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1ST Quarter Exam Science 10

The document is a science exam for 10th grade students covering topics related to plate tectonics and the structure of the Earth's crust and mantle. It contains 31 multiple choice questions testing students' understanding of concepts such as continental drift, seafloor spreading, plate boundaries, the formation of mountain ranges and volcanic islands, and patterns in the age of oceanic lithosphere.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
550 views8 pages

1ST Quarter Exam Science 10

The document is a science exam for 10th grade students covering topics related to plate tectonics and the structure of the Earth's crust and mantle. It contains 31 multiple choice questions testing students' understanding of concepts such as continental drift, seafloor spreading, plate boundaries, the formation of mountain ranges and volcanic islands, and patterns in the age of oceanic lithosphere.

Uploaded by

Bryan de Vera
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Binalonan

FIRST QUARTER EXAMINATION


S.Y. 2018-2019
SCIENCE 10

Name: _____________________ Grade and Section: _____________ Date:_________ Score: ________


Direction: Read the statements or questions carefully and then shade the letter of the correct answer
from the choices given before each number.

1. Which of the following group of elements is found on the continental crust?


A. Silicon, Oxygen, Aluminum C. Magnesium, Titanium, Hydrogen
B. Iron, Calcium, D. Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium
Sodium

2. The crust is subdivided into two regions: the continental and the oceanic crust. The
thickness of the continental crust is mostly _______.
A. 7-10 km C. 40-50 km
B. 8 km D. 35-40 km

3. How many percent of oxygen composes the Earth’s crust?


A.8.13% C. 46.60%
B. 27.72% D. 0.14%

4. In 1912, Alfred Wegener, proposed that continents were once one large landmass
which he called Pangaea. Pangaea comes from a Greek word which means _____.
A. All continent C. All earth
B. All land D. All ground

5. This evidence shows us that the continents were once one because of their shapes,
wherein the edge of one continent matches the edge of another.
A. Evidence from fossils C. Evidence from rocks
B.The continental jigsaw puzzle D. Evidence from coal deposits

6. Which of the following describes the Mid-Atlantic Ridge?


I. An undersea mountain
II. It is located in the Atlantic Ocean
III. It has a gigantic cleft about 32-48km long and 1.6km deep
A. I only C. I and II only
B. II only D. I, II and III

7. According to this theory, hot, less dense material from below the earth’s crust rises
towards the surface at the mid-ocean ridge.
A. Seafloor Spreading Theory C. Continental Drift Theory
B. Hess Theory D. Sea Spreading Theory

8. Which of the following findings support your answer in No. 7?


A. Rocks are younger at the mid-ocean ridge.
B. Rocks far from the mid-ocean ridge are younger.
C. Sediments are thicker at the ridge.
D. Rocks at the ocean floor are older than those at the continents.

9. According to this theory, continents moved through unmoving oceans and that larger,
sturdier continents broke through the oceanic crust.
A. Hess Theory B. Continental Drift Theory
C. Plate Tectonics Theory
D. Seafloor Spreading Theory
10. Which of the following describes the crust?
I. It is made of a variety of solid rocks
II. It has an average density of 2.8 g/cm3
III. Its thickness ranges from 10 to 100 km
A. I and III C. I and II
B. II and III D. I, II and III

11. Converging oceanic plates will cause formation of trenches, and these trenches will
become sources of earthquakes. What event may happen due to strong underwater
earthquakes?
A. Tsunamis C. Storm surges
B. volcanic eruption D. Collision

12. What geologic features will be formed when two continental plates converge?
A. Trench C. Mountain range
B. Volcano D. Island

13. About 40-50 million years ago, two large land masses, India and Eurasia, collided to
begin the formation of the most visible product of plate tectonics which is ______.
A. Himalayas C. Under water mountain ranges
B. volcanic island arc D. Rift valleys

14. Although most transform faults are located within the ocean basins, there are a few
that cut through the continental crust. An example of this is the __________.
A. Caribbean Fault C. Mocha and Valdivia Fault
B. San Andreas Fault D. Hayward Fault

15. Of the total energy released by earthquakes, how many percent of it comes from
intermediate earthquakes?

A. 85 % B. 3 % C. 12 % D. 10 %

16. Predict what geologic features could result out of this plate boundary below.
A. Mountains B. Volcanoes C. Trenches D. All of these

17. In a hot spot, Volcano A is on top of the mantle plume, Volcano B is 10 km farther
from A while Volcano C is the farthest. What can you infer about the ages of the
volcanoes?
A. Volcano A is older than C. C. Volcano B is the youngest.
B. Volcano B is the oldest. D. Volcano B is younger than C.

18. Right in the middle of an island, you can find a rift valley. What type of plate
boundary exists on that island?
A. convergent B. divergent C. normal fault D. transform fault
19. Plates A and B shows a divergent boundary. If plate C is adjacent to both plates and
does not show any relative motion, what type of plate boundary is present between
A and C?
A. convergent
B. divergent
C. normal fault
D. transform fault

20. What geologic event is most likely to happen at the given type of plate boundary in
number 19?
A. earthquake C. rift valley formation
B. mountain formation D. volcanic eruption

21. You were asked to locate the epicenter of a recent earthquake. Which correct
sequence of events should you follow?
i. Use the triangulation method to locate the center.
ii. Obtain data from three different seismological stations.
iii. Determine the distance of the epicenter from the station.
iv. Determine the difference in the arrival time of S and P waves recorded from
each of the seismological stations.
A. i, iii, ii, iv B. iii, i, iv, ii C. iii, iv, i, ii D. ii, iv, iii, i

22. What do you expect to find parallel to a trench?


A. hot spot B. ocean ridge C. rift valley D. volcanic arc

23. In 1912, Alfred Wegener proposed a theory that the Earth is once a single landmass.
What is the name of the Mesozoic supercontinent that consisted of all of the present
continents?
A. Eurasia B. Laurasia C. Pangaea D. Gondwanaland

24. Who were the two scientists who proposed the theory of seafloor spreading in the
early 1960s?
A. Charles Darwin and James Hutton C. John Butler and Arthur Smite
B. Harry Hess and Robert Dietz D. F. Vine and D. Mathews

25. Which of the following diagrams best illustrates the convection occurring in the
mantle?

A. C.

B. D. .
26. During the 1960s, scientists were already equipped with gadgets needed to explore
the depth of the ocean. What discovery about the ocean floor is associated with the
seafloor spreading?
A. Mountains are denser than the mantle.
B. The rotational poles of the Earth have migrated.
C. The crust of the continents is denser than the crust of the ocean.
D. The crust of the ocean is very young relative to the age of the crust of the continents

27. If the Atlantic Ocean is widening at a rate of 3 cm per year, how far (in km) will it
spread in million years?
A. 3 km B. 30 km C. 300 km D. 3000 km

28. Which of the following increases with distance from a mid-ocean ridge?
A. The age of oceanic lithosphere C. The depth to the sea floor
B. The thickness of the lithosphere D. All of these

29. Which of the following can you infer from the continuous movement of the lithospheric
plates over the asthenosphere?
A. All the continents will cease to exist.
B. All the volcanoes in the Philippines will become inactive.
C. The continents will not be located in the same place as they are now.
D. The islands of the Philippines will become scattered all over the world.

30. If all the inner layers of the Earth are firm solid, what could have happened to Pangaea?
A. It remained as a supercontinent.
B. It would have become as it is today.
C. It would have slowly disappeared in the ocean.
D. It would have stretched and covered the whole world.

31. Why does the oceanic crust sink beneath the continental crust at the subduction zone?
A. The oceanic crust has a greater density.
B. The oceanic crust is pulled downward by Earth’s magnetic field.
C. The oceanic crust is pushed from the ridge.
D. The continental crust has a denser composition.

32. The lithospheric plates are believed to be moving slowly. What is the driving force that
facilitates this movement?
A. gravitational force of the moon C. convection current in the mantle
B. magnetic force at the poles D. the force of the atmosphere

33. In which case/s is an electric field present?


I. A spark jumping between two nearby rods
II. A charge that is momentarily at rest
III. A dead power line
A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II and III

34. Which device can be used to determine the polarity of an unmarked magnet?
A. a suspended magnetized needle C. a second unmarked magnet
B. an improvised magnetic board D. a charged metal rod at rest

35. In which device is magnetic field present?


A. A charged balloon C. A very hot horse-shoe magnet
B. A cooling soldering iron D. A microphone undergoing sound check

36. How will you describe the magnetic field around a current-carrying coil?
A. The magnetic field is weakest near and around the coil.
B. The magnetic field varies directly with the distance from the coil.
C. The magnetic field is strongest inside the current-carrying coil.
D. The magnetic field lines are closed loops along the loops in the coil.

37. Which statement about an electromagnetic nail is FALSE?


A. Steady magnetic lines of induction surround a battery-powered electromagnetic nail.
B. The current in the electromagnetic nail demagnetizes the iron nail.
C. The magnetic field lines produced resemble that of a bar magnet.
D. The magnetic field strength is proportional to the nail’s current.

38. What can be inferred from the alignment of compass needles around the pick-up coil
below?

A. Current is drawn into the coil. C. The DC power switch was turned off for
long.
B. A permanent magnet is nearby. D. There is a uniform magnetic field around
the coil.

39. What basic principle enables ALL electric generators to operate?


A. Iron is the only element that is magnetic.
B. Opposite electric charges attract and like charges repel.
C. A closed-loop conductor within a changing magnetic field will have an induced
electromotive force.
D. A current-carrying conductor placed within a magnetic field will experience a
magnetic force.

40. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the main photo below? (For
easier inspection, a paper is inserted halfway between the open disk tray and a magnetic
board)

A. The iron filings inside the magnetic board is unaffected.


B. The CD-DVD disk tray uses a small permanent bar magnet.
C. The optical system has an electric motor that drives the reader.
D. The optical reader has a lens system that affected the iron filings.

41. Which arrangement of three bar magnets results to an attraction between the first and
the second, and a repulsion between the second and the third magnet.
42. Complete the following statement: A metallic detector was used to check a bag for
metallic objects. The transmitter coil…
A. draws a steady current to send a steady magnetic field towards the target to induce q
current in it.
B. draws a steady current to send a changing magnetic field towards the target to
induce current in it
C. draws a pulsating current to send a steady magnetic field towards the target to induce
current in it.
D. draws a pulsating current to send a changing magnetic field towards the target to
induce current in it.

43. A coil moves away from a magnet. Which of the following factor/s affect the
electromotive force (EMF) induced in the coil?
I. Strength of the magnet
II. Number of turns in the coil
III. Speed at which the magnet moves

A. I only B. II only C. III only D. All of these

44. Which set ups model the working principle of a transformer and an electric generator
respectively?

A. A and B B. B and D C. C and D D. D and A

45. Which statement is TRUE about the illustration below?

A. In set up A, the magnet is at rest inside the moving coil.


B. In set up B, the magnet is being pulled out of the moving coil with the same speed.
C. There is relative motion between the magnet and coil in set up A.
D. There is relative motion between the magnet and coil in set up B.

46. What transformation can take place in a ceiling fan’s electric motor?
A. electrical energy into mechanical energy C. alternating current into direct
current
B. mechanical energy into electrical energy D. direct current into alternating
current
47. What is TRUE about the intercom system that is shown below?

A. The part A of the intercom system serves as a microphone only, while part C serves as
a loudspeaker only.
B. Either parts A and C of the intercom when switched as such can be used as a
microphone or as a loudspeaker.
C. The microphone part only basically consists of wires, a cone diaphragm a magnet, and
a coil.
D. The loudspeaker part only basically consists of wires, a cone diaphragm a magnet,
and a coil.

48.In which case/s is electric field present?


I. A spark jumping between two nearby rods.
II. A charge that is momentarily at rest.
III. A rotating bar magnet.

A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II and III

49. In which case can a magnetic field be produced?


A. A charged comb C. A welder’s arc flash
B. A falling glass rod D. A rolling plastic cylinder

50. Which device can be used to determine the polarity of an unmarked magnet?
A. a charged glass stirring rod C. a sprinkle of iron filings
B. a gold-leaf electroscope D. an improvised compass

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