Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)

Unit 1: Overview of construction sector

1. _______ is second largest in employment and contribution to economic activity after
agriculture
a) Automobile industry
b) Manufacturing industry
c) Construction industry
d) Services industry
Answer: c) Construction industry

2. GDP stands for

a) Gross Domestic Product
b) Goods Development Process
c) Ground Deep Penetration
d) All of above
Answer: a)Gross Domestic Product

3. Role of construction industry in national development

a) Optimize job creation opportunities in the construction of infrastructure and housing
b) Encourage the creation and sustainability of small-scale enterprises
c) strive towards fulfilling the country’s projected construction needs
d) All of above
Answer: d) All of above

4. Indian real estate sector contains which sub sector/s

a) Housing and Retail
b) Hospitality and Commercial
c) None of above
d) All of above
Answer:d) All of above

5. Construction sector adds about _________ of country’s GDP

a) 5-10%
b) 20-30 %
c) 50-60 %
d) 100 %
Answer:a) 5-10%

6. Real estate sector contains

a) Residential
b) Commercial

Page 1
 c) SEZ and IT Parks
d) All of above
Answer:d) All of above

7. Infrastructure sector contains

a) Energy
b) Railways, Roads and Bridges
c) Shipping and Ports
d) All of above
Answer:d) All of above

8. Energy sector contains

a) Conventional Energy
b) Non-Conventional Energy
c) All of above
d) None of above
Answer:c) All of above

9. Indian Railways operated by __________

a) Ministry of Railways
b) Ministry of Transportation
c) Ministry of highways
d) Ministry of Human Resource
Answer:a) Ministry of Railways

10. Indian Railways is the ______ largest railway network in the world by size.
a) Fourth
b) Third
c) First
d) Second
Answer:a) Fourth

11. Indian Railways is the Fourth largest railway network in the world by _____.
a) Length
b) Size
c) Kilometer
d) Revenue
Answer:b) Size

12. Indian Railways the track is mostly __________.

a) broad gauge
b) narrow gauge
c) meter gauge

Page 2
 d) All of above
Answer:a) broad gauge

13. In Indian Railways_____ of the tracks are double or multiple tracked.

a) 10 %
b) 37%
c) 50 %
d) 100 %
Answer:b) 37%

14. In India,___________is the second largest in the world.

a) road network
b) rail network
c) water network
d) road network
Answer:a) road network

15. In India,road network is the _______ largest in the world.

a) first
b) second
c) third
d) fourth
Answer:b) second

16. India has the largest merchant shipping fleet among the developing countries and ranks ____
amongst the countries with the largest cargo carrying fleet
a) 10th
b) 20th
c) 30th
d) 40th
Answer:b) 20th

17. Approximately, ____ of the country's trade by volume (70 per cent in terms of value) is
moved by sea
a) 90 %
b) 50%
c) 20%
d) 10%
Answer:a) 90 %

18. Approximately, 90 % of the country's trade by volume i.e. ____ in terms of value is
moved by sea
e) 90 %

Page 3
 f) 70 %
g) 20%
h) 10%
Answer: b) 70 %

19. India having ______ major ports

a) 10
b) 20
c) 12
d) 30
Answer:c) 12

20. India has a _______ spanning 7516.6 kilometers, forming one of the biggest peninsulas
in the world.
a) Coastline
b) Waterline
c) Road line
d) Railway line
Answer:a) Coastline

21. India has a Coast line spanning _________ kilometers, forming one of the biggest
peninsulas in the world.
a) 8516
b) 7516.6
c) 3000
d) 2500
Answer:b) 7516.6

22. GOI will be spending Rs. 50,000 crore to develop ____ smart cities across country
a) 1000
b) 500
c) 100
d) 50
Answer:c) 100

23. The person who decides to start the work or any project
a) Owner
b) Civil Engineer
c) Architect
d) Contractor
Answer:a) Owner

Page 4
24. The primary function of _________________ is to design, analyze and calculate overall
cost of project as well as to find out pros and cons of project
a) Owner
b) Civil Engineer
c) Architect
d) Contractor
Answer:b) Civil Engineer

25. The person who given aesthetical view to the project

a) Owner
b) Civil Engineer
c) Architect
d) Contractor
Answer:c) Architect

26. The person who undertake the work after detailed analysis of project
a) Owner
b) Civil Engineer
c) Architect
d) Contractor
Answer:d) Contractor

27. The person who give administrative suggestion to owner

a) Lawyer
b) Civil Engineer
c) Architect
d) Contractor
Answer:a) Lawyer

28. Objectives of Construction Management

a) Planning for each activity
b) Planning for construction equipment and machinery
c) Material Procurement
d) All of the above
Answer:d) All of the above

29. Find out wrong statement about Scope/ Applications of Construction Management
a) Co-ordination between client and contractor
b) Planning, scheduling and execution of work
c) Arranging funds
d) Preparation of estimation and its finalization
Answer:c) Arranging funds

Page 5
30. A ___________ is a unique and transient endeavor undertaken to achieve planned
objectives, which could be defined in terms of outputs, outcomes or benefits.
a) Activity
b) Site
c) Project
d) Building
Answer: c) Project

31. ___________ is the discipline of initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing
the work of a team to achieve specific goals and meet specific success criteria.
a) Project management
b) Cost management
c) Time management
d) Scope management
Answer:a) Project Management

32. PMC stands for ____________ in construction industry

a) Project Monitoring and Controlling
b) Project Management Consultant
c) Price Money Control
d) Piece Metal Cut
Answer:b) Project Management Consultant

33. PMC have at least four-year undergraduate degree and minimum _______ year industry
experience.
a) Three
b) Five
c) Four
d) Six
Answer: b) Five

34. Services offered by Project Management Consultant

a) A review of your current project management process and capabilities
b) Support in the implementation of new tools, processes and procedures
c) Change management and transformation support
d) All of the above
Answer:d) All of the above

35. PMC manages projects and specific activities related to project within given constraints
of ________
a) Time only
b) Time and Budget only

Page 6
 c) Time and Quality only
d) Time, Budget and Quality
Answer:d)Time, Budget and Quality

36. Plan, schedule and control activities in order to achieve objectives of the project by
applying ______________
a) Technical only
b) theoretical only
c) managerial skills only
d) technical, theoretical and managerial skills

Answer: d) technical, theoretical and managerial skills

37. Plan, schedule and control activities in order to achieve objectives of the project by
applying technical, theoretical and managerial skills
a) Plan activities
b) schedule activities
c) control activities
d) Plan, schedule and control activities

Answer: d) Plan, schedule and control activities

38. Qualities of Project Management Consultant

a) Strong knowledge of project management process of best practices
b) Experience applying project management successfully in a variety of situations
c) Ability to manage client relationship and expectation well credibility
d) All of above
Answer: d) All of the above

39. Selection Criterion for PMC

a) Nature, scope and ability of projects described in PMC profile
b) Recommendation of consultants
c) The type of project to be carried out and Performance on earlier projects
d) All of above
Answer: d) All of the above

40. ___________is also called as cost increase or budget overrun.

a) Project Overrun
b) Site Overrun
c) Time Overrun
d) None of above
Answer: a) Project Overrun

Page 7
41. ____________means a shortfall of budget that occurs in a result of unexpected costs
a) Project Overrun
b) Site Overrun
c) Time Overrun
d) None of above
Answer: a) Project Overrun

42. Causes of Project Overruns

a) Inadequate project formulation
b) Lack of proper contract planning and management
c) Lack of project management during execution
d) All of above
Answer:d) All of above

43. Tackle project overrun by

a) Good project plan
b) Technically sound WBS
c) Multidisciplinary PM team
d) All of above

Answer:d) All of above

44. Preventive measures to control Project Overruns

a) Pay proper attention to project planning
b) Track and measure the progress continuity
c) Multidisciplinary PM team
d) All of above
Answer:d) All of above

45. _________gives 14 Principles of Management

a) Henri Fayol
b) Albert Einstein
c) Newton
d) None of above
Answer: a) Henri Fayol

46. _________________ is the process or protecting the client’s interests from the risks
associated with their interest in a development that is not under their direct control
a) Project Monitoring
b) Project Control
c) Project Reporting
d) Project Planning
Answer: a) Project Monitoring

Page 8
47. Following variables are used for tracking in Project Monitoring System (PMS)
a) Schedule
b) Costs
c) Deliverables and Quality
d) All of above
Answer: d) All of above

48. ______________ is the process of observing project execution so that potential problems
can be identified in a timely manner and corrective action can be taken, when necessary,
to control the execution of the project.
a) Project Monitoring System
b) Project Control System
c) Project Reporting System
d) Project Planning System

Answer: a) Project Monitoring System

49. Types of Monitoring are ________

a) Operation Monitoring
b) Performance monitoring
c) Project reporting
d) All of above
Answer: d) All of above

50. ______________is an official record of a given period in the life of project that presents
a summary of project implementations and performance reporting
a) Project Monitoring
b) Project Control
c) Project Reporting
d) Project Planning
Answer:c) Project Reporting

51. _____________ must contain relevant data to control tasks in specific schedule
a) Project Monitoring System
b) Project Control System
c) Project Reporting System
d) Project Planning System
Answer:c) Project Reporting System

52. There group/s of project reports to be prepared

a) Detailed reports
b) Summary executive level reports
c) Detailed reports and Summary executive level reports

Page 9
 d) None of above
Answer: c)Detailed reports and Summary executive level reports

53. Frequency of project reports _______

a) Quarter report : 3, 6, 9, 12 months
b) Annual report : Yearly
c) Quarter and Annual report
d) None of above
Answer: c)Quarter and Annual report

54. ___________________ is a function which helps managers communicate with each other
as well as with employees within the organization.
a) Managerial communication
b) Engineer communication
c) Supervisor communication
d) Labour communication
Answer:a)Managerial communication

55. Ways of Managerial Communication

a) Verbal Communication
b) Written Communication
c) Verbal and Written Communication
d) None of above
Answer:c) Verbal and Written Communication

56. Tools or framework that are helpful in identifying promising investment opportunities
a) Portal model
b) Life cycle approach and Experience curve
c) Investment Opportunity Analysis (IOA)
d) All of above
Answer: d) All of above

57. The objective of________________ is to ensure that opportunities are explored and
given appropriate consideration during development process
a) Investment Option Analysis (IOA)
b) Investment Opportunity Application(IOA)
c) Installment Opportunity Analysis (IOA)
d) Investment Opportunity Analysis (IOA)

Answer:d) Investment Opportunity Analysis (IOA)

Page 10
 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
Unit 2: Construction Scheduling, Work Study and Work Measurement
1. ______________ means putting the plan on a calendar time scale
a) Scheduling
b) Planning
c) Execution
d) Closure
Answer: a)Scheduling
2. A project ________________ is a valuable project control tool that is used by successful
project managers to effectively manage construction projects
a) Scheduling
b) Planning
c) Execution
d) Closure
Answer: a)Scheduling
3. Purpose of Scheduling
a) Simplification of project plan
b) Optimization of resources
c) Forecasting
d) All of above
Answer: d)All of above
4. Factors affecting scheduling are grouped into two categories
a) Internal and External factors
b) Inward and outward factors
c) More and Less factors
d) None of above
Answer: Internal and External factors
5. Internal Factors of project Scheduling include
a) Finical good inventories
b) Availability of personal, machine, material and manufacturing facilities
c) Process Internal and Economic production Run (EPR)
d) All of above
Answer: d)All of above
6. External Factors of project Scheduling include
a) Consumer Demand
b) Consumer delivery dates
c) Dealers and retailers inventories
d) All of above
Answer: d)All of above

Page 1
7. Factors Affecting Scheduling
a) Site management
b) Finance by contractors
c) Co-ordination between various departments
d) All of above
Answer: d)All of above
8. Correct sequence of Steps in Project Scheduling
1.Calculation of detail control information
2.Assigning timings to events and activities
3.Giving consideration to the resources
4.Allocation of resources
a) 1-2-3-4
b) 2-3-4-1
c) 3-4-1-2
d) 4-1-2-3
Answer: a) 1-2-3-4
9. ________________ is the management of the time spent, and progress made, on project
tasks and activities.
a) Cost management
b) Project management
c) Time management
d) Scope management
Answer: c)Time management
10. ___________ consist of dividing project into activities and establishing logical
relationship between them
a) Scheduling
b) Project Planning
c) Execution
d) Closure
Answer: b)Project Planning
11. The purpose of _________________ is to define each major task, estimate the time and
resources required and provide an outline for management review and control
a) Scheduling
b) Project Planning
c) Execution
d) Closure
Answer: b)Project Planning
12. WBS stands for __________
a) Word Breakdown Structure
b) Work Breakdown System

Page 2
 c) Work Breakdown Structure
d) Word Breakdown System
Answer: c) Work Breakdown Structure
13. PMBOK stands for
a) Project Management Book of Knowledge
b) Project Management Body of Knowledge
c) Project Manager Body of Knowledge
d) Project Manager Book of Knowledge
Answer: b) Project Management Body of Knowledge
14. Dividing complex projects into simple and manageable tasks for planning and controlling
purpose is called as ___________
a) Framework
b) System
c) Work Breakdown Structure
d) None of above
Answer: c) Work Breakdown Structure
15. Correct sequence of Project Work Break Down Levels (i.e. Work Breakdown Structure)
i. Project
ii. Sub Project Level
iii. Task Level
iv. Work Package Level
v. Activity Level
vi. Operation Level
a) i-ii-iii-iv-v-vi
b) iv-v-vi-i-ii-iii
c) iii-iv-v-vi -i-ii-
d) v-vi-i-ii-iii-iv-
Answer: a) i-ii-iii-iv-v-vi
16. Rule for Preparing Work Breakdown Structure
a) 7/70
b) 8/80 (i.e. 1/10)
c) 5/50
d) 10/100
Answer: b) 8/80 (i.e. 1/10)
17. While preparing Work Breakdown Structure how much minimum and maximum time of
performance of activity is taken
a) Minimum 1 day (i.e. 8 working hours) and maximum 10 days (i.e. 80 working hours)
b) Minimum 7 day (i.e. 7 working hours) and maximum 10 days (i.e. 70 working hours)
c) Minimum 5 day (i.e. 5 working hours) and maximum 10 days (i.e. 50 working hours)
d) Minimum 6 day (i.e. 6 working hours) and maximum 10 days (i.e. 60 working hours)

Page 3
 Answer: a) Minimum 1 day (i.e. 8 working hours) and maximum 10 days (i.e. 80
working hours)
18. Benefits of Work Breakdown Structure
a) Reducing the probability of important work missing
b) Create effective schedule and accurate project costing
c) Reduce risk of project failing to meet goals
d) All of Above
Answer: d)All of above
19. LOB stands for ___________
a) Line of Balance
b) Line of Bank
c) Level of Balance
d) Level of Bank
Answer: a) Line of Balance
20. ___________ is a management control process for collecting, measuring and presenting
facts relating to time, cost and accomplishment - all measured against a specific plan
a) Line of Balance
b) Line of Bank
c) Level of Balance
d) Level of Bank
Answer: a) Line of Balance
21. To do LOB, the following is needed
a) A contract schedule, or objective chart
b) A production plan or lead-time chart for the production process itself and Control
points cumulative inventories
c) A program status chart on which to plot LOB and the cumulative quantities of units
that have passed through the control points of the assembly/production process
d) All of above
Answer: c)All of above
22. Line of Balance is a planning technique for _____________
a) Non-repetitive work
b) repetitive work
c) None of above
d) All of above
Answer: b) repetitive work
23. Sequence of Scheduling with Line of Balance (LOB)
1.Prepare a logic diagram
2.To complete each operation, calculate the estimated man hours
3.Select buffer time which will lookout against the risk of interference between
operations.

Page 4
 4.Calculate the requisite output target so as to meet a given project completion date
5.Complete LOB schedule
a) 1-2-3-4-5
b) 2-3-4-5-1
c) 3-4-5-1-2
d) 4-5-1-2-3
Answer: a) 1-2-3-4
24. Advantages of Line of Balance
a) Indicates amount of work taking place in a definite area at a specific time and Simpler
and clearer resource management
b) Easier analysis of cost and time optimization and Easy to supervision
c) Modification, update and changes can be easily made in schedule
d) All of above
Answer: d)All of above
25. Disadvantages of Line of Balance
a) Critical path of the project schedule cannot be generated
b) It could be divided only by location
c) All of above
d) None of above
Answer: c)All of above
26. Planning and controlling those construction projects that are defined as repetitive in
action and projects involving the ____________ building of repeated forms
a) vertical
b) horizontal
c) vertical or horizontal
d) vertical and horizontal
Answer:c) vertical or horizontal
27. Examples of Repetitive projects are those characterized by repetitive construction
activities
a) highway, pipeline, high‐rise building construction, etc
b) Research and development of new admixture
c) World Wonders
d) All of above
Answer: a) highway, pipeline, high‐rise building construction, etc
28. _____________ is the most commonly used method for scheduling construction projects
(scheduling repetitive projects)
a) Critical path method (CPM)
b) Programme Evaluation and Review Techniques (PERT)
c) CPM and PERT
d) None of above

Page 5
 Answer: a) Critical path method (CPM)
29. Systematic examination of the methods of carrying out activities so as to improve the
effective use of resources and set up standard of performance for the activities being
carried out is called as ___________________
a) Work Measurement
b) Time Study
c) Work Study
d) Motion Study
Answer: c) Work Study
30. Work-study is encompassed by ________ technique/s (Work Study is divided in _______
Sub-parts)
a) method study
b) work measurement
c) method study and work measurement
d) None of above
Answer: c) method study and work measurement
31. __________ is part of method study
a) Motion study
b) Time study
c) Motion and Time study
d) None of above
Answer: a) Motion study
32. According to British Standards Institution (BS 3138):______________ is the systematic
recording and critical examination of existing and proposed ways of doing work, as a
means of developing and applying easier and more effective methods and reducing costs
a) method study
b) work measurement
c) method study and work measurement
d) None of above
Answer: a) method study
33. _____________is concerned with the reduction of the work content and establishing the
one best way of doing the job
a) method study
b) work measurement
c) method study and work measurement
d) None of above
Answer: a) method study
34. Recording Techniques for work study (Method Study) (activity charts)
a) Charts
b) Diagram

Page 6
 c) Charts and Diagram
d) None of above
Answer:c) Charts and Diagram
35. Types of Charts used for recording techniques divided into
a) Macro motion charts
b) Micro motion charts
c) Macro motion charts and Micro motion charts
d) None of above
Answer: c) Macro motion charts and Micro motion charts
36. Diagrams Used in Method Study for recording technique
a) flow diagrams and string diagrams
b) flow diagrams
c) string diagrams
d) None of above
Answer: a) flow diagrams and string diagrams
37. The __________ is a scale layout drawing on which, length of a string is used to record
the extent as well as the pattern of movement of a worker working within a limited area
during a certain period of time.
a) flow diagram and string diagram
b) flow diagram
c) string diagram
d) None of above
Answer: c) string diagram
38. Correct sequence of the procedures to draw string diagram
1. A layout of the work place of factory is drawn to scale on the soft board.
2. Pins are fixed into boards to mark the locations of work stations, pins are also
driven at the turning points of the routes.
3. A measured length of the thread is taken to trace the movements (path).
4. The distance covered by the object is obtained by measuring the remaining
part of the thread and subtracting it from original length.
a) 1-2-3-4
b) 2-3-4-1
c) 3-4-2-1
d) 4-3-2-1
Answer: a)1-2-3-4
A symbol used in Method study for Operation is _____
a) O
b) ■
c) →
d) ▲

Page 7
 Answer: a) O
39. A symbol used in Method study for Inspection is _____
a) O
b) ■
c) →
d) ▲
Answer: b) ■
40. A symbol used in Method study for Transport is _____
a) O
b) ■
c) →
d) ▲
Answer: c) →
41. A symbol used in Method study for Storage is _____
a) O
b) ■
c) →
d) ▲
Answer: d) ▲
42. A symbol used in Method study for Delay is _____
a) D
b) ■
c) →
d) ▲
Answer: a) D
43. _____________________ is the application or techniques designed to establish the time
for a qualified worker to carry out a specified job at a defined level or performance
a) method study
b) work measurement
c) method study and work measurement
d) None of above
Answer: b) work measurement
44. __________________ is concerned with investigation and reduction of any ineffective
time associated with the job and establishing time standards for an operation carried out
as per the standard method.
a) method study
b) work measurement
c) method study and work measurement
d) None of above
Answer: b) work measurement

Page 8
45. _______________ is application of techniques designed to establish time for qualified
worker to carry out a task at a defined rate of working
a) Work Measurement
b) Time Study
c) Work Study
d) Motion Study
Answer: a) Work Measurement
46. __________ is part of Work measurement
a) Motion study
b) Time study
c) Motion and Time study
d) None of above
Answer: b) Time study
47. There are stages Work Measurement
a) analysis phase
b) measurement phase
c) synthesis phase
d) analysis phase, measurement phase and synthesis phase
Answer:d) analysis phase, measurement phase and synthesis phase
48. Purpose of work measurement, work can be regarded as
a) Repetitive work and Non-repetitive work
b) Non-repetitive work
c) Repetitive work
d) None of above
Answer: a) Repetitive work and Non-repetitive work
49. Various techniques of work measurement are
a) Work sampling, Predetermined motion and time study, Analytical estimating
b) Time study (stop watch technique), Predetermined motion and time study
c) Time study (stop watch technique), Synthesis, Work sampling, Predetermined motion
and time study, Analytical estimating
d) Time study (stop watch technique), Analytical estimating
Answer: c) Time study (stop watch technique), Synthesis, Work sampling,
Predetermined motion and time study, Analytical estimating
50. According to British Standards Institution (BS 3138):______________ has been defined
as the application of techniques designed to establish the time for a qualified worker to
carry out a specified job at a defined level of performance.
a) method study
b) time study
c) method study and work measurement
d) motion study

Page 9
 Answer:b) time study
51. Even under the best working method situation, the job will still demand the expenditure
of human effort and some ___________ must therefore be made for recovery from
fatigue and for relaxation
a) Allowance
b) Increment
c) Bonus
d) None of above
Answer: Allowance
52. _______________________ is a technique combining the time study of Fredrick Taylor
with motion study of Frank and Lillian
a) time study
b) motion study
c) work study
d) Time and motion study
Answer: Time and motion study
53. _______________________ is the major part of scientific management
a) time study
b) motion study
c) work study
d) Time and motion study
Answer: Time and motion study

Page 10
 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
Unit 3: Labour Laws and Financial Aspects of Construction Projects
1. _____________ mediates the relationship between workers, employing entities, trade
unions and the government
a) Criminal Law
b) Civil law
c) Labour law
d) Administrative law
Answer: c) Labour law
2. Labour laws associated with construction sector
a) Workmen’s Compensation Act 1923
b) The Buildings and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and
Conditions of Service) Act, 1996
c) Inter-state Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Condition of Services)
Act, 1979
d) All of above
Answer: d) All of above
3. WORKMEN’S COMPENSATION ACT established in ___________
a) 1948
b) 1923
c) 1960
d) 2000
Answer: b) 1923
4. The Workmen’s Compensation Act of 1923 was formed majorly to give compensations
to workmen in the event of an ________
a) Promotion
b) Accident
c) Increment
d) Crime
Answer: b) Accident
5. Aim of _____________________ is to provide relief and financial protection
(compensation) to workmen and/or their dependents (their survivors) in case of industrial
accidents, occupational diseases resulting in death or disablement by means of payment
of compensation by the employers
a) Workmen’s Compensation Act
b) Child Labour Act
c) Interstate Migrant Worker
d) The Buildings and Other Construction Workers Act
Answer: a) Workmen’s Compensation Act

Page 1
6. In case a personal injury is caused to a workman by accident arising out of and in the
course of his employment, his employer is liable to pay compensation in accordance with
the provision of the Act within __________ days from the date when it fell due otherwise
he would also be liable to pay interest and penalty
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40
Answer: c) 30
7. Condition gives employer not liable for Compensation
a) the workman having been at the time of the accident under the influence of drink or
drugs
b) the willful disobedience of the workman to an order expressly given, or to a rule
expressly framed, for the purpose of securing the safety of workmen
c) the willful removal or disregard by the workman of any safety guard or other device
which has been provided for the purpose of securing safety of workmen
d) All of above
Answer:d) All of above
8. BUILDING AND OTHER CONSTRUCTION WORKERS ACT established in _______
a) 1996
b) 2000
c) 2006
d) 2016
Answer: a)1996
9. _________ is a social welfare legislation that aims to benefit workers engaged in building
and construction activities across the country
a) Workmen’s Compensation Act
b) Child Labour Act
c) Interstate Migrant Worker
d) The Buildings and Other Construction Workers Act
Answer: d) The Buildings and Other Construction Workers Act
10. The objective of ___________ is to regulate the employment and conditions of service
of BOCW Workers and to provide for their safety, health and welfare measures and for
other matters connected therewith
a) Workmen’s Compensation Act
b) Child Labour Act
c) Interstate Migrant Worker
d) The Buildings and Other Construction Workers Act
Answer: d) The Buildings and Other Construction Workers Act
11. Applicability of The Buildings and Other Construction Workers Act

Page 2
 a) It is applicable to every establishment in which employs, or had employed on any day
of the preceding twelve months, ten or more building workers in any building or other
construction work directly or through a Contractor / Subcontractor
b) An individual employing workers for constructing his own residence of value not
more than Rs. 10 lack is not an establishment acc to act
c) Act puts government and non-government departments on same platform and Work
considered in factories act 1948 and mines act 1952 is exempted from this act
d) All of above
Answer: d) All of above
12. CHILD LABOUR ACT (PROHIBITION AND PROTECTION ACT) established in
a) 1949
b) 1986
c) 1990
d) 2000
Answer: b) 1986
13. “_________” is generally speaking, work for children that harms them or exploits them
in someway (physically, mentally, morally or by blocking access to education
a) Workmen’s Compensation
b) Child Labour
c) Interstate Migrant Worker
d) The Buildings and Other Construction Workers
Answer: b) Child Labour
14. Necessity of child labour act (Why child labour act needed?)
a) One in every six children aged 5 to 17 worldwide is exploited by child labour.
b) There are approximately 9 million children involved in the unconditional worst forms
of child labour.
c) INDIA accounts for the second highest number where child labour in the world
d) All of above
Answer: d)All of above
15. Objective/sof child labour act
a) To prohibit the engagement of children in certain employment’s
b) To regulate the conditions of work of children in certain other employment’s.
c) None of above
d) All of above
Answer: d)All of above
16. Child : means a person who has not completed his ___________ year of age
a) Sixteenth
b) Eighteenth
c) Fourteenth
d) Twenty

Page 3
 Answer: c) Fourteenth
17. No Child shall be employed or permitted to work in ______ under child labour act
a) Transport, catering or construction by railways
b) Automobile workshop/garages
c) Building and construction
d) All of above
Answer: d)All of above
18. Hours and Period of Work under child labour act
a) The period of work shall not be spread over more than six hours
b) No child shall be permitted or required to work between 7 p.m. and 8 a.m.
c) No child shall be required or permitted to work overtime and Every child shall be
allowed in each week a holiday of one whole day
d) All of above
Answer: d)All of above
19. Exception of Work under child labour act
a) To any workshop carried on by the occupier with the aid of his family
b) To any school established by Government or receiving assistance or recognition from
Government
c) To any workshop carried on by the occupier with the aid of his family or To any
school established by Government or receiving assistance or recognition from
Government
d) None of above
Answer: c) To any workshop carried on by the occupier with the aid of his family or
To any school established by Government or receiving assistance or
recognition from Government
20. Any person who employs a child below 14 years of age can be punished with _____
under child labour act
a) Jail between six months and 2 years
b) Jail time between one to three years if a person continues with child labour after
having been punished once
c) Fine between Rs. 20,000 and Rs. 50,000
d) All of above
Answer: d) All of above
21. INTERSTATE MIGRANT WORKERS ACT established in ____________
a) 1979
b) 1989
c) 2009
d) 1999
Answer: a) 1979

Page 4
22. ______________ is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted to regulate the condition of
service of inter-state labourers in Indian labour law
a) Workmen’s Compensation Act 1923
b) The Buildings and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and
Conditions of Service) Act, 1996
c) Inter-state Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Condition of Services)
Act, 1979
d) All of above
Answer: c)Inter-state Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Condition
of Services) Act, 1979
23. ________ purpose is to protect workers whose services are requisitioned outside their
native states in India
a) Workmen’s Compensation Act 1923
b) The Buildings and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and
Conditions of Service) Act, 1996
c) Inter-state Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Condition of Services)
Act, 1979
d) All of above
Answer: c)Inter-state Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Condition
of Services) Act, 1979
24. Applicability of Inter-state Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Condition
of Services) Act, 1979
a) Every establishments in which 5 or more inter-state migrant workmen (whether or not
in addition to other workmen) are employed or who were employed on any day of the
preceding twelve months
b) To every contractor who employed 5 or more interstate migrant worker (whether or
not in addition to other workmen) on any day of the Preceding twelve months
c) None of above
d) All of above
Answer: d)All of above
25. Any person who is recruited by or through a contractor in one state under an agreement
or other arrangement for employment in an establishment in another state whether with or
without the knowledge of the Principle employer (Section-2e) called as __________
a) State Migrant Workman
b) Inter Migrant Workman
c) Inter-State Workman
d) Inter-State Migrant Workman
Answer: d)Inter-State Migrant Workman
26. Allowance given under Inter-state Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and
Condition of Services) Act, 1979

Page 5
 a) Only Displacement allowance
b) Only Journey allowance
c) Displacement allowance and Journey allowance
d) No allowances are given
Answer: c) Displacement allowance and Journey allowance
27. The contractor shall pay in addition to the wages or other amounts payable to a migrant
workman at the time of recruitment, a displacement allowance equal to
_______________________________________ which shall not be refundable and is an
additional benefits payable by the contractor. (Section-14), under Inter-state Migrant
Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Condition of Services) Act, 1979
a) 20% of the monthly wages Payable to him or Rs.75/-whichever is higher
b) 30% of the monthly wages Payable to him or Rs.75/-whichever is higher
c) 50% of the monthly wages Payable to him or Rs.75/-whichever is higher
d) 40% of the monthly wages Payable to him or Rs.75/-whichever is higher
Answer: c) 50% of the monthly wages Payable to him or Rs.75/-whichever is higher
28. The contractor shall pay a journey allowance of a sum ____________ the fare from them
place of residence of the work man to the place of work to the workman for the outward
and return journeys. The Workman is also entitled to payment of wages during the period
of such journeys as if he were on duty. (Section-15), under Inter-state Migrant Workmen
(Regulation of Employment and Condition of Services) Act, 1979
a) not more than
b) not less than
c) less than
d) more than
Answer: b) not less than
29. Authorities appointed under the under Inter-state Migrant Workmen (Regulation of
Employment and Condition of Services) Act, 1979
a) Inspectors
b) Registering Officers and Licensing Officer
c) Appellate Authority
d) All of above
Answer: d) All of above
30. __________ refers to the means of finance employed for meeting the cost of project. By
Prasanna Chandra
a) Project financing
b) Project planning
c) Project execution
d) Project closure
Answer: a) Project financing

Page 6
31. ______________ is the amount of money (funds) that has been invested in a business (or
project) to help achieve its objectives
a) Capital Investment / Capital Budgeting
b) Working Capital
c) Ordinary shared
d) Debenture
Answer: a) Capital Investment / Capital Budgeting
32. In Capital Investment / Capital Budgeting the investment may come from the
_________________
a) owner, shareholders, bondholders only
b) equity investors, banks, venture capital only
c) venture capital, angel investors and lenders only
d) owner, shareholders, bondholders, equity investors, banks, venture capital, angel
investors and lenders
Answer: d)owner, shareholders, bondholders, equity investors, banks, venture
capital, angel investors and lenders
33. Sources of finance can be broadly divided into categories ____________________
a) equity capital
b) debt capital
c) equity capital and debt capital
d) none of above
Answer: c) equity capital and debt capital
34. External sources of finance is / are _________________________
a) Equity capital only
b) Debentures only
c) Leasing only
d) Equity capital, Debentures, leasing
Answer: d)Equity capital, Debentures, leasing
35. Internal source is quick and easy way to solve short-term financial problems for most
firms includes ___________________________
a) Retained Profit
b) Owners fund
c) Sale of assets
d) Retained Profit, Owners fund and Sale of assets
Answer: d)Retained Profit, Owners fund and Sale of assets
36. _______________ is a measure of a company’s liquidity, operational efficiency and its
short-term financial health
a) Capital Investment / Capital Budgeting
b) Working Capital
c) Ordinary shared

Page 7
 d) Debenture
Answer: b) Working Capital
37. Working capital =_____________________
a) Assets + liabilities
b) Assets – liabilities
c) Assets *liabilities
d) Assets /liabilities
Answer: b) Assets – liabilities
38. ___________ is the movement of income into and expenditure out of a business (or other
entity) over time
a) money flow
b) expenditure flow
c) cash flow
d) price flow
Answer: c) cash flow
39. If more money is coming into the business than, cash flow is said to be _____________
a) Negative
b) Positive
c) Divided
d) Multiplied
Answer: b) positive
40. If more money is going out from the business than, cash flow is said to be
_____________
a) Negative
b) Positive
c) Divided
d) Multiplied
Answer: a) Negative
41. The projection of income and expense during the life of project can be developed from
several time-scheduling aids used by contractor which is known as __________________
a) cash flow projection
b) price flow projection
c) money flow projection
d) Amount flow projection
Answer: a) cash flow projection
42. Method/s Non-discontinued cash flow techniques is/are ________
a) Payback period (PB) Method
b) Accounting rate of return (APR) method
c) Net Present Value (NPV) method
d) Payback period (PB) Method and Accounting rate of return (APR) method

Page 8
 Answer: d) Payback period (PB) Method and Accounting rate of return (APR)
method
43. Methods of Discontinued cash flow technique are _____________
a) Payback period (PB) Method and Accounting rate of return (APR) method
b) Net Present Value (NPV) method and Profitability Index (PI) method
c) Internal rate of return (IRR) method and Benefit Cost Ratio (BCR) method
d) Net Present Value (NPV) method, Profitability Index (PI) method, Internal rate of
return (IRR) method and Benefit Cost Ratio (BCR) method
Answer: d) Net Present Value (NPV) method, Profitability Index (PI) method,
Internal rate of return (IRR) method and Benefit Cost Ratio (BCR)
method
44. _____________is a statement of the financial position of a business that lists the assets,
liabilities, and owner’s equity at a particular point in time.
a) Cash flow
b) Balance sheet
c) Account statement
d) Ledger
Answer: b) Balance Sheet
45. ______________ is a summary of the financial balances of an individual or organization,
whether it be a sole proprietorship, a business partnership, a corporation, private limited
company or other organization such as Government or not-for-profit entity
a) Cash flow
b) balance sheet or statement of financial position
c) Ledger
Answer: b) balance sheet or statement of financial position
46. _________: Anything that has value and owned by a company
a) Assets
b) Liabilities
c) Capital or Equity
d) Expenditure
Answer: a) Assets
47. _________: This provides a list of debts a company owes to others
a) Assets
b) Liabilities
c) Capital or Equity
d) Expenditure
Answer: b) Liabilities
48. _________: This is the amount invested by the Shareholders
a) Assets
b) Liabilities

Page 9
 c) Capital or Equity
d) Expenditure
Answer: c) Capital or Equity
49. The ____________ is a financial statement that summarizes the revenues, costs, and
expenses incurred during a specified period, usually a fiscal quarter or year
a) profit and loss (P&L) statement
b) Balance sheet
c) Account statement
d) Ledger
Answer: a) profit and loss (P&L) statement

Page 10
 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
Unit 4: Elements of Risk Management and Value Engineering
1. ___________ is the possibility of loss or injuries
a) Risk
b) Accident
c) Delay
d) Late
Answer: a) Risk
2. _____________ is the art and science of identifying assigning and responding to risk
throughout the life of a project and in the best interest of meeting project objectives
a) Risk management
b) Project Management
c) Value Management
d) Site Management
Answer:a)Risk management
3. Components of risk mitigation
a) Prevention
b) Precautions
c) Mitigation and Coping
d) Prevention, Precautions, Mitigation and Coping
Answer: d) Prevention, Precautions, Mitigation and Coping
4. Risk Management Process in Construction Project
i. Risk Identification
ii. Risk Assessment / Analysis
iii. Risk Response
iv. Risk monitoring and control
a) i-ii-iii-iv
b) iii-iv-i-ii
c) ii-iii-iv-i
d) iv-i-ii-iii
Answer: a) i-ii-iii-iv
5. __________ has evolved as a process of safeguarding the interest of people from loss and
uncertainty
a) Loan
b) Increment
c) Insurance
d) None of above
Answer: c) Insurance

Page 1
6. _________ can be defined as a contract whereby the insurance company seeks to provide
coverage and indemnify the construction contractor or the client against a potential peril,
loss, damage, or liability that arises from the performance of the construction work
a) insurance
b) building insurance
c) Construction insurance
d) Labour insurance
Answer: c) construction insurance
7. Types of construction insurance
a) Contractor's All Risk Policy (CAR) and Professional Indemnity Policy
b) Contractor Plant and Machinery Policy and Public and Product Liability
c) Worker’s Compensation policy and Compulsory third party motor vehicle insurance
policy
d) All of above
Answer: d) All of above
8. ___________________ is the study of how variation or uncertainty in the output of a
mathematical model can be apportioned, qualitatively or quantitatively to different
sources of variation in the input of the model
a) Break even analysis
b) Risk Analysis
c) Sensitivity analysis
d) Decision tree analysis
Answer:c) Sensitivity analysis
9. _____________________________ is based on categorizing production costs between
those which are “Variable” (costs that changes when the production output changes) and
those that are fixed (costs not directly related to the volume of production
a) Break even analysis
b) Simulation Analysis
c) Decision tree analysis
d) Sensitivity analysis
Answer: a)Break even analysis
10. _____________________________ is a method where in the infinite calculations are
made to obtain the possible outcomes and probabilities for any choice of action
a) Break even analysis
b) Simulation Analysis
c) Decision tree analysis
d) Sensitivity analysis
Answer: b) Simulation Analysis
11. ___________ is a mathematical model that calculates the impact of uncertain inputs and
decisions we make on outcomes that we care about such as profit and loss

Page 2
 a) Break even model
b) Simulation model
c) Risk model
d) Sensitivity model
Answer: b) Simulation model
12. ___________ is a chronological representation of the decision process
a) Decision tree
b) Non-Decision tree
c) Free-Decision tree
d) None of above
Answer: a) Decision tree
13. The ___________ of a product or service is recognized according to the appropriateness
level of its performance and cost
a) Price
b) Value
c) Cost
d) Money
Answer:b) Value
14. value can be ___________ by either increasing the performance or decreasing the cost
a) increased
b) decreased
c) constant
d) not defined
Answer:a)increased
15. The full range of value techniques available. This is a higher order title and is not linked
to a particular project stage at which value techniques may be applied
a) Value Management (VM)
b) Value Planning (VP)
c) Value Engineering (VE)
d) Value Analysis (VA)
Answer:a)Value Management (VM)
16. __________________ is a method of highlighting possible opportunities to create value
within a project and subsequently managing those solutions to ensure value is
continuously delivered
e) Value Management (VM)
f) Value Planning (VP)
g) Value Engineering (VE)
h) Value Analysis (VA)
Answer:a)Value Management (VM)
17. Value techniques applied during the planning phases of a project

Page 3
 a) Value Management (VM)
b) Value Planning (VP)
c) Value Engineering (VE)
d) Value Analysis (VA)
Answer:b)Value Planning (VP)
18. Value techniques applied during the design or ‘engineering’ phases of a project.
a) Value Management (VM)
b) Value Planning (VP)
c) Value Engineering (VE)
d) Value Analysis (VA)
Answer:c)Value Engineering (VE)
19. ____________ is a methodology used to analyze the function of the goods and services
and to obtain the required functions of the user at the lowest total cost without reducing
the necessary quality of performance.
a) Value Management (VM)
b) Value Planning (VP)
c) Value Engineering (VE)
d) Value Analysis (VA)
Answer:c)Value Engineering (VE)
20. ___________________ is a method used to eliminate any unnecessary costs, in order to
achieve value for money on a project.
e) Value Management (VM)
f) Value Planning (VP)
g) Value Engineering (VE)
h) Value Analysis (VA)
Answer:c)Value Engineering (VE)
21. Value techniques applied retrospectively to completed projects to analyse or audit the
project’s performance
a) Value Management (VM)
b) Value Planning (VP)
c) Value Engineering (VE)
d) Value Analysis (VA)
Answer:d) Value Analysis (VA)
22. _____________________ is a standardized, multi-skilled team approach which aims at
identifying the lowest cost way and ensuring the highest worth to accomplish the
functions of a product, process or service
a) Value Management (VM)
b) Value Planning (VP)
c) Value Engineering (VE)
d) Value Analysis (VA)

Page 4
 Answer:d) Value Analysis (VA)
23. Value Management (VM) and Value Engineering (VE) are techniques concerned with
defining, maximizing and achieving _____________________
a) 'value for money' (VfM)
b) Value Planning (VP)
c) Value Efficiency (VE)
d) Value Analysis (VA)
Answer:a) 'value for money' (VfM)
24. ________________ includes resources that rely on fuel sources that restore themselves
over short periods of time and do not diminish
a) Renewable energy
b) Non-Renewable energy
c) Renewable energy and Non-Renewable energy
d) None of above
Answer: a)Renewable energy
25. ________________is energy that cannot restore itself over a short period of time and
does diminish
a) Renewable energy
b) Non-Renewable energy
c) Renewable energy and Non- Renewable energy
d) None of above
Answer:b)Non-Renewable energy
26. Renewable energy also called as _________________
a) conventional energy
b) Non-conventional energy
c) energy
d) None of above
Answer:b)Non-conventional energy
27. Non-Renewable energy also called as _________________
a) Conventional energy
b) Non-conventional energy
c) energy
d) None of above
Answer:a)Conventional energy
28. Solar, wind, and hydro are example of ____________
a) Renewable energy (Non-conventional energy)
b) Non-Renewable energy
c) Renewable energy and Non- Renewable energy
d) None of above
Answer: a)Renewable energy (Non-conventional energy)

Page 5
29. Coal, oil, and natural gas are example of ____________
a) Renewable energy (Non-conventional energy)
b) Non-Renewable energy(Conventional energy)
c) Renewable energy and Non- Renewable energy
d) None of above
Answer: a)Non-Renewable energy (Conventional energy)
30. _________________ can be defined as changes in the cost or price of specific goods or
services in a given economy over a period
a) Price escalation
b) Cost escalation
c) Value escalation
d) Money escalation
Answer:b) Cost escalation

Page 6
 Dams and Hydraulic Structure (MCQ Question)

1.Silt excluders are constructed on the

river bed upstream of head regulator river bed downstream of head regulator canal bed
upstream of head regulator canal bed downstream of head regulator

Ans.- river bed upstream of head regulator

2.If there are two canals taking off from each flank of a river, then there will be
one divide wall and one undersluice
one divide wall and two undersluices
two divide walls and one undersluice
two divide walls and two undersluices
ANSWER : : two divide walls and two undersluices
3.Seepage through foundation in an earthen dam is controlled by providing
rock toe
horizontal blanket
impervious cut off
chimney drain
ANSWER : : impervious cut off

4.The maximum permissible eccentricity for no tension at the base of a gravity dam is
B/2
B/3
B/4
B/6
ANSWER : : B/6

5.The main function of a divide wall is to

control the silt entry in the canal prevent river floods from entering the canal separate
the undersluices from weir proper provide smooth flow at sufficiently low velocity

ANSWER : : separate the undersluices from weir proper

6.For wave action in dams, the maximum height of freeboard is generally taken to be equal to
0.5 hw
0.75 hw
1.25 hw
1.50 hw
ANSWER : 1.5 hw is height of wav
7.The most suitable material for the central impervious core of a zoned embankment type dam is
clay
coarse sand
silty clay
clay mixed with fine sand
ANSWER : : clay mixed with fine sand
8.A divide wall is provided
at right angle to the axis of weir
parallel to the axis of weir and up-stream of it
parallel to the axis of weir and down-stream of it
at an inclination to the axis of weir
ANSWER : : at right angle to the axis of weir

9.Which of the following spillways is least suitable for an earthen dam ?

ogee spillway chute spillway side channel spillway shaft spillway

ANSWER : : ogee spillway

10.When the reservoir is full, the maximum compressive force in a gravity dam is produced
at the toe
at the heel
within the middle third of base
at centre of base
ANSWER : : at the toe
12.As compared to crest of the normal portion of the weir, the crest of the under sluice portion of
weir is kept at
lower level
higher level
same level
 any of the above depending on the design
ANSWER : : lower level
13.Generally the weir is aligned at right angles to the direction of the main river current because
it ensures less length of the weir
it gives better discharging capacity
it is economical
all of the above

ANSWER : : all of the above

14.The discharge passing over an ogee spillway is given by

CLH3/2
CHL3/2
CLH5/2
CLH1/2
Where, L is effective length of spillway crest and H is the total head over the spillway crest
including velocity head.

ANSWER : CLH3/2

15.As compared to gravity dams, earthen dams

are costlier
are less susceptible to failure
require sound rock foundations
require less skilled labour
ANSWER : : require less skilled labour
16.For the upstream face of an earthen dam, the most adverse condition for stability of slope is
sudden drawdown
steady seepage
during construction
sloughing of slope
ANSWER : : sudden drawdown
17.Seepage through embankments in an earthen dam is controlled by
drainage filters
relief wells
 drain trenches
provision of downstream berms
ANSWER : : drain trenches
18.Presence of tail water in a gravity dam i) increases the principal stress ii) decreases the principal
stress iii) increases the shear stress iv) decreases the shear stress The correct answer is
(i) and (iii)
(i)and(iv)
(ii) and (iii)
(ii) and (iv)
ANSWER : s: d
19.The flow of water after spilling over the weir crest in chute spillway and side channel spillway
respectively are
at right angle and parallel to weir crest
parallel and at right angle to weir crest
parallel to weir crest in both
at right angle to weir crest in both
ANSWER : : at right angle and parallel to weir crest
20.In a chute spillway, the flow is usually
uniform
subcritical
critical
super critical
ANSWER : : super critical
21.The major resisting force in a gravity dam is
water pressure
wave pressure
self-weight of dam
uplift pressure
ANSWER: : self-weight of dam
22.The ratio of average values of shear stresses produced on the bed and the banks of a channel
due to flowing water is
less than 1
equal to 1
greater than 1
 equal to zero
ANSWER: : greater than 1
23.In case of non-availability of space due to topography, the most suitable spillway is
straight drop spillway
shaft spillway
chute spillway
ogee spillway
ANSWER: : shaft spillway
24.Coefficient of discharge of an ogee spillway
depends on depth of approach and upstream slope
depends on downstream apron interference and downstream submergence
remains constant
both (a) and (b)
ANSWER: : both (a) and (b)
25.According to Khosla's theory, the exit gradient in the absence of a downstream cutoff is
0
unity
infinity
very large
ANSWER : : infinity
26. Canals taken off from ice-fed perennial rivers, are known
(A) Permanent canals
(B) Ridge canals
(C) Perennial canals
(D) Inundation
canals
Answer: Option C

27. In gravity canals, F.S.L. is

(A) Always at the ground level
(B) Always below the ground level
(C) Generally 4 to 5 metres above the ground level
(D) Only a few cm above the ground level
Answer: Option D
28. In a syphon aqueduct
(A) Drainage passes over the canal and F.S.L. of the canal is below the bottom of the
drainage trough
 (B) Drainage passes over the canal and F.S.L. of the canal is above the bottom of the
drainage trough
(C) Canal passes over the drainage and H.F.L. of the drainage is above the bottom of the
canal trough
(D) Canal passes over the drainage and H.F.L. of the drainage is below the bottom of the
canal trough
Answer: Option C
29. To hold hydraulic jumps, baffle walls are provided in
(A) Sarda type falls
(B) English type falls
(C) Montague type falls
(D) Vertical type falls
Answer: Option B
30.Pick up the correct sequence of the part of a canal system from the following
(A) Head work-distributary-branch canal-minor
(B) Head works-main canal-branch canal-distributary-minor
(C) Head works-main canal-branch canal-minor-distributary
(D) Heads works-branch canal-main canal distributary,
minor Answer: Option B
31. The water face of the guide banks, is protected by
(A) One men stone pitching
(B) Two man stone pitching
(C) Three man stone pitching
(D) Four man stone pitching
Answer: Option A
32. For a unique design of a channel by Kennedy's theory
(A) Its breadth must only be known
(B) Its depth must only be known
(C) Its breadth and depth ratio must only be known
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C
33. The structure constructed to allow drainage water to flow under pressure through an inverted
syphon below a canal, is called

(A) Syphon
(B) Super passage
(C) Super-aqueduct
(D) Syphon aqueduct
Answer: Option D

34. The main cause of silting up a channel,

(A) Non-regime section
(B) Inadequate slope
 (C) Defective head regulator
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
35. A river training work is generally required when the river is
(A) Meandering
(B) Aggrading
(C) Degrading
(D) All the above
Answer: Option A
36. When a canal flowing under pressure is carried below a natural drainage such that its F.S.L.
does not touch the underside of the supporting structure, the structure so provided, is called
(A) Syphon
(B) Aqueduct
(C) Super passage
(D) Syphon-aqueduct
Answer: Option C
37.Pick up the correct statement from the following
(A) In a level crossing, a crest with its top at the canal F.S.L. is provided across the drainage
at its up-stream junction with canal
(B) In a level crossing a regulator is provided across the drainage at its down-stream
(C) In a level crossing, a cross regulator is provided on the canal below the crossing
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
38. In a Sarda type fall, the rectangular crest, may be used for discharge upto
(A) 6 cumecs
(B) 10 cumecs
(C) 14 cumecs
(D) 20 cumecs
Answer: Option C
39. The measure to remove water logging of land, is
(A)To reduce percolation from canals and water courses
(B)To increase outflow from the ground water reservoir
(C)Both (a) and (b)
(D)Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: Option C
40. According to Khosla, the exits gradient of surface flow
(A) Depends upon the b/d ratio
(B) Is independent of the b/d ratio
(C) Is independent of the depths of d/s cut off walls
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
41. A hydraulic structure is designed to withstand
 (A) Seepage forces
(B) Hydraulic jump
(C) Hydraulic pressure
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
42. In Montague type fall
(A) A straight glacis is provided
(B) A circular glacis is provided
(C) A parabolic glacis is provided
(D) No glacis is provided
Answer: Option C
43. Cross regulators in main canals are provided
(A) To regulate water supply in the distributaries
(B) To increase water head upstream when a main canal is running with low supplies
(C) To overflow excessive flow water
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
44. According to Lacey, depth of scour in a river depends upon the straightness of the reach. If D is
the depth of scour in regime flow in a right angled bend, it is
(A) 1.25 D
(B) 1.50 D
(C) 1.75 D
(D) 2.00 D
Answer: Option D

45. According to Lacey, in regime conditions

(A) Silt is kept in suspension by vertical components of eddies
(B) Entire cross-section of the channel is generated at all points by the forces normal to
the wetted perimeter
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Neither (a) nor (b
Answer: Option C

46. The most suitable section of a lined canal, is

(A) Triangular section with circular bottom for small canals
(B) Trapezoidal section with rounded corners for large canals
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
47. The level of the floor of a syphon aqueduct can be obtained
(A) By subtracting the depth of the culvert from the canal bed level
(B) By subtracting the thickness of culvert plus the depth of the culvert from the canal bed
level
 (C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
48. For the design of major hydraulic structures on the canals, the method generally preferred to, is
based on
(A) Bligh's theory
(B) Electrical analogy method
(C) The relaxation method
(D) Khosla's method of independent variables
Answer: Option D
49. Irrigation canals are generally aligned along
(A) Ridge line
(B) Contour line
(C) Valley line
(D) Straight line
Answer: Option A
50. In a canal syphon, the flow is
(A) Under atmospheric pressure
(B) Pipe flow
(C) With critical velocity
(D) Under negative pressure
Answer: Option B
51. The main function of a diversion head works of a canal from a river, is
(A) To remove silt
(B) To control floods
(C) To store water
(D) To raise water level
Answer: Option D

52. If V0 is the critical velocity of a channel, its silt transporting power, according to Kennedy, is
proportional to
(A) V0 1/2
(B) V0 3/2
(C) V0 5/2
(D) V0 7/2
Answer: Option C
 53. Regime conditions in a channel may occur if
(A) Discharge is constant
(B) Channel flows uniformly in incoherent alluvium as that transported in suspension
(C) Silt grade and silt charge are constant
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
54. Lacey's equation for calculating flood discharge in rivers, is
(A) V = 10.8 R1/2 S1/2
(B) V = 10.8 R2/3 S1/2
(C) V = 10.8 R2/3 S1/3
(D) V = 10.8 R1/3 S2/3
Answer: Option C
55. Side slopes generally kept for canals in loam soil, are:
(A) 1 : 1 in cutting and 1½ : 1 in filling
(B) 1½ : 1 in cutting and 2 : 1 in filling
(C) Neither (a) nor (b)
(D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D
56. For the stability of a structure against seepage pressure according to Khosla's creep theory,
the critical gradient is
(A) Zero
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.50
(D) 1.00
Answer: Option D
57. If H and d are the water depth and drop in the bed level at a Sarda fall, the width B of the
trapezoidal crest, is given by

(A) B = 0.22 (H + d)

(B) B = 0.33 (H + d)

(C) B = 0.44 (H + d)

(D) B = 0.55 (H + d)

Answer: Option D
58. The scour depth D of a river during flood, may be calculated from the Lacey's equation

(A) D = 0.47 (Q/f)

(B) D = 0.47 (Q/f)1/2
(C) D = 0.47 (Q/f)1/3
(D) D = 0.47 (Q/f)2/3

Answer: Option C
59. The difference in level between the top of a bank and supply level in a canal, is called
(A) Berm
(B) Free board
(C) Height of bank
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

60. V and R are the regime mean velocity and hydraulic mean depth respectively in metres. Lacey's
silt factor f is

(A) 2V² /3 R
(B) 3V²/4R
(C) 5V²/2R
(D) 2V²/5R
Answer: Option C
61. The Lacey's regime velocity is proportional to

(A) R1/2 S3/4

(B) Q3/4 S1/3
(C) R3/4 S1/3
(D) R2/3 S1/2
Answer: Option C
62. Garnett's diagrams are used for graphical solution of design equations of a canal by

(A) Lacey's theory

(B) Kennedy's theory
(C) Gibb's theory
(D) Lindlay theory
Answer: Option B
63. According to Kennedy, the critical velocity (V0) in metres in a channel is the mean velocity which
keeps the channel free from silting or scouring. Its value is given by (where m is critical velocity ratio
and D is the depth of the channel).

(A) V0 = 0.84 mD0.64

(B) V0 = 0.55 mD0.64
(C) V0 = 0.84 mD0.54
(D) V0 = 0.55 mD0.54

Answer: Option B
64. For diversion of flood water of rivers, the type of canal constructed, is

(A) Ridge canal

(B) Perennial canal
(C) Inundation canal
(D) Canal
Answer: Option C
65. Lacy's regime condition is obtained if
(A)Silt grade in the channel is variable
(B)Discharge in the channel is variable
(C)Silt charge in the channel is variable
(D)Channel flows in unlimited, incoherent alluvium of the same character as that transported
material
Answer: Option D
66. When a canal is carried over a natural drainage, the structure provided, is known as

(A) Syphon
(B) Aqueduct
(C) Super passage
Syphon-aqueduct
Answer: Option B

67. If average particle size of the silt in millimetres is m, the Lacey's silt factor f is proportional to

(A) m3
(B) m1/2
(C) m1/3
(D) m2/3
Answer: Option B
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

Unit-1
Introduction to Dams and its
types

1. The lake of water which is formed upstream is often called______________

a) Reservoir
b) Dam reservoir
c) River reservoir
d) Storage reservoir
e) All of above

Explanation: The lake of water which is formed upstream is often called Reservoir or Dam reservoir or
River reservoir or Storage reservoir.

2. The type of reservoir which is simple storage tank constructed within a city water supply system
known as_______________
a) Storage reservoir
b) Distribution reservoir
c) Conservation reservoir
d) Flood control reservoir

Explanation: The type of reservoir which is simple storage tank constructed within a city water supply
system known as Distribution reservoir.

3. A ____________________reservoirs can retain such excess supplies in addition to that require to

satisfy consumers demands during the period of peak flows and can release them gradually during
low flows as and when the need arises.
a) Storage reservoir
b) Conservation reservoir
c) Detention basin
d) All of above

Explanation: A Storage or conservation reservoirs can retain such excess supplies in addition to that
require to satisfy consumers demands during the period of peak flows and can release them gradually
during low flows as and when the need arises.

4. The lowest water surface elevation, which has to be kept under normal operating conditions in a
reservoir, is called________________
a) Normal pool level
b) Minimum pool level
c) Dead storage
d) None of above

Explanation: The lowest water surface elevation, which has to be kept under normal operating conditions
in a reservoir, is called Minimum pool level

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 1
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

5. The water collected in reservoir can be supplied for irrigating farm lands through a system
of________
a) Dam reservoir
b) Canal Structure
c) Spillway
d) Head works

Explanation: The water collected in reservoir can be supplied for irrigating farm lands through a system
of Canal Structure.

6. The first modern dam of the world was constructed on Nile river in Egypt, it was completed in the
year_____________
a) 1902
b) 1802
c) 1920
d) 1820

Explanation: The first modern dam of the world was constructed on Nile river in Egypt, it was
completed in the year 1902.

7. ________________are built in areas where the foundation is not strong enough to bear the weight of
concrete dam.
a) Gravity dam
b) Earthen dam
c) Rockfill dam
d) Masonry dam

Explanation: Earthen dam are built in areas where the foundation is not strong enough to bear the weight
of concrete dam.

8. Sometimes, a slab of reinforced concrete is often laid across the upstream face of a ______________
to make it water tight.
a) Gravity dam
b) Earthen dam
c) Rockfill dam
d) Masonry dam

Explanation: Sometimes, a slab of reinforced concrete is often laid across the upstream face of a Rockfill
dam to make it water tight.

9. ____________dams are designed to pass the surplus water over their crest i.e. spillway.
a) Rigid dams
b) Non-rigid dams
c) Overflow dams
d) Non-overflow dams

Explanation: Overflow dams are designed to pass their surplus water over their crest i.e. spillway.

10. _________________contains less concrete or masonry about 35 to 40% for their construction.
a) Earthen dams

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 2
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

b) Rockfill dam
c) Solid masonry gravity dam
d) Hollow masonry gravity dam

Explanation: Hollow masonry gravity dam contains less concrete or masonry about 35 to 40% for their
construction.

11. ________________are very valuable in agricultural areas, where a cattle raiser may need a pool for
his live stock to drink from, and for meeting other such low level needs.
a) Timber dams
b) Steel dams
c) Hollow masonry gravity dam
d) Arch dam

Explanation: Timber dams are very valuable in agricultural areas, where a cattle raiser may need a pool
for his live stock to drink from, and for meeting other such low level needs.

12. Idduki dam in Kerala State is constructed across the ____________river.

a) Perennial river
b) Nile river
c) Periyar river
d) Not of above

Explanation: Idduki dam in Kerala State is constructed across the Periyar River.

13. A low, rolling plain country, would naturally suggest an_____________with a separate spillway.
a) Earthfill dam
b) Rockfill dam
c) Arch dam
d) Gravity dam

Explanation: A low, rolling plain country, would naturally suggest an Earthfill dam with a separate
spillway.

14. Gravel foundations are suitable for the construction of___________________

a) Earthfill dam
b) Rockfill dam
c) Low gravity dam upto height of 15m.
d) All of above

Explanation: Gravel foundations are suitable for the construction of Earthfill dam, Rockfill dam and
Low gravity dam upto height of 15m.

15. If sand, cement and stone etc. are available for the construction of gravity dam but has to be
transported from far off distances, then a___________________is a better choice.
a) Earthfill dam
b) Rockfill dam
c) Arch dam
d) Buttress dam

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 3
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

Explanation: If sand, cement and stone etc. are available for the construction of gravity dam but has to be
transported from far off distances, then a Buttress dam (Hollow concrete dam) is a better choice.

16. A narrow U-shaped valley, i.e. a narrow stream flowing between high rocky walls, would suggest
a__________________
a) Earthen dam
b) Concrete overflow dam
c) Rockfill dam
d) Solid masonary gravity dam

Explanation: A narrow U-shaped valley, i.e. a narrow stream flowing between high rocky walls, would
suggest a Concrete overflow dam

17. The criteria to classify a dam as a large dam is __________

a) Length of the crest of the dam lesser than 500 m
b) Capacity of the reservoir less than 1 million cubic meters
c) Maximum flood discharge less than 2000 cubic meters/second
d) Capacity of the reservoir not less than 1 million cubic meters

Explanation: Following conditions are necessary to classify a dam as large dams: length of the crest of
the dam not lesser than 500 m; capacity of the reservoir not less than 1 million cubic meters; maximum
flood discharge not less than 2000 cubic meters/second.

18. Type of dam where the forces acting on the dam are transmitted onto the abutment rocks is
________
a) Gravity dam
b) Arch dam
c) Geotechnical dam
d) Embankment dam

Explanation: An arch dam, as the name implies, is an arch-shaped solid structure mostly of concrete,
which is designed in such a way that a major part of the thrust forces acting on the dam are transmitted
mainly by the arc action, on to the abutment rocks.

19. Pick the wrong statement about arch dams.

a) Arch dams are heavier compared to other types
b) Arch dams offer many advantages over other dams
c) Arch dams are quite thin walled compared to gravity dams
d) Arch dams are lighter in weight compared to other types

Explanation: In ideal situation, arch dams offer many advantages over other types of dams. Arch dams are
quite thin walled compared to gravity dams and hence lighter in weight.

20. The Hirakud dam in India is which type of dam?

a) Gravity dams
b) Arch dams
c) Cupola dams
d) Embankment dams

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 4
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

Explanation: The Hirakud dam in Orissa is one of the longest embankment dams of our country.

21. The level up to which the reservoir shall be full of water is called __________
a) High level
b) Maximum level
c) Pool level
d) Surface level

Explanation: Pool level, indicated the designed level up to which the reservoir shall be ‘full of water’ at a
particular point of time. There is, thus, the maximum pool level, the minimum pool level and the normal
pool level.

22. Volume of water in cubic meters available between minimum pool level and normal pool level is
_____________
a) Useful storage
b) Dead storage
c) Surcharge storage
d) Specific storage

Explanation: Useful storage is defined as, volume of water in cubic meters available between minimum
pool level and normal pool level.

23. Portion of dam in contact with ground at downstream side is __________

a) Crest
b) Toe
c) Foot
d) Heel

Explanation: Toe is the position of a dam in contact with the ground at the upstream side. Crest is top of
dam. There is no part called a foot.

24. Based on function of dam, it can be classified into: –

a) 5
b) 8
c) 10
d) 6

Explanation: The five types are storage, diversion, detention, debris and coffer dams.

25. The cross section below shows a

a) Earth
b) Buttress

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 5
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

c) Gravity
d) Arch

Explanation: The figure shows a gravity dam. It is a massive sized dam built using concrete or stone
masonry. They can hold back large volume of water.

26. Which of the below is an example for earth dam?

a) Bhakra Nangal Dam
b) Banasura Sagar Dam
c) Idukki Dam
d) Bisalpur Dam

Explanation: Bhakra Nangal Dam is an example of gravity dam. Idukki dam is an arch dam. Bisalpur
Dam is also a type of gravity dam.

27. ___________ is the arrangement made near top of dam for passage of excess water from the
reservoir.
a) Sluice way
b) Spillway
c) Gallery
d) Abutments

Explanation: Spillway is kind of a passage to allow water from upstream side to downstream side of a
dam. They have floodgates to control the flow.

28. Natural dam is not created usually by:

a) Glacial activity
b) Volcanic activity
c) River meandering
d) Moraine deposit

Explanation: River meandering refers to the formation of a member by a river by altering its straight
course and following a sinuous winding path. It can’t form a dam naturally. Volcanic dams form when
lava flows and intercepts a river or lake, resulting in a natural impoundment. Glacial activity and moraine
deposits can also form dams.

29. Arch-gravity dams are thinner dams and save resources.

a) True
b) False

Explanation: It is a combination of arch and gravity dam. It is inward compression by water reduces
lateral force acting on dam. Gravitational force required is less. Hence, it saves resources and doesn’t
need to be massive.

30. Buttress dams are of __________ types.

a) 6
b) 4
c) 8
d) 3

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 6
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

Explanation: The three types of buttress dam are deck type, multiple-arch type and massive-head type.
Deck type consists of a sloping deck supported by buttresses. In massive-arch type, deck is replaced by
horizontal arches. There is no deck slab in massive-head type.

31. _________ is a temporary dam constructed to exclude water from a specific area.
a) Debris dam
b) Diversion dam
c) Coffer dam
d) Storage dam

Explanation: Coffer dam is constructed on the upstream side of the site where a dam is to be constructed,
so that site is dry.

32. Based on material of construction, ___________ types are there.

a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

Explanation: There are two types – rigid and non-rigid. Rigid material includes steel, concrete, masonry,
stone, etc. and non-rigid materials are earth (earth dam), tailings (waste from mine), rock fill (rock).

33. Earth dams are _________ in shape.

a) Triangular
b) Rectangular
c) Trapezoidal
d) Circular

Explanation: Earth dams are generally built using gravel, sand and clay. They are trapezoidal in shape so
as to hold the non-rigid materials properly.

34. _____________uses huge cylindrical shells made of special synthetic rubber and inflated by either
compressed air or pressurized water.
a) Steel dam
b) Rubber dam
c) Timber dam
d) Gravity dam

Explanation: A symbol of sophistication and simple and efficient design, this most recent type of dam
uses huge cylindrical shells made of special synthetic rubber and inflated by either compressed air or
pressurized water.

35. The valley slopes on either side of the dam wall to which the left & right end of dam are fixed
to_______________.
a) Wires and cables
b) Piers
c) Abutments
d) Foundation

Explanation: The valley slopes on either side of the dam wall to which the left & right end of dam are
fixed to abutments.

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 7
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

36. Opening in the structure near the base, provided to clear the silt accumulation in the reservoir
known as ______________
a) Spillway
b) Sluice way
c) Overflow portion
d) Gallery

Explanation: Sluice ways are the Openings in the structure near the base, provided to clear the silt
accumulation in the reservoir.

37. A ______________ retards the flow in the river on its downstream during floods by storing some
flood water.
a) Diversion dam
b) Storage dam
c) Detention dam
d) Debris dam

Explanation: A detention dam retards the flow in the river on its downstream during floods by storing
some flood water.

38. _____________are sometimes called hollow dams because the buttresses do not form a solid wall
stretching across a river valley.
a) Arch dam
b) Earthen dam
c) Buttress dam
d) Concrete dam

Explanation: Buttress dams are sometimes called hollow dams because the buttresses do not form a solid
wall stretching across a river valley.

39. ___________are of three types: (i) Deck type, (ii) Multiple-arch type, and (iii) Massive-head type.
a) Arch dam
b) Earthen dam
c) Rockfilled dam
d) Buttress dam

Explanation: Buttress dams are of three types: (i) Deck type, (ii) Multiple-arch type, and (iii) Massive-
head type.

40. ______________________combined with vigilant visual observation, can provide early warning of
many conditions that could contribute to dam failures and incidents.
a) Instrumentation and monitoring
b) Instrumentation and practicals
c) Instruments and observation
d) Instruments and practicals

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 8
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

Explanations: Instrumentation and monitoring, combined with vigilant visual observation, can provide
early warning of many conditions that could contribute to dam failures and incidents.

41. _____________is commonly measured with bubblers, observation wells, and several types of
piezometers.
a) Water pressure
b) Penetration
c) Precipitation
d) Settlement.
Explanation: Water pressure is commonly measured with bubblers, observation wells, and several types
of piezometers.

42. __________________are the simplest method for measuring reservoir and tailwater levels.
a) Peizometers
b) Bubblers
c) Staff gauges
d) Observation well

Explanation: Staff gages are the simplest method for measuring reservoir and tailwater levels.

43. __________________can be used to measure minimum instream flow in rivers, when the
relationship between river flow and river stage is known.
a) Staff gauges
b) Water level gauges
c) Observation wells
d) Peizometers

Explanation: Water level gages can be used to measure minimum instream flow in rivers, when the
relationship between river flow and river stage is known. Water level gages also used for flow
measurements in channels with moveable beds should be periodically re-calibrated.

44. ________________ consist of a porous filter connected to two tubes which have a flexible diaphragm
between.
a) Vibrating wire piezometers
b) Pneumatic piezometers
c) Twin tube hydraulic piezometers
d) Closed stand pipe piezometers

Explanation: Pneumatic piezometers consist of a porous filter connected to two tubes which have a
flexible diaphragm between.

45. __________________is used to measure Pressure by electronically vibrating the wire, measuring the
frequency of vibration, and relating frequency to water pressure using calibration data.
a) Vibrating Wire Piezometers
b) Twin-tube Hydraulic Piezometers
c) Closed Standpipe Piezometers
d) Pnuematic Piezometers

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 9
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

Explanation: Pressure is measured by electronically vibrating the wire, measuring the frequency of
vibration, and relating frequency to water pressure using calibration data. Modern readouts perform the
calibration automatically.

46. In concrete dams they are also known as pore pressure cells.
a) Vibrating Wire Piezometers
b) Twin-tube Hydraulic Piezometers
c) Closed Standpipe Piezometers
d) Pnuematic Piezometers

Explanation: Closed standpipe piezometers are identical to open standpipe piezometers, except that the
water level being measured is above the top of the standpipe (artesian condition) and the pressure is
measured with a pressure gage (or pneumatic, or vibrating wire piezometer) fitted to the top of the pipe.
In concrete dams they are also known as pore pressure cells.

47. _____________is defined as interstitial movement of water through a dam, the foundation, or the
abutments and, it is differentiated from___________ which is flow of water through holes or cracks.
a) Faults and cracks
b) Seepage and leakage
c) Seepage and pressure
d) Leakage and pressure

Explanation: Seepage is defined as interstitial movement of water through a dam, the foundation, or the
abutments. It is differentiated from leakage, which is flow of water through holes or cracks.

48. Parshall flumes are specially shaped open channel sections. They consist of a converging upstream
section, a downward sloping throat, and an upward sloping and diverging downstream section.
a) Observation wells
b) Parshall flumes
c) Vibrating wire Peizometers
d) Pnuematic piezometers

Explanation: Parshall flumes are specially shaped open channel sections. They consist of a converging
upstream section, a downward sloping throat, and an upward sloping and diverging downstream section.

49. ____________usually varies from headwater level on the upstream side of a dam to tailwater level,
ground water level, or atmospheric pressure on the downstream side of a dam.
a) Water pressure
b) Uplift pressure
c) Earthquake pressure
d) Self weight of dam

Explanation: Water pressure usually varies from headwater level on the upstream side of a dam to
tailwater level, ground water level, or atmospheric pressure on the downstream side of a dam.

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 10
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

50. Which movements of concrete structures are commonly measured with plumblines, tiltmeters,
inclinometers, and extensometers?
a) Internal movement
b) Internal horizontal movement
c) Internal vertical movement
d) All of above

Explanation: Internal movements including internal horizontal movements and internal vertical
movements of concrete structures are commonly measured with plumblines, tiltmeters, inclinometers, and
extensometers.

Unit-2
Gravity Dams, Arch dams and other dams
1. What is very critical about gravity dams?
a) Strength of the concrete used
b) Strength of the masonry used
c) Strength of the rock foundation
d)The type of water stored in the reservoir

Explanation: All the forces arising in a gravity dam as due to the thrust of the impounded water and the
massive weight of the dam material- are assumed to be directly transmitted to the foundation rocks. Hence
the strength of the foundation rocks is the most critical factor.

2. The vertical component of the earthquake wave which produces adverse effects on the stability of a
dam when is acting in ____________________
a) upward direction
b) downward direction
c) both upward and downward direction
d) any direction

Explanation: When the vertical acceleration is acting downward the foundation try to move downward
away from the dam body. This reduces the effective weight and the stability of the dam. It is the worst
case for design.

3. The horizontal component of an earthquake wave producing instability in a dam is the one which
acts __________________
a) towards the reservoir
b) towards the dam
c) away from the reservoir
d) away from the dam

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 11
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

Explanation: Hydrodynamic pressure and horizontal inertia force are caused by the horizontal
acceleration of an earthquake wave acting towards the reservoir. As the foundation and dam accelerate
towards the reservoir there is an increase in the water pressure which is resisted by water, the extra
pressure is hydrodynamic pressure.

4. The vertical downward earthquake acceleration av = 0.1g acting on a gravity dam will
________________________
a) increase the resisting weight of the dam by 10%
b) decrease the resisting weight of the dam by 10%
c) increase the uplift by 10%
d) decrease the uplift by 10%

Explanation: The net effective weight of the dam is given as W [1 – Kv] and vertical acceleration av =
Kv.g = 0.1.g i.e 10%
where W is the total weight of the dam and Kv is the fraction of gravity adopted for vertical acceleration.
This is considered as the worst case for design as the foundation tries to move downward away from the
dam body when there is downward vertical acceleration. This reduces the effective weight and the
stability of the dam.

5. A gravity dam is subjected to hydrodynamic pressure caused by __________

a) the rising waves of the reservoir when a flood wave enters into it
b) the rising waves in the reservoir due to high winds
c) the increase in water pressure momentarily caused by the horizontal earthquake acting towards
the reservoir
d) the increase in water pressure momentarily caused by the horizontal earthquake acting towards the dam

Explanation: Hydrodynamic pressure is the extra pressure exerted when the horizontal acceleration of an
earthquake wave is acting towards the reservoir. As the foundation and dam accelerate towards the reservoir
there is an increase in the water pressure which is nothing but hydrostatic pressure acting at a height of
3H/4π above the base. Mathematically, this value is given by Von-Karman equation.

6. In a concrete gravity dam with a vertical upstream face the stabilising force is provided by the
___________________
a) weight of the dam
b) the water supported against the upstream slope
c) uplift pressure
d) water pressure at the tail end

Explanation: The major resisting force is the weight of the dam body and its foundation. A unit length of
the dam is considered in the 2D analysis of a gravity dam. The resultant of all the downward forces will
represent the total weight of the dam acting on it.

7. What is the value of horizontal destabilizing force caused by the formation of waves in a storage
reservoir having a fetch of 52 km due to high wind of 172 km/h?
a) 30 KN
b) 60 KN
c) 130 KN
d) 180 KN

Explanation: When F > 32 km, the wave height is given by hw = 0.032 (V.F)1/2
hw = 0.032 (172 x 52)1/2 = 3.02 m

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 12
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

The force caused by waves is given by the equation – Pw = 19.62 hw2 KN/m run of the dam
Pw = 19.62 x 3.022 = 179.69 KN.

8. Calculate the value of free-board that should be provided for a reservoir having a wind velocity of
92 km/h and it extends up to 18 km upstream.
a) 1.2 m
b) 1.6 m
c) 2.25 m
d) 2.5 m

Explanation: When F < 32 km, the wave height is given by – Hw = 0.032(V.F)1/2 + 0.763 – 0.271 F1/4
Hw =0.032 (92x18)1/2 + 0.763 – 0.271 (18)1/4 = 1.5 m
Free board is generally provided equal to 1.5 Hw = 1.5 x 1.5 = 2.25 m.

9. The upward acceleration of dam due to seismic activity will_____________

a) increase the base pressure
b) decrease the base pressure
c) not affect the effective weight of the dam
d) increase the horizontal dynamic force

Explanation: Vertical acceleration can be resolved in two parts i.e. upward vertical accelerations and
downward vertical accelerations. The effective weight of the dam increases when there is an upward
vertical acceleration as it brings the foundation closer to the dam. In downward acceleration, the effective
weight reduces and is considered as the worst design case.

10. What is the average value of acceleration that is sufficient for high dams in seismic zones?
a) 0.1g to 0.15g
b) 0.05g to 0.1g
c) 0.3gs
d) 0.15g (where g is the acceleration due to gravity)

Explanation: An average value of acceleration equal to 0.1 to 0.15 g is sufficient for high dams in seismic
zones and for areas not subjected to extreme earthquake a h = 0.1 g and av = 0.05 g may be used. These
forces are neglected in areas of no earthquake or very less earthquake.

11. What is Von Karman’s formula for hydrodynamic force (P e)?

a) Pe = 0.726 pe H
b) Pe = 0.424 pe H
c) Pe = 0.555 pe H
d) Pe = 0.555.Kh. Yw H2

Explanation: According to Von-Karman, the hydrodynamic force is given by –

Pe = 0.555. Kh. ϒw H2 where, ϒw is the unit weight of water, H is the depth of water and Kh is a fraction of
gravity adapted for horizontal acceleration which acts at the height of 4H/3π above the base. In addition to
this, an inertia force is also produced by the horizontal acceleration into the body of the dam.

12. The factor of safety against overturning generally varies between ___________
a) 2 to 3
b) 1.5 to 2
c) 0.5 to 1.5
d) 1 to 2

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 13
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

Explanation: Factor of safety against overturning can be determined by the ratio of righting moments
about the toe to the overturning moments about the toe. The value generally varies between 2 to 3.

13. What is the maximum permissible tensile stress for high concrete gravity dam under worst
conditions?
a) 500 KN/m2
b) 500 kg/cm2
c) 5 kg/m2
d) 50 KN/m2

Explanation: The masonry and concrete gravity dams are usually designed in such a way that no tension
is developed anywhere in the structure. The maximum permissible tensile stress for high gravity dams is
taken as 500 KN/m2 under worst conditions. If subjected to such tensile stresses crack develops near the
heel.

14. Which failure occurs when the net horizontal force above any plane in the dam or at the base of the
dam exceeds the frictional resistance developed at that level?
a) Overturning
b) Crushing
c) Sliding
d) BY development of tension

Explanation: Sliding should always be fully resisted. At any horizontal section of the dam, the factor of
safety against sliding is –
FOS = u Ph / Pv where u = coefficient of friction, Ph = Sum of horizontal forces causing sliding and Pv =
Algebraic sum of vertical forces.

15. Which failure occurs when the minimum stress exceeds the allowable compressive stress of the
dam material?
a) Overturning
b) Crushing
c) Sliding
d) By development of tension

Explanation: The compressive stress produced if exceeds the allowable stresses then the dam material
may get crushed, a dam may fail by the failure of its own material. The allowable compressive stress of
concrete is generally taken as 3000 KN/m2.

16. Tension cracks in the dam may sometimes lead to the failure of the structure by?
a) Sliding of the dam at the cracked section
b) Overturning about the toe
c) Crushing of concrete starting from the toe
d) Both overturning and crushing

Explanation: When tension prevails, cracks develop near the heel and uplift pressure increases, reducing
the net salinizing force. This crack by itself does not fail the structure but it leads to failure of the
structure by producing excessive compressive stresses.

17. The major principal stress at the toe of a gravity dam under full reservoir condition neglecting the
tail water effect is given by __________________

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 14
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

a) Pv
b) Pv tanQ2
c) Pv secQ2
d) Pv sinQ2

Explanation: When there is no tail water, the principal stress in such a case is Pv secQ2 where Pv is the
intensity of vertical pressure. This value of principal stress should not be allowed to exceed the maximum
allowable compressive stress of dam material.

18. Which of the following criteria has to be satisfied for no tension at any point on a gravity dam?
a) The resultant of all the forces must always pass through the mid-point of the base of the dam
b) The resultant force for all conditions of loading must pass through the middle third of the base
c) The resultant of all the forces must pass through the upstream extremity of the middle third of the base
d) The resultant of all the forces must pass through the downstream extremity of the middle third of the
base

Explanation: The minimum vertical stress Pmin is equal to zero in order to ensure that no tension is
developed anywhere. If Pmin = 0, e = B/6 i.e. the maximum value of eccentricity that can be permitted on
either side of the center is equal to B/6. This concludes the fact that the resultant of all forces must lie
within the middle third of the joint width.

19. The bottom portion of a concrete or a masonry gravity dam is usually stepped in order to _______
a) increase the overturning resistance of the dam
b) increase the shear strength
c) decrease the shear strength
d) increase the frictional resistance

Explanation: The foundation is stepped at the base to increase the shear strength at the base and at other
joints and measures is taken to ensure a better bond between the dam and the rock foundation. By
ensuring a better bond between the surfaces the shear strength of these joints should be made as good as
possible.

20. The governing compressive stress in a concrete gravity dam which should not be allowed to exceed
the permissible value of about 3000 KN/m2 while analyzing full reservoir case is
____________________
a) the vertical maximum stress at the toe
b) the major principal stress at toe
c) the shear stress at the toe
d) the principal stress at the heel

Explanation: In reservoir full case, the resultant is nearer to the toe and hence, maximum compressive
stress is produced at the toe. The vertical direct stress distribution at the base is the sum of the direct stress
and the bending stress and is given by the equation –
Pmax = V/B [1 + 6e/B] where V is the total vertical force, e is the eccentricity of the resultant force from
the center of the base and B is the base width.

21. If the uplift increases and the net effective downward force reduces, the resultant will shift towards
the toe.
a) True
b) False

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 15
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

Explanation: The resultant shifts towards the toe if the uplift increases and the net effective downward
force reduces. This further increases the compressive stress at the toe and further lengthening the crack
due to the development of tension. It finally leads to the failure of the toe by direct compression.

22. When the reservoir is empty, the single force acting on it is the self-weight of the dam which acts at
a distance of ____________
a) B/2 from the heel
b) B/6 from the heel
c) B/3 from the heel
d) B/4 from the heel

Explanation: The only single force on the dam when the reservoir is empty is the self-weight of the dam
acting at a distance of B/3 from the heel. It provides maximum possible stabilizing moment about the toe
without causing tension.

23. When the reservoir is empty, the maximum vertical stress equal to __________
a) At heel = 2W/B and at toe = 0
b) At heel = 0 and at toe = 2W/B
c) At heel = toe = zero
d) At heel = toe = 2W/B

Explanation: The vertical stress distribution at the base when the reservoir is empty is given as –
Pmax/min = V/B [1 + 6e/B] and V/B [1 – 6e/B] where e = B/6 and V = total vertical force = weight W
Pmax = 2W/B and Pmin = 0.
The maximum vertical stress at the heel is equal to 2W/B and at the toe is zero.

24. The two-dimensional stability analysis of gravity dams proves better for U-shaped valleys than for
V-shaped valleys.
a) True
b) False

Explanation: The transverse joints in the dam body are generally not grouted in U-shaped valleys but are
keyed together in V-shaped valleys. In V-shaped valleys, the entire length of the dam acts monolithically
as a single body. The assumption that the dam is considered to made up of a number of cantilevers of unit
width each may involve errors here.

25. Calculate the value of minimum base width for an elementary triangular concrete gravity dam
supporting 72 m height of reservoir water and full uplift? (Take specific gravity of concrete as 2.4
and coefficient of friction as 0.7)
a) 36.28 m
b) 39.77 m
c) 51.5 m
d) 73.5 m

Explanation: Using formula –

Case 1: B = H / (Sc – c)1/2 (For full uplift c = 1 and specific gravity of concrete = 2.4 )
= 72/ (2.4 – 1)1/2 = 60.85 m
Case 2: B = H/μ (S – 1) where μ = coefficient of friction taken as 0.7

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 16
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

B = 72 / 0.7 x 1.4 = 73.46 m

The highest among the two base width value is to be selected i.e. B = 73.46 m.

26. For usual values of permissible compressive stress and specific gravity of concrete, a high concrete
gravity is the one whose height exceeds__________
a) 48 m
b) 70 m
c) 88 m
d) 98 m

Explanation: The limiting height is – Hmax = f / (Sc + 1) ϒw Permissible strength of concrete = 3000
KN/m2, Sc = specific gravity of concrete = 2.4
Hmax = 3000/[(2.4 + 1) x 9.81] = 89.9 m.

27. For triangular dam section of height H for just no tension under the action of water pressure, self-
weight and uplift pressure, the minimum base width required is _____________
a) H / (S-1)
b) H / S1/2
c) H / (S – 1)-1
d) H / (S-1)1/2

Explanation: The minimum base width (B) of a gravity dam having an elementary profile –
B = H / (S – 1)-1 where S is specific gravity of concrete and H is the height of water.
If uplift is not considered – B = H/S1/2.

28. If the eccentricity of the resultant falls outside the middle third, the ultimate failure of the dam
occurs by ______________
a) tension
b) crushing
c) sliding
d) overturning

Explanation: When eccentricity is greater than B/6 (eccentricity falls outside the middle third), tension
may develop. When tension prevails, cracks develop near the heel and uplift pressure distribution
increases reducing the net salinizing force.

29. What is the value of eccentricity for no tension condition in the dam?
a) e < B/6
b) e > B/6
c) e > B/3
d) e < B/3

Explanation: The resultant of all the forces i.e hydrostatic water pressure, uplift pressure and self-weight
of the dam should always lie within the middle third of the base for no tension. When e < B/6, the value
of stress intensity at toe and heel are positive i.e compression on both sides.

30. What is the formula for limiting height of a gravity dam?

a) Hmax = f / (Sc + 1) γw
b) Hmax = f / (Sc – 1) γw
c) Hmax = f / (Sc + C) γw
d) Hmax = f / (Sc – 1) γw

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 17
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

Explanation: The critical height or limiting height of a dam having elementary profile is –
Hmax = f / (Sc + 1) γw where f = allowable stress of the dam material, Sc = Specific gravity of concrete and
γw = unit weight of water.
This limiting height draws a dividing line between a low gravity dam and a high gravity dam.

31. Calculate the top width of the dam if the height of water stored is 84m.
a) 5 m
b) 2.5 m
c) 5.55 m
d) 7.75 m

Explanation: Bligh has given an empirical formula for finding out the thickness of the dam at top.
A = 0.522 H1/2 = 0.522 x 841/2 = 5.05 m.
As per Creager, the economical top width has been found to be equal to 14% of the dam height without
considering earthquake forces.

32. In high dams, the safety against sliding should be checked only for friction.
a) True
b) False

Explanation: The safety against sliding should be checked only for friction in case of low dams and in
high dams, the shear strength of the joint (i.e. an additional shear resistance) is also considered for
economical design. The dam section is given an extra slope or batter on the U/s or D/s side as per
requirements for achieving stability.

33. For full reservoir condition in a gravity dam, the critical combination of vertical and horizontal
earthquake accelerations to be considered for checking the stability is ______________
a) vertically upward and horizontally downstream
b) vertically downward and horizontally downstream
c) vertically upward and horizontally upstream
d) vertically downward and horizontally upstream

Explanation: Horizontal inertia force should be considered to be acting at the center of the gravity of the
mass regardless of the shape of cross-section and it acts horizontally downstream in worst cases under full
reservoir case. This force would produce the worst results is it is additive to the hydrostatic water pressure
(acting towards the downstream).

34. The base width of a solid gravity dam is 35 m and the specific gravity of dam material is 2.45. What
is the approximate allowable height of the dam having an elementary profile without considering
the uplift?
a) 64.68 m
b) 54.80 m
c) 164 m
d) 80 m

Explanation: The base width at bottom is given by B = H/Sc1/2 (c = 0 since uplift is not considered).
B = 35 m and Sc = 2.45
Allowable height of the dam H = 35 x 2.451/2 = 54.8 m.

35. A low gravity dam of elementary profile made up of concrete of relative density 2.57 and safe
allowable stress of foundation material 4.2 MPa. What is the maximum height of the dam without

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 18
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

considering the uplift force?

a) 120 m
b) 217 m
c) 279 m
d) 325 m

Explanation: The maximum possible height of low gravity dam is H = f / ϒw (Sc + 1) where f =
allowable stress of dam material = 4.2 MPa, Sc = 2.57, and ϒw = 9.81 KN/m2.
H = [4.2 / (9.81 x 3.57)] x 1000 = 119.92 m.

36. The vertical stress at the toe was found to be 3.44 MPa at the base of the gravity dam section. If the
downstream face of the dam has a slope of 0.617 horizontal: 1 vertical, the maximum principal
stress at the toe of the dam when there is no tailwater is _______________
a) 1.7 MPa
b) 2.4 MPa
c) 3.6 MPa
d) 4.8 MPa

Explanation: The principal stress at the toe is given by Pat toe = Pv. secΦ2 (without considering the
tailwater) where Pv = 3.44 MPa and tan Φ = 0.617/1 i.e.Φ = 31.67°
Pat toe = 3.44 x sec(31.67°)2 = 4.74 MPa.

37. What is the recommended value of shear friction factor against sliding?
a) More than unity
b) Less than unity
c) More than 3 to 5
d) Less than 3

Explanation: Shear Friction Factor is given by –

SFF = sliding factor (SF) + B.q / ∑Ph where B = width of joint or section area = B x 1, q is the shear
strength of the joint, and Ph is the sum of horizontal force causing sliding. SF must be greater than 1 and
SFF must be greater than 3 to 5. This analysis is carried out for a full reservoir case as well as an empty
case.

38. The small openings made in the huge body of a concrete gravity dam such as sluices and inspection
galleries can be assumed to be causing only local effects without any appreciable effect on the
distribution of stresses as per the principle of_____________________
a) Laplace
b) St. Venant
c) Reynold
d) St. Francis

Explanation: Small openings made in the dam only produce local effects as per St. Venant’s principle.
They do not affect the general distribution of stresses. This is one of the most important assumptions
made in the two-dimensional analysis of gravity dams.

39. A concrete gravity dam having a maximum reservoir level at 200 m and the RL of the bottom of the
dam 100 m. The maximum allowable compressive stress in concrete is 3000 KN/m 2 and the specific
gravity of concrete is 2.4. Calculate the height of the dam and check whether it is a high dam or low
dam.
a) H = 90 m High gravity dam

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 19
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

b) H = 90 m Low gravity dam

c) H = 214.2 m High gravity dam
d) H = 214.2 m Low gravity dam

Explanation: The limiting height of the dam is given by-

H = f / ϒw (Sc + 1) where f = allowable stress of dam material = 3000 KN/m2, Sc = 2.4, and ϒw = 9.81
KN/m2.
H = 3000 / 9.81 x 3.4 = 89.9 m.
This value is more than the height of the dam so it is a high gravity dam.

40. The axis of a gravity dam is the ______________________

a) line of the crown of the dam on the downstream side
b) line of the crown of the dam on the upstream side
c) centre-line of the top width of the dam
d) line joining mid-points of the base

Explanation: The axis of the dam is taken as the reference line which is defined separately in the plan
and in the cross-section of the dam. In plan, it is the horizontal trace of the U/s edge of the top of the dam.
In the cross-section, the vertical line passing through the U/s edge of the top of the dam is considered as
the axis of the dam.

41. Presence of tail-water in a gravity dam ____________________

a) increases the principal stress and decreases the shear stress
b) increases both the principal stress and the shear stress
c) decreases the principal stress and increases the shear stress
d) decreases both the principal stress and the shear stress

Explanation: The principal stress is given by the formula –

P = Pv sec(Φ)2 – p’ tan(Φ)2 where Pv is the intensity of vertical pressure and p’ is the tail-water pressure
The shear stress on the horizontal plane near the toe is given by –
S = (Pv – p’) tan(Φ)
From both the equations, it is clear that the tail-water pressure is opposite in nature and it reduces the
value of principal stress and shear stress.

42. The provision of drainage gallery in a gravity dam helps in reducing _________
a) hydrostatic pressure
b) seepage pressure
c) silt pressure
d) both hydrostatic pressure and seepage pressure

Explanation: An opening or passage left in the dam which runs longitudinally is called the gallery. This
is to provide space for drainage of water percolating through the upstream face of the dam or seeping
through the foundation. It is also used for inspection purposes and for the mechanical equipment used in
the operation of gates in spillways.

43. Which of the following attempts are made to reduce the uplift in order to economize on the
provided section of a concrete gravity dam?
i. Providing drainage gallery to collect seepage water
ii. Constructing cut-off under upstream face
iii. Pressure grouting in dam foundation
iv. Provision of shear keys or keyways

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 20
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

a) i and ii
b) i, ii and iii
c) i, ii and iv
d) i, ii, iii and iv

Explanation: In a gravity dam, the grout curtain is provided near the toe to reduce the exit gradient. A
drainage gallery with its drainage pipe system provided in gravity dam reduces the uplift pressure at all
levels below the upstream water level. Vertical cut-off walls are the most effective to reduce seepage flow
and uplift force.

44. Transverse joints in concrete gravity dams are the ________________

a) horizontal construction joints at each lift height
b) vertical construction joints of full height and width
c) diagonal construction joints for torsion
d) longitudinal construction joints of full width

Explanation: Transverse joints are vertical joints that run through the entire height and extend through
the full width of the dam section. These joints are continuous from the upstream face to the downstream
face.

45. Leakage through the transverse joints in a gravity dam is prevented by ______
a) shear keys
b) keyways
c) water stops
d) galleries

Explanation: Water bars or water stops are provided in the transverse as well as horizontal joints in
concrete adjacent to the upstream face of the dam. The openings of the joints are sealed properly with
water stops to avoid passage of seepage of water through the body.

46. In order to reduce uplift on a gravity dam, the type of grouting done is _______
a) curtain grouting near the heel
b) consolidation grouting near the heel
c) curtain grouting near the toe
d) consolidation grouting near the toe

Explanation: Curtain grouting helps in forming a principal barrier against the seepage through the
foundations and thus reduces the uplift pressure. This grouting can be accomplished from the foundation
gallery or from other galleries within the dam.

47. The general value of lift for concrete is taken as __________________

a) 1.5 m
b) 2.5 m
c) 3 m
d) 4 m

Explanation: The concrete is poured from a certain height in the first attempt and this height is called a
lift. Maximum height of single pour of concrete is usually about 1.5 m. If this is reduced, more horizontal
joints will get developed.

48. The horizontal joints that extends through the entire width of the dam section and are developed at
each lift height is called as ___________________

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 21
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

a) transverse joints
b) longitudinal joints
c) construction joints
d) contraction joints

Explanation: The longitudinal joint is developed at each lift height and extends through the entire width
of the dam section. These joints shall run through the entire length of the dam but are staggered between
transverse joints.

49. Which of the following joints justifies the two-dimensional analysis of gravity dams?
a) Longitudinal joints
b) Transverse joints
c) Construction joints
d) Contraction joints

Explanation: Transverse joints are vertical joints that divide the dam length into a number of vertical
cantilevers each of which is independent of the other. It runs through the entire height and extends through
the full width of the dam section. Hence, it justifies the two-dimensional analysis of gravity dams.

50. In case of constant redius arch dam the radii of the outside curved surface are equal at all elevations
from top to bottom. The centres of all such circular arcs, known as ____________lie on one vertical
line.
a) Intrados
b) Extrados
c) All of above
d) None of above

Explanation: In case of constant redius arch dam the radii of the outside curved surface are equal at all
elevations from top to bottom. The centres of all such circular arcs, known as Extrados lie on one vertical
line.

UNIT-3
Spillway and spillway gates
1. The safety valve of a dam is __________________
a) drainage gallery
b) inspection gallery
c) spillway
d) outlet sluices

Explanation: A spillway is essentially a safety valve for the dam and must be properly designed. It
should have adequate capacity to dispose off the entire surplus water from upstream to downstream at the
time of the arrival of the worst design flood.

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 22
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

2. An ungated spillway starts functioning as soon as the water level in the reservoir crosses the
__________________
a) maximum reservoir level
b) minimum reservoir level
c) maximum conservation level
d) full Supply level

Explanation: Maximum conservation level is nothing but normal pool level which is the maximum
elevation to which the reservoir water surface will rise during normal operating conditions. This is
equivalent to the elevation of the spillway crest or the top of the spillway gates, such uncontrolled
spillways are only guided by the available water head.

3. Which of the following is the simplest type of spillway and may be constructed on small bunds or
thin arch dams?
a) Straight drop spillway
b) Ogee spillway
c) Shaft spillway
d) Siphon spillway

Explanation: Straight drop weir or Overfall spillway is a low weir and simple vertical fall type structure.
It is the simplest type of spillway and can be constructed on small bunds, thin arches, etc. The
downstream face of the spillway may be kept vertical or slightly inclined.

4. The spillway can be best built independently of the dam when there is _______________
a) deep narrow gorge with steep slopes
b) deep narrow gorge with gradual slopes
c) wide gorge with a gradual slope
d) wide valley with moderate slopes

Explanation: The spillway can be best built independently of the dam where there is a deep narrow gorge
with steep banks separated from a flank by a hillock with its level above the top of the dam. A concrete or
an earthen dam can be constructed across the main valley and a spillway can be constructed
independently into the saddle under such circumstances.

5. Which of the following is a secondary safety arrangement?

a) Safety valves
b) Spillway gates
c) Subsidiary spillway
d) Energy dissipaters

Explanation: If at the worst condition the water rises above the maximum reservoir level it will overtop
such an embankment. A secondary safety arrangement known as subsidiary dam or emergency spillway
or breaching section is generally provided on large dams for the disposal of excess water, especially on
earthen and rock-fill dams.

6. Which of the following spillway is least suitable to earthen dams?

a) Ogee spillway
b) Chute spillway
c) Side-channel spillways
d) Shaft spillway

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 23
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

Explanation: It is an improvement over the free over-fall spillway. It is mostly suitable for concrete
gravity dams especially when the spillway is located within the body of the dam in the same valley.

7. If the operating head on an ogee spillway is more than the design head then __________
a) the pressure on the crest will be zero
b) the pressure on the crest will be negative causing cavitation
c) the pressure on the crest will be positive
d) the discharge coefficient of the spillway will be reduced

Explanation: The lower nappe of the falling jet may leave the ogee profile when the operating head of
the spillway is more than the design head. This generates negative pressure at the point of separation
which leads to the formation of cavities in the water resulting in cavitation.

8. In the functioning of an ogee spillway, the operating head ______________________

a) frequently exceeds the design head
b) rarely exceeds the design head
c) never exceeds the design head
d) has no connection with the design head

Explanation: An ogee spillway is designed for maximum head up to RL of maximum reservoir level;
there are almost no chances of operating head exceeding the design head. Under rare emergency as in
excessive floods, it may become necessary to allow the reservoir level to go even above the MRL in such
case the operating head may exceed the design head.

9. Which of the following spillway is an improvement over free overflow spillway?

a) Straight drop spillway
b) Open channel spillway
c) Overflow spillway
d) Siphon spillway

Explanation: Ogee spillway is an improvement over free overflow spillway and is widely used with
concrete, arch and buttress dam. The profile is made such that the shape of the lower nappe of a freely
falling jet over a duly ventilated sharp-crested weir.

10. If the head of the water over the spillway is less than the design head, then ____________
a) the pressure on the crest will be zero
b) the pressure on the crest will be negative causing cavitation
c) the discharge coefficient of the spillway is increased
d) the discharge coefficient of the spillway will be reduced

Explanation: If the head of water over the spillway is less than the design head, the falling jet would
adhere to the crest of the ogee spillway. This causes positive hydrostatic pressure and thereby reduces the
discharge coefficient of the weir.

11. The spillway which can be called as an overflow spillway is essentially _____________
a) an ogee spillway
b) a shaft spillway
c) a chute spillway
d) a syphon spillway

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 24
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

Explanation: Ogee spillway is also called as overflow spillway and is an improvement over straight drop
spillway. In this spillway, the water jet falls clearly away from the face of the spillway and the gap
between the jet and the face is kept ventilated.

12. The W.E.S downstream profile of an ogee spillway can be represented by an equation:
Xn = K Hd n-1. Y
Where x and y are the coordinates of the points on the crest profile and K and n for a vertical
upstream spillway would respectively be_________________
a) 2.0 and 1.85
b) 0.5 and 1.85
c) 2.0 and 0.85
d) 0.5 and 0.85

Explanation: The value of K and n depends on the upstream slope. For vertical u/s face of the spillway,
K is 2.0 and n is 1.85 and for slope 1H : 3V, K = 1.936 and n = 1.836. For slope 1H : 1 1/2V, K = 1.939
and n = 1.810.

13. According to US Army Corps, the u/s profile of ogee spillway extends up to __________
a) x = 1.27 Hd
b) x = -1.27 Hd
c) x = 0.431 Hd
d) x = -0.431 Hd

Explanation: The profile for an Ogee spillway having a vertical upstream face can be determined on the
basis of its WES profile. The upstream profile extends up to x = -1.27 Hd Where Hd is the design head.

14. Which of the following plot is useful in determining the clearance for the spillway deck bridge and
the top levels of walls on the side of the spillway?
a) The coordinates of the lower nappe
b) The coordinates of the upper nappe
c) Both the coordinates of upper and lower nappe
d) The origin or apex of crest

Explanation: The crest profile is determined by the coordinates of the lower nappe. The plotting of the
upper nappe is useful in determining the clearance for the spillway deck bridge and the top levels of the
training walls on the side of the spillway.

15. What is the satisfactory radius for the reverse bottom curve which is provided at the downstream
end of the spillway?
a) One-fourth of the spillway height
b) Equal to the spillway height
c) Half the value of the spillway height
d) One-third of the spillway height

Explanation: A smooth gradual reverse curvature is provided at the bottom of the downstream face after
the plotting of the profile of the spillway. The curve turns the flow into the discharge channel. The
satisfactory radius of the curve is taken as one-fourth of the spillway height.

16. What is Bazin’s profile?

a) Profile for the lower nappe of a free-falling jet
b) The profile obtained for the upper nappe of a free-falling jet

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 25
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

c) Crest profile
d) Profile of both upper and lower nappe

Explanation: The theoretical profile obtained for the lower nappe of a free-falling jet is known as Bazin’s
profile. Theoretically, this profile causes no negative pressure on the crest under the designed head. But in
practice, negative pressure on such a profile seems inevitable.

17. If the upstream face of the spillway is kept vertical, the crest shape should also confirm to the
lower nappe of an inclined sharp-crested weir.
a) True
b) False

Explanation: If the upstream face of the spillway is kept vertical, the crest shape confirms to the lower
nappe of a vertical sharp-crested weir under the maximum head. But if u/s face is kept sloping the crest
shape should also confirm to the lower nappe obtained for an inclined sharp-crested weir.

18. The discharge passing over an ogee spillway per unit length of its apex line is proportional
___________________
a) H
b) H2
c) H1/2
d) H3/2

Explanation: The discharge passing over the ogee spillway is given by the formula –
Q = C. Le. H3/2 where Le is the effective length of the spillway crest, C is the coefficient of discharge and
H is the total head over the crest including the velocity head.
It is clear from the discharge equation that the discharge is proportional to H 3/2.

19. When the crest of an ogee spillway is designed to be in accordance with the lower nappe of a free-
falling water jet over a duly ventilated sharp-crested weir then theoretically
a) The pressure on the spillway crest will be zero at design head only
b) The pressure on the spillway crest will always be zero
c) The pressure on the spillway crest will always be negative
d) The pressure on the spillway crest will be always positive

Explanation: In actual practice development of negative pressure takes place beneath the nappe due to
the removal of air by the falling jet. This causes the danger of cavitation and induces fluctuation and
pulsation effects. To control this aeration pipes may be provided along spillway face.
20. When the gated sluices are provided through the body of the dam spillway then the ogee spillway
structure shall normally be of Corbel type.
a) True
b) False

Explanation: The extra concrete is required for thickening of the section at the d/s end which can be
saved by shifting the curve of the nappe in a backward direction until it becomes tangential to the d/s face.
It can be affected by providing a corbel on u/s face.

21. The velocity of approach has found to be negligible effect upon discharge if ____________
a) the ratio H/Hd is more than 1.33
b) the ratio H/Hd is less than 1.33
c) the ratio H/Hd is equal to zero

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 26
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

d) the ratio H/Hd is more than 1

Explanation: The velocity of approach has been found to have a negligible effect upon discharge when
the height of the weir is more than 1.33 times the design head. When this ratio is less than 1.33 as in low
spillways, the velocity is having an appreciable effect.

22. If a flood enters a dam reservoir at F.R.L, the efficiency of its ogee spillway will __________
a) increase with the increasing head
b) reduce with the increasing head
c) remain constant with the increasing head
d) vary with the increasing head

Explanation: The coefficient of discharge increases with the increasing head above the full reservoir
level till it becomes about 2.2 at full design head i.e. MRL. Since the spillway starts working when the
water level just crosses FRL, the coefficient of discharge is about 77% at full design head. As the water
level increases from F.R.L to M.R.L, the efficiency increases from 77% to 100%.

23. The downstream apron of the ogee spillway is found to have a negligible effect on the coefficient of
discharge when the value of ________________
a) (Hd + d) / He is less than 1.7
b) (Hd + d) / He exceeds 1.7
c) (Hd + d) / He is equal to 1
d) (Hd + d) / He is less than 1.33

Explanation: The d/s apron is found to have a negligible effect on the coefficient of discharge when the
value of (Hd + d) / He exceeds 1.7. where d is the tailwater depth, Hd is the design head and He is the
Design head including the velocity head. There can be a decrease in the coefficient due to tail water
submergence.

24. What is the value of abutment contraction coefficient for square abutment with headwall
perpendicular to the direction of flow?
a) 0.2
b) 0.1
c) 0.02
d) 0.01

Explanation: For square abutment with headwall at 90° to the direction of the flow, the abutment
contraction coefficient is 0.2. For rounded abutment with headwall at 90° to the direction of flow, the
value is taken as 0.1.

25. What is the assumption that is taken during the entire design of an overflow spillway?
a) The upper and lower nappe is subjected to negative pressures
b) The upper and lower nappe is subjected to full atmospheric pressure
c) The upper and lower nappe is subjected to zero atmospheric pressure
d) The upper and lower nappe is subjected to both positive and negative pressure

Explanation: In actual practice, the development of negative pressure due to insufficient aeration takes
place beneath the nappe due to the removal of air by the falling jet. But the entire design has been done
with the assumption that the upper and lower nappe is subjected to full atmospheric pressure.

26. Calculate the effective length of the spillway which consists of 6 spans having a clear width of 10 m
each. The thickness of each pier may be taken as 2.5 m and the total design head on the crest

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 27
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

including velocity head is 16.3 m. Assuming 90° cut water nose piers and rounded abutments.
a) 55 m
b) 60 m
c) 65 m
d) 75 m

Explanation: The effective length of the spillway is given by-

Le = L – 2[N.Kp + Ka].H
Where L= clear length of the spillway crest = 6 x 10 = 60, N = Number of piers =5 and H =16.3m
For 90° cut water nose piers and rounded abutments; Ka = 0.1 and Kp = 0.01
Le = 60 – 2[5 x 0.01 + 0.1] x 16.3 = 55.1 m.

27. Which of the following is the simplest type of spillway which can be provided independently and at
low costs?
a) Ogee spillway
b) Trough spillway
c) Siphon spillway
d) Saddle spillway

Explanation: The trough or chute spillway is adaptable to any type of foundations and is the simplest
type of spillway. It can be easily provided independently at low costs but it requires ample room adjacent
to the dam.

28. If the spillway is constructed in continuation to the dam at one end, it may be called as ________
a) saddle weir
b) flank weir
c) waste weir
d) temporary weir

Explanation: Saddle weir is the one when the spillway is constructed in a natural saddle in a bank of the
river separated from the main dam by a high ridge. Flank weir is the one when the spillway is constructed
in continuation to the dam at one end.

29. The spillway which can be adopted with ease on gravity as well as earthen dams is ________
a) ogee spillway
b) chute spillway
c) both ogee and chute spillway
d) straight drop spillway

Explanation: Straight drop spillway is a low weir and simple vertical fall type structure which may be
constructed on thin arch dams or small bunds etc. An ogee spillway is most suitable for concrete gravity
dams. Chute spillway can be provided easily on earth and rock-fill dams.

30. The famous Bhakra dam of India is provided with ________________

a) trough spillway
b) ogee spillway
c) shaft spillway
d) siphon spillway

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 28
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

Explanation: Bhakra Dam is a concrete gravity dam on the Sutlej River in Himachal Pradesh of the total
height of 226 m approximately. It forms the Gobindsagar Reservoir with controlled overflow chute or
trough spillway and four spillway gates for an emergency.

31. The surplus reservoir water after spilling over the crest of the spillway flows on the chute is
__________________
a) parallel to the crest in a trough spillway
b) parallel to the crest in a side-channel spillway
c) perpendicular to the crest in a side-channel spillway
d) obliquely to the crest in a chute spillway

Explanation: In chute spillway, after crossing over the crest of the spillway water flows at right angle
shoots down a channel or a trough to meet the river channel downstream of the dam. The water after
spilling over the crest flows parallel to the crest in a side-channel spillway.

32. Whenever the slope of chute changes from steeper to milder ____________________ curve shall be
provided.
a) a concave vertical curve
b) a convex vertical curve
c) a hyperbolic curve
d) a parabolic curve

Explanation: A concave vertical curve is provided whenever the slope changes from steeper to milder.
The radius of this curve should be less than 10 times the depth of water (in meters).

33. The side slope of approach channel of chute spillway is ___________________

a) 1:1
b) 1:1 12
c) 1:3
d) 1:2.5

Explanation: An entrance channel also called as an approach channel is trapezoidal in shape with side
slopes 1:1. It is constructed so as to lead the reservoir water up to the control structure or low ogee weir.

34. The spillway which may sometimes be called as a waste weir is ______________________
a) an ogee spillway
b) a trough spillway
c) a shaft spillway
d) a siphon spillway

Explanation: A chute or trough spillway is sometimes called as a waste weir. It is called as chute
spillway because after crossing over the crest of the spillway water flow shoots down a channel or trough
to meet the river channel downstream of the dam. The trough is taken straight from the crest to the river.

35. The portion of a chute spillway which is known as its control structure is ________________
a) low ogee weir
b) chute channel
c) approach channel leading the water from the reservoir to the ogee weir
d) silting basin at its bottom

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 29
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

Explanation: Low ogee weir is required as a control structure in the chute spillway. The entire chute
spillway is divided into the entrance channel, control structure, Chute channel or discharge channel, and
energy dissipation arrangements in the form of silting basin at the bottom.

36. The type of spillway which is provided on narrow valleys where no side flanks are available is
____________________
a) ogee spillway
b) chute spillway
c) side-channel spillway
d) straight drop spillway

Explanation: The side channel spillway is suitable when the valley is too narrow. When there is no room
for provision of chute spillway (as side flanks of sufficient width are required), this type is adopted as it
requires limited space. The situation required for the chute spillway and side-channel spillway is mostly
the same.

37. Which of the following curve is provided when the slope of the chute changes from milder to
steeper?
a) Concave vertical curve
b) Hyperbolic curve
c) Convex vertical curve
d) Straight plan

Explanation: A convex vertical curve shall have to be provided when the slope of the chute changes
from milder to steeper. The curvature should approximate to a parabolic shape. A concave vertical curve
is provided whenever the slope changes from steeper to milder.

38. Calculate the freeboard for the top levels of the side walls if the mean velocity of water in the chute
reach is 3.5m/s and the mean depth of water in the chute reach under consideration is 4.7 m.
a) 0.60 m
b) 1 m
c) 0.85 m
d) 0.55 m

Explanation: The freeboard to be provided above the top nappe of side walls is generally given by the
equation:
F.B = 0.61 + 0.04 Vm. dm1/3 where ‘Vm‘ is the mean velocity of water in the chute reach and ‘dm’ is the
mean depth of water in the chute reach under consideration.
F.B = 0.61 + 0.04 x 3.5 x 4.71/3 = 0.84 m.

39. The minimum slope of the chute is governed by the condition that _____________
a) the subcritical flow must be maintained
b) the supercritical flow must be maintained
c) a critical flow must be maintained
d) maybe supercritical or subcritical flow is possible

Explanation: The water flows through the chute channel after spilling over the control structure and the
minimum slope is governed by the condition that the supercritical flow must be maintained. The slope
should be sufficient to meet the flow requirement from the crest without endangering the stability or
heavy excavations.

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 30
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

40. What is the approximate percentage of light reinforcement that is provided in the top of the
reinforced concrete slabs at the base?
a) 0.50% of the concrete area
b) 0.45% of the concrete area
c) 0.30% of the concrete area
d) 0.25% of the concrete area

Explanation: The base of the channel is usually made of reinforced concrete slabs 25 to 50 cm thick and
light reinforcement of about 0.25% of the concrete area is also provided in both the directions. The chute
is sometimes narrowed for the economy and then widened near the end to reduce the discharging velocity.

41. The energy dissipation at the toe of the spillway is affected basically by the use of hydraulic jump in
_______________________
a) roller bucket
b) a ski-jump bucket
c) a sloping apron below the downstream river bed
d) both roller and ski-jump bucket

Explanation: Most of the kinetic energy is destroyed by creating a condition suitable for the formation of
a hydraulic jump. Sometimes the depth of tail-water may be more than that necessary to create the
hydraulic jump. The depth of water can be reduced to create a hydraulic jump by providing a sloping
apron.

42. When the tail-water depths in the river downstream of a spillway are quite low such that the tail-
water curve at all discharges lies below the post jump depth curve, then the energy dissipation can
be affected best by ___________________
a) a roller bucket
b) a ski-jump bucket
c) either roller or ski-jump bucket
d) a sloping apron

Explanation: Energy dissipation bucket called ski-jump bucket is used when the tail-water depth is
insufficient or low at all discharge. It requires sound and rocky river bed. Water may shoot up out of the
bucket and fail harmlessly into the river at some distance downstream of the bucket.

43. The device which does not help in energy dissipation at the bottom of a hydraulic structure over
which water spills is ________________
a) chute block
b) dentated sill
c) morning glory
d) baffle piers

Explanation: A flared inlet called morning glory is often used in large projects. The horizontal tunnel is
either taken through the dam body or below the foundations. Chute blocks, dentated sills and baffle piers
are all auxiliary devices which help in energy dissipation.

44. The formation of hydraulic jump at the foot of a spillway is one of the common methods of energy
dissipation because _________________
a) it destroys more than 90% of total energy by the turbulence produced in the jump
b) it reduces the kinetic energy by increasing the depth of flow

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 31
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

c) its action is not understood

d) it reduces the kinetic energy by decreasing the depth of flow

Explanation: Hydraulic jump is generally accompanied by large scale turbulence dissipating most of the
kinetic energy of the super-critical flow. It is the most suitable method because the energy is lost in the
impact of the water against water. Most of the kinetic energy is destroyed by creating a condition suitable
for the hydraulic jump.

45. A ski-jump bucket is also known as _____________________

a) flip bucket
b) solid roller bucket
c) slotted roller bucket
d) flexible bucket

Explanation: A ski-jump bucket is also called flip bucket is used for energy dissipation when tail-water
depth is insufficient or low at all discharge. A part of energy dissipation takes place by impact and some
of the energy is dissipated in the air by diffusion or aeration.

46. Which of the following stilling basin help in stabilizing the flow and improve the jump
performance?
a) dentated sills
b) chute blocks
c) baffle piers
d) friction blocks

Explanation: Chute blocks are a row of small projections like teeth of saw and are provided at the
entrance of the silting basin. It produces a shorter length of jump and stabilizes the flow. Hence, they
improve jump performance.

47. What is the expected solution for the case when the T.W.C is lying above the J.H.C curve at all
discharges?
a) By providing a simple concrete apron of length 5(Y1 – Y2)
b) By providing a sloping apron above the river bed
c) By providing a sloping apron below the river bed
d) Provision of a ski-jump bucket

Explanation: When the TWC is lying above the JHC at all discharges, the problem can be solved by-
1) By constructing a sloping apron above the river bed
2) By providing a roller bucket type of energy dissipator.
In this case, the jump is formed at the toe will be drowned by the tail-water and little energy will be
dissipated.

48. A sloping apron is provided partly above the river bed and partly below the river bed in case of
____________________________
a) when TWC coincides with the JHC at all discharges
b) when TWC lies above the JHC at all discharges
c) when TWC lies below the JHC at all discharges
d) when TWC lies above the JHC at low discharges and below the JHC at high discharges

Explanation: At low discharges, the jump will be drowned and at high discharges tail-water depth is
insufficient. When TWC lies above the JHC at low discharges and below the JHC at high discharges, the

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 32
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

solution is the provision of sloping apron partly above and partly below the river bed. The horizontal
apron and end-sill are also provided.

49. When the TWC lies below the JHC at all discharges, the problem can be solved by which of the
following provisions?
i. Constructing a sloping apron above the river bed
ii. Provision of roller bucket type of energy dissipator
iii. Provision of a ski-jump bucket
iv. A sloping apron below the river bed
v. Construction of a subsidiary dam
vi. A sloping apron partly above and partly below the river bed
a) i, iii and v
b) i, ii and vi
c) iii, iv and v
d) i, iii, iv and v

Explanation: When TWC lies below the JHC at all discharges, the expected solution is –
i. Provision of a ski-jump bucket
ii. A sloping apron below the river bed of length 5 (y2 – y1)
iii. Construction of a subsidiary dam below the main dam.

50. A troublesome and oscillating hydraulic jump is normally met in cases of _____________
a) weirs and barrages
b) overflow spillways of dams
c) weirs
d) large spillways

Explanation: When the Froude number lies in the range of 2.5 to 4.5, the jump is troublesome and
oscillating as in case of weirs and barrages. There is an oscillating jet entering the jump bottom to the
surface and back again which produces a large wave of irregular period doing unlimited damage.

51. A very steady and stable hydraulic jump is usually formed in the flows involving the approaching
Froude number in the range of _____________________
a) less than 2.5
b) 2.5 to 4.5
c) 4.5 to 9.0
d) more than 9.0

Explanation: When the Froude number is in the range of 4.5 to 9.0, the jump performs at its best and is
called steady jump. The length of the jump is almost constant and equal to 6 y2 where y2 is the post jump
depth. The dissipation of energy ranges from 45 to 70%.

52. Standard USBR stilling basin-II is useful for energy dissipation at the bottom of the overflow
structure, if the approaching Froude number is ________________
a) less than 4.5
b) more than 4.5
c) less than 2.5
d) more than 2.5

Explanation: USBR has standardized stilling basins for different Froude numbers. USBR stilling basin-

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 33
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

II is recommended for large structures when the Froude number is more than 4.5. The dissipation of
energy will be 45 to 85%.

53. When the Froude number is in the range of 2.5 to 4.5, the jump is ____________________
a) weak and energy loss is low
b) troublesome and oscillating
c) steady jump
d) strong jump

Explanation: When the Froude number is in the range of 2.5 to 4.5, the jump is troublesome and
oscillating. This gives rise to the heavy waves on the surface and wave suppressors are needed in this
range.

54. Which of the following stilling basin is applicable to only rectangular cross-sections?
a) U.S.B.R stilling basin-II
b) U.S.B.R stilling basin-IV
c) U.S.B.R stilling basin-I
d) U.S.B.R stilling basin-III

Explanation: USBR stilling basin-IV is used for Froude number varying between 2.5 and 4.5 which
generally occurs in canal weirs, canal falls, diversion dams, etc. They are tried to be controlled by
providing large chute blocks since oscillating waves are generated in this range. This is applicable only to
rectangular cross-sections.

55. Standard stilling basin is provided at the toe of a dam spillway for energy dissipation is usually
provided with auxiliary devices like chute blocks and dentated sills for the basic purpose of
reducing the length of the stilling basin from about ________________
a) 6 y2 to 4 y2
b) 4 y2 to 2 y2
c) 6 y2 to 2 y2
d) 3 y2 to y2

Explanation: In the case of dams and spillways, the jump is steady and the length of the jump is almost
constant and is equal to 6 y2 where y2 is the post jump depth. The length of the basin is related to Froude
number as the economy in the length of the basin up to about 35% i.e. 4.3 y2 is thus obtained for auxiliary
devices.

56. _____________________ are suitable only for low spillways or weirs.

a) Chute blocks
b) Sloping aprons
c) Baffle wall or friction blocks
d) Roller buckets

Explanation: Baffle piers or walls are blocks placed within the basin across the basin floor and they help
in breaking the flow and dissipate the energy mostly by the impact. They generally give away under high-
velocity jets due to their cavitation effects. It is unsuitable for large works.

57. Which of the following helps in dissipating the residual energy and to reduce the length of the jump
or the basin?
a) Dentated sills
b) Chute blocks

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 34
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

c) Roller bucket
d) Baffle piers

Explanation: Chute blocks help in stabilizing the flow and thus improve the jump performance. Baffle
piers help in breaking the flow and dissipate energy mostly by the impact. Dentated sills are generally
provided at the end of the stilling basin and diffuse the residual portion of high-velocity jet reaching the
end of the basin.

58. In a fixed roller of a spillway gate, the rollers are attached to the __________________
a) gate
b) groove gate
c) either gate or groove gate
d) guide grooves

Explanation: Rollers are generally attached to the gate and ride in tracks on the downstream side of the
groove guide. The openings between the upstream leaf plate and the sides of the pier grooves are sealed
using rubber seals.

59. In the vertical Stoney spillway gate, the rollers are placed between the ______________
a) gate and u/s groove guide
b) gate and the d/s groove guide
c) u/s and d/s groove guide
d) attached to the gate and groove guides

Explanation: A train of the roller is generally placed in between the gate and the d/s guide. These rollers
may be placed independent of the gate and the guide thus eliminating the axle friction but rolls vertically
between the two when the gate is moved.

60. The spillway gate which when lowered cannot be seen from a distance is of the type _______
a) Sliding gate
b) Roller gate
c) Tainter gate
d) USBR drum gate

Explanation: The system of drum gates consists of a segment of a cylinder which may be raised or
lowered into the recess made into the top of the spillway. Whenever the drum is lowered, the surface
becomes coincident with the designed ogee shape of the crest.

61. An ogee spillway of a concrete gravity dam having FRL of 328 m and MWL of 340 m is provided
with vertical gates between piers erected on the spillway. The effective length of the spillway is 60
m. The discharge through the spillway when gates are opened up to the actual reservoir level of
331.0 m will be_____________
a) 850 cumecs
b) 1700 cumecs
c) 2800 cumecs
d) 1000 cumecs

Explanation: The discharge is given by the equation –

Q = Cd. A. (2gH)1/2
Where Cd is the coefficient of discharge through the orifice
A is the area of the opening = 60 x 6 =360 m2

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 35
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

H is the water head over the centre line of the opening = RL (331 – 328) = 3m
Q = 0.62 x 360 x (2 x 9.81 x 3)1/2 = 1700 cumecs.

62. The most common vertical lift gates in modern days is _________________
a) sliding gates
b) free-roller gates
c) stoney gates
d) fixed wheel gates

Explanation: The design and construction of free-roller gate are difficult as the rollers are not attached to
the gate and the guide. Therefore, the rollers are attached to the gate. Large vertical lift gates are broken
into two horizontal sections to reduce the load on the hoisting mechanism.

63. Which of the following gate is also called flush boards?

a) Dropping shutters
b) Tainter gates
c) Drum gates
d) Vertical lift gates

Explanation: Dropping shutters are also called permanent flush boards. They are generally used to raise
the water level by 1 to 1.25 m. This type consists of shutters or plates made of steel which are hinged at
the bottom.

64. Which one of the following gate is not suitable for curved crests?
a) Flush boards
b) Tainter gates
c) Drum gates
d) Vertical lift gates

Explanation: In flush boards, the shutters are hinged at the bottom and are supported by struts. Whenever
the water level rises above the top of the shutters they dropdown. Hence they are not suitable for curved
crests.

65. Which of the following gate works on the principle of counterweights against the water pressure?
a) Dropping shutters
b) Stop logs and needles
c) Stoney roller gate
d) Drum gates

Explanation: In dropping shutters, the shutters are hinged at the bottom and are supported by struts and
these shutters can be raised or lowered from an overhead cableway or a bridge. They work on the
principle of counterweights against the water pressure.

66. ________________ are used only for very minor works.

a) Dropping gates
b) Stop logs and needles
c) Rectangular gates
d) Drum gates

Explanation: A Stop log consists of wooden beams and planks placed on to one another and leakage
between them is a big problem. Needles are wooden logs kept side by side and it is very difficult to
handle these logs at the time of flow. Hence they are not used on any major works.

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 36
 Dams and Hydraulic Structures

67. Which of the following gate is not suitable for smaller spillways?
a) Drum gates
b) Radial gates
c) Needles and stop logs
d) Fixed roller gates

Explanation: Drum gates are suitable for longer spans of the order of 40 m or so and medium heights of
10 m or so. The drum is enclosed on all the three sides as well as on the ends thus forming a water-tight
vessel. It requires a large recess and is not suitable for small spillways.

Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and Research Centre, Nashik Page 37
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

Department: Civil Engineering Date: 15-04-2020

Class: BE Division: A and B
Subject: Dams and Hydraulic Structure (401007)
Prepared By : Prof. Sarika Shantaram Kale

Multiple Choice Questions on Unit II

Sr No Question Correct Option

Unit II-Gravity Dam and Arch Dam & Other Dam

1 Which one of the following is the highest gravity dam in the world? A
(A) Bhakra Dam
(B) Beas Dam
(C) Hirakud Dam
(D) Nangal Dam
2 Portion of dam in contact with ground at downstream side is ____ B
(A) Crest
(B) Toe
(C) Foot
(D) Heel
3 Portion of dam in contact with ground at Upstream side is ____ A
(A) Crest
(B) Toe
(C) Foot
(D) Heel
4 Magnitude of the Earthquake is measured by A
(A) Richter scale
(B) Rossi-Forel scale
(C) Shindo scale
(D) MSK-64 scale
5 The space between the highest level of the water in the reservoir and A
the top of the dam is called
(A) Freeboard
(B) Gate
(C) Abutment
(D) None of above
6 This is called top width of the dam A

1
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

(A) Crest
(B) Toe
(C) Heel
(D) Free board
7 These are called small dam B
(A) Above 10m
(B) below 10m
(C) Above 20m
(D) below 20m
8 The base width of an elementary profile of a gravity dam of height H A
is b. The specific gravity of the material is G and uplift pressure
coefficient is K. The correct relationship for no tension at the heel is
given by

9 The factor of safety against overturning generally varies between A

___________
a) 2 to 3
b) 1.5 to 2
c) 0.5 to 1.5
d) 1 to 2
10 What is the maximum permissible tensile stress for high concrete A
gravity dam under worst conditions?
a) 500 KN/m2
b) 500 kg/cm2
c) 5 kg/m2
d) 50 KN/m2
11 Which failure occurs when the net horizontal force above any plane C
in the dam or at the base of the dam exceeds the frictional resistance
developed at that level?
a) Overturning
b) Crushing
c) Sliding
d) BY development of tension

2
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

12 Which failure occurs when the minimum stress exceeds the allowable B
compressive stress of the dam material?
a) Overturning
b) Crushing
c) Sliding
d) By development of tension
13 Tension cracks in the dam may sometimes lead to the failure of the C
structure by
a) Sliding of the dam at the cracked section
b) Overturning about the toe
c) Crushing of concrete starting from the toe
d) Both overturning and crushing
14 The major principal stress at the toe of a gravity dam under full C
reservoir condition neglecting the tailwater effect is given by
____________________
a) Pv
b) Pv tanQ2
c) Pv secQ2
d) Pv sinQ2
Where Pv = direct vertical stress and Q is the angle of the downstream
face with the vertical.
15 Which of the following criteria has to be satisfied for no tension at B
any point on a gravity dam?
a) The resultant of all the forces must always pass through the mid-point
of the base of the dam
b) The resultant force for all conditions of loading must pass through the
middle third of the base
c) The resultant of all the forces must pass through the upstream extremity
of the middle third of the base
d) The resultant of all the forces must pass through the downstream
extremity of the middle third of the base
16 Which of the following criteria has to be satisfied for no tension at B
any point on a gravity dam?
a) The resultant of all the forces must always pass through the mid-point
of the base of the dam
b) The resultant force for all conditions of loading must pass through the
middle third of the base
c) The resultant of all the forces must pass through the upstream extremity

3
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

of the middle third of the base

d) The resultant of all the forces must pass through the downstream
extremity of the middle third of the base
17 The governing compressive stress in a concrete gravity dam which B
should not be allowed to exceed the permissible value of about 3000
KN/m2 while analyzing full reservoir case is ____________________
a) The vertical maximum stress at the toe
b) The major principal stress at toe
c) The shear stress at the toe
d) The principal stress at the heel
18 If the uplift increases and the net effective downward force reduces, A
the resultant will shift towards the toe.
a) True
b) False
19 When the reservoir is empty, the single force acting on it is the self- C
weight of the dam which acts at a distance of ____________
a) B/2 from the heel
b) B/6 from the heel
c) B/3 from the heel
d) B/4 from the heel
20 When the reservoir is empty, the maximum vertical stress equal to A
________________
a) At heel = 2W/B and at toe = 0
b) At heel = 0 and at toe = 2W/B
c) At heel = toe = zero
d) At heel = toe = 2W/B
21 The two-dimensional stability analysis of gravity dams proves better A
for U-shaped valleys than for V-shaped valleys.
a) True
b) False
22 Calculate the value of minimum base width for an elementary D
triangular concrete gravity dam supporting 72 m height of reservoir
water and full uplift? (Take specific gravity of concrete as 2.4 and
coefficient of friction as 0.7)
a) 36.28 m
b) 39.77 m
c) 51.5 m
d) 73.5 m

4
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

23 For usual values of permissible compressive stress and specific C

gravity of concrete, a high concrete gravity is the one whose height
exceeds ______________
a) 48 m
b) 70 m
c) 88 m
d) 98 m
24 For triangular dam section of height H for just no tension under the D
action of water pressure, self-weight and uplift pressure, the
minimum base width required is _____________
a) H / (S-1)
b) H / S1/2
c) H / (S – 1)-1
d) H / (S-1)1/2 where S is specific gravity of concrete and H is the height
of the water
25 If the eccentricity of the resultant falls outside the middle third, the A
ultimate failure of the dam occurs by ______________
a) Tension
b) Crushing
c) Sliding
d) Overturning
26 What is the value of eccentricity for no tension condition in the dam? A
a) e < B/6
b) e > B/6
c) e > B/3
d) e < B/3
27 What is the formula for limiting height of a gravity dam? A
a) Hmax = f / (Sc + 1) γw
b) Hmax = f / (Sc – 1) γw
c) Hmax = f / (Sc + C) γw
d) Hmax = f / (Sc – 1) γw
28 Calculate the top width of the dam if the height of water stored is A
84m.
a) 5 m
b) 2.5 m
c) 5.55 m
d) 7.75 m
29 The vertical downward earthquake acceleration av = 0.1g acting on a B

5
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

gravity dam will ________________________

a) Increase the resisting weight of the dam by 10%
b) Decrease the resisting weight of the dam by 10%
c) Increase the uplift by 10%
d) Decrease the uplift by 10%
30 A gravity dam is subjected to hydrodynamic pressure caused by C
__________
a) The rising waves of the reservoir when a flood wave enters into it
b) The rising waves in the reservoir due to high winds
c) The increase in water pressure momentarily caused by the horizontal
earthquake acting towards the reservoir
d) The increase in water pressure momentarily caused by the horizontal
earthquake acting towards the dam
31 In a concrete gravity dam with a vertical upstream face the stabilising A
force is provided by the ___________________
a) Weight of the dam
b) The water supported against the upstream slope
c) Uplift pressure
d) Water pressure at the tail end
32 The upward acceleration of dam due to seismic activity will A
________________________
a) Increase the base pressure
b) Decrease the base pressure
c) Not affect the effective weight of the dam
d) Increase the horizontal dynamic force
33 What is the average value of acceleration that is sufficient for high A
dams in seismic zones?
a) 0.1g to 0.15g
b) 0.05g to 0.1g
c) 0.3gs
d) 0.15g (where g is the acceleration due to gravity)
34 What is Von Karman’s formula for hydrodynamic force (Pe)? D
a) Pe = 0.726 pe H
b) Pe = 0.424 pe H
c) Pe = 0.555 pe H
d) Pe = 0.555.Kh. Yw H2
Where Yw is the unit weight of water, H is the depth of water and Kh is a
fraction of gravity adapted for horizontal acceleration.

6
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

35 In high dams, the safety against sliding should be checked only for B
friction.
a) True
b) False
36 For full reservoir condition in a gravity dam, the critical combination B
of vertical and horizontal earthquake accelerations to be considered
for checking the stability is ________________________
a) Vertically upward and horizontally downstream
b) Vertically downward and horizontally downstream
c) Vertically upward and horizontally upstream
d) Vertically downward and horizontally upstream
37 The vertical stress at the toe was found to be 3.44 MPa at the base of D
the gravity dam section. If the downstream face of the dam has a
slope of 0.617 horizontal: 1 vertical, the maximum principal stress at
the toe of the dam when there is no tailwater is _______________
a) 1.7 MPa
b) 2.4 MPa
c) 3.6 MPa
d) 4.8 MPa
38 What is the recommended value of shear friction factor against C
sliding?
a) More than unity
b) Less than unity
c) More than 3 to 5
d) Less than 3
39 A concrete gravity dam having a maximum reservoir level at 200 m A
and the RL of the bottom of the dam 100 m. The maximum allowable
compressive stress in concrete is 3000 KN/m2 and the specific gravity
of concrete is 2.4. Calculate the height of the dam and check whether
it is a high dam or low dam.
a) H = 90 m High gravity dam
b) H = 90 m Low gravity dam
c) H = 214.2 m High gravity dam
d) H = 214.2 m Low gravity dam
40 The axis of a gravity dam is the ______________________ B
a) Line of the crown of the dam on the downstream side
b) Line of the crown of the dam on the upstream side
c) Centre-line of the top width of the dam

7
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

d) The line joining mid-points of the base

41 Presence of tail-water in a gravity dam ____________________ D
a) Increases the principal stress and decreases the shear stress
b) Increases both the principal stress and the shear stress
c) Decreases the principal stress and increases the shear stress
d) Decreases both the principal stress and the shear stress
42 The provision of drainage gallery in a gravity dam helps in reducing B
____________________
a) Hydrostatic pressure
b) Seepage pressure
c) Silt pressure
d) Both hydrostatic pressure and seepage pressure
43 Which of the following attempts are made to reduce the uplift in B
order to economize on the provided section of a concrete gravity
dam?
i. Providing drainage gallery to collect seepage water
ii. Constructing cut-off under upstream face
iii. Pressure grouting in dam foundation
iv. Provision of shear keys or keyways
a) i and ii
b) i, ii and iii
c) i, ii and iv
d) i, ii, iii and iv
44 Transverse joints in concrete gravity dams are the B
___________________________
a) Horizontal construction joints at each lift height
b) Vertical construction joints of full height and width
c) Diagonal construction joints for torsion
d) Longitudinal construction joints of full width
45 Leakage through the transverse joints in a gravity dam is prevented C
by ____________
a) Shear keys
b) Keyways
c) Water stops
d) Galleries
46 In order to reduce uplift on a gravity dam, the type of grouting done A
is ____________________
a) Curtain grouting near the heel
b) Consolidation grouting near the heel
c) Curtain grouting near the toe
d) Consolidation grouting near the toe
47 Which of the following joints justifies the two-dimensional analysis of B

8
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

gravity dams?
a) Longitudinal joints
b) Transverse joints
c) Construction joints
d) Contraction joints
48 The foundation pressure used in the pressure grouting is equal to B
_________________
a) 2.0 D N/cm2
b) 2.5 D N/cm2
c) 5.0 D N/cm2
d) 3.0 D N/cm2
Where D is the depth of grouting in meters below the surface
49 Such dam is not suitable for v-shape valley C
(A) Variable radius arch dam
(B) Constant angle arch dam
(C) Constant radius arch dam
(D) Double curvature arch dam
50 The highest arch dam in India is A
(A) Iduki Dam
(B) Marrow Point dam
(C) Katse dam
(D) Shah Abbas arch dam
51 The dam in which the central angle of the arch ring is at various A
elevation
(A) Constant angle arch dam
(B) Constant radius arch dam
(C) Variable radius arch dam
(D) Double curvature arc dam
52 In arch dam stability can be obtained by C
(A) Arch action
(B) Gravity action
(C) Both arch and gravity action
(D) None of above
53 An arch dam looks like a single arch in _________________ A
a) Plan
b) Front elevation
c) Side elevation
d) Both Plan and Front elevation
54 A non-vertical arch dam is known as a_________________ D
a) Buttress dam

9
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

b) Double curvature arch dam

c) Shell arch dam
d) Both Double curvature and shell arch dams
55 Greater is the wall curvature in an arch dam, greater will be the A
economy in the dam thickness.
a) True
b) False
56 Which of the following is the most economical type of arch dam? C
a) Constant radius type
b) Variable radius type
c) Constant angle type
d) Variable angle type
57 A constant angle arch dam when compared to constant radius arch A
dam utilizes concrete quality of about ______________
a) 43%
b) 130%
c) 230%
d) 113%
58 Which among the following type of dam section is expected to be the B
thinnest and the most economical?
a) Constant angle arch dam
b) Shell-arch dam
c) Constant radius arch dam
d) Concrete gravity dam
59 The most economical central angle of the arch rings of an arch dam B
can be adopted only at one place preferably at mid-height in an arch
dam is of the type __________________
a) Constant angle arch dam
b) Constant radius arch dam
c) Both constant angle and constant radius arch dam
d) Variable radius arch dam
60 In an arch dam, the extrados curve refer to the arch rings A
corresponding to the ____________________
a) The upstream face of the dam
b) Downstream face of the dam
c) Side face of the dam
d) Either upstream or downstream face of the dam
61 A V-shaped valley with stronger foundations can suggest the choice of C

10
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

an arch dam is of the type ___________________________

a) Constant radius arch dam
b) Variable radius arch dam
c) Constant angle arch dam
d) Variable angle arch dam
62 A constant radius arch dam is also sometimes called as A
_______________
a) Constant centre arch dam
b) Constant angle arch dam
c) Variable angle arch dam
d) Variable centre arch dam
63 The type of arch dam which generally requires overhangs at C
abutments is of ________________________
a) Constant radius type
b) Variable radius type
c) Constant angle type
d) Variable angle type
64 Which of the following forces is the least important in the design of B
arch dams?
a) Reservoir water force
b) Uplift pressure
c) Temperature stresses
d) Ice load
e) Yield stresses
65 Which of the following theory is the most accurate method to design C
arch?
a) The thin cylinder theory
b) The theory of elastic arches
c) The trial load method
d) Creep theory
66 Which among the following is not an assumption of the ‘Trial Load B
Analysis’ method of design of arch dams?
a) Plane sections normal to the axis remain plane after flexure
b) Any horizontal arch ring is independent of the arch rings below and
above
c) Modulus of elasticity of concrete and rock foundation is equal for
compression and tension
d) Stresses are proportional to strains

11
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

67 The thin cylinder theory for designing arch dams is based only on D
___________________
a) Temperature stresses
b) Ice pressures
c) Yield stresses
d) Hydrostatic water pressure
68 The temperature stresses producing worst effects in the design of B
arch dams are caused by ______________
a) Rise in temperature
b) Fall in temperature
c) Both rise and fall
d) No effect in the design
69 The stresses due to rib-shortening become quite important in the case B
of _____________
a) Long thin arch dams
b) Thick arch dams of small angle
c) Both thin and thick arch dams
d) All types of arch dam
70 Which of the following is not the basis for the design of an arch dam? C
a) Thin cylinder theory
b) Trial load theory
c) Unit column theory
d) Elastic theory
71 At a given elevation, the thickness of the arch ring is proportional to A
the radius of the arch.
a) True
b) False
72 The load from the deck of a buttress dam is transmitted to the B
foundations through the ______
a) Corbels
b) Buttresses
c) Lateral braces
d) Sloping deck
73 Multiple arch dams are generally used for ______________ A
a) High heights
b) Low heights
c) Medium heights
d) Any height

12
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

74 Which of the following dam requires no reinforcement? D

a) Fixed deck buttress dam
b) Simple deck buttress dam
c) Cantilever deck buttress dam
d) Massive head buttress dam
75 Which of the following component of a buttress dam is also called B
counterfort?
a) Corbel
b) Buttress
c) Lateral brace
d) Sloping deck
76 Which of the following type of dam requires very strong and stable C
foundations and is not in use as much as the other types?
a) Multiple dome-type dams
b) Massive head type dam
c) Columnar buttress type dam
d) Deck slab type dam

13
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

Department: Civil Engineering Date: 16-04-2020

Class: BE Division: A and B
Subject: Dams and Hydraulic Structure (401007)
Prepared By : Prof. Sarika Shantaram Kale

Multiple Choice Questions on Unit III

Sr No Question Correct Option

Unit III-Spillway and Spillway Gate

1 Spillway are used to C
(A) Stop excess water in dam
(B) To guide water flow in canal
(C) To pass overflow water in dam
(D) None of above
2 Water emerges from an ogee spillway with velocity =13.72 m/s and C
depth =0.3m at its toe. The tail water depth required to form a
hydraulic jump at the toe is
(A) 6.48 m
(B) 5.24 m
(C) 3.24 m
(D) 2.24 m
Explanation:

3 Which of the following spillway is least suitable to earthen dams? A

A) Ogee spillway

1
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

B) Chute spillway
C) Side-channel spillways
D) Shaft spillway
4 If the operating head on an ogee spillway is more than the design B
head then __________
A) The pressure on the crest will be zero
B) The pressure on the crest will be negative causing cavitation
C) The pressure on the crest will be positive
D) The discharge coefficient of the spillway will be reduced
5 Which of the following equations represent the downstream profile of A
ogee spillway with the vertical upstream face? ( x, y are the co-
ordinates of the point of the downstream profile with the origin of the
crest of the spillway and Hd is the design head?

6 In the functioning of an ogee spillway, the operating head __________ B

a) Frequently exceeds the design head
b) Rarely exceeds the design head
c) Never exceeds the design head
d) Has no connection with the design head
7 Which of the following spillway is an improvement over free overflow C
spillway?
a) Straight drop spillway
b) Open channel spillway
c) Ogee spillway
d) Siphon spillway
8 If the head of the water over the spillway is less than the design head, D
then ________________
a) The pressure on the crest will be zero
b) The pressure on the crest will be negative causing cavitation

2
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

c) The discharge coefficient of the spillway is increased

d) The discharge coefficient of the spillway will be reduced
9 According to US Army Corps, the u/s profile of ogee spillway extends B
up to _______________
a) x = 1.27 Hd
b) x = -1.27 Hd
c) x = 0.431 Hd
d) x = -0.431 Hd Where Hd is the design head.
10 What is the satisfactory radius for the reverse bottom curve which is A
provided at the downstream end of the spillway?
a) One-fourth of the spillway height
b) Equal to the spillway height
c) Half the value of the spillway height
d) One-third of the spillway height
11 In the functioning of an ogee spillway, the operating head __________ B
a) Frequently exceeds the design head
b) Rarely exceeds the design head
c) Never exceeds the design head
d) Has no connection with the design head
12 The spillway can be best built independently of the dam when there is A
_________________________
a) Deep narrow gorge with steep slopes
b) Deep narrow gorge with gradual slopes
c) Wide gorge with a gradual slope
d) Wide valley with moderate slopes
13 Which of the following is the simplest type of spillway and may be A
constructed on small bunds or thin arch dams?
a) Straight drop spillway
b) Ogee spillway
c) Shaft spillway
d) Siphon spillway
14 The discharge passing over an ogee spillway per unit length of its D
apex line is proportional ___________________
a) H
b) H2
c) H1/2
d) H3/2
Where H is the head over the apex of its crest.
15 When the crest of an ogee spillway is designed to be in accordance A
with the lower nappe of a free-falling water jet over a duly ventilated
sharp-crested weir then theoretically
a) The pressure on the spillway crest will be zero at design head only
b) The pressure on the spillway crest will always be zero
c) The pressure on the spillway crest will always be negative
3
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

d) The pressure on the spillway crest will be always positive

16 When the gated sluices are provided through the body of the dam B
spillway then the ogee spillway structure shall normally be of Corbel
type.
a) True
b) False
17 If the spillway is constructed in continuation to the dam at one end, it B
may be called as ________
a) Saddle weir
b) Flank weir
c) Waste weir
d) Temporary weir
18 The side slope of approach channel of chute spillway A
is___________________
a) 1:1
b) 1:2
c) 1:3
d) 1:2.5
19 The portion of a chute spillway which is known as its control A
structure is ________________
a) Low ogee weir
b) Chute channel
c) Approach channel leading the water from the reservoir to the ogee weir
d) Silting basin at its bottom
20 The type of spillway which is provided on narrow valleys where no C
side flanks are available is ____________________
a) Ogee spillway
b) Chute spillway
c) Side-channel spillway
d) Straight drop spillway
21 Which of the following curve is provided when the slope of the chute C
changes from milder to steeper?
a) Concave vertical curve
b) Hyperbolic curve
c) Convex vertical curve
d) Straight plan
22 A shaft spillway is located _______________________ B
a) Inside the body of a gravity dam
b) Inside the upstream reservoir
c) Inside the downstream reservoir
d) On the side flanks of the main dam
23 The siphons installed within a gravity dam to spill the surplus B
reservoir water are known as ______________________

4
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

a) Hooded type siphon spillway

b) Tilted outlet type siphon spillway
c) Both hooded and titled type siphon spillway
d) Shaft spillway
24 The only spillway among the following through which the discharge D
does not increase as fast as it increases in all others is
_________________
a) Chute spillway
b) Side-channel spillway
c) Ogee spillway
d) Shaft spillway
25 The only spillway among the following through which the discharge is D
almost at its capacity rate even from the start of its functioning is
________________
a) Chute spillway
b) Side-channel spillway
c) Ogee spillway
d) Siphon spillway
26 The crest of a siphon spillway is fixed at ________________ A
a) Full reservoir level
b) Dead storage level
c) Maximum water level
d) Top of the dam
27 A siphon spillway is sufficiently independent of the water surface A
elevation of the reservoir.
a) True
b) False
28 The structure which is not used in a shaft spillway is C
________________
a) Tunnel
b) Bridge
c) Radial gates
d) Radial piers
29 Morning glory is the _____________________________ B
a) Special flared inlet of the shaft spillway of a dam of very small height
b) Special flared inlet of the shaft spillway of a large dam project
c) A horizontal tunnel constructed in a shaft spillway across the body of a
gravity dam to carry surplus reservoir water to the d/s river
d) A horizontal tunnel constructed in a shaft spillway of an earthen dam
through its foundation to carry surplus reservoir water to the d/s river
30 The energy dissipation at the toe of the spillway is affected basically C
by the use of hydraulic jump in _______________________
a) Roller bucket
b) A ski-jump bucket
5
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

c) A sloping apron below the downstream river bed

d) Both roller and ski-jump bucket
31 The most ideal condition for energy dissipation in the design of A
spillways is the one when the tail-water rating curve coincides with
the jump rating curve at all discharge.
a) True
b) False
32 When the tail-water depths in the river downstream of a spillway are B
quite low such that the tail-water curve at all discharges lies below the
post jump depth curve, then the energy dissipation can be affected
best by ___________________
a) A roller bucket
b) A ski-jump bucket
c) Either roller or ski-jump bucket
d) A sloping apron
33 The device which does not help in energy dissipation at the bottom of C
a hydraulic structure over which water spills is ________________
a) Chute block
b) Dentated sill
c) Morning glory
d) Baffle piers
34 The formation of hydraulic jump at the foot of a spillway is one of the A
common methods of energy dissipation because
______________________
a) It destroys more than 90% of total energy by the turbulence produced in
the jump
b) It reduces the kinetic energy by increasing the depth of flow
c) Its action is not understood
d) It reduces the kinetic energy by decreasing the depth of flow
35 A ski-jump bucket is also known as _____________________ A
a) Flip bucket
b) Solid roller bucket
c) Slotted roller bucket
d) Flexible bucket
36 The percentage of energy dissipation in a hydraulic jump increases A
with the increase in the Froude number.
a) True
b) False
37 Which of the following stilling basin help in stabilizing the flow and B
improve the jump performance?
a) Dentated sills
b) Chute blocks
c) Baffle piers
d) Friction blocks
6
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

38 What is the expected solution for the case when the T.W.C is lying B
above the J.H.C curve at all discharges?
a) By providing a simple concrete apron of length 5(Y1 – Y2)
b) By providing a sloping apron above the river bed
c) By providing a sloping apron below the river bed
d) Provision of a ski-jump bucket
39 A sloping apron is provided partly above the river bed and partly D
below the river bed in case of ____________________________
a) When TWC coincides with the JHC at all discharges
b) When TWC lies above the JHC at all discharges
c) When TWC lies below the JHC at all discharges
d) When TWC lies above the JHC at low discharges and below the JHC at
high discharges
40 A troublesome and oscillating hydraulic jump is normally met in A
cases of _____________
a) Weirs and Barrages
b) Overflow spillways of dams
c) Weirs
d) Large spillways
41 When the Froude number is in the range of 2.5 to 4.5, the jump is B
____________________
a) Weak and energy loss is low
b) Troublesome and oscillating
c) Steady jump
d) Strong jump
42 Standard USBR stilling basin-II is useful for energy dissipation at the B
bottom of the overflow structure, if the approaching Froude number
is ________________
a) Less than 4.5
b) More than 4.5
c) Less than 2.5
d) More than 2.5
43 Which of the following stilling basin is applicable to only rectangular B
cross-sections?
a) U.S.B.R stilling basin-II
b) U.S.B.R stilling basin-IV
c) U.S.B.R stilling basin-I
d) U.S.B.R stilling basin-III
44 The Froude number of a hydraulic jump is 5.5. The jump can be D
classified as ____________
a) A weak jump
b) An oscillating jump
c) Rough and choppy jump
d) Steady jump

7
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

45 _____________________ are suitable only for low spillways or weirs. C

a) Chute blocks
b) Sloping aprons
c) Baffle wall or friction blocks
d) Roller buckets
46 Which of the following helps in dissipating the residual energy and to A
reduce the length of the jump or the basin?
a) Dentated sills
b) Chute blocks
c) Roller bucket
d) Baffle piers
47 In a fixed roller of a spillway gate, the rollers are attached to the A
__________________
a) Gate
b) Groove gate
c) Either gate or groove gate
d) Guide grooves
48 In the vertical Stoney spillway gate, the rollers are placed between the B
______________
a) Gate and u/s groove guide
b) Gate and the d/s groove guide
c) U/s and D/s groove guide
d) Attached to the gate and groove guides
49 The spillway gate which when lowered cannot be seen from a distance D
is of the type ______________________
a) Sliding gate
b) Roller gate
c) Tainter gate
d) USBR drum gate
50 The most common vertical lift gates in modern days is D
_________________
a) Sliding gates
b) Free-roller gates
c) Stoney gates
d) Fixed wheel gates
51 The working of Reynolds’s gate is automatic. A
a) True
b) False
52 Which of the following gate is also called flush boards? A
a) Dropping shutters
b) Tainter gates
c) Drum gates
d) Vertical lift gates

8
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

53 Which one of the following gate is not suitable for curved crests? A
a) Flush boards
b) Tainter gates
c) Drum gates
d) Vertical lift gates
54 ________________ are used only for very minor works. B
a) Dropping gates
b) Stop logs and needles
c) Rectangular gates
d) Drum gates

9
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

Department: Civil Engineering Date: 16-04-2020

Class: BE Division: A and B
Subject: Dams and Hydraulic Structure (401007)
Prepared By : Prof. Sarika Shantaram Kale

Multiple Choice Questions on Unit IV

Sr No Question Correct Option

Unit IV-Earth Dam and Diversion head work

1 Which of the following earth dam is suitable only on impervious B
foundation?
a) Zoned embankment type
b) Homogenous embankment type
c) Non-homogenous type
d) Diaphragm type
2 Which of the following zone in Zoned type embankment prevents B
piping through cracks?
a) Central core
b) Transition zone
c) Outer zone
d) Core wall
3 Which of the following soil material is most preferred for the central B
core material of zoned embankment type dam?
a) Highly impervious clay
b) Sands or silty clays
c) Coarse sands
d) Gravels
4 Which embankment has the thickness of the diaphragm at an A
elevation less than 10 meters or the height of the embankment above
the corresponding elevation?
a) Diaphragm type dam
b) Zoned type dam
c) Non-homogenous earth dam
d) Homogenous earth dam
5 The blanket in earth dam is provided ___________________ A
a) At the ground level on u/s side
b) At the ground level on the d/s side
c) At the ground level of the D/s side of the dam
d) On the D/s slope
6 Which of the following statement is correct with reference to earthen C

1
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

dams?
a) These dams are very costly as compared to other types
b) Gravity dams are less susceptible to failure as compared to rigid dams
c) These dams are suitable for construction on almost every type of
foundation
d) Highly skilled labor is generally not required
7 During the construction of an earthen dam by hydraulic fill method, A
development of pore pressure becomes important in the
__________________
a) Central impervious core
b) Pervious outer shell
c) Transition zone
d) Both central core and outer shell
8 The process of laying and compacting earth in layers by power rollers A
under OMC for construction of earthen dams is known as
______________________
a) Rolled fill method
b) Hydraulic fill method
c) OMC method
d) Compaction
9 The central core of the zoned embankment type earth dam A
________________________
a) Checks the seepage
b) Prevents piping
c) Gives stability to the central impervious fill
d) Distribute the load over a large area
10 Which type of dam is suitable on shallow pervious foundations? A
a) Zoned embankment type
a) Homogenous embankment type
c) Both Non-homogenous type and homogenous type
11 What is the U.S.B.R recommended value for freeboard when the C
height of the dam is more than 60 m?
a) 2 m to 3 m
b) 2.5 m above the top of gates
c) 3 m above the top of gates
d) More than 3 m
12 What is the recommended formula for top width of a very low dam? B
a) H + 3
b) 0.2H + 3
c) 0.2 H
d) H + 5
where H is the height of the dam
13 Calculate the top width (A) of the earth dam of height 50 m. C
a) 5.0 m
2
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

b) 4.75 m
c) 6.10 m
d) 3 m
Explanation: For dams higher than 30 m, the top width (A) is given by the
following formula-
A = 1.65 (H + 1.5)1/3 where H is the height of the dam.
A = 1.65 (50 + 1.5)1/3 = 6.13 m.
14 A phreatic line in seepage analysis is defined as the line on which A
pressure is _______________
a) Equal to the atmosphere
b) Greater than atmosphere
c) Lower than atmosphere
d) Varying
15 Provision of horizontal berms at suitable vertical intervals may be C
provided in the downstream face of an earthen dam in order to
_________________
a) Allow the movement of cattle
b) Allow the inspection of vehicles to move
c) Reduce the erosion caused by the flowing rainwater
d) Increase the erosion
16 During seepage through an earthen mass, the direction of seepage is A
________________ to the equipotential lines.
a) Perpendicular
b) Parallel
c) Not defined
d) Diagonal
17 The upstream face of the earth dam is considered as A
_____________________
a) Equipotential line
b) Streamline
c) Streak line
d) Path line
18 Which of the following line acts as a dividing line between dry (or C
moist) and submerged line?
a) Equipotential line
b) Path line
c) Seepage line
d) Streak line
19 Stone pitching or riprap is generally provided to avoid B
_______________
a) Over-topping
b) Erosion of U/s and d/s face
c) Cracking due to frost action
d) Gully formation

3
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

20 Provision of sufficient freeboard eliminates _______________ D

i. Over-topping failure
ii. Erosion of U/s face
iii. Erosion of D/s face
iv. Cracking due to frost action
v. Gully formation
Which of the following is/are correct?
a) i and v
b) ii and iii
c) iv and v
d) i and iv
21 The collection and removal of water before it acquires high A
downward velocities is ensured by provision
of____________________
a) Berms
b) Freeboard
c) Burrow pits
d) Spoil banks
22 In order to prevent the possibility of the cross-flow towards the B
earthen embankments, it is necessary to provide
_____________________
a) Counter berms
b) Sides walls of sufficient height and length
c) Spoil banks
d) Sufficient freeboard
23 Sloughing is the process of _________________ D
a) Progressive erosion
b) Subsequent removal of soil grains from within the dam
c) Uncontrolled seepage through the dam body
d) Progressive removal of soil from the D/s face
24 In foundation slide failure___________________________ A
a) Top of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves outward
forming large mud waves near the heel
b) Top of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves inward
forming large mud waves near the heel
c) Bottom of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves outward
forming large mud waves near the heel
d) Bottom of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves inward
forming large mud waves near the heel
25 What is the most critical condition of slide of the U/s slope? A
a) The sudden drawdown of the reservoir
b) Reservoir full condition
c) Steady seepage condition
d) Sudden drawdown and reservoir full condition

4
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

26 When the reservoir is full, the slope which is most likely to slide is B
_____________________
a) The upstream slope
b) The downstream slope
c) Both upstream and downstream slope
d) No effect
27 In order to keep the saturation line in a canal embankment well B
within the toe, it is necessary to provide _____________________
a) Spoil bank
b) Counter berm
c) Freeboard
d) Berm
28 Which of the following failures generally occur due to the C
development of unaccounted pore pressures?
a) Hydraulic failures
b) Piping through the dam body
c) Sliding in embankments
d) Sloughing of the d/s toe
29 Which of the following method is also called as the Slices method? B
a) Fellenius method
b) Swedish slip circle method
c) Bishop’s simplified method
d) Spencer’s method
30 In Fellenius method for small values of angle of internal friction of C
soil, the critical arc passes ________________
a) Through the toe of the slope
b) Above the toe of the slope
c) Below the toe of the slope
d) Anywhere near the toe of the slope
31 Calculate the maximum shear-stress induced if the horizontal average C
shear stress induced in u/s portion of the dam at the base is 36.45
kN/m2.
a) 43.74 kN/m2
b) 47.38 kN/m2
c) 51.03 kN/m2
d) 54.67 kN/m2
Explanation : Ꞇmax = 1.4 Ꞇavg = 1.4 x 36.45 = 51.03 kN/m2.
32 Calculate the factor of safety at the point of maximum shear if unit D
shearing resistance is 97.9 kN/m2 and the maximum shear-stress
induced is 55.72 kN/m2. Check whether the dam is safe or unsafe.
a) F.O.S = 1.93 and safe
b) F.O.S = 1.75 and unsafe
c) F.O.S = 0.569 and safe
d) F.O.S = 1.75 and safe

5
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

Explanation: F.O.S will be the ratio of the unit shearing resistance to the
maximum shear stress developed.
F.O.S = 97.9 / 55.72 = 1.75
this value should be more than unity, hence safe.
33 A rock toe and a horizontal filter is provided on the downstream base D
of an earthen dam in order to ____________
a) Prevent piping action in the dam body
b) Prevent piping action in the dam foundation
c) To reduce the seepage quantity by blocking its flow
d) To collect and drain out the seepage flow
34 What is provided in the form of a transition zone between the A
homogenous embankments-fill and rock toe?
a) Toe filter
b) Horizontal blanket
c) Chimney drain
d) Trenches
35 The length of horizontal blanket should be equal to A
_________________
a) 3 times the height of the dam
b) 4 times the height of the dam
c) 5 times the height of the dam
d) 6 times the height of the dam
36 ____________________ is provided when large scale stratification A
occurs.
a) Chimney drain
b) Cut-off
c) Relief wells
d) Trenches
37 The only provision among the following which can help control the D
seepage through the body of an earthen dam and thus to keep the
phreatic line well within the dam width is ______________________
a) Upstream impervious cut-off
b) Drain trench along the downstream toe
c) Relief wells
d) Chimney drain
38 Stone Pitching are provided on A
(A) U/s of dam
(B) D/s of dam
(C) Construction of road
(D) Expressway
39 A weir on a permeable foundation with downstream sheet pile as C
shown in fig. below. The exit gradient as per Khosala,s method is

6
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

(A) 1 in 6.0
(B) 1 in 5.0
(C) 1 in 3.4
(D) 1 in 2.5
Explanation :

40 Uplift pressure at point E and d (fig. A) of the straight horizontal

floor of negligible thickness with a sheet pile at d/s end are 28% and
B
20%, respectively, If the sheet pile u/s end of the floor (fig. B) the
uplift pressure at point D1 and C1 are
7
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

(A) 68% and 60% respectively

(B) 80% and 72% respectively
(C) 88% and 70% respectively
(D) 100% and 0% respectively
Explanation :

41 Into how many components the diversion headwork is divided? A

a) 8
b) 5
c) 4
d) 7
42 In order to find proper location for the head works on the river, the D
river is divided into how many stages?
a) 5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
43 Divide wall helps in concentrating scouring action. A
a) True
b) False
44 Head regulator helps in controlling the flow in the canal. B
a) False
b) True
45 By constructing which structure we can help the fish in their C
migration?
a) Scouring Sluices
b) Silt Excluder
c) Fish Ladder

8
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

d) Divide Wall
46 What device is placed in front of head regulator for silt removal? C
a) Weir
b) Silt Extractor
c) Silt Excluder
d) Barrage
47 Which device is used for silt removal after it enters the canal? B
a) Silt Excluder
b) Silt Ejector
c) Weir
d) Barrage
48 Depending on how many considerations the capacity of under sluices D
is fixed?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 2
d) 3
49 How many river training works are needed on the canal head works? B
a) 5
b) 3
c) 4
d) 2
50 What does the diagram represent? B

a) Divide Wall
b) Plan of Fish Ladder
c) Scouring Sluices
d) Canal Head Regulator
51 The laplacian equation represents two sets of curves intersecting B
orthogonally.
a) False
b) True
52 What is the path represented by the streamlines? D
a) Hydraulic Jump
b) Flow Net
c) Energy Dissipation

9
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

d) Water Flow
53 How many corrections are needed for the complex profile broken C
from simple forms, to be valid?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
54 By how many considerations the depth downstream vertical cutoff is A
governed?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 3
d) 4
55 Khosla’s theory of flow nets says that the loss head does not take A
place uniformly.
a) True
b) False
56 What is laplacian equation? B
a) d2φ / dx2 + d2Φ/dz2
b) d2Φ / dx2 + d2Φ/dz2
c) dΦ / dx + d2Φ/dy2
d) d2φ / dx2 + d2Φ/dz
57 What type of points is needed to be joined to form an equipotential B
line?
a) Equal Pressure Points
b) Residual Heads which still need Energy Dissipation
c) Velocity Gradient Points
d) Points of intersection of Streamlines and Velocity Components
58 The component of which force is to be counterbalanced so that the D
soil grains remain stable?
a) Upthrust Pressure Forces
b) Forces due to Velocity Components
c) Pressure Force
d) Seepage Water Force
59 What is the name of the gradient pressure at the exit end? B
a) Gradient of Pressure
b) Exit Gradient
c) Streamline Gradient
d) Equipotential Gradient
60 Which method is evolved by khosla for designing of hydraulic C
structures?
a) Method of Gradients
b) Method of Variables

10
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

c) Method of Independent Variables

d) Method of Flow Nets
61 What is the value of Bligh’s coefficient for coarse-grained soil? B
a) 15
b) 12
c) 5 to 9
d) 8
62 For sand mixed with boulder and gravel and for loam soil, the safe C
hydraulic gradient should be ___________
a) 1/15
b) 1/12
c) 1/5 to 1/9
d) 1/8
63 Which of the following is not a limitation of creep theory? D
a) No distinction between the vertical and horizontal creep
b) No distinction between effectiveness of outer and inner faces of sheet
pile
c) Significance of exit gradient is not considered
d) Only a nominal floor thickness is required on the upstream side so as to
resist water
64 If the value of Bligh’s coefficient for a particular soil is equal to 12 A
then, what is the safe hydraulic gradient for that soil?
a) 1/12
b) 1/9
c) 1/15
d) 1/5
65 According to Bligh, a vertical cut-off at U/s end of the floor is less B
useful than the one at the D/s end of the floor.
a) True
b) False
66 Consider the following statements about Bligh’s Creep Theory. A
i. Creep length is the length of path traversed by percolating water
ii. To increase the path of percolation vertical cut-off or sheet piles can be
provided
iii. Loss of head per unit creep length is hydraulic gradient
iv. Bligh gave no criteria for the safety of weir against undermining
Which of the following statements are correct?
a) i, ii, iii
b) ii, iii, iv
c) i, iii, iv
d) i, ii, iv
67 As per Bligh’s theory, thickness to be provided by taking a factor of B
safety equal to _______
a) 2/3
11
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

b) 4/3
c) 1/3
d) 1/2
68 Calculate the value of creep length for the following. C

a) 50 m
b) 26 m
c) 58 m
d) 36 m
Explanation:
Total creep length, L = b + 2(d1 + d2 + d3)
d1 = 6 m, d2 = 4 m, d3 = 8 m and b = 22 m
L = 22 + 2 x (6+4+8) = 58 m.
69 Lane’s in his theory proposed that horizontal creep is more effective B
than the vertical creep.
a) True
b) False
70 In Lane’s weighted creep theory, he suggested a weightage factor A
_________
a) 1/3 for horizontal creep and 1.0 for vertical creep
b) 1/3 for vertical creep and 1.0 for horizontal creep
c) 2/3 for horizontal creep and 1/3 for horizontal creep
d) 2/3 for vertical creep and 1/3 for horizontal creep
71 Which of the following limitation of Bligh’s theory forms the basis of A
Lane’s creep theory?
a) No distinction between the vertical and horizontal creep
b) No distinction between effectiveness of outer and inner faces of sheet
pile
c) Significance of exit gradient is not considered
d) Bligh’s theory holds good when the length of the horizontal floor is
greater than or equal to twice the depth of the deepest pile.
72 What is the value of Lane’s coefficient for fine sand and coarse sand? A
a) 7 and 5
b) 5 and 7
c) 7 and 8.5

12
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

d) 7 and 9
73 What is the range of Lane’s coefficient for clayey soils? C
a) 3.0 to 3.5
b) 2.5 to 3.0
c) 1.6 to 3.0
d) > 3.0
74 Into how groups the design of a barrage is divided? C
a) 5
b) 3
c) 2
d) 4
75 Hydraulic design when used on the permeable foundations, the design A
is classified into two groups.
a) True
b) False
76 How many types of aspects are determined by using the hydraulic D
design in design for a weir?
a) 3
b) 6
c) 8
d) 7
77 Khosla’s method of independent variables is useful in hydraulic B
design.
a) False
b) True
78 Which factor should be kept in safe limits to avoid failure of B
structure?
a) Seeping Pressure
b) Exit Gradient
c) Side Slopes
d) Velocity of Flow
79 By how many factors the design of protection works is based? B
a) 4
b) 2
c) 1
d) 6
80 The inverted filter used in protection arrangement, protects the weir C
from what?
a) Silting Action
b) Scouring
c) Piping
d) Leakage Problems
81 How many factors govern the design a weir or a barrage? A

13
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 3
82 On par with retrogression factor, how many other certain factors are D
to be considered?
a) 5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
83 What is name given to the first effect created by the construction of a D
weir?
a) Crest Damage
b) Afflux
c) Scouring
d) Retrogression
84 What is the formula for the upstream apron length according to A
Bligh?
a) 2.208 (CH)1/2
b) 2.208 (H/13)1/2
c) 2.208 (H)1/2
d) 2.208 (C/H)1/2
85 What is the empirical formula given by Bligh for the design of the top B
width of the weir wall?
a) B’ = H / (G-1)
b) B’ = H / (G-1)1/2
c) B’ = (H + height of weir)/G
d) B’ = H / (G+1)
86 What is the correct calculation for balance floor length? A
a) Total length – (the downstream length + twice the cut-off length)
b) Total length + (the downstream length + twice the cut-off length)
c) The downstream length – twice the cut-off length
d) The downstream length + twice the cut-off length
87 The ordinate of the uplift pressure at a point is found to be 2.8 m B
while designing the downstream floor thickness of a weir. If the
relative density of concrete is 2.4 then the minimum thickness of the
floor to be provided for resisting uplift pressure without accounting
safety factor is _______
a) 1.16 m
b) 2 m
c) 0.8 m
d) 2.8 m
88 The minimum thickness (t) of the downstream floor required in the C
design of weir can be expressed by the equation ___________
14
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

a) h / (G+1)
b) (h-t) / (G-1)
c) h / (G-1)
d) 1.33 h /(G-1)
89 The width provided at the site for the river to flow and also the length A
of the weir is ____________
a) Waterway
b) Launching apron
c) Top width
d) Bed mean width
90 BY increasing the length of the floor on the upstream of the weir axis: B
a) the uplift pressure will increase below the floor downstream of the weir
b) the uplift pressure will decrease below the floor downstream of the
weir
c) the uplift pressure will remain the same in both cases
d) the uplift pressure may increase or decrease
91 Calculate the length of the downstream floor for a vertical drop weir A
having crest shutters, if the total maximum head loss is 2.5 m. Assume
the value of Bligh’s constant as 12.
a) 11.62 m
b) 11.80 m
c) 12 m
d)10 m
92 Calculate the top width of the weir wall (B’) if the head of the water A
over the weir wall at the time of the maximum flood is 2 m. Take the
specific gravity of the floor material as 2.4.
a) 1.7 m
b) 2 m
c) 2.4 m
d)1.3 m

15
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

Department: Civil Engineering Date: 19-04-2020

Class: BE Division: A and B
Subject: Dams and Hydraulic Structure (401007)
Prepared By : Sarika Shantaram Kale

One Line Questions

Q. No Question
1 What is Dam
2 Define Large Dam
3 Define Small Dam
4 Classify dam based on purpose
5 Classify dam based on materials
6 Classify dam based on size of project
7 Classify dam based on hydraulic action
8 Classify dam based on hydraulic action
9 Classify dam based on structural action
10 What is economic height of the dam
11 What are the main component of Large dam
12 Which countries are have most large dam
13 What is crest
14 What is Heel
15 What is Toe
16 What is Axis of Dam
17 Explain Rigid Dam
18 Explain Non Rigid Dam
19 Explain Rock fill dam
20 Explain Earth fill dam
21 Define minor category of dam according to storage capacity, height, command area
22 Define medium category of dam according to storage capacity, height, command
area
23 Define major category of dam according to storage capacity, height, command area
24 What is value of 1 TMC water

1
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

25 How the dam water is measured

26 What is long form of ICOLD
27 Match the pair
1. Tehari Dam 1.Himachal Pradesh
2. Bhakra Dam 2.Uttarakhand
3. Sardar Sarovar Dam 3. Odisa
4. Hirakud Dam 4. Uttarakhand
5. Nagarjunasagar Dam 5. Andhra Pradesh

28 Match the pair

1. World largest dam 1. Kallanai Dam
2. Biggest dam in India 2. Three Gorges Dam
3. First dam in India 3. Hirakud Dam
4. Biggest dam in Asia 4. Tehri Dam

29 Mathch the following

1. Cheruthoni Dam ------------ i. TamilNadu
2. Indira Sagar Dam ---------- ii. Jharkhand
3. Mettur Dam ------------------ iii. Kerla
4. Maithon Dam----------------- iv. Madhya Pradesh
30 Match the following dams with respective rivers

1. Bhakra Dam ------------------ i. Narmada

2. Almatti Dam ----------------- ii. Godavari
3. Indira sagar ---------------- iii. Chambal
4. Jayakwadi Dam --------------- iv.Krishna
5. Rana Pratap Sagar Dam ------- v.Satlaj
31 What are the different types of measurement?
32 What is Piezometer
33 What is inclinometer
34 Define Jointmeter
35 Define seisomograph
36 Define water pressure
37 A narrow V-shaped valley indicates the choice of _________________
38 Topography dictates the first choice of the type of dam. A narrow U-shaped valley
would suggest a ________________________
39 Gravity dam is most suitable when the foundation is _______________
40 _____ dam which resists are the external forces by virtue of its self weight.

2
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

Department: Civil Engineering Date: 19-04-2020

Class: BE Division: A and B
Subject: Dams and Hydraulic Structure (401007)
Prepared By : Sarika Shantaram Kale

One Line Questions

Q. No Question
1 What is Gravity Dam
2 What are the component of Gravity Dam
3 What are the the forces acting on Gravity Dam
4 Define principal Stresses
5 Define shear Stresses
6 What is Middle third rule
7 What are the different modes of failure of gravity dam
8 Define elementary profile of gravity dam
9 Differentiate between low gravity dam and high gravity dam
10 What is arc dam
11 What is constant angle arch dam
12 What is Variable radius arch dam
13 What is Constant radius arch dam
14 What is Double curvature arch dam
15 What is Buttress dam
16 What is advantages of gravity dam
17 What is disadvantages of gravity dam
18 What is advantages of arch dam
19 What is disadvantages of arch dam
20 What is advantages of buttress dam
21 What is disadvantages of buttress dam
22 What are the type of buttress dam
23 What are the different types of galleries are provided in gravity dam
24 What are the different types of joints in gravity dam

1
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

Department: Civil Engineering Date: 19-04-2020

Class: BE Division: A and B
Subject: Dams and Hydraulic Structure (401007)
Prepared By : Sarika Shantaram Kale

One Line Questions-Unit 3-Spillway and Spillway Gate

Q. No Question
1 What is Spillway
2 What is location of spillway
3 What are the component of spillway
4 What are the different types of the spillway
5 Classify the spillway based on its operation
6 Classify the spillway based on gates
7 Classify the spillway based on features
8 What is the difference between overflow spillway and straight drop spillway
9 Which types of spillway is mostly suitable for earthen dam
10 State advantages of siphon spillway
11 State disadvantages of siphon spillway
12 Write down the equation for downstream curve of ogee spillway
13 Write down the equation for to calculate the discharge of ogee spillway
14 What is equation for to calculate effective length of the crest
15 What is emergency spillway
16 Define siphon spillway
17 What is approach channel
18 What is control structue
19 What is discharge carrier
20 What is discharge channel
21 What is energy dissipator
22 What are different types of dissipator
23 What are the advantages of chute spillway
24 What are the disadvantages of chute spillway

1
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

25 Where shaft spillway are used

26 Define shaft spillway
27 What is hydraulic jump
28 Classify the spillway crest gate based on its operation
29 Classify the spillway crest gate based on gates
30 Classify the spillway crest gate based on features
31 The discharge passing over an ogee spillway per unit length of its apex line is
proportional ___________________
32 If the spillway is constructed in continuation to the dam at one end, it may be called
as ________
33 The type of spillway which is provided on narrow valleys where no side flanks are
available is ____________________
34 Which type of spillway are also called morning glory spillway
35 What is JHC
36 What is TWC
37 What is relation between JHC and TWC
38 Draw radial gate
39 Draw drum gate
40 Draw Flash Board
41 Draw stop log
42 Draw needle
43 Draw tainter gate
44 Define vertical lift gate
45 Define rolling gate

2
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

Department: Civil Engineering Date: 19-04-2020

Class: BE Division: A and B
Subject: Dams and Hydraulic Structure (401007)
Prepared By : Sarika Shantaram Kale

One Line Questions-Unit 4-Earth Dam and Diversion Head Works

Q. No Questions
1 Define earthen dam
2 Where earth dams are generally used
3 State limitation of earth dam
4 Classify the earth dam based on materials
5 Classify the earth dam based on method of construction
6 Classify the earth dam based on height
7 What are the component of earth dam
8 What are different materials used for earthen dam
9 Define rocktoe
10 Define pitching
11 Define turfing
12 Define Berms
13 What is drains
14 What do you mean by seepage line
15 What are the hydraulic failure
16 What are the seepage failure
17 What are the structure failure
18 What are the earthquake failure
19 Define rock toe
20 Define horizontal filter
21 Define flownet
22 What is equipotential lines
23 Write down laplace equation for 2 diamensional flow
24 What is rock fill dam

1
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

25 State advantages of rockfill dam

26 State disadvantages of rockfill dam
27 What is diversion head work
28 What are the component of diversion head work
29 Define weir
30 Define under sluices
31 Define divide wall
32 Define fish ladder
33 Define canal head regulator
34 Define silt excluder
35 Define silt ejector
36 What is function of weir
37 What is function under sluices
38 What is function divide wall
39 What is function fish ladder
40 What is function canal head regulator
41 What is function silt excluder
42 What is function silt ejector
43 What are the advantages of weir
44 What are the disadvantages of weir
45 What are the advantages of barrages
46 What are the disadvantages of barrages
47 What are types of weir
48 State 2 failure of diversion head work
49 State any 2 limitation of lane’s theory
50 State any 2 limitation of Bligh’s theory
51 What is uplift pressure for pile at upstream end
52 What is uplift pressure for pile at downstream end
53 What is uplift pressure for intermediate pile
54 What are the correction factor in Khosala theory
55 Draw Diversion Head work and show all component

2
1. Which of the below is the earliest known dam?

a) Sadd-el-Kafara dam

b) Dam of Marib

c) Jawa Dam

d) Ha-ilar Dam

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Jawa Dam is in Jordan. It is 100 kms northeast of capital Amman. It is a gravity dam with
stone wall. It is dated to 3000 BC.

2. Portion of dam in contact with ground at downstream side is __________

a) Crest

b) Toe

c) Foot

d) Heel

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Toe is the position of a dam in contact with the ground at the upstream side. Crest is top of
dam. There is no part called a foot.

3. Based on function of dam, it can be classified into: –

a) 5

b) 8

c) 10

d) 6

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: The five types are storage, diversion, detention, debris and coffer dams.

4. The cross section below shows a


a) Earth

b) Buttress

c) Gravity

d) Arch

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The figure shows a gravity dam. It is a massive sized dam built using concrete or stone
masonry. They can hold back large volume of water.

5. Which of the below is an example for earth dam?

a) Bhakra Nangal Dam

b) Banasura Sagar Dam

c) Idukki Dam

d) Bisalpur Dam

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Bhakra Nangal Dam is an example of gravity dam. Idukki dam is an arch dam. Bisalpur Dam
is also a type of gravity dam.

6. ___________ is the arrangement made near top of dam for passage of excess water from the
reservoir.

a) Sluice way
b) Spillway

c) Gallery

d) Abutments

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Spillway is kind of a passage to allow water from upstream side to downstream side of a
dam. They have floodgates to control the flow.

7. Hydroelectric power plants at dam supplies about _________ of world’s electricity.

a) 19%

b) 25%

c) 42%

d) 50%

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: It also contributes to over 63% of renewable energy. Most of this is generated by China
(large dams) and contributes about 50% of world use of the power generated.

8. Natural dam is not created usually by:

a) Glacial activity

b) Volcanic activity

c) River meandering

d) Moraine deposit

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: River meandering refers to the formation of a member by a river by altering its straight
course and following a sinuous winding path. It can’t form a dam naturally. Volcanic dams form when
lava flows and intercepts a river or lake, resulting in a natural impoundment. Glacial activity and
moraine deposits can also form dams.

9. Arch-gravity dams are thinner dams and save resources.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: It is a combination of arch and gravity dam. It is inward compression by water reduces
lateral force acting on dam. Gravitational force required is less. Hence, it saves resources and doesn’t
need to be massive.

10. Buttress dams are of __________ types.

a) 6

b) 4

c) 8

d) 3

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The three types of buttress dam are deck type, multiple-arch type and massive-head type.
Deck type consists of a sloping deck supported by buttresses. In massive-arch type, deck is replaced by
horizontal arches. There is no deck slab in massive-head type.

11. _________ is a temporary dam constructed to exclude water from a specific area.

a) Debris dam

b) Diversion dam

c) Coffer dam

d) Storage dam
View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Coffer dam is constructed on the upstream side of the site where a dam is to be
constructed, so that site is dry.

12. Based on material of construction, ___________ types are there.

a) 2

b) 4

c) 6

d) 8

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: There are two types – rigid and non-rigid. Rigid material includes steel, concrete, masonry,
stone, etc. and non-rigid materials are earth (earth dam), tailings (waste from mine), rock fill (rock).

1. The obstruction or a barrier built across the stream or river is called _____________

a) Barrage

b) Weir

c) Dam

d) Reservoir

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: A dam may be defined as an obstruction or a barrier built across the stream or river these
are artificial storage works. It retains water to create an impounding reservoir.

2. FTL Stands for ________

a) Free tank level

b) Full tank level

c) Full top level

d) Fill toe level

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: It is also called a full reservoir level (FRL). It is a level up to which the water stored obviously
the crest of the spillway is fixed at this level.

3. _______ is openings extending from upstream to downstream of the dam.

a) Guide banks

b) Divide voids

c) Sluices

d) Spillway

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Sluices are openings or conduits extending from upstream face of the dam to downstream
face of the dam. They are used to clean the silt from the reservoir. They also decrease the peak flood in
the reservoir.

4. Water stored in dam is expressed in _______

a) Mega cumec metres

b) Million cubic metres

c) Metric cumec

d) Million cusec metres

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: It is the total quantity of water stored up to FRL. It includes dead storage also. It is
expressed generally in thousand hectare metre or million cubic metres (Mm3).

5. MDDL Stands for ________

a) Minimum draw down level

b) Maximum draw down level

c) Million drop down level

d) Mega drop down level

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: It is the lowest level up to which the reservoir is depleted from the considerations of
hydropower generation. So this level is known as minimum draw down level (MDDL).

6. _____ dam which resists are the external forces by virtue of its self weight.

a) Earthen dam

b) Storage dam

c) Detention dam

d) Gravity dam

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: A gravity dam is that, which is stable against all the external forces achieved by the weight
of the dam itself. This is the most permanent one and hence it is very commonly used. It may be
constructed in all localities.

7. The factor of safety against overturning should not be less than ______

a) 1.8

b) 2.25

c) 1.5
d) 1.75

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: In the dam section, the overturning takes place when a resultant force cuts the base of the
dam downstream of the toe. The factor of safety against overturning is the ratio of the stabilizing
moment to the overturning moments. The safety against overturning should not be less than 1.5.

8. In sliding failure, the co-efficient of friction varies from ________

a) 0.65 – 0.75

b) 0.8 – 0.9

c) 0.45 – 0.65

d) 0.85 – 1

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: To avoid sliding, the factor of safety against the sliding should be greater than 1.

F.S = M(V-U) / €H > 1

Where M = Co-efficient of friction. It varies from 0.65 to 0.75

V = Total vertical force

U = Upward force.

9. Which of the following forces do not act on the dam?

a) Silt pressure

b) Wave pressure

c) Creep pressure

d) Uplift

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: Among the above forces, creep pressure does not act on the dam. Generally on gravity dam
number of forces such as water pressure, wave pressure, wind pressure, ice pressure etc. will be acting
in a horizontal direction. In the same way, uplift, self weight acts in vertical direction.

10. The elementary profile of a dam is generally a ________

a) Isosceles triangle

b) Right angled triangle

c) Scalene triangle

d) Equilateral triangle

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: In the absence of any other forces, the forces due to water and self weight of the dam form
an elementary profile which will be in triangular section having zero top width at water level, where the
pressure is zero and maximum base width is at bottom where the maximum water pressure acts.

11. _____ acts as an inspection chamber in Dams.

a) Spillway

b) Heel

c) Drainage gallery

d) Toe

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: A drainage gallery is an opening in the body of a dam which runs longitudinally. It runs
through the length of the dam. Generally, it is a rectangle shape with flat a semi-circular head usually 1.5
m wide and 2.5m height.

12. The minimum standard height for a construction joint is about ________

a) 1.2 m
b) 1.5 m

c) 2.1 m

d) 2.3 m

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The joints which facilitate construction of the dam to proceed in small lifts. These joints are
also known as horizontal joints. A lift may be defined as the vertical distance between two consecutive
construction joints. The height is about 1.5 m each.

This set of Strength of Materials Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Rectangular
Dam”.

1. Which of the following is not a failure of a rectangular dam?

a) Overturning

b) Toe erosion

c) Sliding

d) Foundation failure

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Among the above failures, the toe erosion is not related to rectangular dams. Toe erosion is
caused due to in some cases the spillway is constructed very near to the dam section inside
circumstances the discharge water may erode the dam.

2. Structural failures contribute about _______________ in the failure of dam.

a) 45%

b) 60%

c) 30%

d) 20%

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: About 30% of failures are due to:

i. Foundation slide

ii. Upstream slope failure

iii. Downstream slope failure

iv. Failure due to flow slide.

3. The free board is provided in dams to avoid _______________

a) Piping

b) Foundation of upstream

c) Wave erosion

d) Overtopping

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: By providing sufficient free board and by providing an adequate capacity of the spillway,
failure due to overtopping of the damn can be avoided.

4. By providing ______________ gully formation can be avoided.

a) Berms

b) Aqueduct

c) Spillway

d) Free board

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: By providing berms and turning on the downstream face of the dam, the failure due to the
formation of the gullies can be avoided.
5. The maintenance of the reservoirs, above _____________ Ha comes under irrigation department.

a) 30

b) 40

c) 50

d) 60

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The maintenance of reservoirs is having commendable area below 40Ha comes under
Panchayat Raj department and above 40 Ha come under irrigation department.

6. Which of the following process will you prefer to prevent the leakage of water in the dam foundation?

a) Guniting

b) Grouting

c) Gam mixing

d) Filling

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Grouting is a process in which a grout in liquid (8:1) slurry form, is injected into the soil
under suitable pressures and applied through the pipes.

7. ______ grouting increases the bearing capacity of soil.

a) Curtain

b) Consolidated

c) Blanket

d) Descending stage grouting

View Answer
Answer: b

Explanation: According to functions served, the groutings can be classified into

i. Consolidated grouting

ii. Curtain grouting

iii. Area grouting

Consolidation grouting increases the bearing capacity of the soil and creates proper bonding between
separated bodies.

8. According to IS, the specific gravity of a good building stone used in heavy dams should be ______

a) 2.2 – 2.4

b) 2.3 – 2.5

c) 2.4 – 2.8

d) 2.6 – 3

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The stones used for heavy irrigation works such as dams, bridges, check dams, weirs, docks
should have specific gravity between 2.4 to 2.8. Stones used for the roof may have less specific gravity.

9. Hardness can be measured using _______

a) Mohr’s scale

b) Silica scale

c) Dalton’s scale

d) Abrasion factor

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The property to resist the abrasive forces cause due to wear & tear and friction is called
hardness. It is determined by the Mohr’s scale of hardness in a laboratory. A hard stone will not show
any scratches.

10. Granite has been widely used for dams construction because of _______

a) Crushing strength

b) Cost

c) Workability

d) Porosity

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Granite stone is derived from igneous rocks. It is very hard, durable and strong. Its crushing
strength is 100 to 140 N/mm^2. For this property, it is widely used in all important works.

11. The range of slenderness ratio in dams varies from ________

a) 13 – 15

b) 12 – 15

c) 15 – 18

d) 15 – 20

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: In dams, the slenderness ratio can be calculated through

= Height of buttress / Thickness of buttress

• It varies from 12 to 15.

12. _______ is provided for installation of control equipment of valves in dams.

a) Vertical shafts

b) Hydraulic openings
c) Connecting passages

d) Isolated chambers

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Isolated chambers are provided for installation of control equipment of walls or pipeline or
pumps. The function is to supply water to irrigation canals, fulfilling commitments and desilting the
reservoir.

advertisement

13. The ratio of the volume of voids to the volume of given soil mass is __________

a) Porosity

b) Void ratio

c) Dry density

d) Specific gravity

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The porosity of a given soil sample is the ratio of the volume of voids to the value of given
soil mass. It is denoted by “n”.

n = Vu / V.

14. Sand layer is an example of ______________

a) Aquiclude

b) Aquifuge

c) Aquitard

d) Aquifer

View Answer
Answer: d

Explanation: An aquifer is a geologic formation (or) saturated bed which contains water and yields them
significantly. Example: sand bed. They permit the appreciable quantity of water under ordinary field
conditions.

15. ________ keeps the phreatic line within the dam section.

a) Longitudinal filter

b) Cross filter

c) Rock toe

d) Toe drain

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Rock toe keeps the phreatic line within the damn section and also facilitates drainage. It is
nothing but a downstream portion of a dam made of graded material. To achieve good results, the
height of rock toe shall be kept 1/3 to 1/ 4 of dam height

. Calculate the self-weight of the masonry of the rectangle dam of 10 m height and 4 m wide. Consider
specific weight of masonry as 20kN/m3.

a) 600 kN

b) 500 kN

c) 800 kN

d) 1000 kN

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Self weight of masonry = W = Area of cross-section × 1× Specific weight of masonry.

= (10×4)×1×20 = 800 kN.

2. Water-cement ratio varies normally from ______________ to __________

a) 0.42 – 0.45

b) 0.45 – 0.48

c) 0.42 – 0.48

d) 0.45 – 0.5

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The ratio to which the required amount of water is added to weight of cement to obtain
desired consistency and workability of concrete mix is known as water cement ratio. It varies from 0.42
to 0.48.

3. Calculate the resultant force of dam with given self weight 800kN and water pressure be 500kN.

a) 943.4 kN

b) 956.7 kN

c) 948.6 kN

d) 939.1 KN

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Resultant force (R) = (P2 + W2)1/2 = 5002 + 8002.

= (5002 + 8002)1/2

= 943.39 ~ 943.4 kN.

4. When the reservoir is empty tension occurs at ___________

a) Toe

b) Heel

c) Top width

d) Bottom width

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: For no tension to develop in the damn section in any condition, the eccentricity should be
less than b/6. When the reservoir is empty, tension occurs at toe and compression occurs at heel.

5. What is the mix proportion for M15 grade concrete?

a) 1:1:2

b) 1:2:4

c) 1:3:6

d) 1:4:8

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Mix proportion for M15 grade concrete is 1:2:4.

Grade of concreteMix proportionateM101:3:6M151:2:4M201:1.5:3

6. Laterite is an example of ___________ rock.

a) Siliceous

b) Argillaceous

c) Calcareous

d) Metamorphic

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The Rocks having (Gneiss) aluminium or clay as the main component, such rocks are known
as argillaceous rocks. Example: Slate, Laterite.

7. ________ is crystalline and compact in structure.

a) Marbles
b) Granite

c) Kadapa slabs

d) Shahabad stones

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Marble is a metamorphic rock and is made from limestone, this is a very costly stone. It is
less durable. It is crystalline and compact in structure. So it can take a fine polish. It is not very hard.

8. As per IS, the standard dimensions for a brick is _______ (in cm).

a) 19×8×8

b) 19×9×8

c) 19×9×9

d) 19×8×9

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The shape of a brick should be uniform with rectangular surface and its size should be
standard with 19×9×9 cm. They should have a uniform red colour and it should be well burnt.

9. Formation of white patches on the surface on the bricks is ____________

a) Tempering

b) Porosity

c) Shrinkage

d) Efflorescence

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A good brick should not contain excess alkaline soils when the bricks are exposed to the
atmosphere. It should not absorb moisture. If it attracts moisture then dampness occurs and results in
the formation of white patches. Hence the brick begins decaying.

10. Kiln burning involves 90% of first class bricks.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Kiln burning is a permanent structure. There is complete control on fire. It produces a large
scale of manufactured bricks, it takes only 24 hours in burning the bricks and 12 days for cooling. It
produces 90% of burnt bricks.

11. ______ bricks can withstand up to a temperature of 1800°C.

a) Refractory

b) Fly ash

c) Clay

d) Cement

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The bricks made from refractory clay are called refractory bricks. The weight of these bricks
is 2 kN/m3. The standard size is 230× 65× 113 mm. These bricks can withstand up to the temperature of
1800°C.

12. According to IS, the minimum expansion joint in construction should be ________

a) 18mm to 30 mm

b) 15mm to 24mm

c) 18mm to 25mm

d) 22mm to 30mm
View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: According to Indian standards 456- 2000, it is desirable to provide 18 mm to 25 mm thick

expansion joints after every 30 to 45 m construction of length.

13. The edges formed by the intersection of plane surfaces of a brick are known as _________

a) Arises

b) Stretcher

c) Header

d) Frog

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: In any bond, the edges formed by the intersection of plane surfaces of a brick are termed
as arises. These are straight and sharp in case of good bricks or brick tiles.

14. The depression made in the face of brick during its manufacture is _________

a) Brick tile

b) Bat

c) Frog

d) Quoin closer

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The depression provided on any face of the brick during its manufacture can be termed as
frog. A hand moulded bricks has one frog. A pressed brick has two frogs.
15. Calculate the eccentricity of a rectangular dam of width 4 m. Take the distance between the water
face and point where resultant cuts the base as 5.25 m.

a) 2.25m

b) 3.25m

c) 4.35m

d) 5.35m

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Eccentricity = e = Z – b/ 2

Where Z = 5.25 m & b = 4m ; Now, e = Z- b/2

e = 5.25 – 4/2

= 3.25m.
WWW.ALLEXAMREVIEW.COM
IMPORTANT MCQ-ECONOMICS OF POWER GENERATION
1. Load factor of a power station is defined as
(a) maximum demand/average load
(b) average load x maximum demand
(c) average load/maximum demand
(d) (average load x maximum demand)172
Ans: c
2. Load factor of a power station is generally
(a) equal to unity
(b) less than unity
(c) more than unity
(d) equal to zero Diversity factor is always
Ans: b
3. The load factor of domestic load is usually
(a) 10 to 15%
(b) 30 to 40%
(c) 50 to 60%
(d) 60 to 70%
Ans: a
4. Annual depreciation cost is calculated by
(a) sinkingfund method
(b) straight line method
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
5. Depreciation charges are high in case of
(a) thermal plant
(b) diesel plant
(c) hydroelectric plant
Ans: a
6. Demand factor is defined as
(a) average load/maximum load
(b) maximum demand/connected load
(c) connected load/maximum demand
(d) average load x maximum load
Ans: b
7. High load factor indicates
(a) cost of generation per unit power is increased
(b) total plant capacity is utilised for most of the time
(c) total plant capacity is not properly utilised for most of the time
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
8. A load curve indicates
(a) average power used during the period
(b) average kWh (kW) energy consumption during the period
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
WWW.ALLEXAMREVIEW.COM
9. Approximate estimation of power demand can be made by
(a) load survey method
(b) statistical methods
(c) mathematical method
(d) economic parameters
(e) all of the above
Ans: e
10. Annual depreciation as per straight line method, is calculated by
(a) the capital cost divided by number of year of life
(b) the capital cost minus the salvage value, is divided by the number of years of life
(c) increasing a uniform sum of money per annum at stipulated rate of interest
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
11. A consumer has to pay lesser fixed charges in
(a) flat rate tariff
(b) two part tariff
(c) maximum demand tariff
(d) any of the above
Ans: c
12. In two part tariff, variation in load factor will affect
(a) fixed charges
(b) operating or running charges
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) either (a) or (b)
Ans: b
13. In Hopknison demand rate or two parttariff the demand rate or fixed charges are
(a) dependent upon the energy consumed
(b) dependent upon the maximum demand of the consumer
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: b
14. Which plant can never have 100 percent load factor ?
(a) Peak load plant
(b) Base load plant
(c) Nuclear power plant
(d) Hydro electric plant
Ans: a
15. The area under a load curve gives
(a) average demand
(b) energy consumed
(c) maximum demand
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
16. Different generating stations use following prime movers
(a) diesel engine
(b) hydraulic turbine
(c) gas turbine
(d) steam turbine
(e) any of the above
Ans: e
WWW.ALLEXAMREVIEW.COM
17. Diversity factor has direct effect on the
(a) fixed cost of unit generated
(b) running cost of unit generated
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: a
18. Following power plant has instant starting
(a) nuclear power plant
(b) hydro power plant
(c) diesel power plant
(d) both (b) and (c)
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
19. Which of the following generating station has minimum ruiyiing cost ?
(a) Nuclear
(b) Hydro
(c) Thermal
(d) Diesel
Ans: b
20. Power plant having maximum demand more than the installed rated capacity will have utilisation
factor
(a) equal to unity
(b) less than unity
(c) more than unity
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
21. Load curve is useful in deciding the
(a) operating schedule of generating units
(b) sizes of generating units
(c) total installed capacity of the plant
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
22. Load curve of a power plant has always
(a) zero slope
(b) positive slope
(c) negative slope
(d) any combination of (a), (b) and (c)
Ans: e
23. Annual operating expenditure of a power plant consists of
(a) fixed charges
(b) semi-fixed charges
(c) running charges
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
24. Maximum demand on a power plant is
(a) the greatest of all “short time interval averaged” demand during a period
(b) instantaneous maximum value of kVA supplied during a period
(e) both (a) or (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
WWW.ALLEXAMREVIEW.COM
25. Annual instalment towards depreciation reduces as rate of interest increases with
(a) sinking fund depreciation
(b) straight line depreciation
(c) reducing balances depreciation
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
26. Annual depreciation of the plant it proportional to the earning capacity of the plant vide
(a) sinking fund depreciation
(b) straight line depreciation
(c) reducing balances depreciation
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
27. For high value of diversity factor, a power station of given installed capacity will be in a position
to supply
(a) less number of consumers
(b) more number of consumers
(c) neither (a) nor (b)
(d) either (a) or (b)
Ans: b
28. Salvage value of the plant is always
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) any of the above
Ans: d
29. Load curve helps in deciding
(a) total installed capacity of the plant
(b) sizes of the generating units
(c) operating schedule of generating units
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
30 can generate power at unpredictable or uncontrolled times,
(a) Solar power plant
(b) Tidal power plant
(c) Wind power plant
(d) Any of the above
Ans: d
31. Direct conversion of heat into electric power is possible through
(a) fuel cell
(b) batteries
(c) thermionic converter
(d) all of the above
Ans: c
32. A low utilization factor for a plant indicates that
(a) plant is used for stand by purpose only
(b) plant is under maintenance
(c) plant is used for base load only
(d) plant is used for peak load as well as base load
Ans: a
WWW.ALLEXAMREVIEW.COM
33. Which of the following is not a source of power ?
(a) Thermocouple
(b) Photovoltaic cell
(c) Solar cell
(d) Photoelectric cell
Ans: a
34. Which of the following should be used for extinguishing electrical fires ?
(a) Water
(b) Carbon tetrachloride fire extinguisher
(c) Foam type fire extinguisher
(d) CO2 fire extinguisher
Ans: b
35. Low power factor is usually not due to
(a) arc lamps
(b) induction motors
(c) fluorescent tubes
(d) incandescent lamp
Ans: d
36. Ships are generally powered by
(a) nuclear power plants
(b) hydraulic turbines
(e) diesel engines
(d) steam accumulators
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
37. Direct conversion of heat into electrical energy is possible through
(a) fuel cells
(b) solar cells
(c) MHD generators
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
38. Which of the following place is not associated with nuclear power plants in India ?
(a) Narora
(b) Tarapur
(c) Kota
(d) Benglore
Ans: d
39. During load shedding
(a) system power factor is changed
(b) some loads are switched off
(c) system voltage is reduced
(d) system frequency is reduced Efficiency is the secondary consideration in
Ans: b
40. which of the following plants ?
(a) Base load plants
(b) Peak load plants
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
WWW.ALLEXAMREVIEW.COM
41. Air will not be the working substance in which of the following ?
(a) Closed cycle gas turbine
(b) Open cycle gas turbine
(c) Diesel engine
(d) Petrol engine
Ans: a
42. A nuclear power plant is invariably used as a
(a) peak load plant
(b) base load plant
(c) stand-by plant
(d) spinning reserve plant
(e) any of the above
Ans: b
43. power plant is expected to have the longest life.
(a) Steam
(b) Diesel
(c) Hydroelectric
(d) Any of the above
Ans: c
44. power plant cannot have single unit of 100 MW.
(a) Hydroelectric
(b) Nuclear
(c) Steam
(d) Diesel
(e) Any of the above
Ans: d
45. Which of the following, in a thermal power plant, is not a fixed cost ?
(a) Fuel cost
(b) Interest on capital
(c) Depreciation
(d) Insurance charges
Ans: a
46. _______ will offer the least load.
(a) Vacuum cleaner
(b) Television
(c) Hair dryer
(d) Electric shaver
Ans: d
47. In ______ fuel transportation cost is least.
(a) nuclear power plants
(b) diesel generating plants
(c) steam power stations
Ans: a
48. Which of the following equipment provides fluctuating load ?
(a) Exhaust fan
(b) Lathe machine
(c) Welding transformer
(d) All of the above
Ans: c
WWW.ALLEXAMREVIEW.COM
49. The increased load during summer months is due to
(a) increased business activity
(b) increased water supply
(c) increased use of fans and air conditioners
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
50 is the reserved generating capacity available for service under emergency conditions which is not
kept in operation but in working order,
(a) Hot reserve
(b) Cold reserve
(c) Spinning reserve
(d) Firm power
Ans: b
51. Generating capacity connected to the bus bars and ready to take load when switched on is known
as
(a) firm power
(b) cold reserve
(c) hot reserve
(d) spinning reserve
Ans: d
52. offers the highest electric load.
(a) Television set
(b) Toaster
(c) Vacuum cleaner
(d) Washing machine
Ans: b
53. _______ industry has the least power consumption per tonne of product.
(a) Soap
(b) Sugar
(c) Vegetable oil
(d) Caustic soda
Ans: c
54. With reference to a power station which of the following is not a fixed cost ?
(a) Fuel cost
(b) Interest on capital
(c) Insurance charges
(d) Depreciation
Ans: a
55. _______ is invariably used as base load plant.
(a) Diesel engine plant
(b) Nuclear power plant
(c) Gas turbine plant
(d) Pumped storage plant
Ans: b
56. In a power plant if the maximum demand on the plant is equal to the plant capacity, then
(a) plant reserve capacity will be zero
(b) diversity factor will be unity
(c) load factor will be unity
(d) load factor will be nearly 60%
Ans: a
WWW.ALLEXAMREVIEW.COM
57. In case of ______ fuel transportation is the major problem.
(a) diesel power plants
(b) nuclear power plants
(c) hydro-electric power plants
(d) thermal power plants
Ans: d
58. Which of the following power plants need the least period for installation ?
(a) Thermal power plant
(b) Diesel power plant
(c) Nuclear power plant
(d) Hydro-electric power plant
Ans: b
59. For which of the following power plants highly skilled engineers are required for running the
plants ?
(a) Nuclear power plants
(b) Gas turbine power plants
(c) Solar power plants
(d) Hydro-electric power plants
Ans: a
60. In which’of the following power plants the maintenance cost is usually high ?
(a) Nuclear power plant
(b) Hydro-electric power plants
(c) Thermal power plants
(d) Diesel engine power plants
Ans: c
61. ________ is invariably used for peak load
(a) Nuclear power plant
(b) Steam turbine plant
(c) Pumped storage plant
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
62. Which of the following is not an operating cost ?
(a) Maintenance cost
(b) Fuel cost
(c) Salaries of high officials
(d) Salaries of operating staff
Ans:
63. Which of the following is the essential requirement of peak load plant ?
(a) It should run at high speed
(b) It should produce high voltage
(c) It should be small in size
(d) It should be capable of starting quickly
Ans: d
64. Large capacity generators are invariably
(a) water cooled
(b) natural air cooled
(c) forced air cooled
(d) hydrogen cooled
Ans: d
WWW.ALLEXAMREVIEW.COM
65. By the use of which of the following power factor can be improved ?
(a) Phase advancers
(b) Synchronous compensators
(c) Static capacitors
(d) Any of the above
Ans: d
66. An induction motor has relatively high power factor at
(a) rated r.p.m.
(b) no load
(c) 20 percent load
(d) near full load
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
67. Which of the following is the disadvantage due to low power factor ?
(a) Poor voltage regulation
(b) Increased transmission losses
(c) High cost of equipment for a given load
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
68. In a distribution system, in order to improve power factor, the synchronous capacitors are
installed
(a) at the receiving end
(b) at the sending end
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
69. Static capacitors are rated in terms of
(a) kW
(b) kWh
(e) kVAR
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
70. Which of the following is the disadvantage of a synchronous condenser ?
(a) High maintenance cost
(b) Continuous losses in motor
(c) Noise
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
71. For a consumer the most economical power factor is generally
(a) 0.5 lagging
(b) 0.5 leading
(c) 0.95 lagging
(d) 0.95 leading
Ans: c
72. A synchronous condenser is virtually which of the following ?
(a) Induction motor
(b) Under excited synchronous motor
(c) Over excited synchronous motor
(d) D.C. generator
(e) None of the above
Ans: c
WWW.ALLEXAMREVIEW.COM
73. For a power plant which of the following constitutes running cost ?
(a) Cost of wages
(b) Cost of fuel
(c) Cost of lubricants
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
74. In an interconnected system, the diversity factor of the whole system
(a) remains unchanged
(b) decreases
(c) increases
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
75. Generators for peak load plants are usually designed for maximum efficiency at
(a) 25 to 50 percent full load
(b) 50 to 75 percent full load
(c) full load
(d) 25 percent overload
Ans: b
76. ________ will be least affected due to charge in supply voltage frequency.
(a) Electric clock
(b) Mixer grinder
(c) Ceiling fan
(d) Room heater
Ans: d
77. The connected load of a IVMIM uir consumer is around
(a) 5 kW
(b) 40 kV
(c) 80 kW
(d) 120 kW
Ans: a
78. Which of the following is not necessarily an advantage of interconnecting various power stations ?
(a) Improved frequency of power supplied
(b) Reduction in total installed capacity
(c) Increased reliability
(d) Economy in operation of plants
Ans: a
79. A power transformer is usually rated in
(a) kW
(b) kVAR
(c) kWh
(d) kVA
Ans: d
80. public sector undertaking is associated with erection and sometimes running of thermal power
plants
(a) NTPC
(b) SAIL
(c) BEL
(d) BHEL
Ans: a
WWW.ALLEXAMREVIEW.COM
81. Most efficient plants are normally used as
(a) peak load plants
(b) base load plants
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans:
82. For a diesel generating station the useful life is expected to be around
(a) 15 to 20 years
(b) 20 to 50 years
(c) 50 to 75 years
(d) 75 to 100 years
Ans: a
83. Which of the following is not a method for estimating depreciation charges ?
(a) Sinking fund method
(b) Straight line method
(c) Diminishing value method
(d) Halsey’s 50—50 formula
Ans: d
84. The expected useful life of an hydroelectric power station is around
(a) 15 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 60 years
(d) 100 years
Ans: d
85. In a load curve the highest point represents
(a) peak demand
(b) average demand
(c) diversified demand
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
86. Which of the following source of power is least reliable ?
(a) Solar energy
(b) Geothermal power
(c) Wind power
(d) iMHD
Ans:
87. In India production and distribution of electrical energy is confined to
(a) private sector
(b) public sector
(c) government sectors
(d) joint sector
(e) none of the above
Ans: b
88. A pilot exciter is provided on generators for which of the following reasons ?
(a) To excite the poles of main exciter
(b) To provide requisite starting torque to main exciter
(c) To provide requisite starting torque to generator
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
WWW.ALLEXAMREVIEW.COM
89. The primary reason for low power factor is supply system is due to installation of
(a) induction motors
(b) synchronous motors
(c) single phase motors
(d) d.c. motors
Ans: a
90. An over excited synchronous motor on noload is known as
(a) synchronous condenser
(b) generator
(c) induction motor
(d) alternator
Ans: a
91. Which of the following is an advantage of static capacitor for power factor improvement ?
(a) Little maintenance cost
(b) Ease in installation
(c) Low losses
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
92. For any type of consumer the ideal tariff is
(a) two part tariff
(b) three part tariff
(c) block rate tariff
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
93. The efficiency of a plant is of least concern when it is selected as
(a) peak load plant
(b) casual run plant
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) base load plant
Ans: c
94. Which of the following plants is almost inevitably used as base load plant ?
(a) Diesel engine plant
(b) Gas turbine plant
(c) Nuclear power plant
(d) Pumped storage plant
Ans: c
95. Which of the following component, in a steam power plant, needs maximum maintenance
attention ?
(a) Steam turbine
(b) Condenser
(c) Water treatment plant
(d) Boiler
Ans: d
96. For the same cylinder dimensions and speed, which of the following engine will produce least
power ?
(a) Supercharged engine
(b) Diesel engine
(c) Petrol engine
(d) All of the above engines will equal power
Ans: c
WWW.ALLEXAMREVIEW.COM
97. The least share of power is provided in India, by which of the following power plants ? ‘
(a) Diesel power plants
(b) Thermal power plants
(c) Hydro-electric power plants
(d) Nuclear power plants
Ans: a
98. Submarines for under water movement, are powered by which of the following ?
(a) Steam accumulators
(b) Air motors
(c) Diesel engines
(d) Batteries
Ans: d
99. An alternator coupled to a _____ runs at slow speed, as compared to as com¬pared to others.
(a) diesel engine
(6) hydraulic turbine
(c) steam turbine
(d) gas turbine
Ans: b
100. The effect of electric shock on human body depends on which of the following
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) duration of contact
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
101. Which lightening stroke is most dangerous ?
(a) Direct stroke on line conductor
(b) Indirect stroke on conductor
(c) Direct stroke on tower top
(d) Direct stroke on ground wire
Ans: a
102. Which of the following devices may be used to provide protection against lightening over
voltages ?
(a) Horn gaps
(b) Rod gaps
(c) Surge absorbers
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
103. When the demand of consumers is not met by a power plant, it will resort to which of the
following ?
(a) Load shedding
(b) Power factor improvement at the , generators
(c) Penalising high load consumers by increasing the charges for electricity
(d) Efficient plant operation
Ans: a
104. Load shedding is possible through which of the following ?
(a) Switching of the loads
(b) Frequency reduction
(c) Voltage reduction
(d) Any of the above
Ans: d
WWW.ALLEXAMREVIEW.COM
105. In power plants insurance cover is provided for which of the following ?
(a) Unskilled workers only
(b) Skilled workers only
(c) Equipment only
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
107 A company can raise funds through
(a) fixed deposits
(b) shares
(c) bonds
(d) any of the above
Ans: d
108. Which of the following are not repayable after a stipulated period ?
(a) Shares
(b) Fixed deposits
(c) Cash certificates
(d) Bonds
Ans: a
109. The knowledge of diversity factor helps in determining
(a) plant capacity
(b) average load
(c) peak load
(d) kWh generated
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
110. Which of the following is the disadvantage of static capacitor for power factor improvement ?
(a) Easily damaged by high voltage
(b) Cannot be repaired
(c) Short service life
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
For More Questions Click Here

1. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?

(a) Coal

(b) Forests

(c) Water

(d) Wildlife

2. Which among the following is not a renewable source of energy?

(a) Solar energy

(b) Biomass energy

(c) Hydro-power

(d) Geothermal energy

3. Identify the non-renewable energy resource from the following:

(a) Coal

(b) Fuel cells

(c) Wind power

(d) Wave power

4. Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the renewable energy sources?

(a) Highly polluting

(b) High waste disposal cost

(c) Unreliable supply

(d) High running cost

5. Photovoltaic energy is the conversion of sunlight into:

(a) Chemical energy

(b) Biogas

(c) Electricity
(d) Geothermal energy

6. Horizontal axis and vertical axis are the types of:

(a) Nuclear reactor

(b) Wind mills

(c) Biogas reactor

(d) Solar cell

7. Which among the following is not an adverse environmental impact of tidal power
generation?

(a) Interference with spawing and migration of fish

(b) Pollution and health hazard in the estuary due to blockage of flow of polluted water into
the sea

(c) Navigational hazard

(d) None of the above

8. Steam reforming is currently the least expensive method of producing:

(a) Coal

(b) Biogas

(c) Hydrogen

(d) Natural gas

9. A fuel cell, in order to produce electricity, burns:

(a) Helium

(b) Nitrogen

(c) Hydrogen

(d) None of the above

10. Fuel cells are:

(a) Carbon cell

(b) Hydrogen battery

(c) Nuclear cell

(d) Chromium cell

 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

SUBJECT : QSCT Class: BE CIVIL

MCQ on Unit no.4 valuation

1. Correct purpose of valuation is
a) BBS
b) Tax Fixation
c) Salary fixation
d) Draft Tender
Ans: b

2. Mortgage value means

a) To raise loan against security of property
b) To raise loan against material
c) To raise loan against motor
d) To raise loan against share
Ans: a

3. When purchase is intended for sale of the property and to make some profit in short period
for which valuation is necessary and such value called as
a) Mortgage value
b) Book value
c) Speculation
d) Salvage value
Ans: c

4. Value mainly depends upon

a)It’s utility
b)Shortage in supply or demand.
c)Events
d) Onwer profit
Ans: d
5. Is calculated by deducting depreciation from its new cost
a) Mortgage value
b) Book value
c) Speculation
d) Salvage value
Ans: d

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

6. In case of property is sold at lower price than market value at that time, it is said to have
a) Distresses value
b) Book value
c) Scrap value
d) Salvage value
Ans: a

7. In some cases, the property possesses certain advantages with respect to the adjoining
properties due to its size, shape, frontage, location
a) Distresses value
b) Book value
c) Monopoly Value
d) Salvage value
Ans: c

8. There are certain purchaser who are interested in purchasing the property and then selling
it with profit after short period
a) Distresses value
b) Book value
c) Monopoly Value
d) Speculative value
Ans: d
9. Select correct formula
a) Capitalised value = Net income  Year purchase
b) Capitalised value = Net income + Year purchase
c) Capitalised value = Net income - Year purchase
d) Capitalised value = Net income / Year purchase
Ans : a
10. Select Incorrect type of lease
a) Building Lease
b) Sub lease
c) Life lease
d) Land lease

Ans : d
11. Occupation lease period is
a) 2 to 5 years
b) 10 to 50 years
c) 100 years
d) More than 100 years
Ans : a

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

12. When lease of property is given for number of years providing condition that the lease is
renewable time to time, even for endless time according to the desire of lease holder such
type of lease is called as
a) Building Lease
b) Sub lease
c) Perpetual Lease
d) Land lease
Ans : c
13. The loss in the value of property due to its use, life, wear, tear, decay and obsolescence is
called as
a) Depreciation
b) Valuation
c) Mortgage value
d) Lease
Ans : a
14. Incorrect method Depreciation
a) Straight line method
b) Constant percentage method
c) Belting Method
d) Unit cost method
Ans : c
15. Which method is generally used for determining the cost depreciation for tax purpose as
well as for preparing profit and loss financial statement.

a) Straight line method

b) Constant percentage method
c) Sinking fund method
d) Unit cost method
Ans : a

16. Which method is also known as declining balance method or written down value method
a) Straight line method
b) Constant percentage method
c) Sinking fund method
d) Unit cost method
Ans : b

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

17. Normally rate of interest for sinking fund is taken between
a) 3.5 % to 5%
b) 1 % to 2%
c) 5 % to 10%
d) 0.5 % to 1%
Ans : a

18. Which method is used to find depreciation of machine

a) Straight line method
b) Constant percentage method
c) Sinking fund method
d) Unit cost method
Ans : d

19. When the value of property become less due to its out of date in style, in structure, in design
elegance etc. then it is called as
a) Scrap value
b) Obsolescence
c) Book value
d) Depreciation
Ans : b
20. Sinking fund not depends on following factor :
a) Life of the building or structure.
b) Rate of interest on bank deposits or government securities.
c) Scrape value of building
d) Quality of material
Ans : d
21. Select Incorrect method valuation

a) Book value method

b) Rental method
c) Sinking fund method
d) Belting Method
Ans: c

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

22. Select collect formula

a) Book value = [Original cost of construction] – [Depreciated by straight line method] +

[Original cost of land]
b) Book value = [Original cost of construction] + [Depreciated by straight line method] +
[Original cost of land]
c) Book value = [Original cost of construction] + [Depreciated by straight line method] -
[Original cost of land]
d) Book value = [Original cost of construction] – [Depreciated by straight line method] -
[Original cost of land]
Ans : a

23. Select Incorrect one, during belting method

a) Depth of first belt near the road is adjusted
b) Depth of second belt is kept 50% more than 1st belt
c) Depth of 3rd belt is kept 50% more than 2nd belt
d) Depth of second belt is kept 30% more than 1st belt
Ans: d

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 1 Multiple Choice Questions

Estimation and costing (Quantity surveying contracts and tenders)

Q.1 Which of the following componat of buttress dam is also call a counterfort
a Corbel b Buttress
c Lateral brece d Sloping deck [Ans. : b]

Q.2 No reinforcement is necessary in the

a Multiple arch buttress dam
b Mushroom head buttress dam
c Massive head buttress dam
d Free head buttress dam [Ans. : d]

Q.3 In a syphon aqueduct

a Drainage passes over the canal and F.S.L. of the canal is below the bottom of
the drainage trough
b Drainage passes over the canal and F.S.L. of the canal is above the bottom of
the drainage trough
c Canal passes over the drainage and H.F.L. of the drainage is above the
bottom of the canal trough
d Canal passes over the drainage and H.F.L. of the drainage is below the
bottom of the canal trough [Ans. : c]

Q.4 If the height of the hydraulic gradient line above the floor of thickness t is h
and the specific gravity of the material of the floor is G, the minimum
thickness t of the floor downstream of the crest-wall, is given by the equation
a t = (h + 1)/(G + t) b t = (h - 1)/(G + t)
c t = (h - 1)/(G - t) d t = (h + 1)/G [Ans. : c]

Q.5 To hold hydraulic jumps, baffle walls are provided in

a Sarda type falls b English type falls
c Montague type falls d Vertical type falls [Ans. : b]

Q.6 Pick up the correct sequence of the part of a canal system from the following
a Head work-distributary-branch canal-minor
b Head works-main canal-branch canal-distributary-minor
c Head works-main canal-branch canal-minor-distributary
d Heads works-branch canal-main canal distributary, minor [Ans. : b]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 2 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.7 Pick up the correct statement from the following

a Escapes are essential safety valves in a canal system
b The escapes must lead the surplus water to natural drainages
c The escapes are aligned to take advantage of contours of lower values
d All the above [Ans. : d]

Q.8 For a unique design of a channel by Kennedy's theory

a Its breadth must only be known
b Its depth must only be known
c Its breadth and depth ratio must only be known
d All the above [Ans. : c]

Q.9 Which of the following gate is also called flush boards?

a Dropping shutters b Tainter gates
c Drum gates d Vertical lift gates [Ans. : a]

Q.10 The main cause of silting up a channel,

a Non-regime section b Inadequate slope
c Defective head regulator d All the above [Ans. : d]

Q.11 Pick up the correct statement from the following

a In a level crossing, a crest with its top at the canal F.S.L. is provided across
the drainage at its up-stream junction with canal
b In a level crossing a regulator is provided across the drainage at its down-
stream
c In a level crossing, a cross regulator is provided on the canal below the
crossing
d All the above [Ans. : d]

Q.12 In a Sarda type fall, the rectangular crest, may be used for discharge up to
a 6 cumecs b 10 cumecs
c 14 cumecs d 20 cumecs [Ans. : c]

Q.13 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

a If the flexibility is more than one, the outlet is hyper-proportional
b If the setting of an outlet is higher than that required for proportionality, the
outlet is hyper-proportional

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 3 Multiple Choice Questions

c If the flexibility is zero, it is a rigid module

d All the above [Ans. : d]

Q.14 According to Khosla, the exits gradient of surface flow

a Depends upon the b/d ratio
b Is independent of the b/d ratio
c Is independent of the depths of d/s cut off walls
d None of these [Ans. : a]

Q.15 A hydraulic structure is designed to withstand

a Seepage forces b Hydraulic jump
c Hydraulic pressure d All the above [Ans. : d]

Q.16 In Montague type fall

a A straight glacis is provided b A circular glacis is provided
c A parabolic glacis is provided d No glacis is provided [Ans. : c]

Q.17 Cross regulators in main canals are provided

a To regulate water supply in the distributaries
b To increase water head upstream when a main canal is running with low
supplies
c To overflow excessive flow water
d None of these [Ans. : b]

Q.18 Which of the following gate works on the principle of counterweights against
the water pressure?
a Dropping shutters b Stop logs and needles
c Stoney roller gate d Drum gates [Ans. : a]

Q.19 According to Lacey, in regime conditions

a Silt is kept in suspension by vertical components of eddies
b Entire cross-section of the channel is generated at all points by the forces
normal to the wetted perimeter
c Both (a) and (b)
d Neither (a) nor (b) [Ans. : c]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 4 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.20 The most suitable section of a lined canal, is

a Triangular section with circular bottom for small canals
b Trapezoidal section with rounded corners for large canals
c Both (a) and (b)
d None of these [Ans. : c]

Q.21 An outlet is said to be proportional if its flexibility, is

a Zero b Less than one
c More than one d One [Ans. : d]

Q.22 The level of the floor of a syphon aqueduct can be obtained

a By subtracting the depth of the culvert from the canal bed level
b By subtracting the thickness of culvert plus the depth of the culvert from the
canal bed level
c Both (a) and (b)
d None of these [Ans. : b]

Q.23 If the straight sides of a triangular section of a lined canal with circular
bottom of radius D, make an angle ? with horizontal, the hydraulic mean
depth is
a D b D/2
c D/3 d D/5 [Ans. : b]

Q.24 According to Bligh's creep theory, percolating water flows along

a Straight path under the foundation of the dam
b Circular path under the foundation of the dam
c The outline of the base of the foundation of the dam
d None of these [Ans. : b]

Q.25 In a simple deck slab buttress dam of given height the buttress spacing can be
increased by
a Increasing the upstream Slope.
b Decreasing the upstream Slope.
c either A or B
d None of these [Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 5 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.26 ________________ are used only for very minor works.

a Dropping gates b Stop logs and needles
c Rectangular gates d Drum gates [Ans. : b]
Q.27 For the design of major hydraulic structures on the canals, the method
generally preferred to, is based on
a Bligh's theory b Electrical analogy method
c The relaxation method
d Khosla's method of independent variables [Ans. : d]
Q.28 Pick up the incorrect statement from the following
a Side walls of a venturi head flume are splayed out from the end of the throat
at 1 : 10 for a length of 4.5 m
b Length of side walls should be such that the width of the flume is made
equal to 2/3rd the bed width of the distributary
c Once the width of the flume becomes 2/3rd of the width of the distributary,
the splayed walls are increased to 1 in 3 to get full bed width
d None of these [Ans. : d]
Q.29 Irrigation canals are generally aligned along
a Ridge line b Contour line
c Valley line d Straight line [Ans. : a]
Q.30 In a canal syphon, the flow is
a Under atmospheric pressure b Pipe flow
c With critical velocity d Under negative pressure [Ans. : b]
Q.31 The main function of a diversion head works of a canal from a river, is
a To remove silt b To control floods
c To store water d To raise water level [Ans. : d]
Q.32 Pick up the correct statement from the following:
a The full supply level of a canal should be above ground level
b According to Lacey, regime conditions require a particular slope for a given
discharge and silt factor
c In case the ground slope is less than the required bed slope, the silt factor
must be reduced by permitting the entry of coarse silt
d All the above [Ans. : d]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 6 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.33 If d1 is the depth of cutting, d2 is the height of the bank from bed level r2 : 1
and r1 : 1 are the slopes in filling and cutting respectively, the horizontal
distance n between the bed and bank, is
a x = r1 d1 b x = r2 d2
c x = d1 / r1 d x = d2 / r2 [Ans. : b]
Q.34 The ratio of the rate of change of discharge of an outlet and parent channel, is
known as
a Efficiency b Sensitivity
c Flexibility d Modular limit [Ans. : c]
Q.35 The width of a dowla is generally kept between 30 to 60 cm and its height
above the road level should invariably be more than
a 10 cm b 20 cm
c 30 cm d 40 cm [Ans. : c]

Q.36 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

a Water table generally follows the ground surface above it with a few
exceptions
b Static level of water in an open well indicates the position of the water table
c At water table, hydrostatic pressure is zero
d All the above [Ans. : d]
Q.37 Side slopes generally kept for canals in loam soil, are:
a 1 : 1 in cutting and 11/2 : 1 in filling
b 11/2 : 1 in cutting and 2 : 1 in filling
c Neither (a) nor (b) d Both (a) and (b) [Ans. : d]
Q.38 For the stability of a structure against seepage pressure according to Khosla's
creep theory, the critical gradient is
a Zero b 0.25
c 0.50 d 1.00 [Ans. : d]
Q.39 The length of a meander is the distance along the river between the tangent
point of one curve to the tangent point of
a Reverse curve b Next curve of the same order
c Reverse curve plus the width of the river
d None of these [Ans. : d]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 7 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.40 In a barrage, the crest level is kept

a Low with large gates b High with large gates
c High with no gates d Low with no gates [Ans. : a]

Q.41 An outlet which maintains a constant discharge irrespective of fluctuation in

the water levels of the supplying channel or water course, is known as
a Non-modular outlet b Semi-modular outlet
c Flexible modular outlet d Right modular outlet [Ans. : d]

Q.42 Process of meandering is due to

a Sediment load of streams
b Discharge and hydraulic properties of streams
c Relative erodibility of the bed and banks
d All the above [Ans. : d]

Q.43 The ratio of the head recovered to the head put in, is known as
a Efficiency b Sensitivity
c Flexibility d Modular limit [Ans. : a]

Q.44 If H and d are the water depth and drop in the bed level at a Sarda fall, the
width B of the trapezoidal crest, is given by
a B = 0.22 v(H + d) b B = 0.33 v(H + d)
c B = 0.44 v(H + d) d B = 0.55 v(H + d) [Ans. : d]

Q.45 When a canal and a drainage approach each other at the same level, the
structure so provided, is
a An aqueduct b A syphon
c A level crossing d Inlet and outlet [Ans. : c]

Q.46 The difference in level between the top of a bank and supply level in a canal,
is called
a Berm b Free board
c Height of bank d None of these [Ans. : b]

Q.47 The crest level of a canal diversion head work, depends upon
a F.S.L. of the canal b Discharge perimeters
c Pond level d All the above [Ans. : d]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 8 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.48 The most suitable location of a canal head work, is

a Boulders stage of the river b Delta stage of the river
c Rock stage of the river d Trough stage of the river [Ans. : d]

Q.49 While deciding the alignment of a proposed canal taking off from a river at B,
three alignments of approximately equal lengths are available. These cross a
drainages at C1, C2 and C3 where drainage bed levels C1 > C2 > C3, you will
provide at site C3
a An aqueduct b A syphon aqueduct
c A super passage d A syphon [Ans. : a]

Q.50 Canals constructed for draining off water from water logged areas, are
known
a Drains b Inundation canals
c Valley canals d Contour canals [Ans. : a]

Q.51 A fall in a canal bed is generally provided, if

a Ground slope exceeds the designed bed slope
b Designed bed slope exceeds the ground slope
c Ground slope is practically the same as the designed bed slope
d None of these [Ans. : a]

Q.52 The depth of the crest of a scouring sluice below the crest of a head regulator,
is generally kept
a 0.20 m b 1.20 m
c 2.20 m d 3.20 m [Ans. : b]

Q.53 Bligh's theory of seepage assumes

a Equal weightage to the horizontal and vertical creep
b More weightage to horizontal creep than vertical creep
c Less weightage to horizontal creep than vertical creep
d Loss of head follows the sine curve [Ans. : a]
Q.54 During the construction of an earthen dam by hydraulic fill method,
development of pore pressure becomes important in the __________________
a Central impervious core b Pervious outer shell
c ransition zone d Both central core and outer shell
[Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 9 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.55 The process of laying and compacting earth in layers by power rollers under
OMC for construction of earthen dams is known as ______________________
a Rolled fill method b Hydraulic fill method
c OMC method d Compaction [Ans. : a]

Q.56 For diversion of flood water of rivers, the type of canal constructed, is
a Ridge canal b Perennial canal
c Inundation canal d Canal [Ans. : c]

Q.57 The blanket in earth dam is provided ___________________

a At the ground level on u/s side
b At the ground level on the d/s side
c At the ground level of the D/s side of the dam
d On the D/s slope [Ans. : a]

Q.58 Which embankment has the thickness of the diaphragm at an elevation less
than 10 meters or the height of the embankment above the corresponding
elevation?
a Diaphragm type dam b Zoned type dam
c Non-homogenous earth dam d Homogenous earth dam [Ans. : a]

Q.59 If D is the depth of water upstream of the throat above its sill, B is the width
of the throat, to achieve critical flow in an open venturi flume, the theoretical
maximum flow Q, is
a Q = 1.71 BD1/2 b Q = 1.71 BD
c Q = 1.71 BD3/2 d Q = 1/71 BD2/3 [Ans. : c]

Q.60 Retrogression of the bed level of a river downstream a weir, occurs due to
a Heavy impact of water b Increase of the bed level
c Less percentage of silt d Soft soil strata [Ans. : c]

Q.61 In a concrete canal the approximate permissible velocity of water should not
exceed
a 0.5 m/sec b 1 m/sec
c 1.5 m/sec d 2 m/sec [Ans. : d]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 10 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.62 A hydraulic jump is generally formed when a stream moving with

a A hyper-critical velocity meets a stream moving with a critical velocity
b A hyper-critical velocity meets a stream moving with a hyper-critical
velocity
c A hyper-critical velocity meets a stream moving with a sub-critical velocity
d A sub-critical velocity meets a stream moving with a hyper-critical velocity
[Ans. : c]

Q.63 A fall which maintains its depth, is

a A trapezoidal notch fall b A low weir fall
c A rectangular notch fall d All the above [Ans. : d]

Q.64 Presence of tail-water in a gravity dam ____________________

a Increases the principal stress and decreases the shear stress
b Increases both the principal stress and the shear stress
c Decreases the principal stress and increases the shear stress
d Decreases both the principal stress and the shear stress [Ans. : d]

Q.65 The saturation line is the line up to which banks get saturated after the canal
runs for some time. The saturation gradient in ordinary loam soil, is generally
a 2:1 b 3:1
c 4:1 d 5:1 [Ans. : c]

Q.66 The uplift pressure on the roof of an inverted syphon, is maximum when
a Drain in running dry b Canal is running dry
c Canal is running with F.S.L. d Drain is running with H.F.L. [Ans. : d]

Q.67 The ratio of the discharge over a trapezoidal crest to a rectangular crest of
Sarda falls of identical parameters, is
a 1.084 b 1.074
c 1.064 d 1.054 [Ans. : a]

Q.68 Pond level in a canal regulator is the level of water

a at highest flood level b at the crest level
c at the lowest level d none of these. [Ans. : d]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 11 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.69 The crest level of a canal diversion head work, depends upon
a F.S.L. of the canal b discharge perimeters
c pond level d all the above [Ans. : d]

Q.70 Retrogression of the bed level of a river downstream a weir, occurs due to
a heavy impact of water b increase of the bed level
c less percentage of silt d soft soil strata. [Ans. : c]

Q.71 According to Khosla, the exist gradient of surface flow

a depends upon the bid ratio b is independent of the bid ratio
c is independent of the depths of the cut off walls
d none of these. [Ans. : a]

Q.72 The uplift pressure on the roof of an inverted siphon is maximum when
a drain is running dry b canal is running dry
c drain is running with H.S.L. d canal is running with F.S.L. [Ans. : c]

Q.73 The uplift pressure on the roof of an inverted syphon, is maximum when
a drain in running dry b canal is running dry
c canal is running with F.S.L. d drain is running with H.F.L. [Ans. : d]

Q.74 The main function of a diversion head works of a canal from a river, is
a to remove silt b to control floods
c to store water d to raise water level [Ans. : d]

Q.75 The most suitable location of a canal head work, is

a boulders stage of the river b delta stage of the river
c rock stage of the river d trough stage of the river [Ans. : d]

Q.76 A canal head work in the boulder stage of a river is not suitable because
a subsoil flow exists in the river bed
b there are heavy seepage losses
c very few cross drainage works are required
d all the above [Ans. : d]

Q.77 In a barrage, the crest level is kept

a low with large gates b high with large gates
c high with no gates d low with no gates [Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 12 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.78 A concrete gravity dam having a maximum reservoir level at 200 m and the
RL of the bottom of the dam 100 m. The maximum allowable compressive
stress in concrete is 3000 KN/m2 and the specific gravity of concrete is 2.4.
Calculate the height of the dam and check whether it is a high dam or low
dam.
a H = 90 m High gravity dam b H = 90 m Low gravity dam
c H = 214.2 m High gravity dam d H = 214.2 m Low gravity dam
[Ans. : a]

Q.79 Pick up the correct statement from the following

a In a level crossing, a crest with its top at the canal F.S.L. is provided across
the drainage at its up-stream junction with canal
b In a level crossing a regulator Is provided across the drainage at its down-
stream
c In a level crossing, a cross regulator is provided on the canal below the
crossing
d All the above. [Ans. : d]

Q.80 While deciding the alignment of a proposed canal taking off from a river at B,
three alignments of approximately equal lengths are available. These cross a
drainages at C1, C2 and C3 where drainage bed levels C1 > C2 > C3, you will
provide at site C3
a an aqueduct b a syphon aqueduct
c a super passage d a syphon. [Ans. : a]

Q.81 Which of the following zone in Zoned type embankment prevents piping
through cracks?
a Central core b Transition zone
c Outer zone d Core wall [Ans. : b]

Q.82 The level of the floor of a syphon aqueduct can be obtained

a by subtracting the depth of the culvert from the canal bed level
b by subtracting the thickness of culvert plus the depth of the culvert from the
canal level
c both (a) and (b)
d none of these. [Ans. : b]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 13 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.83 Pick up the correct statement from the following

a Approach of the water line in a flumed channel section should not be
steeper than 22.5 degree
b Departure of the water line from a flumed channel section should not be
steeper than 30 degree
c Approach of the water line should not be steeper than and departure line
not steeper than 22.5 degree in a flumed channel section
d Approach and departure of the water line in a flumed channel section,
should not be steeper than 22.5 degree. [Ans. : c]

Q.84 The base width of a solid gravity dam is 35 m and the specific gravity of dam
material is 2.45. What is the approximate allowable height of the dam having
an elementary profile without considering the uplift?
a 64.68 m b 54.80 m
c 164 m d 80 m [Ans. : b]

Q.85 Pick up the correct statement from the following

a Escapes are essential safety valves in a canal system
b The capacity of escapes should not be less than the capacity of the canal at
its location
c The escapes must lead the surplus water to natural drainages
d All the above. [Ans. : d]

Q.86 In an arch dam the extrodos cures refer to the arch rings corresponding to the
a Upstream face of the Dam b Downstream face of the Dam
c Either A or B d None of these above [Ans. : a]

Q.87 The constant radius arch dam is also sum times called as
a Constant centre arch dam b Constant angle arch dam
c Variable angle arch dam d None of these above [Ans. : a]

Q.88 What is the recommended value of shear friction factor against sliding?
a More than unity b Less than unity
c More than 3 to 5 d Less than 3 [Ans. : c]

Q.89 Which of the following earth dam is suitable only on impervious foundation?

a Zoned embankment type b Homogenous embankment type

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 14 Multiple Choice Questions

c Non-homogenous type d Diaphragm type [Ans. : b]

Q.90 The axis of a gravity dam is the ______________________

a Line of the crown of the dam on the downstream side
b Line of the crown of the dam on the upstream side
c Centre-line of the top width of the dam
d The line joining mid-points of the base [Ans. : b]

Q.91 Which of the following soil material is most preferred for the central core
material of zoned embankment type dam?
a Highly impervious clay b Sands or silty clays
c Coarse sands d Gravels [Ans. : b]

Q.92 Attracting groynes are built

a perpendicular to the bank b inclined down stream
c inclined up stream d none of these. [Ans. : b]

Q.93 Which of following forces is the least important in the design of arch Dam
a Reservoir water force b Uplift pressure
c Temprature stresses d Ice Load [Ans. : b]

Q.94 The width of a meander belt is the transverse distance between

a apex point of one curve and apex point of the reserve curve
b apex point and the crossing
c two banks of meandering river
d none of these. [Ans. : a]

Q.95 The length of a meander is the distance along the river between the tangent
point of one curve to the tangent point of
a reverse curve
b next curve of the same order
c reverse curve plus the width of the river
d none of these. [Ans. : b]

Q.96 The length and width of a meander and also the width of the river, vary
roughly as
a square root of the discharge b discharge
c square of the discharge d cube of the discharge. [Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 15 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.97 The sinuosity of a meander is the ratio of

a meander length and the width of meander
b meander length and half width of the river
c curved length and the straight distance
d none of these. [Ans. : c]

Q.98 Process of meandering is due to

a sediment load of streams
b discharge and hydraulic properties of streams
c relative erodibility of the bed and banks
d all the above [Ans. : d]

Q.99 A non vertical arch dam is known as a

a Buttress Dam b Double curvature arch Dam
c Shell arch Dam d Both B & C Above [Ans. : d]

Q.100 An Arch Dam looks like a single arch in

a Plan b side elevation
c Front elevation d None of these. [Ans. : a]

Dams categories, particular dam type selections, important and various types of dams in
india.

Q.101 Aswan dam on Nile River in Egypt was perhaps the first modern dam of the
world. Its construction was completed in the year _________
a 1664 b 1798
c 1902 d 1931 [Ans. : c]

Q.102 Which of the following is the only modern dam that has failed?
a Koyna dam in India
b Vega de Tera dam in Spain
c Mauvoision dam in Switzerland
d Trinity dam in California, USA [Ans. : b]

Q.103 Earthen dams are _________________

a rigid dams b non-rigid dams
c overflow dams d diversion dams [Ans. : b]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 16 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.104 The prominent modern dam which has changed its name several times is
_____________
a Nagarjuna dam b Hoover dam
c Bhakra dam d Idukki dam [Ans. : b]

Q.105 The famous Roosevelt dam in USA is of the type __________________

a Rock-fill dam b Solid Masonry Gravity Dam
c RCC arch bridge d hollow masonry gravity dam [Ans. : b]

Q.106 A _________________ dam is generally called as a weir or barrage.

a storage dam b detention dam
c diversion dam d rigid dam [Ans. : c]

Q.107 Multiple arch dam is an example of _______________

a Arch dam b Shell-arch dams
c Buttress dams d Coffer dam [Ans. : c]

Q.108 Which type of dam design gives a wider choice of materials including earth-
fill and rock-fill dams?
a Non-overflow dams b Overflow dams
c Rigid dams d Non-rigid dams [Ans. : a]

Q.109 The highest concrete gravity dam of the world is the Grand Dixene dam in
Switzerland whose height is ____________
a 325 m b 317 m
c 285 m d 272 m [Ans. : c]

Q.110 Which of the following is known as a debris dam?

a Storage dam b Detention dam
c Diversion dam d Rigid dam [Ans. : b]

Q.111 Topography dictates the first choice of the type of dam. A narrow U-shaped
valley would suggest a ________________________
a concrete overflow dam b spillway
c arch dam d earth dam [Ans. : a]
Q.112 A narrow V-shaped valley indicates the choice of _________________
a concrete overflow dam b spillway
c arch dam d earth dam [Ans. : c]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 17 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.113 Which of the following foundations are suitable for earthen and rock-fill
dams?
a Solid rock foundation b Gravel foundation
c Silt and fine sand foundation d Clay foundation [Ans. : b]

Q.114 Which foundation suggests the adoption of an earth dam or very low gravity
dam?
a Solid rock foundation b Gravel foundation
c Silt and fine sand foundation d Clay foundation [Ans. : c]

Q.115 Which foundation is not fit for concrete gravity dam or for rock-fill dams?
a Solid rock foundation b Gravel foundation
c Silt and fine sand foundation d Clay foundation [Ans. : d]

Q.116 Which dam is a better choice when the raw materials are not available and
have to be transported from far off distances?
a Earthen dam b Rock-fill dam
c Concrete gravity dam d Hollow concrete dam [Ans. : d]

Q.117 For any width of the valley with any foundation and low height of water to be
stored, the best-suited dam is _____________
a steel dam b buttress dam
c timber dam d solid gravity dam [Ans. : c]
Q.118 Arch dams are constructed in _____________
a wide valleys with flat side slopes
b narrow valley with weak abutments
c moderate valleys with strong abutments
d narrow valleys with strong abutments [Ans. : d]
Q.119 Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the selection of dam
site?
a For economy, the length of the dam should be as small as possible
b For a given height, it should store the maximum volume of water
c The river valley at the dam site should be narrow but should open out
upstream to provide a large basin for a reservoir
d The general bed level at the dam site should preferably be lower than that of
the river basin [Ans. : d]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 18 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.120 Which structures are best suited to resist earthquake shocks without danger?
a Earthen dams b Concrete gravity dams
c Timber dam d Both earthen and concrete gravity dams
[Ans. : d]
Q.121 Nangal Dam is an example of ___________
a diversion dam b storage dam
c detention dam d arch dam [Ans. : a]
Q.122 Which of the following dam is partly earthen and partly rockfill?
a Tehri dam b Koyna dam
c Sardar Sarovar dam d Bhakra dam [Ans. : a]
Q.123 Bhakra dam of India is located in the state of ________________
a Punjab b Himachal Pradesh
c Uttar Pradesh d Madhya Pradesh [Ans. : b]
Q.124 The highest concrete gravity dam of India which is also the 2nd highest such
dam of the world is _______________
a Indira Sagar Dam b Cheruthoni Dam
c Bhakra Nangal dam d Tehri Dam [Ans. : c]

Q.125 Which of the following is the highest stone masonry gravity dam of India as
well as of the world?
a Ramganga dam b Nagarjuna Sagar dam
c Hirakud dam d Mettur dam [Ans. : a]

Q.126 Which project ranks first in the man-power utilization among the gigantic
projects of its own kind in the world?
a Nagarjuna Sagar Project b Bhakra Nangal Project
c Damodar Valley Project d Indira Gandhi Canal [Ans. : a]

Q.127 Which of the following is a stone masonry dam?

a Bhakra dam b Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
c Hirakud dam d Tehri dam [Ans. : b]
Q.128 The only arch dam of India is Idukki dam across Periyar River in Kerala state
whose height is _____
a 81 m b 143 m
c 149 m d 169 m [Ans. : d]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 19 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.129 The highest dam of India is built on _______________

a Jhelum River b Musi River
c Kaveri River d Bhagirathi River [Ans. : d]

Q.130 The oldest dam of India is built on which river?

a Krishna River b Kaveri River
c Damodar River d Kallada River [Ans. : b]

Q.131 Gravity dam is most suitable when the foundation is _______________

a weak b strong
c with heavy overburden d rocky but cracked [Ans. : b]

Q.132 Which of the following type of dam is built in areas where the foundation is not
strong enough to bear the weight of concrete?
a Rock-fill dam b Earth dam
c Gravity dam d Arch dam [Ans. : b]

Q.133 Which of the following dam is partly earthen and partly rockfill?
a Tehri dam b Koyna dam
c Sardar Sarovar dam d Bhakra dam [Ans. : a]

Q.134 Idukki dam is a type of ________________

a rockfill dam b a hollow masonry gravity dam
c arch dam d steel dam [Ans. : c]

Q.135 In which of the following dam the weight of water is carried by a deck of
RCC or by arches that share the weight burden?
a Earth dams b Rockfill dams
c A hollow masonry gravity dam d Timber dam [Ans. : c]

Q.136 It is possible to construct steel dam only up to a height of ____________

a 5m b 10 m
c 20 m d 50 m [Ans. : c]

Q.137 The temporary structures that are built to enclose certain worksite is
______________
a storage dam b coffer dam
c timber dam d steel dam [Ans. : b]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 20 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.138 Which of the following dam is suitable for narrow valleys?

a Arch dam b Steel dam
c Coffer dam d Timber dam [Ans. : a]

Q.139 When sand and gravel foundation strata are available at a proposed dam site
of moderate height, the dam may be of the type ________________
a earthen or rockfill dam b masonry gravity dam
c concrete gravity dam d double arch dam [Ans. : a]

Q.140 According to the Hydraulic design, the dams are classified as _________
a diversion and detention Dams b storage and diversion dams
c overflow and non-overflow dam d arch and buttress dam [Ans. : c]

Q.141 A dam reservoir which is not provided with gate controls on its spillway and
other sluices is called ________________
a detention dam b storage reservoir
c retarding basin d flood control reservoir [Ans. : c]

Q.142 A hydel power project has been envisaged to serve the water supply and
irrigation needs of the area at its inception stage. The dam reservoir so
constructed is known as __________________
a multipurpose reservoir b single-purpose reservoir
c distribution reservoir d retarding reservoir [Ans. : a]

Q.143 A dam reservoir catering to flood control, irrigation, and water supply
basically designed for irrigation alone is a _______________-
a multipurpose reservoir b single-purpose reservoir
c distribution reservoir d retarding basins [Ans. : b]

Q.144 Which reservoir is also known as Mitigation reservoir?

a Conservation reservoir b Flood control reservoir
c Multipurpose dam d Storage reservoir [Ans. : b]

Q.145 A reservoir having gates and valves installation at its spillway and at its
sluice outlets ___________
a storage reservoir b retarding basin
c both storage and retarding reservoir d distribution reservoir [Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 21 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.146 Which reservoir is helpful in permitting the pumps or the water treatment
plants to work at a uniform rate?
a Storage reservoir b Detention reservoir
c Multipurpose reservoir d Distribution reservoir [Ans. : d]
Q.147 In which of the following reservoir the flood crest downstream can be better
controlled and regulated properly?
a Distribution reservoir b Multipurpose reservoir
c Storage reservoir d Retarding reservoir [Ans. : c]
Q.148 What are the types of flood control reservoirs?
a Multipurpose reservoir and Single purpose reservoir
b Storage reservoir and retarding reservoirs
c Distribution reservoir and Storage reservoir
d Distribution reservoir and multipurpose reservoir [Ans. : b]
Q.149 As the reservoir elevation increases, the outflow discharge increases.
a True b False [Ans. : a]

Q.150 The maximum discharging capacity of a retarding reservoir should not be

equal to the maximum safe carrying capacity of the channel downstream.
a True b False [Ans. : b]

Q.151 What is the most important physical characteristic of a reservoir?

a Storage capacity b Annual Yield
c Average yield d Reservoir water level [Ans. : a]

Q.152 In general practice adopted for capacity computations is to actually survey

the site contours only at vertical distances of __________________
a 5 m or more b Less than 5 m
c 0.5 m or more d Less than 0.5 m [Ans. : a]

Q.153 The area-elevation curve when integrated will yield the capacity-elevation
curve.
a True b False [Ans. : a]

Q.154 Which of the following method does not give more than 3% error in the
determination of the capacity of a reservoir?
a Prismoidal formula b Trapezoidal method
c Average formula d Integration method [Ans. : d]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 22 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.155 The surcharge storage in a dam reservoir is the volume of water stored
________________
a between the minimum and maximum reservoir levels
b between the minimum and normal reservoir levels
c between normal and maximum reservoir levels
d below the minimum pool level [Ans. : c]

Q.156 The useful storage in a dam reservoir is the volume of water stored
__________________
a between the minimum and maximum reservoir levels
b between the minimum and normal reservoir levels
c between normal and maximum reservoir levels
d below the minimum pool level [Ans. : b]

Q.157 The dead storage in a dam reservoir is the available volume for collection of
silt and sediment between _______________
a bed level of the reservoir and minimum reservoir level
b bed level of the reservoir and the silt level in the reservoir
c bed level of the reservoir and the normal pool level
d above the minimum pool level [Ans. : a]

Q.158 Bank storage in a dam reservoir _________________

a increases the compound reservoir capacity
b decreases the computed reservoir capacity
c sometimes increases and sometimes decreases the computed reservoir
capacity
d has no effect on computed reservoir capacity [Ans. : a]

Q.159 The valley storage reduces the effective storage capacity of a reservoir.
a True b False [Ans. : a]

Q.160 The maximum level to which the water rises during the worst design flood is
known as _________________________
a full Reservoir level b maximum conservation level
c minimum pool level d surcharge storage [Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 23 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.161 Which of the following formula can be used to determine the storage when
three consecutive sections at equal height are taken?
a Prismoidal formula b Trapezoidal method
c Average formula d Integration method [Ans. : a]

Dam Safety and Instrumentation

Q.162 The factor of safety against overturning generally varies between ___________
a 2 to 3 b 1.5 to 2
c 0.5 to 1.5 d 1 to 2 [Ans. : a]

Q.163 What is the maximum permissible tensile stress for high concrete gravity dam
under worst conditions?
a 500 KN/m2 b 500 kg/cm2
c 5 kg/m2 d 50 KN/m2 [Ans. : a]

Q.164 Which failure occurs when the net horizontal force above any plane in the
dam or at the base of the dam exceeds the frictional resistance developed at
that level?
a Overturning b Crushing
c Sliding d BY development of tension [Ans. : c]

Q.165 Which failure occurs when the minimum stress exceeds the allowable
compressive stress of the dam material?
a Overturning b Crushing
d Sliding d By development of tension [Ans. : b]

Q.166 Tension cracks in the dam may sometimes lead to the failure of the structure
by?
a Sliding of the dam at the cracked section
b Overturning about the toe
c Crushing of concrete starting from the toe
d Both overturning and crushing [Ans. : c]

Q.167 Which of the following criteria has to be satisfied for no tension at any point
on a gravity dam?
a The resultant of all the forces must always pass through the mid-point of the
base of the dam

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 24 Multiple Choice Questions

b The resultant force for all conditions of loading must pass through the
middle third of the base
c The resultant of all the forces must pass through the upstream extremity of
the middle third of the base
d The resultant of all the forces must pass through the downstream extremity
of the middle third of the base [Ans. : b]

Q.168 The bottom portion of a concrete or a masonry gravity dam is usually stepped
in order to _______
a increase the overturning resistance of the dam
b increase the shear strength
c decrease the shear strength
d increase the frictional resistance [Ans. : b]

Q.169 The governing compressive stress in a concrete gravity dam which should not
be allowed to exceed the permissible value of about 3000 KN/m2 while
analyzing full reservoir case is ____________________
a the vertical maximum stress at the toe
b the major principal stress at toe
c the shear stress at the toe
d the principal stress at the heel [Ans. : b]

Q.170 If the uplift increases and the net effective downward force reduces, the
resultant will shift towards the toe.
a True b False [Ans. : a]

Q.171 What are the two main causes of failure of hydraulic structure on the pervious
foundation?
a Seepage and Over-turning b Undermining and Uplift
c Over-turning and Piping d Overturning and Uplift [Ans. : b]

Q.172 The structure finally subsides in the hollow formed in the foundation in which
failure?
a Collapse b Overturning
c Undermining d Uplift [Ans. : c]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 25 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.173 Heave piping may occur on the _______________

a downstream of sheet pile or cut off wall
b upstream of sheet pile or cut off wall
c body of earth structure d below the foundation [Ans. : a]

Q.174 "The safety of a hydraulic structure founded on a pervious foundation can be

ensured by :
i. Provision sufficient length of its concrete floor.
ii. Providing sufficient depth of its concrete floor.
iii. Provision a downstream cutoff of some reasonable depth."
a i and ii b i and iii
c i, ii and iii d ii and iii [Ans. : c]

Gravity Dams

Q.175 The vertical component of the earthquake wave which produces adverse
effects on the stability of a dam when is acting in ____________________
a upward direction
b downward direction
c both upward and downward direction
d any direction [Ans. : b]

Q.176 The horizontal component of an earthquake wave producing instability in a

dam is the one which acts __________________
a towards the reservoir b towards the dam
c away from the reservoir d away from the dam [Ans. : a]

Q.177 The vertical downward earthquake acceleration av = 0.1g acting on a gravity

dam will ________________________
a increase the resisting weight of the dam by 10%
b decrease the resisting weight of the dam by 10%
c increase the uplift by 10%
d decrease the uplift by 10% [Ans. : b]

Q.178 A gravity dam is subjected to hydrodynamic pressure caused by __________

a the rising waves of the reservoir when a flood wave enters into it
b the rising waves in the reservoir due to high winds

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 26 Multiple Choice Questions

c the increase in water pressure momentarily caused by the horizontal

earthquake acting towards the reservoir
d the increase in water pressure momentarily caused by the horizontal
earthquake acting towards the dam [Ans. : c]

Q.179 In a concrete gravity dam with a vertical upstream face the stabilising force is
provided by the ___________________
a weight of the dam
b the water supported against the upstream slope
c uplift pressure d water pressure at the tail end [Ans. : a]

Q.180 What is the value of horizontal destabilizing force caused by the formation of
waves in a storage reservoir having a fetch of 52 km due to high wind of 172
km/h?
a 30 KN b 60 KN
c 130 KN d 180 KN [Ans. : d]

Q.181 Calculate the value of free-board that should be provided for a reservoir
having a wind velocity of 92 km/h and it extends up to 18 km upstream.
a 1.2 m b 1.6 m
c 2.25 m d 2.5 m [Ans. : c]

Q.182 The upward acceleration of dam due to seismic activity will

________________________
a increase the base pressure b decrease the base pressure
c not affect the effective weight of the dam
d increase the horizontal dynamic force [Ans. : a]

Q.183 What is the average value of acceleration that is sufficient for high dams in
seismic zones?
a 0.1g to 0.15g b 0.05g to 0.1g
c 0.3gs
d 0.15g (where g is the acceleration due to gravity) [Ans. : a]

Q.184 What is Von Karman’s formula for hydrodynamic force (Pe)?

a Pe = 0.726 pe H b Pe = 0.424 pe H
c Pe = 0.555 pe H d Pe = 0.555.Kh. Yw H^2 [Ans. : d]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 27 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.185 When the reservoir is empty, the single force acting on it is the self-weight of
the dam which acts at a distance of ____________
a B/2 from the heel b B/6 from the heel
c B/3 from the heel d B/4 from the heel [Ans. : c]

Q.186 When the reservoir is empty, the maximum vertical stress equal to
________________
a At heel = 2W/B and at toe = 0 b At heel = 0 and at toe = 2W/B
c At heel = toe = zero d At heel = toe = 2W/B [Ans. : a]

Q.187 The two-dimensional stability analysis of gravity dams proves better for U-
shaped valleys than for V-shaped valleys.
a True b False [Ans. : a]

Q.188 Calculate the value of minimum base width for an elementary triangular
concrete gravity dam supporting 72 m height of reservoir water and full
uplift? (Take specific gravity of concrete as 2.4 and coefficient of friction as
0.7)
a 36.28 m b 39.77 m
c 51.5 m d 73.5 m [Ans. : d]

Q.189 For usual values of permissible compressive stress and specific gravity of
concrete, a high concrete gravity is the one whose height exceeds
______________
a 48 m b 70 m
c 88 m d 98 m [Ans. : c]

Q.190 For triangular dam section of height H for just no tension under the action of
water pressure, self-weight and uplift pressure, the minimum base width
required is _____________
a H / (S-1) b H / S^1/2
c H / (S – 1)^-1 d H / (S-1)^1/2 [Ans. : d]

Q.191 If the eccentricity of the resultant falls outside the middle third, the ultimate
failure of the dam occurs by ______________
a tension b crushing
c sliding d overturning [Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 28 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.192 What is the value of eccentricity for no tension condition in the dam?
a e < B/6 b e > B/6
c e > B/3 d e < B/3 [Ans. : a]

Q.193 What is the formula for limiting height of a gravity dam?

a Hmax = f / (Sc + 1) γw b Hmax = f / (Sc – 1) γw
c Hmax = f / (Sc + C) γw d Hmax = f / (Sc – 1) γw [Ans. : a]

Q.194 Calculate the top width of the dam if the height of water stored is 84m.
a 5m b 2.5 m
c 5.55 m d 7.75 m [Ans. : a]

Q.195 In high dams, the safety against sliding should be checked only for friction.
a True b False [Ans. : b]

Q.196 The safety against sliding should be checked only for friction in case of low
dams and in high dams, the shear strength of the joint
a True b False [Ans. : a]

Q.197 For full reservoir condition in a gravity dam, the critical combination of
vertical and horizontal earthquake accelerations to be considered for
checking the stability is ________________________
a vertically upward and horizontally downstream
b vertically downward and horizontally downstream
c vertically upward and horizontally upstream
d vertically downward and horizontally upstream [Ans. : b]

Q.198 The base width of a solid gravity dam is 35 m and the specific gravity of dam
material is 2.45. What is the approximate allowable height of the dam having
an elementary profile without considering the uplift?
a 64.68 m b 54.80 m
c 164 m d 80 m [Ans. : b]

Q.199 A low gravity dam of elementary profile made up of concrete of relative

density 2.57 and safe allowable stress of foundation material 4.2 MPa. What is
the maximum height of the dam without considering the uplift force?
a 120 m b 217 m
c 279 m d 325 m [Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 29 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.200 The vertical stress at the toe was found to be 3.44 MPa at the base of the
gravity dam section. If the downstream face of the dam has a slope of 0.617
horizontal: 1 vertical, the maximum principal stress at the toe of the dam
when there is no tailwater is _______________
a 1.7 MPa b 2.4 MPa
c 3.6 MPa d 4.8 MPa [Ans. : d]

Q.201 What is the recommended value of shear friction factor against sliding?
a More than unity b Less than unity
c More than 3 to 5 d Less than 3 [Ans. : c]

Q.202 The small openings made in the huge body of a concrete gravity dam such as
sluices and inspection galleries can be assumed to be causing only local
effects without any appreciable effect on the distribution of stresses as per the
principle of_____________________
a Laplace b St. Venant
c Reynold d St. Francis [Ans. : b]

Q.203 A concrete gravity dam having a maximum reservoir level at 200 m and the
RL of the bottom of the dam 100 m. The maximum allowable compressive
stress in concrete is 3000 KN/m2 and the specific gravity of concrete is 2.4.
Calculate the height of the dam and check whether it is a high dam or low
dam.
a H = 90 m High gravity dam
b H = 90 m Low gravity dam
c H = 214.2 m High gravity dam
d H = 214.2 m Low gravity dam [Ans. : a]

Q.204 The axis of a gravity dam is the ______________________

a line of the crown of the dam on the downstream side
b line of the crown of the dam on the upstream side
c centre-line of the top width of the dam
d line joining mid-points of the base [Ans. : b]

Q.205 Presence of tail-water in a gravity dam ____________________

a increases the principal stress and decreases the shear stress
b increases both the principal stress and the shear stress

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 30 Multiple Choice Questions

c decreases the principal stress and increases the shear stress

d decreases both the principal stress and the shear stress [Ans. : d]

Q.206 The provision of drainage gallery in a gravity dam helps in reducing

____________________
a hydrostatic pressure b seepage pressure
c silt pressure
d both hydrostatic pressure and seepage pressure [Ans. : b]

Q.207 "Which of the following attempts are made to reduce the uplift in order to
economize on the provided section of a concrete gravity dam?
i. Providing drainage gallery to collect seepage water
ii. Constructing cut-off under upstream face
iii. Pressure grouting in dam foundation
iv. Provision of shear keys or keyways"
a i and ii b i, ii and iii
c i, ii and iv d i, ii, iii and iv [Ans. : b]

Q.208 Transverse joints in concrete gravity dams are the ______________________

a horizontal construction joints at each lift height
b vertical construction joints of full height and width
c diagonal construction joints for torsion
d longitudinal construction joints of full width [Ans. : b]

Q.209 Leakage through the transverse joints in a gravity dam is prevented by

____________
a shear keys b keyways
c water stops d galleries [Ans. : c]

Q.210 In order to reduce uplift on a gravity dam, the type of grouting done is
____________________
a curtain grouting near the heel
b consolidation grouting near the heel
c curtain grouting near the toe
d consolidation grouting near the toe [Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 31 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.211 The general value of lift for concrete is taken as __________________

a 1.5 m b 2.5 m
c 3m d 4m [Ans. : a]

Q.212 The horizontal joints that extends through the entire width of the dam section
and are developed at each lift height is called as ___________________
a transverse joints b longitudinal joints
c construction joints d contraction joints [Ans. : b]

Q.213 Which of the following joints justifies the two-dimensional analysis of gravity
dams?
a Longitudinal joints b Transverse joints
c Construction joints d Contraction joints [Ans. : b]

Q.214 The foundation pressure used in the pressure grouting is equal to

_________________
a 2.0 D N/cm2 b 2.5 D N/cm2
c 5.0 D N/cm2 d 3.0 D N/cm2 [Ans. : b]

Arch Dam and Other Dams

Q.215 An arch dam looks like a single arch in _________________

a plan b front elevation
c side elevation d both plan and front elevation [Ans. : a]

Q.216 A non-vertical arch dam is known as a _______________

a buttress dam b double curvature arch dam
c shell arch dam
d both double curvature and shell arch dams [Ans. : d]

Q.217 Greater is the wall curvature in an arch dam, greater will be the economy in
the dam thickness.
a True b False [Ans. : a]

Q.218 Which of the following is the most economical type of arch dam?
a Constant radius type b Variable radius type
c Constant angle type d Variable angle type [Ans. : c]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 32 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.219 A constant angle arch dam when compared to constant radius arch dam
utilizes concrete quality of about ______________
a 43% b 130%
c 230% d 113% [Ans. : a]

Q.220 Which among the following type of dam section is expected to be the thinnest
and the most economical?
a Constant angle arch dam b Shell-arch dam
c Constant radius arch dam d Concrete gravity dam [Ans. : b]

Q.221 The most economical central angle of the arch rings of an arch dam can be
adopted only at one place preferably at mid-height in an arch dam is of the
type __________________
a constant angle arch dam b constant radius arch dam
c both constant angle and constant radius arch dam
d variable radius arch dam [Ans. : b]

Q.222 In an arch dam, the extrados curve refer to the arch rings corresponding to the
____________________
a the upstream face of the dam
b downstream face of the dam
c side face of the dam
d either upstream or downstream face of the dam [Ans. : a]

Q.223 A V-shaped valley with stronger foundations can suggest the choice of an
arch dam is of the type ___________________________
a constant radius arch dam b variable radius arch dam
c constant angle arch dam d variable angle arch dam [Ans. : c]

Q.224 A constant radius arch dam is also sometimes called as _______________

a constant centre arch dam b constant angle arch dam
c variable angle arch dam d variable centre arch dam [Ans. : a]

Q.225 The type of arch dam which generally requires overhangs at abutments is of
________________________
a constant radius type b variable radius type
c constant angle type d variable angle type [Ans. : c]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 33 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.226 Which of the following forces is the least important in the design of arch
dams?
a Reservoir water force b Uplift pressure
c Temperature stresses d Ice load [Ans. : b]

Q.227 Which of the following theory is the most accurate method to design arch?
a The thin cylinder theory b The theory of elastic arches
c The trial load method d Creep theory [Ans. : c]

Q.228 Which among the following is not an assumption of the ‘Trial Load Analysis’
method of design of arch dams?
a Plane sections normal to the axis remain plane after flexure
b Any horizontal arch ring is independent of the arch rings below and above
c Modulus of elasticity of concrete and rock foundation is equal for
compression and tension
d Stresses are proportional to strains [Ans. : b]

Q.229 The thin cylinder theory for designing arch dams is based only on
___________________
a temperature stresses b ice pressures
c yield stresses d hydrostatic water pressure [Ans. : d]

Q.230 The temperature stresses producing worst effects in the design of arch dams
are caused by ______________
a rise in temperature b fall in temperature
c both rise and fall d no effect in the design [Ans. : b]

Q.231 The stresses due to rib-shortening become quite important in the case of
_____________
a long thin arch dams b thick arch dams of small angle
c both thin and thick arch dams
d all types of arch dams [Ans. : b]

Q.232 Which of the following is not the basis for the design of an arch dam?
a Thin cylinder theory b Trial load theory
c Unit column theory d Elastic theory [Ans. : c]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 34 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.233 According to thin cylinder theory, the volume of concrete required for an arch
dam would be minimum if the central angle is ____________
a 130° 34’ b 133° 34’
c 143° 34’ d 153° 34’ [Ans. : b]

Q.234 The best design of an arch dam is when __________________

a all horizontal water loads are transferred horizontally to the abutments
b the dam is safe against sliding at various levels
c the load is divided between the arches and cantilevers and the deflections at
the conjugal points being equal
d the deflections of the cantilevers are equal at different points [Ans. : c]

Q.235 At a given elevation, the thickness of the arch ring is proportional to the
radius of the arch.
a True b False [Ans. : a]

Q.236 The load from the deck of a buttress dam is transmitted to the foundations
through the ______
a corbels b buttresses
c lateral braces d sloping deck [Ans. : b]

Q.237 Multiple arch dams are generally used for ______________

a high heights b low heights
c medium heights d any height [Ans. : a]

Q.238 Which of the following dam requires no reinforcement?

a Fixed deck buttress dam b Simple deck buttress dam
c Cantilever deck buttress dam d Massive head buttress dam [Ans. : d]

Q.239 Which of the following dam is also known as the Amberson dam?
a Multiple arch buttress dam b Mushroom head buttress dam
c Massive head buttress dam d Free deck buttress dam [Ans. : d]

Q.240 Which of the following component of a buttress dam is also called

counterfort?
a Corbel b Buttress
c Lateral brace d Sloping deck [Ans. : b]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 35 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.241 Which of the following type of dam requires very strong and stable
foundations and is not in use as much as the other types?
a Multiple dome-type dams
b Massive head type dam
c Columnar buttress type dam
d Deck slab type dam [Ans. : c]

Q.242 Which of the following is the earliest recorded multiple arch buttress dam?
a Meer Alam dam in India
b The Coolidge dam in Arizona
c Rodriguez dam in Mexico
d Idduki dam in Kerela, India [Ans. : a]

Q.243 In a simple deck slab buttress dam of a given height, the buttress spacing can
be increased by increasing the upstream slope.
a True b False [Ans. : a]

Q.244 The buttresses of a free deck buttress dam are provided at ‘x’ m clear spacing
and buttress thickness is proposed to be ‘t’ m. The buttress section can then
be designed like the section of a concrete gravity dam by considering the
effective unit weight of water = Surcharge factor (S) x actual unit weight of
water. The value of this surcharge factor is given as _____________
a S = (x + t)/x b S = (x + t)/t
c S = (x + t)/(x + 1) d S = (x + t)/(t + 1) [Ans. : b]

Q.245 What is the suggested economic buttress spacing for a mean dam height of
greater than 45 m?
a 4.5 b 4.5 to 7.5
c 7.5 to 12 d 12 to 15 [Ans. : d]

Q.246 What is the suggested slenderness ratio for simply supported RCC decks?
a 4.5 to 7.5 b 7.5 to 12
c 12 to 15 d 15 to 18 [Ans. : c]

Q.247 What is suggested massiveness factor for simply supported RCC Decks?
a 2.5 to 3 b 3 to 4.5
c 4.5 to 7.5 d 7.5 to 12 [Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 36 Multiple Choice Questions

Spillway and Gates

Q.248 The safety valve of a dam is its __________________

a drainage gallery b inspection gallery
c spillway d outlet sluices [Ans. : c]

Q.249 An ungated spillway starts functioning as soon as the water level in the
reservoir crosses the __________________
a maximum reservoir level b minimum reservoir level
c maximum conservation level d full Supply level [Ans. : c]

Q.250 Which of the following is the simplest type of spillway and may be
constructed on small bunds or thin arch dams?
a Straight drop spillway b Ogee spillway
c Shaft spillway d Siphon spillway [Ans. : a]

Q.251 The spillway can be best built independently of the dam when there is
_________________________
a deep narrow gorge with steep slopes
b deep narrow gorge with gradual slopes
c wide gorge with a gradual slope
d wide valley with moderate slopes [Ans. : a]

Q.252 Which of the following is a secondary safety arrangement?

a Safety valves b Spillway gates
c Subsidiary spillway d Energy dissipaters [Ans. : c]

Q.253 Which of the following spillway is least suitable to earthen dams?

a Ogee spillway b Chute spillway
c Side-channel spillways d Shaft spillway [Ans. : a]

Q.254 If the operating head on an ogee spillway is more than the design head then
________________
a the pressure on the crest will be zero
b the pressure on the crest will be negative causing cavitation
c the pressure on the crest will be positive
d the discharge coefficient of the spillway will be reduced [Ans. : b]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 37 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.255 In the functioning of an ogee spillway, the operating head

______________________
a frequently exceeds the design head
b rarely exceeds the design head
c never exceeds the design head
d has no connection with the design head [Ans. : b]

Q.256 Which of the following spillway is an improvement over free overflow

spillway?
a Straight drop spillway b Open channel spillway
c Overflow spillway d Siphon spillway [Ans. : c]

Q.257 If the head of the water over the spillway is less than the design head, then
________________
a the pressure on the crest will be zero
b the pressure on the crest will be negative causing cavitation
c he discharge coefficient of the spillway is increased
d the discharge coefficient of the spillway will be reduced [Ans. : d]

Q.258 The spillway which can be called as an overflow spillway is essentially

___________________
a an ogee spillway b a shaft spillway
c a chute spillway d a syphon spillway [Ans. : a]

Q.259 The W.E.S downstream profile of an ogee spillway can be represented by an

equation:X^n = K Hd ^ n-1 * Y Where x and y are the coordinates of the
points on the crest profile and K and n for a vertical upstream spillway
would respectively be___________________
a 2.0 and 1.85 b 0.5 and 1.85
c 2.0 and 0.85 d 0.5 and 0.85 [Ans. : a]

Q.260 According to US Army Corps, the u/s profile of ogee spillway extends up to
_______________
a x = 1.27 Hd b x = -1.27 Hd
c x = 0.431 Hd d x = -0.431 Hd [Ans. : b]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 38 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.261 Which of the following plot is useful in determining the clearance for the
spillway deck bridge and the top levels of walls on the side of the spillway?
a The coordinates of the lower nappe
b The coordinates of the upper nappe
c Both the coordinates of upper and lower nappe
d The origin or apex of crest [Ans. : b]

Q.262 What is the satisfactory radius for the reverse bottom curve which is provided
at the downstream end of the spillway?
a One-fourth of the spillway height
b Equal to the spillway height
c Half the value of the spillway height
d One-third of the spillway height [Ans. : a]

Q.263 What is Bazin’s profile?

a Profile for the lower nappe of a free-falling jet
b The profile obtained for the upper nappe of a free-falling jet
c Crest profile
d Profile of both upper and lower nappe [Ans. : a]

Q.264 If the upstream face of the spillway is kept vertical, the crest shape should also
confirm to the lower nappe of an inclined sharp-crested weir.
a True b False [Ans. : b]

Q.265 The discharge passing over an ogee spillway per unit length of its apex line is
proportional ___________________
a H b H2
c H1/2 d H3/2 [Ans. : d]

Q.266 When the crest of an ogee spillway is designed to be in accordance with the
lower nappe of a free-falling water jet over a duly ventilated sharp-crested
weir then theoretically
a The pressure on the spillway crest will be zero at design head only
b The pressure on the spillway crest will always be zero
c The pressure on the spillway crest will always be negative
d The pressure on the spillway crest will be always positive [Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 39 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.267 When the gated sluices are provided through the body of the dam spillway
then the ogee spillway structure shall normally be of Corbel type.
a True b False [Ans. : b]

Q.268 The extra concrete is required for thickening of the section at the d/s end
which can be saved by shifting the curve of the nappe in a backward
direction until it becomes tangential to the d/s face.
a True b False [Ans. : a]

Q.269 The velocity of approach has found to be negligible effect upon discharge if
____________
a the ratio H/Hd is more than 1.33
b the ratio H/Hd is less than 1.33
c the ratio H/Hd is equal to zero
d the ratio H/Hd is more than 1 [Ans. : a]

Q.270 If a flood enters a dam reservoir at F.R.L, the efficiency of its ogee spillway
will ______________
a increase with the increasing head
b reduce with the increasing head
c remain constant with the increasing head
d vary with the increasing head [Ans. : a]

Q.271 The downstream apron of the ogee spillway is found to have a negligible
effect on the coefficient of discharge when the value of ________________
a (Hd + d) / He is less than 1.7 b (Hd + d) / He exceeds 1.7
c (Hd + d) / He is equal to 1 d (Hd + d) / He is less than 1.33
[Ans. : b]

Q.272 What is the value of the pier abutment coefficient for pointed nose piers?
a 0.1 b 0.02
c 0.01 d 0.0 [Ans. : d]

Q.273 What is the value of abutment contraction coefficient for square abutment
with headwall perpendicular to the direction of flow?
a 0.2 b 0.1
c 0.02 d 0.01 [Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 40 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.274 What is the assumption that is taken during the entire design of an overflow
spillway?
a The upper and lower nappe is subjected to negative pressures
b The upper and lower nappe is subjected to full atmospheric pressure
c The upper and lower nappe is subjected to zero atmospheric pressure
d The upper and lower nappe is subjected to both positive and negative
pressure [Ans. : b]

Q.275 The greater is the divergence from the streamline flow, greater is the
contraction coefficient.
a True b False [Ans. : a]

Q.276 Calculate the effective length of the spillway which consists of 6 spans having
a clear width of 10 m each. The thickness of each pier may be taken as 2.5 m
and the total design head on the crest including velocity head is 16.3 m.
Assuming 90° cut water nose piers and rounded abutments.
a 55 m b 60 m
c 65 m d 75 m [Ans. : a]

Q.277 Which of the following is the simplest type of spillway which can be provided
independently and at low costs?
a Ogee spillway b Trough spillway
c Siphon spillway d Saddle spillway [Ans. : b]

Q.278 If the spillway is constructed in continuation to the dam at one end, it may be
called as ________
a saddle weir b flank weir
c waste weir d temporary weir [Ans. : b]

Q.279 The spillway which can be adopted with ease on gravity as well as earthen
dams is _________________
a ogee spillway b chute spillway
c both ogee and chute spillway d straight drop spillway [Ans. : b]

Q.280 The famous Bhakra dam of India is provided with ________________

a trough spillway b ogee spillway
c shaft spillway d siphon spillway [Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 41 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.281 The surplus reservoir water after spilling over the crest of the spillway flows
on the chute is __________________
a parallel to the crest in a trough spillway
b parallel to the crest in a side-channel spillway
c perpendicular to the crest in a side-channel spillway
d obliquely to the crest in a chute spillway [Ans. : b]

Q.282 Whenever the slope of chute changes from steeper to milder

____________________ curve shall be provided.
a a concave vertical curve b a convex vertical curve
c a hyperbolic curve d a parabolic curve [Ans. : a]

Q.283 The side slope of approach channel of chute spillway is ___________________

a 1:1 b 1:1.5
c 1:3 d 1:2.5 [Ans. : a]

Q.284 The spillway which may sometimes be called as a waste weir is

______________________
a an ogee spillway b a trough spillway
c a shaft spillway d a siphon spillway [Ans. : b]

Q.285 The portion of a chute spillway which is known as its control structure is
________________
a low ogee weir b chute channel
c approach channel leading the water from the reservoir to the ogee weir
d silting basin at its bottom [Ans. : a]

Q.286 The type of spillway which is provided on narrow valleys where no side
flanks are available is ____________________
a ogee spillway b chute spillway
c side-channel spillway d straight drop spillway [Ans. : c]

Q.287 Which of the following curve is provided when the slope of the chute changes
from milder to steeper?
a Concave vertical curve b Hyperbolic curve
c Convex vertical curve d Straight plan [Ans. : c]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 42 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.288 Calculate the freeboard for the top levels of the side walls if the mean velocity
of water in the chute reach is 3.5 m/s and the mean depth of water in the
chute reach under consideration is 4.7 m.
a 0.60 m b 1m
c 0.85 m d 0.55 m [Ans. : c]

Q.289 The minimum slope of the chute is governed by the condition that
_____________
a the subcritical flow must be maintained
b the supercritical flow must be maintained
c a critical flow must be maintained
d maybe supercritical or subcritical flow is possible [Ans. : b]

Q.290 What is the approximate percentage of light reinforcement that is provided in

the top of the reinforced concrete slabs at the base?
a 0.50% of the concrete area b 0.45% of the concrete area
c 0.30% of the concrete area d 0.25% of the concrete area [Ans. : d]

Q.291 A shaft spillway is located _______________________

a inside the body of a gravity dam
b inside the upstream reservoir
c inside the downstream reservoir
d on the side flanks of the main dam [Ans. : b]

Q.292 The siphons installed within a gravity dam to spill the surplus reservoir water
are known as ______________________
a hooded type siphon spillway
b tilted outlet type siphon spillway
c both hooded and titled type siphon spillway
d shaft spillway [Ans. : b]

Q293 The siphons installed over overflow dams constitute what are known as
__________________
a hooded type siphon spillway
b tilted outlet type siphon spillway
c discharge carriers
d baby siphons [Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 43 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.294 The only spillway among the following through which the discharge does not
increase as fast as it increases in all others is _________________
a chute spillway b side-channel spillway
c ogee spillway d shaft spillway [Ans. : d]

Q.295 The only spillway among the following through which the discharge is almost
at its capacity rate even from the start of its functioning is ________________
a chute spillway b side-channel spillway
c ogee spillway d siphon spillway [Ans. : d]

Q.296 An air vent is provided at FRL to break the siphoning action at that level in a
___________________
a hooded type of siphon spillway
b tilted outlet type of siphon spillway
c saddle siphon spillway
d volute siphon spillway [Ans. : c]

Q.297 Which of the following spillway is designed in India by Ganesh Iyer?

a Saddle siphon spillway b Saddle spillway
c Glory hole spillway d Volute Siphon spillway [Ans. : d]

Q.298 The crest of a siphon spillway is fixed at ________________

a full reservoir level b dead storage level
c maximum water level d top of the dam [Ans. : a]

Q.299 A siphon spillway is sufficiently independent of the water surface elevation of

the reservoir.
a True b False [Ans. : a]

Q.300 The allowable maximum negative head on an average is equal to __________

a 2.5 m or so b 5 m or so
c 7.5 m or so d 10 m or so [Ans. : c]

Q.301 The structure which is not used in a shaft spillway is ________________

a tunnel b bridge
c radial gates d radial piers [Ans. : c]

Q.302 Morning glory is the _____________________________

a special flared inlet of the shaft spillway of a dam of very small height

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 44 Multiple Choice Questions

b special flared inlet of the shaft spillway of a large dam project

c a horizontal tunnel constructed in a shaft spillway across the body of a
gravity dam to carry surplus reservoir water to the d/s river
d a horizontal tunnel constructed in a shaft spillway of an earthen dam
through its foundation to carry surplus reservoir water to the d/s river
[Ans. : b]

Q.303 For a saddle siphon, the maximum operative head is 4.53 m. The width and
height of the throat of the siphon are 5 m and 2.25 m respectively. The
coefficient of discharge is 0.90. How many units are required to pass a flood
of 350 cumecs? (Assume g = 10 m/s2)
a One b Two
c Three d Four [Ans. : d]

Q.304 A siphon spillway in a concrete gravity dam is in the shape of

________________
a U-shape b Inverted U-shape
c Horizontal bend through the abutment
d Any straight line [Ans. : b]

Q.305 The energy dissipation at the toe of the spillway is affected basically by the
use of hydraulic jump in _______________________
a roller bucket b a ski-jump bucket [Ans. : c]
c a sloping apron below the downstream river bed
d both roller and ski-jump bucket

Q.306 The most ideal condition for energy dissipation in the design of spillways is
the one when the tail-water rating curve coincides with the jump rating curve
at all discharge.
a True b False [Ans. : a]

Q.307 When the tail-water depths in the river downstream of a spillway are quite
low such that the tail-water curve at all discharges lies below the post jump
depth curve, then the energy dissipation can be affected best by
___________________
a a roller bucket b a ski-jump bucket
c either roller or ski-jump bucket d a sloping apron [Ans. : b]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 45 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.308 The device which does not help in energy dissipation at the bottom of a
hydraulic structure over which water spills is ________________
a chute block b dentated sill
c morning glory d baffle piers [Ans. : c]

Q.309 The formation of hydraulic jump at the foot of a spillway is one of the
common methods of energy dissipation because ______________________
a it destroys more than 90% of total energy by the turbulence produced in the
jump
b it reduces the kinetic energy by increasing the depth of flow
c its action is not understood
d it reduces the kinetic energy by decreasing the depth of flow [Ans. : a]

Q.310 A ski-jump bucket is also known as _____________________

a flip bucket b solid roller bucket
c slotted roller bucket d flexible bucket [Ans. : a]

Q.311 A ski-jump bucket is also known as _____________________

a flip bucket b solid roller bucket
c slotted roller bucket d flexible bucket [Ans. : a]

Q.312 The percentage of energy dissipation in a hydraulic jump increases with the
increase in the Froude number.
a True b False [Ans. : a]

Q.313 Which of the following stilling basin help in stabilizing the flow and improve
the jump performance?
a dentated sills b chute blocks
c baffle piers d friction blocks [Ans. : a]

Q.314 What is the expected solution for the case when the T.W.C is lying above the
J.H.C curve at all discharges?
a By providing a simple concrete apron of length 5(Y1 – Y2)
b By providing a sloping apron above the river bed
c By providing a sloping apron below the river bed
d Provision of a ski-jump bucket [Ans. : b]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 46 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.315 A sloping apron is provided partly above the river bed and partly below the
river bed in case of ____________________________
a when TWC coincides with the JHC at all discharges
b when TWC lies above the JHC at all discharges
c when TWC lies below the JHC at all discharges
d when TWC lies above the JHC at low discharges and below the JHC at high
discharges [Ans. : d]

Q.316 " When the TWC lies below the JHC at all discharges, the problem can be
solved by which of the following provisions?
i. Constructing a sloping apron above the river bed
ii. Provision of roller bucket type of energy dissipator
iii. Provision of a ski-jump bucket
iv. A sloping apron below the river bed
v. Construction of a subsidiary dam
vi. A sloping apron partly above and partly below the river bed"
a i, iii and v b i, ii and vi
c iii, iv and v d i, iii, iv and v [Ans. : c]

Q.317 A troublesome and oscillating hydraulic jump is normally met in cases of

_____________
a weirs and barrages b overflow spillways of dams
c weirs d large spillways [Ans. : a]

Q.318 A very steady and stable hydraulic jump is usually formed in the flows
involving the approaching Froude number in the range of
_____________________
a less than 2.5 b 2.5 to 4.5
c 4.5 to 9.0 d more than 9.0 [Ans. : c]

Q.319 Standard USBR stilling basin-II is useful for energy dissipation at the bottom
of the overflow structure, if the approaching Froude number is
________________
a less than 4.5 b more than 4.5
c less than 2.5 d more than 2.5 [Ans. : b]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 47 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.320 When the Froude number is in the range of 2.5 to 4.5, the jump is
____________________
a weak and energy loss is low b troublesome and oscillating
c steady jump d strong jump [Ans. : b]

Q.321 Which of the following stilling basin is applicable to only rectangular cross-
sections?
a U.S.B.R stilling basin-II b U.S.B.R stilling basin-IV
c U.S.B.R stilling basin-I d U.S.B.R stilling basin-III [Ans. : b]

Q.322 The Froude number of a hydraulic jump is 5.5. The jump can be classified as
____________
a a weak jump b an oscillating jump
c rough and choppy jump d steady jump [Ans. : d]

Q.323 Standard stilling basin is provided at the toe of a dam spillway for energy
dissipation is usually provided with auxiliary devices like chute blocks and
dentated sills for the basic purpose of reducing the length of the stilling basin
from about ________________
a 6 y2 to 4 y2 b 4 y2 to 2 y2
c 6 y2 to 2 y2 d 3 y2 to y2 [Ans. : a]

Q.324 In the case of dam spillways, the approaching Froude number usually lies in
the range of __________
a less than 2.5 m b 2.5 – 4.5
c 4.5 – 9.0 d more than 9.0 [Ans. : c]

Q.325 _____________________ are suitable only for low spillways or weirs.

a Chute blocks b Sloping aprons
c Baffle wall or friction blocks d Roller buckets [Ans. : c]

Q.326 Which of the following helps in dissipating the residual energy and to reduce
the length of the jump or the basin?
a Dentated sills b Chute blocks
c Roller bucket d Baffle piers [Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 48 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.327 In a fixed roller of a spillway gate, the rollers are attached to the
__________________
a gate b groove gate
c either gate or groove gate d guide grooves [Ans. : a]

Q.328 In the vertical Stoney spillway gate, the rollers are placed between the
______________
a gate and u/s groove guide b gate and the d/s groove guide
c u/s and d/s groove guide d attached to the gate and groove guides
[Ans. : b]

Q.329 The spillway gate which when lowered cannot be seen from a distance is of
the type ______________________
a Sliding gate b Roller gate
c Tainter gate d USBR drum gate [Ans. : d]

Q.330 An ogee spillway of a concrete gravity dam having FRL of 328 m and MWL
of 340 m is provided with vertical gates between piers erected on the
spillway. The effective length of the spillway is 60 m. The discharge through
the spillway when gates are opened up to the actual reservoir level of 331.0 m
will be_____________
a 850 cumecs b 1700 cumecs
c 2800 cumecs d 1000 cumecs [Ans. : b]

Q.331 The most common vertical lift gates in modern days is _________________
a sliding gates b free-roller gates
c stoney gates d fixed wheel gates [Ans. : d]

Q.332 The working of Reinold’s gate is automatic.

a True b False [Ans. : a]

Q.333 Which of the following gate is also called flush boards?

a Dropping shutters b Tainter gates
c Drum gates d Vertical lift gates [Ans. : a]

Q.334 Which one of the following gate is not suitable for curved crests?
a Flush boards b Tainter gates
c Drum gates d Vertical lift gates [Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 49 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.335 Which one of the following gate is not suitable for curved crests?
a Flush boards b Tainter gates
c Drum gates d Vertical lift gates [Ans. : a]

Q.336 Which of the following gate works on the principle of counterweights against
the water pressure?
a Dropping shutters b Stop logs and needles
c Stoney roller gate d Drum gates [Ans. : a]

Q.337 ________________ are used only for very minor works.

a Dropping gates b Stop logs and needles
c Rectangular gates d Drum gates [Ans. : b]

Q.338 Which of the following gate is not suitable for smaller spillways?
a Drum gates b Radial gates
c Needles and stop logs d Fixed roller gates [Ans. : a]

Q.339 The bar screens used to cover the dam outlets to prevent entry of debris, or
ice into the spillway conduits are called __________________
a gate controlled ports b projecting collars
c trash racks d intakes [Ans. : c]

Q.340 Projecting collars are provided on sides of a rectangular tunnel of length L

made through an earthen dam to increase the seepage path. Their projection
length (X) and numbers (N) are decided so as to provide increased seepage
path equal to 2NX where 2NX should generally be ______________________
a greater than L/4 b greater than L/3
c greater than L/2 d greater than L [Ans. : a]

Q.341 The outlet provided in a dam body to release water for the downstream water
demand is known as ______________________
a spillway b sluiceway
c under-sluice d waterway [Ans. : b]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 50 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.342 A 2 m diameter sluiceway at RL 300 m is provided through a concrete

overflow dam section to release water to the downstream where tail water
level is not more than 275 m. The discharge through this outlet when the
water level in the reservoir is at FRL of 330 m is of the order
of_________________
a 20 cumecs b 40 cumecs
c 50 cumecs d 80 cumecs [Ans. : c]

Q.343 A 4 m diameter tunnel has been constructed through an earthen dam with a
bell mouth entry. The water levels on the U/s and D/s sides of the dam are at
RL 226 m and 210 m respectively. What will be the discharge through this
outlet?
a 64 cumecs b 104 cumecs
c 165 cumecs d 216 cumecs [Ans. : c]

Q.344 Which of the following entrance of the sluiceway is most superior?

a A square-edged entrance b A Bell-mouthed entrance
c A rectangular entrance d A circular entrance [Ans. : b]

Q.345 What is the value of head loss for the fully open gate and butterfly valves?
a 0.5 V^2 / 2g b V^2 / 2g
c 0.2 V^2 / 2g d 0.04 V^2 / 2g [Ans. : c]

Hydropower Structures

Q.346 A hydropower plant developed at the site of a drop in an irrigation canal is of

the type ________
a runoff river plant b storage plant
c pumped storage plant d tidal plant [Ans. : a]

Q.347 A nuclear power development scheme is essentially a _____________________

a thermal power scheme b hydropower scheme
c both thermal and hydropower scheme
d atomic power scheme [Ans. : a]

Q.348 Fossil fuels are used in _____________________

a a nuclear power plant b an ordinary thermal power plant
c a hydropower plant d atomic power plant [Ans. : b]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 51 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.349 A runoff river plant for hydropower generation is essentially a

________________________
a high head scheme b medium head scheme
c low head scheme d any of the schemes [Ans. : c]
Q.350 A storage hydro plant essentially involves ________________
a a barrage or a weir b a dam
c either barrage or a dam d check dams [Ans. : b]
Q.351 The natural high waterfalls may be used for generation of
____________________
a hydro-power b water-power
c both hydropower and water power d thermal power [Ans. : c]
Q.352 Which among the following is an example of a tidal plant?
a Rance power station in France
b Ganguwal powerhouse located on Nangal hydel channel in India
c Sarda powerhouse located on Sarda canal in UP in India
d Mohammad Pur and Pathri powerhouses on Ganga Canal [Ans. : a]
Q.353 When the powerhouse is located near the dam as is done in the low head
installations, it is known as _________________
a concentrated fall hydroelectric development
b divided fall hydroelectric development
c concentrated fall thermal power development
d divided fall thermal power development [Ans. : a]
Q.354 Which of the following plants utilize the minimum flow in a river having no
appreciable pondage on its upstream side?
a Storage plant b Run-off river plant
c Pumped storage plants d Tidal plants [Ans. : b]

Q.355 Which among the following plant generates power during peak hours?
a Storage plant b Run-off river plant
c Pumped storage plants d Tidal plants [Ans. : c]

Q.356 Which of the following dam is not an example of High head scheme?
a Bhakra dam in Punjab b Rihand dam In UP
c Hoover Dam in the USA d Sarda canal [Ans. : d]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 52 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.357 Pondage in a hydropower station is _________________________________

a pond level
b temporary storage to meet peak demands
c excess runoff to last for years
d excess runoff for a few hours only [Ans. : b]

Q.358 In a low head scheme, a weir or barrage is constructed to raise the water
level.
a True b False [Ans. : a]

Q.359 Which of the following plant uses a reversible turbine that can work at
relatively high efficiencies and helps in reducing the cost of such a plant?
a Run-off river plant b Storage plant
c Pumped storage plant d Tidal plant [Ans. : c]

Q.360 Which of the following plant uses a reversible turbine that can work at
relatively high efficiencies and helps in reducing the cost of such a plant?
a Run-off river plant b Storage plant
c Pumped storage plant d Tidal plant [Ans. : c]

Q.361 As per estimate made by the Central Electricity Authority, the potential of the
country is accessed at 84 GW at load factor value of _________________
a 40% b 60%
c 80% d 20% [Ans. : b]
Q.362 The first power station of India was installed at _________________
a Mysore b Bombay
c Darjeeling d Bangalore [Ans. : c]
Q.363 What is the correct expansion of DAE?
a The Department of Atomic Energy
b The Discipline of Atomic Energy
c The Division of Atomic Energy
d The Domain of Atomic Energy [Ans. : a]
Q.364 In India, the nuclear power generation is about ____________ of the total
power generation.
a 3% b 4%
c 5% d 6% [Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 53 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.365 Which one is the first nuclear power plant in India?

a Tarapur atomic power station
b Kaiga atomic power station
c Rawatbhata Atomic power station
d Narora atomic power station [Ans. : a]

Q.366 Convert the hydropower potential of 84 GW at 60% load factor into Trillion
watts hour.
a 441 TWh b 735 TWh
c 553 TWh d 345 TWh [Ans. : a]

Q.367 The minimum power which a hydropower plant can generate throughout the
year is called as ________________
a power plant capacity b power plant load
c firm power d water power [Ans. : c]

Q.368 If the peak load for a power plant equals the plant capacity then the ratio of
the capacity factor to load factor will be _________________
a 1 b 0
c <1 d >1 [Ans. : a]

Q.369 If the peak load on a power plant having a capacity of 100 MW is 70 MW

during a given week and the energy produced is 58, 80,000 kWh, the capacity
factor for the plant for the week will be ___________________
a 35% b 50%
c 70% d 65% [Ans. : a]

Q.370 During a certain week a power plant turns out 84,00,000 kWh and the peak
load during the week is 100,000 kW. What is the load factor during the week?
a 40% b 45%
c 50% d 60% [Ans. : c]

Q.371 A canal drop is 6 meters and discharges available through the turbine is 50
cumec. Find the electrical energy available.
a 2352 KW b 2352 MW
c 2.352 kW d 235.2 kW [Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 54 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.372 The ratio of maximum power utilised to the maximum power available is
_____________
a power factor b plant use factor
c reserve capacity d capacity factor [Ans. : b]

Q.373 The net amount of power which is continuously available from a plant
without any break is known as _____________
a firm power b secondary power
c power factor d utilization factor [Ans. : a]

Q.374 The value of power factor is generally _____________________

a equal to unity b less than unity
c greater than unity d equal to zero [Ans. : b]

Q.375 To ensure maximum overall plant efficiency, the rated head should be equal
to ______________
a the design head b the gross head
c the operating head d effective head [Ans. : a]

Q.376 The difference of head at the point of entry and exit of turbine is
_______________
a design head b gross head
c effective head d rated head [Ans. : c]

Q.377 The load on a hydel plant varies from a minimum of 10,000 kW to a maximum
of 35,000 kW. Two turbo-generators of capacities 20,000 kW each have been
installed. Calculate Plant factor.
a 50% b 51%
c 56.2% d 59.7% [Ans. : c]
Q.378 Calculate utilisation factor if the maximum power utilised is 40,000 kW and
two turbo generators installed each of capacity 23,000 kW.
a 73% b 87%
c 57.5% d 63% [Ans. : b]
Q.379 If the peak load on a power plant having a capacity of 100 MW is 70 MW
during a given week. Calculate the utilization factor.
a 0.35 b 0.50
c 0.70 d 0.60 [Ans. : c]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 55 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.380 400 cumecs of water are being released from dam storage to meet the
downstream demand through the turbines of the connected hydro plant. The
effective head of water acting on the turbines is 50 m. The efficiency of the
hydro plant is 0.8. The electrical power generated from this plant is
__________________
a 1,56,800 MW b 156.8 M kW
c 156.8 MW d 156.8 kW [Ans. : c]

Q.381 What is the highest elevation of water level that can be maintained in the
reservoir without any spillway discharge either with gated or non-gated
spillway?
a Normal Water level b Minimum Water level
c Weighted average level d Operating head [Ans. : a]

Q.382 Which of the following is an example of an impulse turbine?

a Pelton turbine b Francis turbine
c Kaplan turbine d Propeller turbine [Ans. : a]

Q.383 Which of the following is turbine is used for medium heads ranging from 25
to 150 meters?
a Pelton turbine b Kaplan turbine
c Francis turbine d Propeller turbine [Ans. : c]

Q.384 An impulse turbine is essentially a __________________

a low-speed turbine and is used for high heads
b low-speed turbine and is used for low heads
c high-speed turbine and is used for high heads
d high-speed turbine and is used for low heads [Ans. : a]

Q.385 Kaplan turbines are found to be more versatile and costly in their initial cost
as compared to propeller turbines.
a True b False [Ans. : a]

Q.386 An impulse turbine like a Pelton’s turbine is __________________________

a an open body exposed to the atmosphere
b a closed body not exposed to the atmosphere
c a partially open and partially closed body
d depends on the design requirements [Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 56 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.387 In a reaction turbine like a Francis turbine or a Kaplan turbine ______________

a the potential head of water is totally changed into the kinetic head
b the potential head of water is partially changed into the kinetic head
c the potential head of water is not at all changed into the kinetic head
d the change of potential head of water totally or partially depends on other
factors as well [Ans. : b]

Q.388 In a Francis turbine, the water flows through a closed draft tube.
a True b False [Ans. : a]

Q.389 For a hydropower plant having 150 m head of stored water behind the dam.
The water in the reservoir is clear and load on the powerhouse is not likely to
fluctuate much. Which type of turbine will be suitable for the same?
a Pelton turbine b Francis turbine
c Kaplan turbine d Propeller turbine [Ans. : b]

Q.390 For a hydropower plant working on 150 m head, the water is sandy and the
load on the plant is highly variable. Which type of turbine will generally be
recommended?
a Pelton Turbine b Francis turbine
c Kaplan turbine d Propeller turbine [Ans. : a]

Q.391 If two identical pumps each capable to deliver a discharge Q against a head H
are connected ___________________________
a in parallel, the resulting discharge is 2Q against a head H
b in parallel, the resulting discharge is Q against a head of 2H
c in series, the resulting discharge is 2Q against a head H
d in series, the resulting discharge is Q against a head 2H [Ans. : a]

Q.392 If the specific speed in revolution per minute of a turbine is in between 60 to

300, the type of the turbine is ________________
a Pelton turbine b Francis turbine
c Propeller turbine d Kaplan turbine [Ans. : b]

Q.393 A draft tube is essentially required for impulse type turbines.

a True b False [Ans. : b]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 57 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.394 Pick the correct choice of turbine required to generate 10,000 HP under a head
of 81 m while working at a speed of 500 rpm.
a Pelton b Kaplan
c Bulb d Francis [Ans. : d]

Q.395 "Consider the following statements.

i. Runoff river plants can be located on any river
ii. Runaway speed of a turbine is generally 180% of normal speed
iii. Underground power stations are suited to areas susceptible to landslides
iv. Higher the specific speed, higher will be the discharge and the head,
Which of these statements are correct?"
a i and ii b ii and iii
c i and iv d ii and iv [Ans. : b]

Q.396 The Pumps in series operation allow the head to increase and the pumps in
parallel operation increase the flow rate.
a True b False [Ans. : a]

Q.397 Forebay provides temporary storage before the water goes to the turbine.
Following perform the function of forebay ____________________
a river b tailrace channel
c reservoir d approach channel [Ans. : c]
Q.398 "The surge tank serves which of the following purposes?
i. It allows the sediment to settle down
ii. It prevents debris from entering powerhouse
iii. It controls pressure variations in pipelines
iv. It regulates flow in the pipelines"
a i and ii b ii and iii
c iii and iv d i, ii and iii [Ans. : c]
Q.399 Identify the correct statement in regard to hydropower.
a Hydropower stations are generally labour-oriented
b The gestation period for hydro-power plant is usually small
c The hydro generators give high efficiency over a wide range of load
d In a hydropower scheme, the firm power is usually high as compared to
tidal power [Ans. : c]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 58 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.400 To avoid the possible damage to the wicket gates and turbine runners
_________________ is provided.
a trash racks b surge chamber
c floating boom d racks and trolley arrangement [Ans. : a]

Q.401 Sharp bends must be avoided in penstocks while designing components of the
hydroelectric scheme.
a True b False [Ans. : a]

Q.402 The retarding and accelerating heads are developed more promptly in
________________
a simple surge tank b restricted orifice surge chamber
c differential surge chamber d multi surge chamber [Ans. : c]

Q.403 The correct sequence in the direction of the flow of water for installations in a
hydropower plant is _______________________
a Reservoir, Surge tank, Turbine, Penstock
b Reservoir, Penstock, Surge tank, Turbine
c Reservoir, Penstock, Turbine, Surge tank
d Reservoir, Surge tank, Penstock, Turbine [Ans. : b]
Earthen and Rock Fill Dams

Q.404 Which of the following earth dam is suitable only on impervious foundation?
a Zoned embankment type
b Homogenous embankment type
c Non-homogenous type
d Diaphragm type [Ans. : b]

Q.405 Which of the following zone in Zoned type embankment prevents piping
through cracks?
a Central core b Transition zone
c Outer zone d Core wall [Ans. : b]

Q.406 Which of the following soil material is most preferred for the central core
material of zoned embankment type dam?
a Highly impervious clay b Sands or silty clays
c Coarse sands d Gravels [Ans. : b]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 59 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.407 Which embankment has the thickness of the diaphragm at an elevation less
than 10 meters or the height of the embankment above the corresponding
elevation?
a Diaphragm type dam b Zoned type dam
c Non-homogenous earth dam d Homogenous earth dam
[Ans. : a]

Q.408 The blanket in earth dam is provided ___________________

a at the ground level on u/s side
b at the ground level on the d/s side
c at the ground level of the D/s side of the dam
d on the D/s slope [Ans. : a]

Q.409 Which of the following statement is correct with reference to earthen dams?
a These dams are very costly as compared to other types
b Gravity dams are less susceptible to failure as compared to rigid dams
c These dams are suitable for construction on almost every type of foundation
d Highly skilled labor is generally not required [Ans. : c]

Q.410 During the construction of an earthen dam by hydraulic fill method,

development of pore pressure becomes important in the __________________
a central impervious core b pervious outer shell
c transition zone d both central core and outer shell
[Ans. : a]

Q.411 The process of laying and compacting earth in layers by power rollers under
OMC for construction of earthen dams is known as ______________________
a Rolled fill method b Hydraulic fill method
c OMC method d Compaction [Ans. : a]

Q.412 The central core of the zoned embankment type earth dam
________________________
a checks the seepage b prevents piping
c gives stability to the central impervious fill
d distribute the load over a large area [Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 60 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.413 Which type of dam is suitable on shallow pervious foundations?

a Zoned embankment type b Homogenous embankment type
c Both Non-homogenous type and homogenous type
d Diaphragm type [Ans. : a]

Q.414 What is the U.S.B.R recommended value for freeboard when the height of the
dam is more than 60 m?
a 2 m to 3 m b 2.5 m above the top of gates
c 3 m above the top of gates d More than 3 m [Ans. : c]

Q.415 What is the recommended formula for top width of a very low dam?
a H+3 b 0.2H + 3
c 0.2 H d H+5 [Ans. : b]

Q.416 What is the Terzaghi’s recommended value of U/s side slope for earth dam of
height less than 15m of homogenous silty clay?
a 2: 1 b 2.5: 1
c 3: 1 d 3.5: 1 [Ans. : b]

Q.417 If the height of the dam is 10 m, then the value of top width (A) according to
Strange’s recommendations is _________________
a 1.85 m b 2.5 m
c 3.0 m d 4.0 m [Ans. : b]

Q.418 When the height of the dam is in between 7.5 to 15, the Strange’s
recommended value for maximum freeboard of low earth dams is
______________
a 1.2 to 1.5 b 1.5 to 1.8
c 1.85 d 2.1 [Ans. : c]

Q.419 Calculate the top width (A) of the earth dam of height 50 m.
a 5.0 m b 4.75 m
c 6.10 m d 3m [Ans. : c]

Q.420 A phreatic line in seepage analysis is defined as the line on which pressure is
_______________
a equal to the atmosphere b greater than atmosphere
c lower than atmosphere d varying [Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 61 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.421 Provision of horizontal berms at suitable vertical intervals may be provided in

the downstream face of an earthen dam in order to _________________
a allow the movement of cattle
b allow the inspection of vehicles to move
c reduce the erosion caused by the flowing rainwater
d increase the erosion [Ans. : c]

Q.422 During seepage through an earthen mass, the direction of seepage is

________________ to the equipotential lines.
a perpendicular b parallel
c not defined d diagonal [Ans. : a]

Q.423 The upstream face of the earth dam is considered as _____________________

a equipotential line b streamline
c streak line d path line [Ans. : a]

Q.424 The effects of capillary fringe are on the slightly safer side and are neglected.
a True b False [Ans. : a]

Q.425 Which of the following line acts as a dividing line between dry (or moist) and
submerged line?
a Equipotential line b Path line
c Seepage line d Streak line [Ans. : c]

Q.426 Stone pitching or riprap is generally provided to avoid _______________

a over-topping b erosion of U/s and d/s face
c cracking due to frost action d gully formation [Ans. : b]

Q.427 "Provision of sufficient freeboard eliminates _______________

i. Over-topping failure
ii. Erosion of U/s face
iii. Erosion of D/s face
iv. Cracking due to frost action
v. Gully formation
Which of the following is/are correct?"
a i and v b ii and iii
c iv and v d i and iv [Ans. : d]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 62 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.428 The collection and removal of water before it acquires high downward
velocities is ensured by provision of ____________________
a berms b freeboard
c burrow pits d spoil banks [Ans. : a]

Q.429 In order to prevent the possibility of the cross-flow towards the earthen
embankments, it is necessary to provide _____________________
a counter berms b sides walls of sufficient height and length
c spoil banks d sufficient freeboard [Ans. : b]

Q.430 Sloughing is the process of _________________

a progressive erosion
b subsequent removal of soil grains from within the dam
c uncontrolled seepage through the dam body
d progressive removal of soil from the D/s face [Ans. : d]

Q.431 In foundation slide failure___________________________

a top of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves outward forming
large mud waves near the heel
b top of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves inward forming
large mud waves near the heel
c bottom of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves outward
forming large mud waves near the heel
d bottom of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves inward
forming large mud waves near the heel [Ans. : a]

Q.432 What is the most critical condition of slide of the U/s slope?
a The sudden drawdown of the reservoir
b Reservoir full condition
c Steady seepage condition
d Sudden drawdown and reservoir full condition [Ans. : a]

Q.433 When the reservoir is full, the slope which is most likely to slide is
_____________________
a the upstream slope b the downstream slope
c both upstream and downstream slope d no effect [Ans. : b]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 63 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.434 In order to keep the saturation line in a canal embankment well within the toe,
it is necessary to provide _____________________
a spoil bank b counter berm
c freeboard d berm [Ans. : b]

Q.435 Which of the following failures generally occur due to the development of
unaccounted pore pressures?
a Hydraulic failures b Piping through the dam body
c Sliding in embankments d Sloughing of the d/s toe [Ans. : c]

Q.436 Which of the following method is also called as the Slices method?
a Fellenius method b Swedish slip circle method
c Bishop’s simplified method d Spencer’s method [Ans. : b]

Q.437 In Fellenius method for small values of angle of internal friction of soil, the
critical arc passes ________________
a through the toe of the slope b above the toe of the slope
c below the toe of the slope d anywhere near the toe of the slope
[Ans. : c]

Q.438 Calculate the maximum shear-stress induced if the horizontal average shear
stress induced in u/s portion of the dam at the base is 36.45 kN/m2.
a 43.74 kN/m2 b 47.38 kN/m2
c 51.03 kN/m2 d 54.67 kN/m2 [Ans. : c]

Q.439 Calculate the factor of safety at the point of maximum shear if unit shearing
resistance is 97.9 kN/m2 and the maximum shear-stress induced is 55.72
kN/m2. Check whether the dam is safe or unsafe.
a F.O.S = 1.93 and safe b F.O.S = 1.75 and unsafe
c F.O.S = 0.569 and safe d F.O.S = 1.75 and safe [Ans. : d]

Q.440 A rock toe and a horizontal filter is provided on the downstream base of an
earthen dam in order to _________________
a prevent piping action in the dam body
b prevent piping action in the dam foundation
c reduce the seepage quantity by blocking its flow
d collect and drain out the seepage flow [Ans. : d]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 64 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.441 What is provided in the form of a transition zone between the homogenous
embankments-fill and rock toe?
a Toe filter b Horizontal blanket
c Chimney drain d Trenches [Ans. : a]

Q.442 The length of horizontal blanket should be equal to _________________

a 3 times the height of the dam
b 4 times the height of the dam
c 5 times the height of the dam
d 6 times the height of the dam [Ans. : a]

Q.443 ____________________ is provided when large scale stratification occurs.

a Chimney drain b Cut-off
c Relief wells d Trenches [Ans. : a]

Q.444 The only provision among the following which can help control the seepage
through the body of an earthen dam and thus to keep the phreatic line well
within the dam width is _________________
a upstream impervious cut-off
b drain trench along the downstream toe
c relief wells
d chimney drain [Ans. : d]

Diversion head works

Q.445 Into how many groups the gravity weir is sub-divided?

a 5 b 4
c 3 d 2 [Ans. : c]

Q.446 In gravity weir, the uplift pressure is due to the seepage of water.
a True b False [Ans. : a]

Q.447 The uplift pressure in non-gravity weir is resisted by the bending action.
a False b True [Ans. : b]

Q.448 Which type of weir is suitable for any type of foundation?

a Sloping Weir b Vertical Drop Weir
c Parabolic Weir d Masonry Sloping Weir [Ans. : b]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 65 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.449 What is the main difference between a dam and weir?

a Height and Duration of Storage b Capacity of Water
c Material used for Construction d Location of the Structure [Ans. : a]

Q.450 What is the difference between a weir and a barrage?

a Discharge Capacity b No Solid Obstruction
c Storage Capacity d Velocity of Flow [Ans. : b]

Q.451 In which type of weir energy dissipation takes place?

a Barrage b Vertical Drop Weir
c Sloping Weir d Parabolic Weir [Ans. : d]

Q.452 Which type of weir is of recent origin?

a Vertical Drop Weir
b Masonry or Concrete Sloping Weir
c Parabolic Weir
d Barrage [Ans. : b]

Q.453 What number of causes is responsible for the failure of weirs?

a 2 b 4
c 3 d 1 [Ans. : b]

Q.454 When the weight of the weir balances the uplift pressure caused by the head
of water seeping below the weir, it is called as ____________
a gravity weir b non-gravity weir
c vertical drop masonry weir d concrete glacis weir [Ans. : a]

Q.455 Which weir is also called Dry Stone Slope Weir?

a Masonry weir b Gravity weir
c Rock-fill weir d Concrete weir [Ans. : c]

Q.456 Which type of weir is suitable for hard clay and consolidated gravel
foundations?
a Gravity weir
b Non-gravity weir
c Masonry weir with a vertical drop
d Rock-fill weirs with sloping aprons [Ans. : c]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 66 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.457 Which weir is of recent origin and their design is based on modern concepts of
sub-surface flow?
a Gravity weir
b Non-gravity weir
c Masonry dam with a vertical drop
d Concrete weir with sloping glacis [Ans. : d]

Q.458 Which weir is now extensively used especially on pervious foundations?

a Vertical drop masonry weir
b Rock-fill weirs with sloping aprons
c Concrete weirs with sloping glacis
d Non-gravity weirs [Ans. : c]

Q.459 Which of the following statement is incorrect about Non-gravity weir?

a The weir floor is designed continuous with the divide piers as a reinforced
structure
b The weight of the concrete slab balances the uplift pressure
c The weight of the divide piers also keep the structure against uplift
d Brick piers have to be used in place of RCC [Ans. : d]

Q.460 Into how many components the diversion headwork is divided?

a 8 b 5
c 4 d 7 [Ans. : a]

Q.461 In order to find the proper location for the head works on the river, the river is
divided into how many stages?
a 5 b 2
c 3 d 4 [Ans. : d]

Q.462 Divide wall helps in concentrating scouring action.

a True b False [Ans. : a]

Q.463 Head regulator helps in controlling the flow in the canal.

a True b False [Ans. : b]

Q.464 By constructing which structure we can help the fish in their migration?
a Scouring Sluices b Silt Excluder
c Fish Ladder d Divide Wall [Ans. : c]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 67 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.465 What device is placed in front of head regulator for silt removal?
a Weir b Silt Extractor
c Silt Excluder d Barrage [Ans. : c]

Q.466 Which device is used for silt removal after it enters the canal?
a Silt Excluder b Silt Ejector
c Weir d Barrage [Ans. : b]

Q.467 Depending on how many considerations the capacity of under sluices is fixed?
a 5 b 4
c 2 d 3 [Ans. : d]

Q.468 How many river training works are needed on the canal head works?
a 5 b 3
c 4 d 2 [Ans. : b]

Q.469 When the depth is small, the name for the jump?
a Undular Jump b Direct Jump
c Strong Jump d Oscillating Jump [Ans. : a]

Q.470 For what limits of Froude number, the jump is said to be weak jump?
a 1.1 to 2.4 b 1.9 to 2.9
c 1.5 to 2.2 d 1.7 to 2.5 [Ans. : d]

Q.471 How many assumptions are made for the derivation of momentum formula?
a 6 b 3
c 4 d 5 [Ans. : c]
Q.472 Depending upon the Froude number, into how many groups the jumps are
classified?
a 8 b 6
c 7 d 4 [Ans. : b]
Q.473 On which surface the energy dissipation is less efficient?
a Horizontal Bed b Freeboard
c Level Floor d Sloping Glacis [Ans. : d]
Q.474 For what value of Froude number the jump is steady jump?
a F1 = 1 b F1 = 1.7 to 4.5
c F1 = 4.5 to 9 d F1 = 9 [Ans. : c]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 68 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.475 What are the two main causes of failure of hydraulic structure on the pervious
foundation?
a Seepage and Over-turning b Undermining and Uplift
c Over-turning and Piping d Overturning and Uplift [Ans. : b]
Q.476 The structure finally subsides in the hollow formed in the foundation in which
failure?
a Collapse b Overturning
c Undermining d Uplift [Ans. : c]
Q.477 Heave piping may occur on the _______________
a downstream of sheet pile or cut off wall
b upstream of sheet pile or cut off wall
c body of earth structure
d below the foundation [Ans. : a]
Q.478 "The safety of a hydraulic structure founded on a pervious foundation can be
ensured by:
i. Provision sufficient length of its concrete floor.
ii. Providing sufficient depth of its concrete floor.
iii. Provision a downstream cutoff of some reasonable depth."
a i and ii b i and iii
c i, ii and iii d ii and iii [Ans. : c]
Q.479 What is the value of Bligh’s coefficient for coarse-grained soil?
a 15 b 12
c 5 to 9 d 8 [Ans. : b]
Q.480 For sand mixed with boulder and gravel and for loam soil, the safe hydraulic
gradient should be ___________
a 1/15 b 1/12
c 1/5 to 1/9 d 1/8 [Ans. : c]
Q.481 Which of the following is not a limitation of creep theory?
a No distinction between the vertical and horizontal creep
b No distinction between effectiveness of outer and inner faces of sheet pile
c Significance of exit gradient is not considered
d Only a nominal floor thickness is required on the upstream side so as to
resist water [Ans. : d]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 69 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.482 If the value of Bligh’s coefficient for a particular soil is equal to 12 then, what
is the safe hydraulic gradient for that soil?
a 1/12 b 1/9
c 1/15 d 1/5 [Ans. : a]

Q.483 In Lane’s weighted creep theory, he suggested a weightage factor _________

a 1/3 for horizontal creep and 1.0 for vertical creep
b 1/3 for vertical creep and 1.0 for horizontal creep
c 2/3 for horizontal creep and 1/3 for horizontal creep
d 2/3 for vertical creep and 1/3 for horizontal creep [Ans. : a]

Q.484 Which of the following limitation of Bligh’s theory forms the basis of Lane’s
creep theory?
a No distinction between the vertical and horizontal creep
b No distinction between effectiveness of outer and inner faces of sheet pile
c Significance of exit gradient is not considered
d Bligh’s theory holds good when the length of the horizontal floor is greater
than or equal to twice the depth of the deepest pile [Ans. : a]

Q.485 What is the value of Lane’s coefficient for fine sand and coarse sand?
a 7 and 5 b 5 and 7
c 7 and 8.5 d 7 and 9 [Ans. : a]

Q.486 What is the range of Lane’s coefficient for clayey soils?

a 3.0 to 3.5 b 2.5 to 3.0
c 1.6 to 3.0 d > 3.0 [Ans. : c]

Q.487 The laplacian equation represents two sets of curves intersecting orthogonally.
a False b True [Ans. : b]

Q.488 What is the path represented by the streamlines?

a Hydraulic Jump b Flow Net
c Energy Dissipation d Water Flow [Ans. : c]

Q.489 How many corrections are needed for the complex profile broken from simple
forms, to be valid?
a 1 b 2
c 3 d 4 [Ans. : c]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 70 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.490 By how many considerations the depth downstream vertical cutoff is

governed?
a 2 b 1
c 3 d 4 [Ans. : a]

Q.491 What type of points is needed to be joined to form an equipotential line?

a Equal Pressure Points
b Residual Heads which still need Energy Dissipation
c Velocity Gradient Points
d Points of intersection of Streamlines and Velocity Components [Ans. : b]

Q.492 The component of which force is to be counterbalanced so that the soil grains
remain stable?
a Upthrust Pressure Forces b Forces due to Velocity Components
c Pressure Force d Seepage Water Force [Ans. : d]

Q.493 What is the name of the gradient pressure at the exit end?
a Gradient of Pressure b Exit Gradient
c Streamline Gradient d Equipotential Gradient [Ans. : b]

Q.494 Which method is evolved by khosla for designing of hydraulic structures?

a Method of Gradients b Method of Variables
c Method of Independent Variables d Method of Flow Nets [Ans. : c]

Canal

Q.495 On what term does the construction of a fall in the case of the main canal
depend?
a Discharge Capacity of the Canal b Length of the Canal
c Topography
d Cost of Excavation and Filling versus Cost of fall [Ans. : d]

Q.496 On what factor in case of branch canals, the construction site for a fall
depends?
a Cost of Excavation b Topography
c Commanded Area d Cost of fall [Ans. : c]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 71 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.497 How many types of falls are present?

a 4 b 5
c 7 d 8 [Ans. : d]

Q.498 What number of major defects does the ogee fall have?
a 1 b 2
c 3 d 4 [Ans. : b]

Q.499 In which fall the depth discharge relationship is unaffected?

a Trapezoidal Notch Fall b Ogee Fall
c Rapids d Straight Glacis Fall [Ans. : a]

Q.500 Which type of fall is suitable for 60 cumecs discharge and 1.5 m drop?
a Montague Type Fall b Rapids
c Straight Glacis Fall d Baffle Fall [Ans. : c]

Q.501 What is the reason for the construction of baffle wall in baffle fall?
a To Maintain Uniform Velocity Flow
b To Ensure Formation of Jump
c To Reduce Soil Erosion
d To Ensure Uniform Discharge of the Flow [Ans. : b]

Q.502 Which type of fall is not adopted in India?

a Ogee Fall b Rapids
c Inglis Fall d Montague Type Fall [Ans. : d]

Q.503 Canal drops are provided to _______________

a dissipate the excess energy
b increase the driving head of flow of water
c dissipate excess land slope
d dissipate inadequate land slope [Ans. : c]

Q.504 In case of branch canals and distributary channels, the falls are located with
consideration to _________________
a command area b topography
c cost economy d availability of earth material
[Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 72 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.505 By providing a natural drop in one drop _______________________

a the quantity of unbalanced earthwork decreases
b the quantity of unbalanced earthwork increases
c the quantity of balanced earthwork increases
d number of fall increases [Ans. : b]

Q.506 "Consider the following statements.

I. Possibility of combining some other structure with a fall eg. regulator, road
bridge etc.
II. Cutting and filling are required below and above the fall should not be
necessarily equal.
III. The command should not be reduced due to the lowering of F.S.L and the
fall may be located below the outlets.
Which of the following statement is correct for site selection of a fall?"
a I only b III only
c I and II d I and III [Ans. : d]

Q.507 ______________ fall is adopted for smaller discharges and larger drops.
a Ogee fall b Sarda fall
c Glacis fall d Well-type fall [Ans. : ]

Q.508 Calculate the velocity over the notch (V1) and the velocity through the pipe
(V3) if the full supply discharge is 2 cumecs. The area of flow over the
trapezoidal notch is 0.58 m2. Assume the value of diameter of the pipe used
as 1 m.
a V1 = 3.44 m/sec and V3 = 2.54 m/sec
b V1 = 2.54 m/sec and V3 = 3.44 m/sec
c V1 = 3.44 m/sec and V3 = 3.44 m/sec
d V1 = 0.44 m/sec and V3 = 2.04 m/sec [Ans. : a]

Q.509 Calculate the diameter of the inlet well if the X and Y coordinate of the jet
(issuing from the centre of pressure) w.r.t the water surface in the inlet well is
1.05 m and 1.88 m respectively.
a 1.575 m b 2.82 m
c 1.79 m d 0.83 m [Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 73 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.510 Which of the following loss is not considered while calculating the total head
loss between the inlet well and D/s FSL?
a Entry and exit losses
b Loss due to friction
c Loss due to enlargement of the section
d Loss due to contraction of section [Ans. : d]

Q.511 Which of the following statement is wrong?

a In a trapezoidal notch fall, the top width of the notch is kept between 3/4th
to full water depth above the sill of the notch
b The syphon fall is designed to maintain a fixed supply level in the channel
c A cylinder fall is popularly known as syphon well drop
d Energy dissipators are provided for small discharges [Ans. : d]

Q.512 Which type of canal does not need cross drainage structures?
a Side Slope Canal b Contour Canal
c Watershed Canal d Field Channel [Ans. : a]

Q.513 What is the name given to the junction of two streams?

a Ridge b Area of Mixture
c Merging d Area of Mingling [Ans. : a]

Area of Mingling

Q.514 On flatlands what type of canal alignment is used?

a Side Slope Canal b Contour Canal
c Watershed Canal d Field Channel [Ans. : c]

Q.515 Which type of canal is most useful in hilly areas?

a Side Slope Canal b Contour Canal
c Watershed Canal d Field Channel [Ans. : b]

Q.516 If a looping is present in the ridge line they how can that area be irrigated
with?
a Distributary b Tributary
c Weir d Canal [Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 74 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.517 A curve in channel results in _____________

a silting on inside (convex side) and scouring on outside (concave side)
b scouring on inside (convex side) and scouring on outside (concave side)
c both silting and scouring on inside
d both silting and scouring on outside [Ans. : a]

Q.518 If the discharging capacity of the channel is less than 0.5 cumecs then, the
minimum recommended value for curve radius is _________
a 150 m b 100 m
c 300 m d 600 m [Ans. : b]

Q.519 What is the Annual Intensity of irrigation (AII)?

a Gross Irrigated Area/Cultivable Command Area
b Cultivable Command Area/Gross Irrigated Area
c Net Irrigated Area/Cultivable Command Area
d Cultivable Command Area/Net Irrigated Area [Ans. : a]

Q.520 What is Gross Cropped Area?

a Net irrigated area + Area irrigated more than once during the same year
b Net cropped area + Area sown more than once during the same year
c Net irrigated area + Net cropped area
d Total area irrigated once a year + area irrigated more than once in that year
[Ans. : b]

Q.521 The Gross Command Area for a distributary is 8000 hectares 80% of which is
culturable irrigable. The intensity of irrigation for Rabi season is 50% and the
average duty at the head of the distributary is 2000 hectares/cumec.
Determine the discharge required at the head of the distributary.
a 1.33 cumec b 1.60 cumec
c 1.40 cumec d 1.44 cumec [Ans. : b]

Q.522 Loss of canal discharge occurs mainly due to?

a Seepage and Percolation b Percolation and Absorption
c Seepage and Evaporation d Seepage and Absorption [Ans. : c]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 75 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.523 Which of the following factor do not affect seepage loss?

a Underground water-table condition
b The porosity of the soil
c Physical properties of the canal water
d Prevailing wind velocity in the region [Ans. : d]

Q.524 In which of the following phenomenon there is a continuous direct flow

between the canal and the underground water table?
a Absorption b Seepage
c Percolation
d Both Absorption and Percolation [Ans. : c]

Q.525 Which of the following factor have no influence on evaporation loss?

a The temperature of the region
b Prevailing wind velocity in the region
c Area of water surface exposed to the atmosphere
d The porosity of the soil [Ans. : d]
Q.526 According to Etcheverry and Harding, the range of conveyance loss is highest
in which soil?
a Sandy Loam b Loose sandy soil
c Clay Loam d Rocks [Ans. : b]
Q.527 Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a The seepage loss is very high in black cotton soils and heavy clay as
compared to sandy porous soil
b The seepage through a new canal is more than from a silted canal
c The more the silt, the lesser are the losses
d The more the velocity, the lesser will be the losses [Ans. : a]
Q.528 Inflow and Outflow method is generally used to measure ____________
a transpiration loss b seepage loss
c evaporation loss d percolation loss [Ans. : b]
Q.529 Which soil has the least range of conveyance loss according to Etcheverry and
Harding?
a Sandy Loam b Clay Loam
c Loose sandy soil d Impervious clay loam [Ans. : d]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 76 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.530 The quantity of water that can be diverted from the river into the main canal
has no dependency on which of the following factor?
a The water available in the river
b The capacity of the main canal
c Water demand of the branch canals
d The capacity of the branch canal [Ans. : d]
Q.531 Which of the following combination is wrong?
a Roster – Indication of allotted supplies to different channels
b Flexible regulation – Allocation of supplies with anticipated demand
c Head regulator – Regulation of discharge in the canal
d Chak – Command area of an inlet [Ans. : d]
Q.532 Which of the following characteristics is wrong about extensive irrigation?
a The irrigation extends to a large area with the lowest available supply
b Agricultural production and protection against famine will be at optimum
levels
c The crop production will be minimal per unit of available water
d It creates a perpetual scarcity of water [Ans. : c]
Q.533 What are the categories of the entire water conveyance system?
a The primary distribution system and secondary distribution system
b The primary distribution system, the secondary distribution system, and
Water allowance
c The primary distribution system, secondary distribution system, and
tertiary distribution system
d The primary distribution system, secondary distribution system, tertiary
distribution system, and Water allowance [Ans. : c]
Q.534 Which of the following statement is wrong?
a The primary and secondary distribution system is fully controlled by the
State Irrigation Department
b The tertiary system is managed by farmers
c The distribution of water managed by farmers is done on a seven-day
rotation basis
d Water allowance is not a compromise between the likely demand and the
supply for a given project [Ans. : d]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 77 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.535 What is the correct formula for Flow Time in an hour for an individual
farmer?
a (FT for the unit area) x (area of farmer’s fields) + (his bharai – his jharai)
b (FT for the unit area) x (area of farmer’s fields) – (his bharai – his jharai)
c FT for the unit area + (his bharai – his jharai)
d FT for the unit area – (his bharai – his jharai) [Ans. : a]

Q.536 What is the formula for the Flow Time for the unit area in hours?
a 168 – (total Bharai – total Jharai) / Total area to be irrigated by the water-
course
b 168 + (total Bharai – total Jharai) / Total area to be irrigated by the water-
course
c 168 – (total Bharai – total Jharai)
d 168 + (total Bharai – total Jharai) [Ans. : a]

Q.537 What is the most important point to be considered while fixing the canal
capacity?
a Keenest Demand b Average Demand
c Water Demand d Demand [Ans. : a]

Q.538 A pump was installed in a field to supply water to the crops. The duty for this
crop is 432 hectares/cumec on the field and the efficiency of pump is 50%. The
sown area of the field is 5 hectares. Determine the maximum output required
(H.P) of the pump, if the highest water level is 4 meters below the highest
portion of the field. Assume negligible field channel losses.
a 0.77H.P b 0.85H.P
c 0.80H.P d 0.31H.P [Ans. : d]

Q.539 Let us take the gross commanded area of a watercourse is 2000 hectares, 80%
of which is culturable irrigable. Intensities of sugarcane and paddy are 30%
and 50%. The duties of the crops at the head of the watercourse are 850
hectares/cumec and 1900 hectares/cumec. Find the discharge required at the
head of the watercourse?
a 0.98 cumec b 0.97 cumec
c 0.9 cumec d 0.986 cumec [Ans. : d]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 78 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.540 By how much percentage canal capacity is increased to meet peak demands?
a 30 to 35% b 20 to 25%
c 15 to 20% d 20 to 30% [Ans. : b]

Q.541 What are the types of sediment load?

a Bedload and Suspended load
b Bedload and Dissolved load
c Bedload, Dissolved load and Suspended load
d Suspended load and Dissolved load [Ans. : c]

Q.542 On increasing velocity beyond the threshold stage of motion, the bed develops
____________ shape.
a dunes with ripples b saw-tooth ripples
c anti-dunes d flat surface [Ans. : b]

Q.543 Which of the following statement is wrong?

a Ripples do not occur if the size of the bed particles is coarser than 0.6 mm
b Dunes are much larger in length and height than ripples
c Crests of both ripples and dunes extend across the entire width of the stream
d Ripples are less rounded than Dunes [Ans. : c]
Cross Drainage work and River Training Structures

Q.544 Which of the following CD works carry drainage over the canal?
a Aqueduct and Syphon Aqueduct
b Super passage and Syphon
c Level-crossing and inlets outlets
d Canal Syphon and Aqueduct [Ans. : b]

Q.545 The canal water flows freely under gravity in which of the following CD
works?
a Aqueduct and Super passage
b Super passage and Syphon
c Canal Syphon and Aqueduct
d Level-crossing and inlets outlets [Ans. : a]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 79 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.546 A Super passage is the reverse of ______________

a syphon b aqueduct
c inlets and outlets d syphon Aqueduct [Ans. : b]

Q.547 Which of the following statement is not correct about canal syphon?
a FSL of the canal is much above than the bed level of the drainage trough
b To minimize the trouble of silting, a ramp is provided at the exit
c The canal water flows under symphonic action
d For siphoning small discharges, barrels are adopted [Ans. : d]

Q.548 Which CD work is generally adopted when the drainage discharge is small
and the drain crosses the canal with its bed level equal to or slightly higher
than the canal FSL?
a Syphon Aqueduct b Level crossing
c Inlets and outlets d Aqueduct [Ans. : c]

Q.549 The drainage water is sometimes allowed to join the canal water to augment
canal supplies through a hydraulic structure is called as ________________
a canal outlet b canal inlet
c module d level crossing [Ans. : b]

Q.550 The crossing arrangement preferably made at the junction of a huge canal and
a river stream carrying a short-lived high flood discharge at almost equal bed
levels is a __________
a super passage b aqueduct
c level crossing d canal syphon [Ans. : c]

Q.551 In a syphon aqueduct provided with a pucca bottom floor, the uplift will
occur on __________
a the roof slab b the bottom floor [Ans. : b]
c both the roof slab as well as the bottom floor
d nowhere since the flow is free in the canal as well as in the drainage channel

Q.552 Which of the following is a disadvantage of CD works carrying the canal over
the discharge?
a The damage caused by floods is not rare
b The canal is not open for inspection and maintenance

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 80 Multiple Choice Questions

c The CD works are less liable to damage than the earthwork of the canal
d During heavy floods, the foundations are susceptible to scour or waterway
of the drain may get choked [Ans. : d]

Q.553 In which of the following arrangement, the perennial drainage discharge is

advantageously used?
a Level crossing b Inlets and Outlets
c Syphon d Aqueduct [Ans. : a]

Q.554 Which of the following is a disadvantage of CD works carrying drainage over

the canal?
a The arrangement is generally constructed when the drain is very big as
compared to the section of the canal
b The damage caused by floods is not rare
c The CD works are more liable to damage than the earthwork of the canal
d The perennial canal is not open to inspection or maintenance [Ans. : d]

Q.555 The relative bed levels of the canal and the drainage may be changed and
manipulated by _________________
a changing the alignment
b changing the positions of the water table
c altering the head level
d use of dewatering equipment [Ans. : a]

Q.556 " The selection of the CD works depends on?

i. Selecting canal alignment
ii. Position of water-table and availability of dewatering equipment
iii. Suitability of soil for embankment
iv. Availability of funds"
a i and ii b i, ii and iv
c i, ii and iii d i, ii, iii and iv [Ans. : d]

Q.557 The type of canal alignment which involves maximum CD works is a

______________
a ridge canal b contour canal
c side slope canal d both ridge and contour canal [Ans. : b]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 81 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.558 What is Lacey’s equation for fixing the approximate value of the required
waterway for the drain?
a P = 4.75 Q b P = 4.57 Q
c P = 4.75 Q^1/2 d P = 4.57 Q^1/2 [Ans. : c]
Q.559 The maximum permissible reduction in the waterway from Lacey’s perimeter
is _______
a 15% b 20%
c 25% d 30% [Ans. : b]
Q.560 The permissible velocity through the barrels is generally limited to
_____________
a 1.5 to 2 m/sec b 2 to 3 m/sec
c 2.5 to 3 m/sec d 1 to 2 m/sec [Ans. : b]
Q.561 Which of the following method is applicable for the design of channel
transition when the water depths of the flumed and unflumed section are the
same or maybe different?
a Mitra’s method of design of transitions
b Chaturvedi’s method of design of transitions
c Hind’s method of design of transitions
d The general method of design of transitions [Ans. : c]
Q.562 In a siphon aqueduct, the worst condition of uplift on the floor occurs when
________
a the canal is full and the drainage empty with the water table at drainage bed
b the canal and drainage are flowing full
c the canal is empty and the drainage full with the water table at drainage bed
d the canal is full and the drainage empty with water table below the floor
[Ans. : c]
Q.563 To reduce the cost of the CD works we resort to _____
a fluming b blocking of drain
c cut-off d lifting of canal water [Ans. : a]
Q.564 Which of the following wings protect the earthen slopes of the canal and also
guide the drainage water?
a Canal wings b Land wings
c River wings d Side wings [Ans. : c]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 82 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.565 The most appropriate and economical CD work at the above site will be:
a An aqueduct b A super-passage
c A siphon aqueduct d A siphon [Ans. : d]

Q.566 Which of the following is not a movement joint?

a Contraction joint b Expansion joint
c Sliding joint d Construction joints [Ans. : d]

Q.567 A partial contraction joint is the one in which?

a both the concrete and reinforcing steel are interrupted
b only the concrete is interrupted
c only the reinforcement is interrupted
d none of them is interrupted [Ans. : b]

Q.568 In reinforced concrete floors, the movement joints should normally be spaced
at a maximum spacing of ____________
a 6m b 4.5 m
c 7.5 m d 9m [Ans. : c]

Q.569 The expansion joints in floors and walls should normally be provided at a
spacing of not more than ___________
a 30 m b 45 m
c 50 m d 55 m [Ans. : a]

Q.570 Which of the following is sometimes used in expansion joints to avoid the risk
of fault in an embedded water bar?
a Joint fillers b Joint sealers
c Joint covers plates d Water stops [Ans. : c]

Q.571 What is the most common metal used for water stops?
a Monel metal b Annealed copper
c Galvanised iron d Steel [Ans. : b]

Q.572 Into how many categories the river training works are classified?
a 2 b 4
c 3 d 5 [Ans. : c]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

Dams and Hydraulic Structures 83 Multiple Choice Questions

Q.573 Which category of river training work deals with flood control?
a Training for Sediment b Low Water Training
c Training for Depth d Training for Discharge [Ans. : d]

Q.574 Which category of river training work helps in navigation of the channels?
a Mean Water Training b Training for Depth
c Training for Discharge d Training for Sediment [Ans. : b]

Q.575 What is the main aim of mean water training?

a Effective Disposal of Suspended and Bed Loads
b To Constant Velocity
c Flood Control
d Provide Sufficient Water Depth [Ans. : a]

Q.576 How types of methods are adopted for the training of rivers?
a 7 b 8
c 5 d 6 [Ans. : a]

Q.577 How types of groynes are there?

a 4 b 2
c 3 d 5 [Ans. : b]

Q.578 Onto how many groups groynes are classified according to the function they
serve?
a 2 b 4
c 3 d 5 [Ans. : b]

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS® - An up thrust for knowledge

 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

SUBJECT : QSCT Class: BE CIVIL

MCQ on Unit no.1

INTRODUCTION & APPROXIMATE ESTIMATE

1. To make out an estimate for a work the following data are necessary-Drawing, Specification
and ___________
a) materials
b) rates
c) labours
d) transportation
Ans: b
2. Skirting is measured in
a) Cu. m.
b) Sq. m.
c) RM
d) Number
Ans: c
3. _________________ is required for preliminary studies of various aspects of a work or
project.
a) Supplementary Estimate
b) Plinth Area Estimate
c) Revised Estimate
d) Abstract Estimate
Ans: b
4. Bay method is applicable to _________________
a) Godwon
b) Road
c) Bridge
d) Canal
Ans: a
5. Service unit of Road is per _________________
a) Km
b) Sq.m
c) Cub.m
d) Liter
Ans: a

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

6. ________ amount is considered in annual maintenance estimate.
a) 1.5 to 2 %
b) 5%
c) 10 %
d) 0.1%
Ans: a
7. Contingencies is taken as _________________
a) 1% to 2%
b) 10% to 15%
c) 3% to 5%
d) 0.1% to 0.5%
Ans: c

8. Approximate cost of a hostel building for 100 students @Rs.10000/- per student works out
as Rs. 10 lakhs.
a) True
b) False
Ans:a
9. Cube rate estimate is less accurate as compared to the plinth area estimate as the height
of the building is also compared.
a) False
b) True
Ans:a

10. ________________is the amount provided in the estimate and bill of quantities for some
specialised work to be done by a specialised firm; whose details are not known at the time
of preparing estimate.k
a) Prime cost
b) Provisional sum
c) Capital cost
d) Building cost index
Ans:b
11. The unit mode of measurement of site clearance is
a) Sq. m.
b) Cu. M.
c) R.M.
d) Lump sum
Ans:d
12. Which one is over head expenditure of the following item?
a) Rent and taxes
b) Establishment charges
c) Office stationery items
d) Workmen’s compensation
Ans:b

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

13. The unit of measurement for hone combed brickwork

a) Cu. m.
b) Sq. m.
c) Running meter
d) Number
Ans: b
14. Volume of sand carried in a truck is approximately
a) 2 Cu. m.
b) 6 Cu. m.
c) 20 Cu. m.
d) 10 Cu. m.
Ans:b
15. 1 Cu. m. of mild steel weighs about
a) 1000 kg
b) 3625 kg
c) 7850 kg
d) 12560 kg
Ans : c

16. Door shutter is measured in

a)Cu. m.
b)Sq. m.
c)RM
d)Number
Ans: b
17. The brick work is measured in Sq. m. in case of
a) Honey comb brick work
b) Brick flat soling
c) Half brick walls or the partition
d) All the above.
Ans : d
18. The rate of an item of work depends on
a) Specifications of works
b) Specifications of materials
c) Proportion of mortar

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 d) All the above
Ans : d
19. A work costing less than Rs. 20000 is termed as
a) Petty work
b) Minor work
c) Major work
d) Casual work
Ans: a
20. Workcharged Establishment is used for ____________
a) Owner
b) Officer
c) Labour
d) Guard
Ans: d
21. The brick work is not measured in Cu. m. in case of
a) One or more than one brick wall
b) Brick work in arches
c) Reinforced brick work
d) Half brick walls
Ans: d
22. Full from of DSR and SSR
a) District schedule rate &Senior Secondary Recruit
b) Demand signal repository & Simple sequence repeat
c) District schedule rate&Simple sequence repeat
d) District schedule rate& State schedule rate
Ans : d
23. Sequence the following while attaching in tender set:
I. Abstract sheet
II. Measurement sheet
III. Face sheet
a) I. II. III.
b) II. I.III.
c) III. I.II.
d) None of the above
Ans: c
24. When supplementary estimation done?
a) For additional work
b) For repair work
c) For sanction of supplementary amount
d) For approximate purpose

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

Ans :a

25. Choose incorrect statement

a) If sanctioned estimate is likely to exceed by more than 5%
b) Repair estimate should be between 1.5 to 2% pf original cost of construction
c) Revised and supplementary estimated are same
d) Cubic content method is more accurate than plinth area method
Ans: c
26. Deduction in brick work for opening with segmental arch:
a) [L x H + 1/3L x R] x thickness of wall
b) [L x H + 2/3L x R] x thickness of wall
c) [L x H + 3/4L x R] x thickness of wall
d) None of the above
Ans : b
27. Which is code gives guideline for deduction rule?
a) IS 1200
b) IS 456
c) IS 2000
d) IS 1343
Ans : a

28. Formwork is measured in

a)Cu. m.
b)Sq. m.
c)RM
d)Number
Ans: b
29. Lumpsum include item of work:
a) Water supply and sanitary arrangement
b) Electrical installation
c) Unforeseen item
d) All the above
Ans :a
30. Factors considered while preparing estimate are:
a) Quantity and transportation of material
b) Location of site
c) Labour cost and availability

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 d) All the above
Ans : d
31. The measurement is made for stone work in Sq. m. in case of
a) Wall facing
b) Columns, lintels, copings
c) Building work
d) a and b both
Ans : d
32. Electrification charges is ______ of estimated cost of building.
a) 4 % to 5%
b) 1 % to 2%
c) 9% to 10%
d) 0.5% to 1%
Ans: c

33. D.P.C. is measured in

e) Cu. m.
f) Sq. m.
g) Meters
h) None of these
Ans : b

34. While estimating the qualities for the construction of building, the correct metric unit is
a) Meter on length
b) Cubic meter for area
c) Square meters for volume
d) Liter for capacity
Ans : a
35. According to ISI method of measurement, the order of the sequence is
a) Length, Breadth, Height
b) Breadth,Length,Height
c) Height, Length,Breadth
d) None of these
Ans : a
36. The most reliable estimate is ___________
a) Detailed estimate
b) Preliminary estimate
c) Plinth area estimate
d) Cube rate estimate
Ans : a

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

37. Pick up item of work not included in the plinth area estimate
a) Wall thickness
b) Room area
c) Courtyard area
d) None of the above
Ans : c

38. Plastering is measured in

a)Cu. m.
b)Sq. m.
c)RM
d)Number
Ans: b

39. For opening above 3 sq.m deduction is made

a) Both face
b) One face
c) Half
d) Nill
Ans : a

40. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

a) Dimensions are measured to the nearest 0.01m
b) Areas are measured to the nearest 0.01 Sq. m.
c) Cubic contents are measured to the nearest 0.1 Cu. m.
d) Weights are measured to the nearest 0.001 tonnes
Ans : c
41. Pick up the incorrect statement from following:
a) No deduction is made for the volume occupied by reinforcement
b) N deduction is made for the openings up to 0.1 Sq. m.
c) N deduction is made volumes occupied by pipes, not exceeding 100 Sq. m. in C/S
d) None of these
Ans : b
42. Which is correct statement from following:
a) Pointing is measured in Sq. m.
b) Plastering is measured in Sq. m.
c) Glazing is measured in Sq. m.
d) All the above

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 Ans : d

43. Due to change in price level, a revised estimated is prepared if the sanctioned estimated
exceeds
a) 2.0%
b) 2.5%
c) 4.0%
d) 5.0%
Ans : d
44. Actual quantity of materials is calculated in _______
a) Face sheet
b) Measurement sheet
c) Abstract sheet
d) None of the above
Ans : b

45. Inspection chamber is measured in

a)Cu. m.
b)Sq. m.
c)RM
d)Number
Ans: d

46. Centage charges given for _____________

a) Transportation
b) Consultation charges
c) Material Handling charges
d) Testing Charges
Ans :

47. Which of following is not include in DSR

a) Rate of Item of work
b) Rate of Material
c) Rate of Labour
d) Rate of Engineer
Ans : d

48. Service unit of Bridge is

a) Per span
b) Per Km
c) Per area
d) Per cub.m
Ans : a

49. Water supply charges is ______ of estimated cost of building.

a) 4 % to 5%

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

b) 1 % to 2%
c) 10 % to 20%
d) 0.5% to 1%
Ans: a

50. Approximate estimate require sanctioning of

a) Technical
b) Administrative
c) Both
d) Departmental
Ans: b

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

SUBJECT : QSCT Class: BE CIVIL

MCQ on Unit no.2

Taking out quantities & detailed estimate

Q.1. Which is incorrect step in preparation of detailed estimate

A. Drawing section
B. Takng out quantities
C. Squaring the dimension
D. Abstracting
Ans: A

Q.2. In-to-In method is also known as ______

A. Centre Line method

B. Depreciation Method
C. Out-to-Out Method
D. Crossing Method
Ans: C

Q.3. Length of long wall I calculated using_____

A. L = C/c length + B/2 + B/2

B. L = C/c length - B/2 - B/2
C. L = C/c length - B
D. Both A & B
Ans: A

Q.4. Pick the correct statement

In Long wall short wall method____

A. Percentage of accuracy is less

B. Percentage of accuracy is more
C. Takes comparatively less time
D. Suitable for rectangular work only

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 Ans: B

Q.5. The factors to be considered while preparing Detailed estimate are____

A. Quantity of material
B. Availability of material
C. Specifications
D. All of above
Ans: D

Q.6. Number of junction for wall meeting from four directions____

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 0
Ans: B

Q.7. In long wall short wall method of estimation the length of long wall is centre to centre distance
between walls and_____

A. Breadth of wall on each side

B. Half the breadth of wall on each side
C. One fourth breadth of wall on each side
D. None of above
Ans: B

Q.8. In centre line method centre line is calculated by formula_____

A. L = C/c length – (1/2 x n – b)

B. L = C/c length + (1/2 x n – b)
C. L = C/c length – (1/2 x n x b)
D. L = C/c length + (1/2 x n x b)
Ans: C

Q.9. Refer fig. 1

No of Junction n = ____

A. 5 C. 3
B. 2 D. 0
Ans: 2
Fig:1

Q.10. Refer fig1. Calculate Total centre line

A.49.26 B. 48.3 C. 50 D. 52.99

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

Ans: A

Q.11. The brickwork is not measured in Cu.m. in case of______

A. one or more than one brick wall

B. Brick work in arches

C. Reinforced brickwork

D. Half brick work wall

Ans: D

Q.12. State the correct statement

While calculating quantities of R.C.C. framed structure

A. The height of the column is to be measured from top to the footing to bottom of RCC
slab
B. Length of beam is to be measured between two columns
C. Only A
D. Both A & B
Ans: D

Q.13. Voltage of trapezoidal portion of footing is calculated by formula_____

A. V = h/3 (A1A2 + √A1+A2)

B. V = h/3 (A1 + A2 + √A1 x A2)
C. V = h/3 ((A1 + A2 ) x √A1 x A2)
D. V = h/3 (A1 + A2) x √A1 x A2)
Ans: B

Q.14. If the quantity of RCC in footing is 3.762 m3 and the steel reinforcement for footing is 0.8% of c.c of
footing steel required for footing is____(density of steel is 7850kg/m 3)

A. 234.2 kg
B. 235.4 kg
C. 236.25 kg
D. 226.3 kg
Ans: B

Q.15 The measurement is not made in Sq.m in case of

A. DPC

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 B. Formworks
C. Plastering
D. R.C. Chajja
Ans. D

Q.16. Pick the incorrect statement

Method to workout earthwork quantity for road and canal____

A. Mid sectional area method

B. Spot level
C. Crossing Method
D. Mean section method
Ans: C

Q.17 Full Form Of BBS is

A. Bending of bars schedule

B. Bar bending Schedule
C. Bentup bar schedule
D. Bar building schedule
Ans: B

Q.18 Pick up correct statement from following

A. BBs gives idea of different sizes of bars, bents, hooks, shape and length of bars
B. It serve as guide to person who is bending the bar
C. Only A
D. Both A & B
Ans: D

Q.19 Quantity of steel For R.C.C. Beam____

A. 2% – 5 % of quantity of concrete in Cu.m

B. 1% – 2 % of quantity of concrete in Cu.m
C. 1% – 2.5 % of quantity of concrete in Cu.m
D. 1% – 3 % of quantity of concrete in Cu.m
Ans: B

Q.20. Quantity of steel For R.C.C. Column____

A. 0.7% –1 % of quantity of concrete in Cu.m

B. 0.5% – 0.8 % of quantity of concrete in Cu.m
C. 2% – 5 % of quantity of concrete in Cu.m
D. 3% – 4 % of quantity of concrete in Cu.m
Ans: C

Q.21. Quantity of steel For R.C.C. Footing___

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

A. 0.7% –1 % of quantity of concrete in Cu.m

B. 0.5% – 0.8 % of quantity of concrete in Cu.m
C. 2% – 5 % of quantity of concrete in Cu.m
D. 1% – 2 % of quantity of concrete in Cu.m
Ans: B

Q.22. Quantity of steel For R.C.C. Slab and lintel____

A. 0.7% –1 % of quantity of concrete in Cu.m

B. 0.5% – 0.8 % of quantity of concrete in Cu.m
C. 2% – 5 % of quantity of concrete in Cu.m
D. 1% – 2 % of quantity of concrete in Cu.m
Ans: A

Q.23. The weight of steel bar is calculated in____

A. Kg/m2
B. kg/m
C. kg/m3
D. kg
Ans: D

Q.24. State the correct formula to calculate weight of steel bars___

A. ф2/162
B. 2ф2/162
C. ф2/√162
D. ф2/162.89
Ans: A

Q.25 If diameter of bar is 6mm then weight of bar is

A. 0.24
B. 0.22
C. 0.21
D. 0.20
Ans. B

Q. 26. If diameter of bar is 8mm then weight of bar is

A. 0.62

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 B. 0.22
C. 0.39
D. 1.50
Ans. C

Q.27 If diameter of bar is 10 mm then weight of bar is

A. 0.89
B. 1.50
C. 0.39
D. 0.89
Ans. D

Q.28 If diameter of bar is 12mm then weight of bar is

A. 0.89
B. 0.62
C. 1.50
D. None of the above
Ans. A

Q. 29. If diameter of bar is 16mm then weight of bar is

A. 0.62
B. 0.22
C. 0.89
D. 1.50
Ans. D

Q.30 If diameter of bar is 20 mm then weight of bar is

A. 3.85
B. 2.46
C. 1.50
D. 8
Ans. B

Q.31 If diameter of bar is 25mm then weight of bar is

A. 8
B. 3.85
C. 6.32
D. None of the above

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

Ans. B

Q. 32. If diameter of bar is 32mm then weight of bar is

A. 9.87
B. 8
C. 6.32
D. 2.46
Ans. C

Q.33 If diameter of bar is 36 mm then weight of bar is

A. 6.32
B. 8
C. 9.87
D. 3.85
Ans. B

Q.34 If diameter of bar is 40mm then weight of bar is

A. 8
B. 3.85
C. 6.32
D. 9.87
Ans. D

Q.35 clear cover for slab and lintel is

A. 20mm
B. 12mm
C. 15mm
D. 10mm
Ans. C

Q.36 clear cover for beam is

A. 50mm
B. 40mm

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 C. 25mm
D. 30mm
Ans. B

Q.37 clear cover for column is

A. 40mm
B. 45mm
C. 50mm
D. 35mm

Ans. A

Q.38 clear cover for footing is

A. 45mm
B. 40mm
C. 35mm
D. 50mm
Ans. D

Q.39 total length of bar for straight bar is

A. L+ 2 X 18 ф
B. L+ 9 ф /2
C. L+ 18 ф
D. L+ 9 ф
Ans. B

Q.40 total length of bar for 450 bent up bar is

A. L+ 18 ф + 0.42d
B. L+ 9 ф /2 + 0.32d
C. L+ 18 ф + 0.45d
D. L+ 9 ф + 0.6d
Ans. A

Q.41 total length of bar for one legged stirrups is

A. (A+2B+28 ф)
B. 2 x (A+2B+24 ф)
C. (2A+2B+24 ф)
D. (A+2B+24 ф)
Ans. A
Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

Q.42 number of bars or stirrups____

A. {Length of component - ( 2 x cover )/ c/c spacing of bars or stirrups}

B. {Length of component - ( 2 x cover )/ c/c spacing of bars or stirrups} - 1
C. { Length of component - ( 2 x cover )/ c/c spacing of bars or stirrups } +1
D. { Length of component - ( 2 x cover )/ c/c spacing of bars or stirrups} -2
Ans. C

Q.43. If the dia. of 2 no. Of 2 side bent up bar is 20mm dia. Are used in simply supported beam of effective
span of 6.2m then total length of bent up bar is ( 45' bent up ) & center to center spacing is 25 mm , d= 600

A. 6.834 m
B. 6.582m
C. 7.014 m
D. 6.762m
Ans . C

Q.44 the brick work is measured in sq.m in case of

A. Plastering work
B. Doc
C. Half brick work
D. All of the above
Ans. D

Q. 45 The most adopted method of estimation is

A. PWD method
B. Center line method
C. Crossing method
D. All of the above
Ans. A

Q.46 The centre line method is specially adopted for estimating_____________

A. Circular building
B. Hexagonal building
C. Octagonal building

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 D. All the above
Ans : D

Q.47 PWD method also know as :

A. Long wall & short wall method

B. Center line method
C. Crossing method
D. All of the above
Ans. A

Q.48 Stirrup diameter is normally taken as

A. 16 mm
B. 10 mm
C. 6 mm
D. 12 mm
Ans. C

Q.49 Which is incorrect method of road earthwork quantity :

A. Mean Area method

B. Long wall & short wall method
C. Trapezoidal method
D. Mid Sectional Area method
Ans. B

Q.50 In which method, the volume of earthwork is calculated by diving area on the field into square,
rectangle

A. Mean Area method

B. Trapezoidal method
C. Spot levels
D. Mid Sectional Area method
Ans. C

Q.51 If the formation level of a highway has a uniform gradient If the formation level of a highway has
a uniform gradient for a particular length, and the ground is also having a longitudinal slope, the earthwork
may be calculated by

a) Mid-section formula b) Trapezoidal formula c) Prismoidal formula d) All the above

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

Ans : D

Q.52 The expected out turn of 12 mm plastering with cement mortar is

a) 2.5 sq m b) 4.0 sq m c) 6.0 sq m d) 8.0 sq m

Ans :D

Q.53 If B is the width of formation, d is the height of the embankment, side slope S : 1, for a highway with
no transverse slope, the area of cross-section is

a) B + d + Sd b) Bd + Sd2 c) B × d - Sd1/2 d) ½ (Bd + Sd2)

Ans : B

Q.54 The expected out turn of cement concrete 1 : 2 : 4 per mason per day is

a) 1.5 m³ b) 2.5 m³ c) 3.5 m³ d) 5.0 m³

Ans: D

Q.55 In the mid-section formula

a) The mean depth is the average of depths of two consecutive sections

b) The area of mid-sections is calculated by using mean depth

c) The volume of the earth work is calculated by multiplying the mid-section area by the distance between
the two original sections

d) All of the above

Ans : D

Q.56 The expected out turn of brick work in cement mortar in foundation and plinth per mason per day, is

a) 1.00 m³ b) 1.25 m³ c) 1.50 m³ d) 1.75 m³

Ans: B

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

SUBJECT : QSCT Class: BE CIVIL

MCQ on Unit no.3

SPECIFICATION AND RATE ANALYSIS

Q.1) Which one is the type of detailed specification

A) Technical Specification

B) Manufacturers Specification

C) Particular Specification

D) Open Specification

Ans- A

Q.2) Unit mode of measurement of excavation for foundation

A) Number

B) Length

C) Sq.m

D) Cubic per meter

Ans-D

Q.3) Unit mode of measurement of P.C.C

A)m3

B) Sq.m

C) L*B*H in cubic meter

D) None of these

Ans- C

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

Q.4) In dam proof course which cement can be used

A) Portland pozzolana cement

B) Ordinary Portland cement

C) Rapid hardening cement

D)sulphate resisting cement

Ans- B

Q.5) Ceramic tile flooring nominal size of tile is

A) 80*80mm

B) 120*120mm

C) 150*150mm

D) 90*90mm

Ans- C

Q.6) Which factor affecting rate analysis

A) Place of work

B) Miscellaneous

C) labour cost

D) All of the above

Ans- D

Q.7)Overhead charges are taken as

A) 2%

B) 5%

C) 1%

D) 3%

Ans- B

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

Q.8) Item of construction which an average labourer of particular category can complete in

A) Four Clock hour

B) Six clock hour

C) Eight clock hour

D) None of these

Ans- C

Q.9) As per Maharashtra gov. P.W.D quantity per day of Ashlar masonary

A) 0.40cu.m

B) 0.20cu.m

C) 1.00cu.m

D) 8.00sq.m

Ans- A

Q.10) 12mm thick plastering with lime or cement quantity per day

A) 3.00 cu.m

B) 8.00 sq.m

C) 10.00 sq.m

D) 35.00 sq.m

Ans- B

Q.11) Horizontal distance between the trench pit and the place is known as

A) Lift

B) Loading

C) Lead

D) None of these

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

Ans- C

Q.12) vertical movement of material is called

A) Unloading

B) Lead

C) Both A & B

D) Lift

Ans- D

Q.13) normally lead is taken as

A) 25m

B) 30m

C) 20m

D) 50m

Ans- D

Q.14) A load of sand of one tonne is equivalent

A) 0.675m3

B) 1m

C) 0.5m

D) 1.3m3

Ans- A

Q.15) How much percentage price increase for second floor

A) 2%

B) 1%

C) 3%

D) 4%

Ans- B

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

Q.16) Normally lift is taken as

A) 1m

B) 1.2m

C) 1.5m

D) 2m

Ans- C

Q.17)Contractor Profit is taken as

A) 20%

B) 10%

C) 1%

D) 5%

Ans- B

Q.18) In plastering work how much percentage of mortar add to fill up joints

A) 20%

B) 30%

C) 40%

D) 50%

Ans- B

Q.19) Density of cement Construction material

A) 1440kg/m

B) 1480kg/m3

C) 1440kg/m3

D) 1445kg/m

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

Ans- C

Q.20) Density of concrete Construction material

A) 2080kg/m3

B) 1600kg/m3

C) 2380kg/m3

D) 2370kg/m3

Ans- D

Q.21) Density of cement mortar Construction material

A) 2080kg/m3

B) 1600kg/m3

C) 2380kg/m3

D) 2370kg/m3

Ans- A

Q.22) Density of Brick Construction material

A) 2080 to 2200 kg/m3

B) 1600 to 1920 kg/m3

C) 2380 to 2580 kg/m3

D) 2370 to 2470 kg/m3

Ans- B

Q.23) Density of Dry sand Construction material

A) 1600kg/m

B) 1680kg/m3

C) 1540kg/m3

D) 1645kg/m

Ans- A

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

Q.24) Density of River sand Construction material

A) 1800kg/m

B) 1680kg/m3

C) 1840kg/m3

D) 1745kg/m3

Ans- C

Q.25) Density of Aggregate Construction material

A) 2080 to 2200 kg/m3

B) 1600 to 1880 kg/m3

C) 2380 to 2580 kg/m3

D) 2070 to 2270 kg/m3

Ans- B

Q.26) Volume of one cement bag is

A) 0.0347m3

B) 0.0328m3

C) 0.0447m3

D) none of these

Ans- A

Q.27) The number of cement bags required in 1m3

A) 28.5

B) 28

C) 28.8

D) 27.5

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

Ans- C

Q.28) Pick up the correct statement from the following

A) To find out the present rate per unit of item at locality

B) To fix up labour contract rates

C) To examine most economical method for construction

D) All of the above

Ans- D

Q.29) Pick up the incorrect factor of rate analysis from the following

A) Labours cost

B) Cost of tools & plants

C) Task work

D) Contractor’s profit

Ans- C

Q.30) Which data required for rate analysis

A) Market rate of materials

B) job overhead

C) Travelling expenses

D) All of the above

Ans- A

Q.31) The cost of construction material is taken as

A) 5% to 8%

B) 40% to 50%

C) 20 to 25%

D) 30 to 35%

Ans- B

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

Q.32) which factors affecting Task works

A) Job satisfaction & working condition may increase the out turn

B) To examine most economical method for construction

C) The maximum load which vehicle can safely carry

D) All of the above

Ans- A

Q.33) Per unit rate of Male Mazdoor

A) Rs.539

B) Rs.620

C) Rs.493

D) Rs.512

Ans- C

Q.34) per unit rate of Bhisti

A) Rs.539

B) Rs.620

C) Rs.493

D) Rs.512

Ans- D

Q.35) Cost of labour is taken as

A) 20%

B) 30%

C) 10%

D) 5%

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

Ans- B

Q.36)Select incorrect method of specification used in describing material :

A) Open Specification

B) Restricted Specification

C) Detailed Specification

D) Closed Specification

Ans- C

Q.37)How to store material, use and install them, this type specification is used

A) Open Specification

B) Restricted Specification

C) Particular specification

D) Manufacturer’s specification

Ans – D

Q.38)Choose Incorrect Principle of good specification

A) Correctly worded

B) Fair to both party

C) Dual meaning

D) Use Shall

Ans: C

Q.39)Choose Incorrect step , while drafting specification of Brickwork item

A) Mode of Measurement

B) Curing

C) Mixing cement mortar

D) Site Clearance

Ans: D

Q.40)Choose Incorrect step , while drafting specification of GI Sheet Roofing

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

A) Fixing Sheet

B) Curing

C) laps of sheet

D) Mode of Measurement

Ans: B

Q.41)Choose Incorrect factor of rate analysis

(a) Quantity of materials and cost (b) Labour cost

(c) Depreciation (d) Cost of equipments, tools and plants

Ans: C

Q.42)Which of following not include in Job Overhead

A) Amenities to labour

B) Telephone bill, rent and taxes

C) Salaries of all persons like engineer, supervisor

D) Compensation of worker

Ans: B

Q.43)Which of following not include in General Overhead

A) Amenities to labour

B) Telephone bill, rent and taxes

C) Stationary, printing, postage charges

D) Travelling expenses

Ans: A

Q.44)Sundris include

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 A) Binding wire used to tie bars, cover block

B) Cement bag

C) Machinery

D) labour Payment

Ans: A

Q.45)Incorrect example of Indirect cost is

A) Rent

B) Insurance

C) Machinery cost

D) Supervisor salaries

Ans: C

Q.46)Select correct relation of concrete

A) Dry volume of concrete = 52% more of wet volume of concrete

B) Dry volume of concrete = 25% more of wet volume of concrete

C) Dry volume of concrete = 30% more of wet volume of concrete

D) Dry volume of concrete = 35 more of wet volume of concrete

Ans: A

Q.47)Select correct relation of concrete

A) Dry volume of mortar= 52% more of wet volume of mortar

B) Dry volume of mortar= 25% more of wet volume of mortar

C) Dry volume of mortar= 30% more of wet volume of mortar

D) Dry volume of mortar= 35% more of wet volume of mortar

Ans: B

Q.48)How much % is add for wastages in brick quantity calculation

A) 20%

B) 30%

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

C) 10%

D) 5%

Ans: C

Q.49)How much bring required in 1 cubic meter

A) 500

B) 600
C) 100

D) 1000

Ans: A

Q.50)Correct Ration M-20 is

A) 1:5:10

B) 1:3:6
C) 1:1.5:3

D) 1:2:4

Ans: C

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

SUBJECT : QSCT Class: BE CIVIL

MCQ on Unit no.5

Tender & method of executing works

1. Tender will be awarded to
a) Lowest amount quoted contractor
b) Highest amount quoted contractor
c) Average amount quoted contractor
d) First submitted contractor
Ans: b
2. Tender is defined as offer in writing for execution of certain specified work or for supply of
specific materials subject to certain terms and conditions such as___________________

a) as 50% profit
b) as profit & loss
c) as rates, time limit
d) as risk
Ans: c
3. Select incorrect method of inviting tender
a) limited tender
b) Negotiated or single tender
c) open tender
d) by post tender
Ans: d

4. It is compulsion for work costing more than Rs._________, a tender notice should be
published in local leading news paper have large coverage.
a) Rs.25000
b) Rs.2500000
c) Rs.2500
d) Rs.250000
Ans: a

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

5. Because of no fair competition, which method proves to be costly
a) limited tender
b) Negotiated or single tender
c) open tender
d) by post tender
Ans: b

6. Tender notice not include :

a)Time limit for completion
b) Eligible class of contractor
c) Specification of work (Schedule B or BOQ)
d) Current market rate
Ans: d

7. Security deposit to be paid applicable only for

a) successful contractor whose tender is submitted

b) successful contractor whose tender is opened
c) successful contractor whose tender is awarded
d) successful contractor whose tender is rejected
Ans : c
8. Which type of tender form used by government
a) B-1 form
b) B-2 form
c) B-3 form
d) B-4 form
Ans: a

9. Select in correct pre-qualification criteria of contractor :

a) Contractor should be having experience of similar type of work done

b) Contractor should be having own machinery
c) Contractor should be having dipoma or degree with distinction only
d) Contractor should be having PWD registered contractor license
Ans: c
10. Match the correct pair :
Sr. Form no. Sr.no. Use of Form
no.
A FORM-I 1 Technical person available with contractor
B FORM-II 2 Similar type of work done
C FORM-III 3 Work in hand
D FORM-V 4 Plant and machinery available with contractor

a) A-2,B-4,C-3,D-1 b) A-2,B-1,C-3,D-4 c) A-3,B-4,C-2,D-1 d) A-3,B-1,C-2,D-4

Ans: d
Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade
 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

11. Select incorrect schedule of form of tender :

a) Schedule ‘B’ : Detailed item wise specifications and drawings
b) Schedule ‘A’ : Showing details of materials to be supplied by department
c) Schedule ‘C’ : Detailed item wise specifications and drawings
d) Schedule ‘B’ : Bill of quantities
Ans: a

12. The main purpose of this conference is to clarify the doubts about
a) payment of work
b) the proposed project work and answer the question of any matter that may raised
c) quality of material
d) Tender opening date
Ans: b

13. Select correct formula of Bid capacity

a) [2  A  N] – N
b) [2  A  B] – N
c) [2  A  B] – B
d) [2  A  N] – B
Ans: d

14. This comparative statement is arranging with order of

a) lowest quoted tender last and highest tender amount at first

b) first submitted tender first and last tender amount at last
c) lowest quoted tender first and highest tender amount at last
d) first submitted tender last and last tender amount at first
Ans: c

15. Select Incorrect Criteria for a formal Evaluation process

a) Financial Evaluation
b) Nature Evaluation
c) Technical Evaluation
d) Capability Evaluation
Ans: b

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

16. During formal Evaluation process of contractor Select Incorrect Criteria for a formal
Evaluation process

a) 0 to 10
b) 0 to 5
c) 0 to 100
d) 0 to 99
Ans: a

17. What is year of per Indian contract Act for acceptance of tender

a) 1858
b) 1872
c) 1860
d) 1857
Ans: b

18. Select Incorrect statement :

All tenders are rejected under following circumstances :

a) Minimum number of (at least three) tenders are not received.
b) change of Government officer over work
c) When any fraud is detected.
d) The lowest tenderer has quoted very high rates than estimated rate.
Ans : b

19. Select Incorrect statement :

Lowest tender rejected due to following reason :
a) When tender is not submitted in particular form sold by department.
b) Earnest money is not enclosed along with tender.
c) If contractor submitted tender on last date
d) The lowest tender may lack in experience for work.
Ans :c

20. Meaning of Corrigendum to Tender Notice

a) Last date of accepting complete tenders can be extended

b) Tender is closed due to unavailability of fund
c) Tender amount changed
d) Class of contractor change
Ans: b

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

21. Select Incorrect statement :

Contractor submit unbalanced tender for following reasons
a) To get profit from for large quantity item
b) Contractor having plant, machinery, for items of work for which he has quoted lower
rates
c) Due to lack of experience
d) Get an excess payment in initial stages of the work, which can reutilised as working
capital
Ans :c

22. Write full form of B.O.O.T

a) Build, Own, Operate and Transfer
b) Build, Order, Operate and Transport
c) Build, Own, Order and Transfer
d) Build, Order, Operate and Transport
Ans: a

23. Write full form of B.L.T

a) Build, Lease and Transport
b) Build, Leave and Transfer
c) Build, Lease and Travel
d) Build, Lease and Transfer
Ans: d

24. Select Incorrect objective of BOT:

a) To encourage private investment
b) To release burden on public budget
c) To make competition tough
d) To construct facilities like good roads, bridges, tunnel in partnership with private sector
Ans: c

25. Global tender invite for construction following work

a) Road in village b) Airport c) Green building d) Pipe line work
Ans : b

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

26. E-tendering means :
a) Online tender filling b) Online tender inviting c) Online tender opening d) all of above
Ans : d

27. Data required of E-tendering:

a) Digital key b)Pen Drive c) Mobile d) passport
Ans: a

28. Limit of Unemployed license of PWD :

a) 5 Cr b)1.5 Cr c) 1Cr d) 10 Cr.
Ans: b
29. Select incorrect officer of PWD department
a) SE b)AEE c) JE d) BE
Ans: d

30. Select incorrect function of SE:

a) Inspect division in his circle and report to C.E.
b) He has full authority to sanction / accept unlimited amount tender
c) Technical sanction under his control.
d) Financial control over execution of original repair work.
Ans : b

31. Select incorrect function of Deputy Engineer :

a) Check muster roll.
b) Purchase of live stock Rs. 30,000/- at only one time
c) Submit monthly report of progress of work to divisional officer.
d) Administrative control over office and field staff division.
Ans: b

32. Match the correct pair :

Sr. Type of Original work Sr.no. Limit of work in Ruppes
no.
A Major work 1 Upto Rs.5000
B Minor Work 2 More than 1 lakh
C Petty Work 3 Less than 1 lakh
a) A-2,B-3,C-1 b) A-2,B-1,C-3 c) A-3,B-1,C-2 d) A-1,B-2,C-3
Ans: d

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 KJ's Educational Institute
TRINITY ACADEMY OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Govt. of Maharashtra & affiliated to SPPU, DTE Code: EN6634)
(Accredited by NAAC with ‘A’ Grade)

33. Select correct method of execution of minor work in PWD :

a) Piece Work Agreement
b) Rate list
c) Centre line method
d) Day work
Ans: c

34. Form no.21 is used for

a) Indent
b) Invoice
c) Nominal muster roll
d) Measurement book
Ans: c

35. Form no.23 is used for

a) Indent
b) Invoice
c) Nominal muster roll
d) Measurement book
Ans: d

36. Form no.7 is used for

a) Indent
b) Invoice
c) Nominal muster roll
d) Measurement book
Ans: a

37. Form no.22 is used for

a) Indent
b) Imprest cash account
c) Nominal muster roll
d) Measurement book
Ans: b
38. Invoice is used for
a) acknowledgement of the receipt of goods
b) acknowledgement of the receipt of tender
c) acknowledgement of the receipt of bill
d) acknowledgement of the receipt of licence
Ans: a

Prepared by: Prof. K.H.Ghorpade

 GSMCOE PUNE

DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING

SUBJECT: SDII

UNIT 4&5: DESIGN OF FLEXURAL MEMBERS

QUESTIONS

1. For a propped cantilever beam AB , end A is fixed and B is simply supported It is subjected to a
uniformly distributed load over the whole span .In this case the first hinge will occur at

(a) end B (b) end A (c) mid-span (d) can’t say

2. Maximum % of tension or compression reinforcement in beam shall be

(a) 3% (b) 0.8% (c) 8% (d) 4%

3. In the case of RC beam the maximum redistribution of moment allowed is:

(a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 30% (d) 100%

4. The horizontal distance between two parallel main reinforcing bars in beam shall be not less
than:

(a) Diameter of the larger bar (b) 5 mm more than the maximum size of aggregate (c) twice the
bar diameter (d) maximum size of aggregate

5. In the case of RC beam using M20 grade of concrete and Fe 500 grade of steel when10%
redistribution of moment is allowed the neutral axis depth to be taken in design shall be :

(a) 0.46d (b) 0.3d (c) 0.2d (d) 0.4d

6. In the case of RC beam using M30 grade of concrete and Fe 250 grade of steel when 30%
redistribution of moment is allowed then the depth of neutral axis to be taken in design shall be :

(a) 0.46d (b) 0.3d (c) 0.53d (d) 02d

7. A beam AB loaded by udl and subjected to moment MA at end A and moment MB at end B . If
MB > MA the maximum span moment will occur :

(a) at mid-span (b) near mid-span towards end B (c) near mid-span towards end A

(d) can’t say

8. The redistribution of moment depends on :

(a) grade of concrete (b) grade of steel (c) % of steel (d) none from these

9. Different loading arrangements are required to be considered in design of beam When :

(a) LL > 0.75 DL (b) LL < 0.75 DL (c) LL > 0.6 DL (d) LL < DL
10. The maximum percentage of steel provided in slab using mild steel
reinforcement shall be:

(a) 0.15% (b) 0.2% (c) 0.25% (d) depends on the environmental conditions

11. A beam of me 200 mm x 500 mm deep is provided with 6 bars 20 mm diameter . These bars shall
be provided in :

(a) one row (b) two rows (c) three rows (d) one and half row

12. If beam of size 250 mm x 600 mm deep is provided with 4 Nos. 20 mm

diameter bars and 8 mm vertical stirrups at 100 mm c/c in mild exposure condition then the
effective depth of the beam shall be :

(a) 565 mm (b) 557 m (c) 600 mm (d) 570 mm

13. A RCC cantilever beam provided with a slab 100 mm thick at its bottom and bonded properly
shall be designed as :

(a) rectangular beam

(b) either flanged beam or rectangular beam

(c) flanged beam

(d) doubly reinforced beam

14. A double overhang RCC beam is primarily designed for resultant forces at the following sections
(a) support (b) mid-span (c) mid-span and support (d) any three sections

15. If the depth of the web of flanged RCC beam is more than 700 m then the additional
reinforcement shall be placed at:

(a) top fibre (b) bottom flbre (c) side fibre (d) top and bottom fibre

16. The effective width of L-beam of width bw, flange Df shall be restricted to

(a)Lo/12 + 3Df + bw (b) Lo/6 + 6Df+ bw (c) Lo/12 + bw + 3Df (d) L0 /3

17. The ultimate moment of resistance of RCC beam of width b total depth D is proportional to :

(a) d2b (b) b2d (c) h2b (d) d

18. For curtailment the reinforcement shall extend beyond the theoretical point of cut off for a
distance equal to:

(a) effective depth

(b) 12 11 bar diameter

(c) twice the effective depth

(d) greater of ( effective depth or 12 x bar diam)

19. The transverse torsional reinforcement in RCC beam can be provide as:

(a) like stirrups (b) closed hoops (e) open or closed hoops (d) helical hoops

20. The maximum spacing of shear reinforcement for vertical stirrups shall ‘not exceed :

(a) 0.75 d

(b) 300 mm

(c) lesser of (0.75 d or 300 mm)

(d) lesser of (0.75 d or 400 mm)

21. The end span of a continuous R. C. C. floor beam AB of size 230 mm x 380 mm is simply
supported at A and continuous over the end B. It is subjected to ultimate UDL of 43.44 kN/m
(inclusive of self weight) and an ultimate moment of 135.75 kN.m. acting in the clockwise
direction at its continuous end B. The effective span of the beam is 5 m. The thickness of the slab
is 140 mm and breadth of support is equal to 230 mm. Design the beam.

(a) Without redistribution of moments (b) With 30 % redistribution of moments Use concrete
grade M15 and steel grade Fe415

22. A R. C. C. floor beam ABCD of size 250 mm x 350 mm is continuous over the supports B and C
and simply supported at D and overhangs by 2m over the support B. The cantilever span AB = 2
m, BC = 6 m and CD = 4 m. The beam carries a superimposed uniformly distributed load of 24
kN/m over its entire length ABCD. In addition to this a transverse beam transmits a point load of
10 W at its free end A. The beam supports a one-way slab 130 mm thick. Use concrete grade
M20 and steel grade Fe500.

23. A RC beam 250 mm wide and 450 mm deep is to be reinforced with 1.1% steel of grade Fe250
with effective cover of 40 mm .If the grade of concrete is M20 what maximum percentage of
redistribution can be allowed and what is the ultimate moment of resistance of the section ?

(Ans : 27%, Mu =86 kN.m)

24. A singly reinforced R.C. beam 300 mm wide and 530 mm deep is reinforced with 942 mm2 area
of tension steel provided at an effective cover of 33 mm . Assume concrete M20 and steel Fe415
. Calculate the maximum uniformly distributed load the beam can carry over a span of 6 m. for
the following cases :

(a) No redistribution of moment is proposed. (Ans. 17.74 kN.m)

(b) 30% redistribution of moment is proposed (Ans. 22.36 kN.m)

25. Design the smallest section of RC. beam 230 mm Wide to resist design moment of 63 kN.m
allowing 30% redistribution of moments .Assume characteristic strength of steel equal to 460
kN/m2 and grade of concrete M25 and effective cover = 46 mm
(Ans: D= 400 mm, Ast = 549 mm2 ).
26. A rectangular beam 230mm wide x 550mm depth is subjected to a sagging moment of 40kNm.
Shear force of 30kN. Design the reinforcements. Materials are M20 grade of concrete and mild
steel reinforcements. Take load factor 1.5, assume effective cover 45mm.

27. A R.C beam 300mm wide x 500 mm deep is reinforced on tension side with 3 Nos. of 20mm dia
bars of grade Fe415 with an effective cover of 50mm. The beam is subjected to a shear of 100kN.
Using vertical stirrups. Concrete used is of grade M20.

28. Calculate ultimate moment of resistance of a L-beam for the following details:

Width of flange=120mm, depth of slab=110mm, effective depth=600mm, width of web=300mm

Grade of concrete M20 and steel grade Fe500. Area of tension steel provided 4-#25mm.

29. A reinforced concrete rectangular beam 300mmx600mm deep is subjected to a uniformly

distributed load of 45kN/m over simply supported span of 6m. M20 grade of concrete and Fe415
steel used. Calculate amount of steel required. Assume effective cover equal to 50mm.

30. A R.C. beam 300mm wide and 450mm deep is reinforced with 6-#20mm dia. Bars on tension
side and 5-#20mm on compression side. Effective span of the beam is 6m, find what concreted
load it can support at mid span. M20 concrete Fe250 steel. Effective cover 50mm.
 GSMCOE PUNE

DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEERING

SUBJECT: SDII

UNIT 6: DESIGN OF COLUMN and FOOTING

QUESTIONS

1. The compression member is considered to be short when the slenderness ratio is less than :

(a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 10

2. For design of axially loaded short column when minimum eccentricity of 20 mm is

considered the size of column shall be :

(a) 300 mm (b) 350 mm (c) 400 mm (d) 450 mm

3. The minimum eccentricity that should be used for design of column shall be :

(a) b/30 (b) D/30 (e) L/500 (d) h/30 + L/500

where , b = width of column , D = depth of column , h = either b or D , L = unsupported length

4. The recommended effective length L of a cantilever column shall be:

(a) 2 L (b) 1.5 L (c) l L (d) 0.8 L

5. A column will be considered as pedestal when its effective length is less than :

(a) 3 h (b) 2 h (c) 1h (d) greater than 0.8h

Where h= lateral dimension of column

6. The minimum percentage of reinforcement in RC short column shall be

(a) 4% (b) 6% . (c) 0.6% (d) 0.8 %

7. The maximum percentage of reinforcement in RC short column shall be

(a) 4% (b) 6% (c) 0.6% (d) 0.8 %

8. Minimum diameter of the longitudinal reinforcement shall be :

(a) 12 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

9. The diameter of polygonal link or lateral ties shall be not less than:

(a) 1/4 diameter of the largest longitudinal bar (b) 5 mm . (c) 6 mm (d) 1/4 diameter of the largest
longitudinal bar or 5 mm whichever is less.

10. The pitch of the lateral ties shall be not less than .
(a) least lateral column dimension

(b) 12 x minimum longitudinal bar diameter

(c) minimum of (least D or b ,12 x min. longitudinal bar diameter, 300mm)

(d) 300 mm

11. A rectangular column of section 300 mm x 450 mm is reinforced with 6 bars of 28 mm

diameter of grade Fe415. If concrete grade M25 is used determine the ultimate load carrying
capacity of the column. Assume that the minimum
eccentricity is less than 0.05 times the lateral dimension.

12. Determine the ultimate load carrying capacity of a circular column 400 mm diameter
reinforced with 6 bars of 25 mm diameter adequately tied with lateral ties. Use M22 and
Fe415.

13. A RC column 300 mm x 660 mm is reinforced by 5 Nos of 25 mm diameter bars of grade

Fe415 on either short side with a cover of 60 mm to the centre of steel . Concrete grade M20
is used. Calculate the ultimate load and ultimate moment corresponding to condition of
maximum compressive strain of 0.0035 in concrete and tensile strain of 0.002 in the
outermost layer of tension steel. (Ans . Pu=576.7kN and Mu = 597.4 kN.m )

14. A 400 mm square column , reinforced with 8 bars of 20 mm dia. is supporting an axial load of
1300 kN. Design a R.C. footing for the column to limit the pressure on soil to 250 kN/m2 .
The failure stresses in concrete and steel exceed 20 kN/m2 and 415 kN./m2 respectively.

15. A RCC column 300 mm x 600 mm if reinforced with 3#20 mm diameter bars on each short
side with a cover of 50 mm to the centre of steel . Concrete used is M20 and steel Fe415.
Calculate the ultimate axial load and corresponding moment when the neutral axis is at 0.48D
from the column face and is parallel to the short side.

(Ans. Pu=1513kN and Mu= 90 kN.m)

 UNI
T-2EARTHENDAM ANDARCDAM

1.Thepr
ovi
sionofdr
ainagegal
l
eryi
nagr
avi
tydam hel
psi
nreduci
ng_
___
___
___
___
___
___
_

a)Hy
drost
ati
cpr
essur
e

b)Seepagepr
essur
e

c)Si
l
tpr
essur
e

d)Bot
hhy
drost
ati
cpr
essur
eandseepagepr
essur
e

Answer
:b

2.Whichofthefol
l
owingat
tempt
saremadetor
educet
heupl
i
fti
nor
dert
oeconomi
zeont
he
prov
idedsecti
onofaconcr
etegr
avi
tydam?

i
.Pr
ovi
dingdr
ainagegal
l
eryt
ocol
l
ectseepagewat
er

i
i
.Const
ruct
ingcut
-of
funderupst
ream f
ace

i
i
i.Pr
essur
egr
out
ingi
ndam f
oundat
ion

i
v.Pr
ovi
sionofshearkey
sorkey
way
s

a)i
andi
i

b)i
,i
iandi
i
i

c)i
,i
iandi
v

d)i
,i
i,
ii
iandi
v

Answer
:b

3.Tr
ansv
ersej
oint
sinconcr
etegr
avi
tydamsar
ethe_
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
___
__

a)Hor
izont
alconst
ruct
ionj
oint
sateachl
i
fthei
ght

b)Ver
ti
cal
const
ruct
ionj
oint
soff
ull
hei
ghtandwi
dth

c)Di
agonal
const
ruct
ionj
oint
sfort
orsi
on

d)Longi
tudi
nal
const
ruct
ionj
oint
soff
ull
widt
h

Answer
:b

4.Leakaget
hrought
het
ransv
ersej
oint
sinagr
avi
tydam i
spr
event
edby_
___
___
___
__
a)Shearkey
s

b)Key
way
s

c)Wat
erst
ops

d)Gal
l
eri
es

Answer
:c

5.I
nor
dert
oreduceupl
i
ftonagr
avi
tydam,
thet
ypeofgr
out
ingdonei
s__
___
___
___
___
___
___

a)Cur
tai
ngr
out
ingneart
heheel

b)Consol
i
dat
iongr
out
ingneart
heheel

c)Cur
tai
ngr
out
ingneart
het
oe

d)Consol
i
dat
iongr
out
ingneart
het
oe

Answer
:a

6.Thegener
alv
alueofl
i
ftf
orconcr
etei
stakenas_
___
___
___
___
___
__

a)1.
5m

b)2.
5m

c)3m

d)4m

Answer
:a

7.Thehori
zont
alj
ointsthatextendsthr
oughtheent
irewidthoft
hedam sect
ionandar
e
devel
opedateachl
iftheighti
scalledas___
____
____
_____
_ _
_

a)Tr
ansv
ersej
oint
s

b)Longi
tudi
nal
joi
nts

c)Const
ruct
ionj
oint
s

d)Cont
ract
ionj
oint
s

Answer
:b

8.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngj
oint
sjust
if
iest
het
wo-
dimensi
onal
anal
ysi
sofgr
avi
tydams?

a)Longi
tudi
nal
joi
nts
b)Tr
ansv
ersej
oint
s

c)Const
ruct
ionj
oint
s

d)Cont
ract
ionj
oint
s

Answer
:b

9.Thef
oundat
ionpr
essur
eusedi
nthepr
essur
egr
out
ingi
sequal
to_
___
___
___
___
___
_

a)2.
0DN/
cm2

b)2.
5DN/
cm2

c)5.
0DN/
cm2

d)3.
0DN/
cm2

Wher
eDi
sthedept
hofgr
out
ingi
nmet
ersbel
owt
hesur
face

Answer
:b

10.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngear
thdam i
ssui
tabl
eonl
yoni
mper
viousf
oundat
ion?

a)Zonedembankmentt
ype

b)Homogenousembankmentt
ype

c)Non-
homogenoust
ype

d)Di
aphr
agm t
ype

Answer
:b

11.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngzonei
nZonedt
ypeembankmentpr
event
spi
pingt
hroughcr
acks?

a)Cent
ral
cor
e

b)Tr
ansi
ti
onzone

c)Out
erzone

d)Cor
ewal
l

Answer
:b

12.Whi
chofthefol
l
owi
ngsoi
lmat
eri
ali
smostpr
efer
redf
ort
hecent
ral
cor
emat
eri
alofzoned
embankmentty
pedam?

a)Hi
ghl
yimper
viouscl
ay
b)Sandsorsi
l
tycl
ays

c)Coar
sesands

d)Gr
avel
s

Answer
:b

13.Whichembankmenthast
hethi
cknessofthedi
aphragm atanelev
ati
onl
esst
han10met
ers
orthehei
ghtoft
heembankmentabovethecorr
espondi
ngelevat
ion?

a)Di
aphr
agm t
ypedam

b)Zonedt
ypedam

c)Non-
homogenousear
thdam

d)Homogenousear
thdam

Answer
:a

14.Whati
stheU.
S.B.
Rrecommendedv
aluef
orf
reeboar
dwhent
hehei
ghtoft
hedam i
smor
e
than60m?

a)2m t
o3m

b)2.
5m abov
ethet
opofgat
es

c)3m abov
ethet
opofgat
es

d)Mor
ethan3m

Answer
:c

15.Whati
sther
ecommendedf
ormul
afort
opwi
dthofav
eryl
owdam?

a)H+3

b)0.
2H+3

c)0.
2H

d)H+5

wher
eHi
sthehei
ghtoft
hedam

Answer
:b

16.WhatistheTer
zaghi’
srecommendedv
alueofU/
ssi
desl
opef
orear
thdam ofhei
ghtl
ess
than15m ofhomogenoussil
tycl
ay?
a)2:
1

b)2.
5:1

c)3:
1

d)3.
5:1

Answer
:b

17.
Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngf
orcesi
sthel
easti
mpor
tanti
nthedesi
gnofar
chdams?

a)Reser
voi
rwat
erf
orce

b)Upl
i
ftpr
essur
e

c)Temper
atur
est
resses

d)I
cel
oad

e)Yi
eldst
resses

Answer
:b

18.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngt
heor
yist
hemostaccur
atemet
hodt
odesi
gnar
ch?

a)Thet
hincy
li
ndert
heor
y

b)Thet
heor
yofel
ast
icar
ches

c)Thet
ri
all
oadmet
hod

d)Cr
eept
heor
y

Answer
:c

19.Whi
chamongthef
oll
owi
ngi
snotanassumpt
ionoft
he‘
Tri
alLoadAnal
ysi
s’met
hodof
desi
gnofar
chdams?

a)Pl
anesect
ionsnor
mal
tot
heaxi
sremai
npl
aneaf
terf
lexur
e

b)Anyhor
izont
alar
chr
ingi
sindependentoft
hear
chr
ingsbel
owandabov
e

c)Modul
usofel
ast
ici
tyofconcr
eteandr
ockf
oundat
ioni
sequal
forcompr
essi
onandt
ensi
on

d)St
ressesar
epr
opor
ti
onal
tost
rai
ns

Answer
:b

20.Thet
hincy
li
ndert
heor
yfordesi
gni
ngar
chdamsi
sbasedonl
yon_
___
___
___
___
___
___
a)Temper
atur
est
resses

b)I
cepr
essur
es

c)Yi
eldst
resses

d)Hy
drost
ati
cwat
erpr
essur
e

Answer
:d

21.
Anar
chdam l
ooksl
i
keasi
ngl
ear
chi
n__
___
___
___
___
___

a)Pl
an

b)Fr
ontel
evat
ion

c)Si
deel
evat
ion

d)Bot
hPl
anandFr
ontel
evat
ion

Answer
:a

22.Anon-
ver
ti
cal
archdam i
sknownasa_
___
___
___
___
___
_

a)But
tressdam

b)Doubl
ecur
vat
urear
chdam

c)Shel
lar
chdam

d)Bot
hDoubl
ecur
vat
ureandshel
lar
chdams

Answer
:d

23.Greateri
sthewal
lcur
vat
urei
nanar
chdam,
great
erwi
l
lbet
heeconomyi
nthedam
thi
ckness.

a)Tr
ue

b)Fal
se

Answer
:a

24.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sthemosteconomi
cal
typeofar
chdam?

a)Const
antr
adi
ust
ype

b)Var
iabl
eradi
ust
ype

c)Const
antangl
ety
pe
d)Var
iabl
eangl
ety
pe

Answer
:c

25.Aconst
antangl
earchdam whencompar
edt
oconst
antr
adi
usar
chdam ut
il
izesconcr
ete
qual
it
yofabout__
____
____
___
_

a)43%

b)130%

c)230%

d)113%

Answer
:a

26.Whichamongt
hef
oll
owi
ngt
ypeofdam sect
ioni
sexpect
edt
obet
het
hinnestandt
hemost
economical
?

a)Const
antangl
ear
chdam

b)Shel
l
-ar
chdam

c)Const
antr
adi
usar
chdam

d)Concr
etegr
avi
tydam

Answer
:b

27.Themosteconomi
cal
centr
alangl
eofthear
chri
ngsofanar
chdam canbeadopt
edonl
yat
oneplacepr
efer
abl
yatmi
d-hei
ghti
nanarchdam i
softhet
ype___
___
____
___
___
__

a)Const
antangl
ear
chdam

b)Const
antr
adi
usar
chdam

c)Bot
hconst
antangl
eandconst
antr
adi
usar
chdam

d)Var
iabl
eradi
usar
chdam

Answer
:b

28.Inanar
chdam,t
heext
radoscur
ver
efert
othear
chr
ingscor
respondi
ngt
othe
___
_____
___
___
___
___

a)Theupst
ream f
aceoft
hedam

b)Downst
ream f
aceoft
hedam
c)Si
def
aceoft
hedam

d)Ei
therupst
ream ordownst
ream f
aceoft
hedam

Answer
:a

29.AV-
shapedval
l
eywit
hstr
ongerf
oundat
ionscansuggestt
hechoi
ceofanar
chdam i
soft
he
ty
pe___
____
____
___
___
___
___
____

a)Const
antr
adi
usar
chdam

b)Var
iabl
eradi
usar
chdam

c)Const
antangl
ear
chdam

d)Var
iabl
eangl
ear
chdam

Answer
:c

30.Aconst
antr
adi
usar
chdam i
sal
sosomet
imescal
l
edas_
___
___
___
___
__

a)Const
antcent
rear
chdam

b)Const
antangl
ear
chdam

c)Var
iabl
eangl
ear
chdam

d)Var
iabl
ecent
rear
chdam

Answer
:a

31.Thety
peofarchdam whi
chgener
all
yrequi
resov
erhangsatabut
ment
sisof
___
____
_____
___
____
___
__

a)Const
antr
adi
ust
ype

b)Var
iabl
eradi
ust
ype

c)Const
antangl
ety
pe

d)Var
iabl
eangl
ety
pe

Answer
:c