance.
3. Botanical pesticides are more
effective as compared to synthetic
pesticides.
Which of the assumptions given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
() 1 and 3 only
(@) 1,2 and3
48. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding biopesticides?
1. They are not hazardous to human
health.
They are persistent in environment.
They are essential to maintain the
biodiversity of any ecosystem.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(©) 1 and 3 only
(@) 1, 2and3
AMC-D-CLYS/71A,
49. Certain 3-digit numbers have the
following characteristics =
1, All the three digits are different.
2. The number is divisible by 7.
3. ‘The number on reversing the digits
is also divisible by 7.
How many such 3-digit numbers are
there?
(a) 2
(b) 4
() 6
(@ 8
50. Examine the following statements :
1, All colours are pleasant,
2. Some colours are pleasant.
3. No colour is pleasant,
4. Some colours are not pleasant.
Given that statement 4 is true, what can
be definitely concluded?
(@) 1 and 2 are true.
(b) 3 is true.
(c) 2 is false.
(a) 1 is false.
[P.10,51, 99 a7 1000 % aia Oe fh demd 8, fa
i 8 THT THAT 8?
(a) 64
(bo) 80
fc) 90
(a) 104
52. aft wr after! sata’ % fare
re < anf < ARE
2, th fer
(a) waa
(by afte ie fae &
fo) 3 earn ate a fen &
(a) we tx fame
53. 1x A ag we wg Rat den a ath
wea ora ad ae fief den a oa A aTeh)
3a oe ong & FF: feet den ar a a
are =a fred a ate ach EHH?
(@ 42
(b) 38
fe) 25
(d) 16
AMC-D-CLYS/714
54. P, OA gan 4 da at A aed oem 8,
wats Pa ow ae fia RA GT A
aR A ah a ari ax waa Bi aR P, O sit
Rw ae freer fae aed HH aed 8, DTS
ama # arch ara a fra sua 4% atet
anfeg?
(a) 3:1:1
) 35234
{o) 4:3:4
(a) 3:1:4
55. &: mfr 4, B,C, D, Bak F% ws oie
4 Reafefiad waret 7 fren aie :
1 yet a dem, feet eS at
2, ade, FREE
3. Da afta, we yok A
mmm!
4. BARR
5. adam # ukan # daa we a franfta
ster 81
aad a, Refefad 3 a ata ow fet
Fraren on wae?
(a) a, Ba cana et
() A, Da
@ Bsr DA WH es
@ Dd, FAH51. How many numbers are there between 84. P works thrice as fast as Q, whereas
+ 99 and 1000 such that the digit 8 P and Q together can work four times as
occupies the units place? fast as R. If P, Qand R together work on
a job, in what ratio should they share
(a) 64 the carnings?
(o) 80 (ay asast
fe) 90 (@) 3:2:4
(a) 104
oi (6) 4:3:4
3:4:4
52. If for a sample data ti
Mean < Median < Mode
then thetdistibation is 55. Consider the following relationships
among members of a family of six
persons A, B, C, D, Band F:
(a) symmetric
1. The number of males equals that of
(®) skewed to the right females.
(c) neither symmetric nor skewed 2. A and E are sons of F.
3. Dis the mother of two, one boy and
(d) skewed to the left ae
one girl.
4. Bis the son of A.
53. The age of Mr. X last year was the square
of a number and it would be the cube of a ane ope marrieclooU ce
a number next year. What is the least eee
number of years he must wait for his
Beales tesmuane vhs cantons iuiabec Which one of the following inferences
sean? can be drawn from the above?
Oo (a) A, Band Care all females
a
m 38 (b) A is the husband of D.
fo) 28 fo), Band F are children of D.
(a) 16 (a) Dis the daughter of F.
AMC-D-CLYS/714, 31 [Pmo.86. wm Ma 4 20 A Ei 8 He eof, 7 The F oie
5 ae & ata ae, Oa 4 a apm Pet
Wg Fraser traces @ (Pref at oft far axa)
fred ghia OR sels a1 A ayer
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(a) 24
58. 4cmx4 cm x4 ém % & HS wa ea
yd ate ate eH He eR ara HR eT
AAR 1 omx1cmx lcm % sige He
at a arate 81 et a at A eT OH
watt eet
(a) 8
() 16
() 24
(a) 36
AMC-D-CLYS/71A,
32
59. frofaftra w fran aifag :
ALB, CD, B, F, Gan He fH
wat ah ga we EL
B, GH TERA AR
FG dtm ad tok Ba Teh aL
G afta GR TA RL .
A, B® Wad Bai 21 )
A, UH aid A vai BL
sede & at 4, Reitfad Fa a
wat?
(a) °C A% Se THR v
() D, Bat Fa afr wet
©) O DRaRAR
(cA St £ sift GRE
60. ef ffm are 4 ‘256' a arf ‘are 1 are"
2, ‘589’ a ad “ea tm ge’ BS ‘2547
ai "ada tn aie’ 8) sa ats Fae’ aA
‘Gia 0 aren ste a
fa) 2
@ 856. A bag contains 20 balls. 8 balls are
green, 7 are white and 5 are red. What
is the minimum number of balls that
must be picked up from the bag
blindfolded (without replacing any of it)
to be assured of picking at least one
ball of each colour?
(a) 17
) 16
fe) 33
(4 11
57. If 2 boys and 2 girls are to be arranged
in a row so that the girls are not next
to each other, how many possible
arrangements are there?
fa) 3
(o) 6
() 12
(a) 24
58. The outer surface of a 4m x 4.cmx4cm
cube is painted completely in red. It is
sliced parallel to the faces to yield
sixty four lomxlcmx1lem small
cubes. How many small cubes do not
have painted faces?
(a) &
(h) 16
(c) 24
(@) 36
‘AMC-D-CLYS/71A,
33
59. Consider the following :
A, B,C, D, B, F, Gand H are
standing in a row facing North
B is not neighbour of G.
Fis to the immediate right of Gand
neighbour of B.
G is not at the extreme end.
A is sixth to the left of E,
His sixth to the right of C.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above?
(a) Cis to the immediate left of A.
(b) D is immediate neighbour of
Band F.
(c) Gis to the immediate right of D.
(a) A and E are at the extreme ends.
60. Ina certain code, ‘256’ means ‘red colour
chalk’, ‘589’ means ‘green colour flower’
and ‘254’ means ‘white colour chalk’.
‘The digit in the code that indicates
‘white’ is
(a) 2
(b) 4
5
(@) 8
(Pro.‘Prafeftrs 7 (ara) aetivit & form Fraat :
‘Prafafaa are ufredat = uige stk sa a a are
meatal 3 ar difse ga werieit & fore aes SA Fact
we titead & A seat & aA
‘afede—1
ag Ie asi (TAK we Fea (ACH) AEA ay
sage oft ard eee Breet set svg (ten)
tear Rant a ae ate 81 sree a8, we ETT
Beard Ba B ster (side) sa wa aT & IK ae
fatter wert we surer TeaT 81 AQI HatiteR sev wa
ier 8 sa age aR squats waa Pay ate a,
ate aa wg A et, Ben a ae, VA a
fra wa Gl aa cma 8, ae mga Go feat
fay sane ag am, A saa aq I Aaah A
sation % ata & Fader rang (9 RE a see
wean) Fe aah BI gual 8, Tel aKa A arate Be EI
ime a area meth egret fre aE
f& 8 ad Scare Rl A ae & aval sar
Fram amet @ sree wh wet 1 we ET Gee fr
wf ‘oa/ancre’ at 4 an wart, dt ae
fam si sara go HA cae Fel tem Rare ae PH
WA Ren Fa A sea Ha
61. ws eke 2, Aaa Fa aa
‘waif anlar afte when Remi (ata)
‘are st wera 8?
(a) BAR are) oQU-a TAA fore we
sweat vain wa a fark et BL
(o) BR 8H Fay WM qasial oi eG
O srawaaa we FI
fc) BHR aS areal aQa-a Fran & fery
arg rar ARTS were ETB
(a) sete we A, aga wren
aia saree ae ate)
AMC-D-CLYS/71A
34
aReae—2
wae aetal (sia) Rana % fe aR! ese
sed tert wate wa a TAT t) era are B
afi srion sft @ Poi 8, eq a Re aTgA
Sven waren 8 eae A athe are Tae wT
wart 8, dete Frit oat A dem A eh art
saftq! set ce ait gen 7 treat ghia A an wi 8,
wel srenfda Ga A Reh aga are Atesfeal fre senza
arch *-afarm Arafat eri &, fea aa ora otk a
mR Bet A om Baer He feces set fq way
eA Get A dada A tata sa seca ach
eh &, weg Sarai Bara gh are a A ehh oA
a
62. sei whede 4, fees 4 a saa
-walfire anfihes oe weir Prand (greta)
‘Fran a TAT 2?
fq) ten-afe sik wa a ghied eA
% fae et seafts sere aar-8a A
Neal % dtm Para A uhfeafadt a
‘Sera BAT TAA FH
(o) anf gf& sit ama @) ghia #A
% fey ef afte aan a sraftes
serres Patria sik Sarat # werriatte
wer savas 81
ght A seeem wat aaa
pita a anae semen shaft & tae
fee A viet a aa aur
aaa 81
(ay BRA oh caf ona H gfe aA fee
Sova sm ach a Pret oh
argafirra: Sataiea (saat nifeeres)
weet Ht Gch 1 aa Ba oTaTTR FIDirections for the following 7 (seven) items :
Read the following seven passages and answer
the items that follow the passages. Your
answers to these items should be based on the
passages only.
Passage—1
‘An air quality index (AQ) is & way lv combine
measurements of multiple air pollutants into a
single number or rating. This index is ideally
kept constantly updated and available in
different places. The AQI is most useful when
lots of pollution data are being gathered and
when pollution levels are normally, but not
always, low. In such cases, if pollution levels
spike for a few days, the public can quickly
take preventive action (like staying indoors)
in response to an air quality warming.
Unfortunately, that is not urban India,
Pollution levels in many large Indian cities are
so high that they remain well above any health
or regulatory standard for large part of the year.
If our index stays in the ‘Red /Dangerous' region
day after day, there is not much any one can
do, other than getting used to ignoring it.
61. Which among the following is the most
logical and rational inference that
can be made from the above passage?
(a) Our governments are not
responsible enough to keep our
cities pollution free.
(b} There is absolutely no need for air
quality indices in our country.
(o) Air quality index is not helpful to
the residents of many of our large
cities.
(@) In every city, public awareness
about pollution problems should
increase.
AMC-D-CLYS/71A
35
Passage—2
Productive jobs are vital for growth and a good
Job is the best form of inclusion. More than half
of our population depends on agriculture, but
the experience of other countries suggests that
the number of people dependent on agriculture
will have to shrink if per capita incomes in
agriculture are to go up substantially. While
industry is creating jobs, too many such jobs
are low-productivity non-contractual jobs in the
unorganized sector, offering low incomes, little
protection, and no benefits. Service jobs are
relatively of high productivity, but employment
growth in services has been slow in recent
years.
62. Which among the following is the most
logical and rational inference that
can be made from the above passage?
(a) We must create conditions for the
faster growth of highly productive
service jobs to ensure employment
growth and inclusion.
(b) We must shift the farm workers to
the highly productive manufacturing
and service sectors to ensure the
economic growth and inclusion.
We must create conditions for
the faster growth of productive
jobs outside of agriculture even
while improving the productivity of
agriculture.
{c)
(4) We must emphasize the cultivation
of high-yielding hybrid varieties
‘and genetically modified crops to
increase the per capita income in
agriculture.
[P7.0.uiste—3
ght seein & graft fe’ sa (anita) @, eich
al & amet sit afta Sa fafaear we sicarer fire
‘weal 81 at 1998 4 mia (eta) ‘fa’ & eer,
valacta gf vaitdi & sai ea ae anit a,
reat wate & sen A ara weil A ger A,
wer: Gigna, Parmen sik meen 4 58 vite,
70 aftrra sik 99 sfeara aR yer goTl Brera 4,
ammnfers ara-tet (feaea) ait ats sar & oe
4, vai-Rfem 4 gfx & wa-aa, Peri A seme
ste 18 2 8A arch oma # orate ated Pl
wreties seer ani-arerfter snare & Prezae BRA
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pact wr 87 vftera TOIT aA are sigsil w Fk 1
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(Rieter) wonferat, rat 8g seme-yftet & are
Gets &, Wy-seres A erofaen F gu en wa B sit
Fret A ora 8 ARam oft gem cA A
63, se vies 8, Peiffer 4 8 eh-a
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‘Prepren n weT RP
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fay fin, vatawia sf A ona A
arf safe!
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srl STE)
AMC-D-CLYS/71A,
ufeaa—4
sree fatima % fom mara gi, Pree @ se
Sheiiits Sat, Prem 8 sm aeraRie gai sk Fea
a sam wae ai A at aw A Al rem
Shei see Hea wo Barats Soh oe ae
ait sai sed aH a een &; otk Se etn
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i wepi app # fain } Ra a wae
25. fiers ae ae fore urctta faftaiay dw,
Aaaon 8 i Kaen Fa A Hae
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ashe ote ah ah ai 81
64. sim aise a, Refifar 4 8 aan
writes mfhe sik wetiia Preai (genta)
fraren on wera 2?
(a) rom sheer othe seme at aR A
aa sei #, aren A GDP, TH HET
afta en ser sere el A eae
(0) ve sree pa ote ees aT
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@Passage—3
‘A landscape-scale approach to land use
can encourage greater biodiversity outside
protected areas. During hurricane ‘Mitch’ in
1998, farms using ecoagricultural practices
suffered 58 per cent, 70 per cent and
99 per cent less damage in Honduras,
Nicaragua and Guatemala, reopectively, than
farms using conventional techniques. In Costa,
Rica, vegetative windbreaks and fencerows
boosted farmers’ income from pasture and
coffee while also increasing bird diversity. Bee
pollination is more effective when agricultural
fields are closer to natural or seminatural
habitat, a finding that matters because
87 per cent of the world’s 107 leading crops
depend on animal pollinators. In Costa Rica,
Nicaragua and Colombia silvopastoral systems
that integrate trees with pastureland are
improving the sustainability of cattle
production, and diversifying and increasing
63. Which among the following is the most
logical and rational inference that
can be made from the above passage?
a) Agricultural practices that enhance
biodiversity can often increase farm
output and reduce the vulnerability
to disasters.
fb) All the countries of the world
should be encouraged to replace
ecoagriculture with conventional
agriculture.
() Ecoagriculture should be permitted
in protected areas without
destmying the biodiversity there.
(a) The yield of food crops will be very
high if ecoagricultural practices are
adopted to cultivate them.
AMC-D-CLYS/71A,
37
Passage—4
The medium term challenge for Indian
manufacturing is to move from lower to
higher tech sectors, from lower to higher value-
added sectors, and from lower to higher
productivity sectors. Medium tech industries
are primarily capital intensive and resource
processing; and high tecl industries are mainly
capital and technology intensive. In order
to push the share of manufacturing in overall
GDP to the projected 25 per cent, Indian
manufacturing needs to capture the global
market in sectors showing a rising trend in
demand. These sectors are largely high
technology and capital intensive.
64. Which among the following is the most
logical and rational inference that
can be made from the above passage?
(a) India’s GDP displays high value-
added and high productivity levels
in medium tech and resource
processing industries.
(b) Promotion of capital and technology
intensive manufacturing is not
possible in India,
() India should push up the public
investments and encourage the
private investments in research
and development, _ technology
upgradation and skill development.
(d) India has already gained a great
share in global markets in sectors
showing a rising trend in demand.
[PrRees,
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AMC-D-CLYS/71A.
38
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Tea Teal & aa Fen x ae oT Fst SS OT
fatten 2; aS re ge are, ah Fare Ta Bh
66. frafafan Pari 4 a Aa-a UH safe Sere
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area 4, da ara * fe Gee F Pere as et of
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qafey we #, Amram ¢ fe ae ae 8 Pe RK se aR
7, FA we & ala wea, wae Gea ee wea
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fet wee 8 aad ser gon AE 8 Pe oni ei
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67. aaa en Pree am 8 ad weg FT 2?
fa) we aa ATT Pra
() att A mea 3 orga
(o) Peet eer 4 oe
(a) abst a acaeco (waif)Passage—S
Over the last decade, Indian agriculture has
become more robust with record production
of food grains and oilseeds. Increased
procurement, consequently, has added huge
stocks of food grains in the granaries. India is
one of the world’s top producers of rice, wheat,
milk, fruits and vegetables. India is still home
to a quarter of all undernourished people in
the world. On an average, almost half of
the total expenditure of nearly half of the
households is on food.
65. Which among the following is the most
logical corollary to the above passage?
(a) Increasing the efficiency of farm-
to-fork value chain is necessary to
reduce the poverty and malnutri-
tion.
(b) Increasing the -—_ agricultural
Productivity will automatically
eliminate the poverty and
malnutrition in India.
(e) India’s agricultural productivity
already great and it is not
necessary to increase it further.
(@) Allocation of more funds for social
welfare and poverty alleviation
programmes will _ultimately
eliminate the poverty and
malnutrition in India.
AMC-D-CLYS/71A
39
Passage—6
‘The States are like pearls and the Centre is the
thread which turns them into a necklace; if the
thread snaps, the pearls are scattered.
66. Which one of the following views
corroborates the above statement?
(a) A strong Centre and strong States
make the federation strong.
(b)
A strong Centre is a binding force
for national integrity.
(c) A strong Centre is a hindrance to
State autonomy.
(d) State autonomy is a prerequisite for
a federation.
Passage—7
Really I think that the poorest he that is in
England has a life to live, as the greatest he,
and therefore truly, I think it is clear that every
man that 4s to live unde @ government ought
first by his own consent to put himself under
the government, and I do think that the poorest
man in England is not at all bound in a strict
sense to that government that he has not had a
voice to put himself under.
67. The above statement argues for
(a) distribution of wealth equally to all
)
rule according to the consent of the
governed
(c) rule of the poor
() expropriation of the rich
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AMC-D-CLYS/71A
69. spite 4 firtaa ata 8?
(@ B
(b) D
() E
(a) Fraitta él fear sn ae wa sites’
srraia &
70. sriere 4 Ptea area fa Tet aT A?
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orate &
‘71. Profs 48 am terrae = 8?
(@) B
(b) E
() ARB ARE
(ay Praitea wat fie at war ef sates
arate &68. The average rainfall in a city for the
first four days was recorded to be
0:40 inch. The rainfall on the last two
days was in the ratio of 4:3. The
average of six days was 0°50 inch, What
was the rainfall on the fifth day?
(a) 0°60 inch
(2) 0°70 inch
(c) 0°80 inch
{d) 0:90 inch
Directions for the following 3 (three) items :
Consider the given information and answer
the three items that follow.
A, B, ©, D, B F and G are Lecturers from
different cities—Hyderabad, Delhi, Shillong,
Kanpur, Chennai, Mumbai and Srinagar (not
necessarily in the same order) who participated
in a conference, Hach one of them is
specialized in a different subject, viz.,
Economics, Commerce, History, Sociology,
Geography, Mathematics and Statistics (not
necessarily in the same order). Further
1, Lecturer from Kanpur is specialized
in Geography
Lecturer D is from Shillong
Lecturer C from Delhi is specialized
in Sociology
4. Lecturer Bis specialized in neither
History nor Mathematics
5. Lecturer A who is specialized in
Economics does not belong to
Hyderabad .
6, Lecturer F who is specialized in
Commerce belongs to Srinagar
7. Lecturer G who is specialized in
Statistics belongs to Chennai
AMC-D-CLYS/71A
41
69, Who is specialized in Geography?
fa) B
fo) D
() EB
(d) Cannot be determined as data are
inadequate
70. To which city does the Lecturer
specialized in Economics belong?
(a) Hyderabad
(>) Mumbai
(c) Neither Hyderabad nor Mumbai
(a) Cannot be determined as data are
inadequate
71, Who of the
Hyderabad?
following belongs to
(a) B
() E
(c) Neither B nor E
@
Cannot be determined as data are
inadequate
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73. W 2-314 den A soafia feat rn wa
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74, Xoh yO me ora 4:3 Rog R ah | DEAE
(@ 36
wh afte or 3:2 F aga efi, 76, CA Haw aM wa ge aes Qe Aa
aH 8 sake afte € 6,000 A aaa wat & Fea WH 8 yom Fm?
wl Ga UR ae a 8?
@o
(a) * 28,000
() © 42,000 OB:
(e) ® 56,000 () B
(a) 84,000 @F
AMC-D-CLYS/71A 42‘72. In a school, there are five teachers A, B,
©, Dand E. A and B teach Hindi and
English. C and B teach English and
Geography. D and A teach Mathematics
and Hindi. E and B teach History and
75. Two walls and a ceiling of a room meet at
right angles at a point P. A fly is in the
air 1m from one wall, 8m from the
other wall and 9m from the point P.
How many meters is the fly from the
French. Who teaches maximum number ceiling?
of subjects?
fa) A (a) 4
0) B
() 6
() D
(a & ( 12
73. A 2-digit number is reversed. The larger ce
of the two numbers is divided by the
smaller one. What is the largest possible Directions for the following 3 (three) items :
remainder? Consider the given information and answer
@ 9 the three items that follow.
Eight railway stations A, B, C, D, B, F, Gand H
(b) 27 ‘are connected either by two-way passages or
‘one-way passages. One-way passages are
( 36 from Cto A, Eto G, Bto F, D to H, Gto C, Eto C
and H to G. Two-way passages are between
(a) 45 Aand E, Gand B, F and D, and E and D.
76. While travelling from Cto H, which one of
be following stations must
74, The monthly incomes of X and Y are in poet eae eee
the ratio of 4:3 and their monthly through?
expenses are in the ratio of 3:2.
However, each saves € 6,000 per month. rane.
What is their total monthly income?
fa) € 28,000 mE
) € 42,000
( D
fe) ® 56,000
(a) © 84,000 ( F
AMC-D-CLYS/714, 43 [P-7.0.Tr. ae tang Pa A aH fet Sa a fe 79. FS 2-306a dom 1 w densi oh Ra
a 8 orf on fie Aad AA ar Bar sia aA aaz A a aah deems aH siee
wel 7 vata 27 wea ty eh anftoram Ph 2-2ie
weart 8?
(a) 1
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(b) 2
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as
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38 fia ee 8 we A araer a ? eng Sere see ae
ae (a) 262
(b) D (b) 342
(A fo) 360
(@ B (a) 450
AMC-D-CLYS/71A 4477. In how many different ways can a train
travel from F to A without passing
through any station more than once?
f@ 1
(b) 2
3
(a4
78. If the route between G and C is closed,
which one of the following stations need
not be passed through while travelling
from H to C?
(a) E
@) D
Wa
@ B
AMC-D-CLYS/71A 45
79. There are certain 2-digit numbers. The
difference between the number and
the one obtained on reversing it is
always 27. How many such maximum
2-digit numbers are there?
f@ 3
(h) 4
(a) None of the above
80. What is the total number of digits
printed, if a book containing 150 pages
is to be numbered from 1 to 150?
(a) 262
(b) 342
() 360
(a) 450
[P-T.0.SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
kee
AMG-D-CLYS/71A 46SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
kk
AMC-D-CLYS/71A 47 7BS—9**70*DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
T.B.C. : AMC-D-CLYS Test Booklet Series
Serial No.
fone TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
Paper—IL
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1, IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK
THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number
and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at
the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render
the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in
the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on
the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English.
Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to
mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark
the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item,
§. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. AIL items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you
with your Admission Certificate.
8, After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination
has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted
to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY THE CANDIDATE.
() There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) Ifa candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
(ii) Ifa question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty
for that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO sO