DATE : 13/09/2020 Test Booklet Code

G5
AKANH

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456

Time : 3 hrs.
Questions Paper Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2020
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

2. Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.

3. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.

4. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving
the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

5. The CODE for this Booklet is G5.

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9. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

10. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct
in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this
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11. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.

12. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in
the Attendance Sheet.

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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

1. If the distance between two consecutive base 6. Match the following columns and select the
pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base correct option.
pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical
Column-I Column-II
mammalian cell is 6.6 × 10 9 bp, then the
length of the DNA is approximately (a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between
second and
(1) 2.5 meters (2) 2.2 meters
seventh ribs
(3) 2.7 meters (4) 2.0 meters
(b) Acromion (ii) Head of the
2. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate Humerus
animals are exemplified by
(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle
(1) Platyhelminthes
(d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect
(2) Aschelminthes
with the sternum
(3) Annelida
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) Ctenophora
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
3. Match the following columns and select the
correct option. (2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

Column-I Column-II (3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(a) Gregarious, (i) Asterias (4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

polyphagous pest 7. Experimental verification of the chromosomal
(b) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion theory of inheritance was done by

symmetry and larva (1) Sutton (2) Boveri

with bilateral (3) Morgan (4) Mendel

symmetry 8. Identify the incorrect statement.

(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana (1) Sapwood is involved in conduction of

water and minerals from root to leaf
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta
(a) (b) (c) (d) (2) Sapwood is the innermost secondary
xylem and is lighter in colour
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
etc., heart wood is dark in colour
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) Heart wood does not conduct water but
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) gives mechanical support
4. Which is the important site of formation of 9. Match the following columns and select the
glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic correct option.
cells?
Column-I Column-II
(1) Peroxisomes
(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease
(2) Golgi bodies
(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus
(3) Polysomes
(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum
(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease
5. The QRS complex in a standard ECG
represents (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(1) Depolarisation of auricles
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) Depolarisation of ventricles
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) Repolarisation of ventricles
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) Repolarisation of auricles
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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

10. Match the organism with its use in 14. Select the correct events that occur during
biotechnology. inspiration.
(a) Bacillus (i) Cloning vector (a) Contraction of diaphragm
thuringiensis (b) Contraction of external inter-costal
(b) Thermus (ii) Construction of muscles

aquaticus first rDNA (c) Pulmonary volume decreases

molecule (d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases

(c) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA polymerase (1) (c) and (d)

tumefaciens (2) (a), (b) and (d)

(d) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins (3) Only (d)

typhimurium (4) (a) and (b)

Select the correct option from the following: 15. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’
of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and
(a) (b) (c) (d) Marino rams?
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (1) Mutational breeding
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (2) Cross breeding
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) Inbreeding
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) Out crossing
11. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond
16. Which one of the following is the most
and peptide bond, respectively in their
abundant protein in the animals?
structure
(1) Collagen (2) Lectin
(1) Glycerol, trypsin
(3) Insulin (4) Haemoglobin
(2) Cellulose, lecithin
17. How many true breeding pea plant varieties
(3) Inulin, insulin
did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar
(4) Chitin, cholesterol except in one character with contrasting
12. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of traits?
DNA helix during transcription. (1) 2 (2) 14
(1) DNA helicase (3) 8 (4) 4
(2) DNA polymerase 18. The body of the ovule is fused within the
(3) RNA polymerase funicle at

(4) DNA ligase (1) Micropyle (2) Nucellus

13. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may (3) Chalaza (4) Hilum
live for few days because 19. Which of the following is correct about
(1) the cockroach does not have nervous viroids?
system. (1) They have free RNA without protein coat
(2) the head holds a small proportion of a (2) They have DNA with protein coat
nervous system while the rest is situated
(3) They have free DNA without protein coat
along the ventral part of its body.
(4) They have RNA with protein coat
(3) the head holds a 1/3 rd of a nervous
system while the rest is situated along the 20. The number of substrate level
dorsal part of its body. phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid
cycle is
(4) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the
cockroach are situated in ventral part of (1) One (2) Two
abdomen. (3) Three (4) Zero
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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

21. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by Select the correct option from the following
nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous (a) (b) (c) (d)
plants is/are
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(1) Nitrate alone
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) Ammonia and oxygen (3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) Ammonia and hydrogen (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) Ammonia alone 26. Choose the correct pair from the following
22. Match the following diseases with the (1) Polymerases – Break the DNA into
causative organism and select the correct fragments
option. (2) Nucleases – Separate the two
Column-I Column-II strands of DNA

(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria (3) Exonucleases – Make cuts at specific

positions within DNA
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium
(4) Ligases – Join the two DNA
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella molecules
(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus 27. Select the option including all sexually
(a) (b) (c) (d) transmitted diseases.
(1) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
28. Embryological support for evolution was
23. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced disapproved by
amino acids by mixing the following in a
(1) Alfred Wallace
closed flask
(2) Charles Darwin
(1) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 800°C
(3) Oparin
(2) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
(4) Karl Ernst von Baer
(3) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
29. The roots that originate from the base of the
(4) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800°C stem are
24. Which of the following statements is (1) Primary roots (2) Prop roots
correct? (3) Lateral roots (4) Fibrous roots
(1) Adenine pairs with thymine through one 30. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA
H-bond fragments can be visualized with the help of
(2) Adenine pairs with thymine through three (1) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
H-bonds (2) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
(3) Adenine does not pair with thymine (3) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
(4) Adenine pairs with thymine through two (4) Acetocarmine in bright blue light
H-bonds 31. Which of the following hormone levels will
25. Match the following with respect to meiosis cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the
graffian follicle?
(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization
(1) High concentration of Progesterone
(b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata
(2) Low concentration of LH
(c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over
(3) Low concentration of FSH
(d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis
(4) High concentration of Estrogen
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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

32. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified 37. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for
from control of
(1) Emission of ozone depleting substances
(1) Columnar epithelial cells
(2) Release of Green House gases
(2) Chondrocytes
(3) Disposal of e-wastes
(3) Compound epithelial cells (4) Transport of Genetically modified
(4) Squamous epithelial cells organisms from one country to another
38. Identify the wrong statement with regard to
33. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to Restriction Enzymes.
(1) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose (1) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic
of UV-B radiation sites.
(2) High reflection of light from snow (2) They are useful in genetic engineering.
(3) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA
(3) Damage to retina caused by infra-red ligases.
rays
(4) Each restriction enzyme functions by
(4) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
temperature 39. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that
enters the human body is
34. Match the following concerning essential
(1) Sporozoites
elements and their functions in plants
(2) Female gametocytes
(a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water
(3) Male gametocytes
(b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination (4) Trophozoites
(c) Boron (iii) Required for 40. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is
chlorophyll completed
biosynthesis (1) At the time of copulation
(d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis (2) After zygote formation
(3) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an
Select the correct option ovum
(a) (b) (c) (d) (4) Prior to ovulation
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 41. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme
in photorespiration leads to the formation of
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(1) 1 molecule of 3-C compound
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (2) 1 molecule of 6-C compound
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (3) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and
1 molecule of 2-C compound
35. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the
(4) 2 molecules of 3-C compound
introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus
42. Which of the following statements are true for
thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to
the phylum-Chordata?
(1) Fungal diseases (a) In Urochordata notochord extends from
(2) Plant nematodes head to tail and it is present throughout
their life.
(3) Insect predators
(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during
(4) Insect pests the embryonic period only.
36. Ray florets have (c) Central nervous system is dorsal and
hollow.
(1) Superior ovary (d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla :
(2) Hypogynous ovary Hemichordata, Tunicata and
Cephalochordata.
(3) Half inferior ovary
(1) (c) and (a) (2) (a) and (b)
(4) Inferior ovary (3) (b) and (c) (4) (d) and (c)
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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

43. Match the following columns and select the 48. Which of the following would help in
correct option. prevention of diuresis?
Column-I Column-II (1) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal
tubules due to aldosterone
(a) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin-A
(2) Atrial natriuretic factor causes
butylicum
vasoconstriction
(b) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric Acid
(3) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
polysporum (4) More water reabsorption due to
(c) Monascus (iii) Citric Acid undersecretion of ADH
purpureus 49. Select the correct match
(d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol (1) Phenylketonuria – Autosomal
dominant trait
lowering agent
(2) Sickle cell anaemia – Autosomal
(a) (b) (c) (d)
recessive trait,
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) chromosome-11
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (3) Thalassemia – X linked
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (4) Haemophilia – Y linked
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) 50. Which of the following is not an attribute of a
population?
44. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular
algae? (1) Natality
(1) Gelidium and Gracilaria (2) Mortality

(2) Anabaena and Volvox (3) Species interaction

(3) Chlorella and Spirulina (4) Sex ratio

(4) Laminaria and Sargassum 51. Which of the following statements about
inclusion bodies is incorrect?
45. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the
transfer of electrons from (1) These are involved in ingestion of food
particles
(1) Cytb6f complex to PS-I
(2) They lie free in the cytoplasm
(2) PS-I to NADP+
(3) These represent reserve material in
(3) PS-I to ATP synthase cytoplasm
(4) PS-II to Cytb6f complex (4) They are not bound by any membrane
46. Presence of which of the following conditions 52. The transverse section of a plant shows
in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus? following anatomical features :
(1) Uremia and Renal Calculi (a) Large number of scattered vascular
(2) Ketonuria and Glycosuria bundles surrounded by bundle sheath
(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous
(3) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
ground tissue
(4) Uremia and Ketonuria
(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed
47. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine,
(d) Phloem parenchyma absent
strychnine and caffeine are produced by
plants for their Identify the category of plant and its part :
(1) Growth response (1) Monocotyledonous root

(2) Defence action (2) Dicotyledonous stem

(3) Effect on reproduction (3) Dicotyledonous root

(4) Nutritive value (4) Monocotyledonous stem

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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

53. In relation to Gross primary productivity and 59. Which of the following is not an inhibitory
Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, substance governing seed dormancy?
which one of the following statements is (1) Abscisic acid
correct?
(2) Phenolic acid
(1) Gross primary productivity is always more (3) Para-ascorbic acid
than net primary productivity
(4) Gibberellic acid
(2) Gross primary productivity and Net
60. According to Robert May, the global species
primary productivity are one and same
diversity is about
(3) There is no relationship between Gross (1) 20 million (2) 50 million
primary productivity and Net primary
(3) 7 million (4) 1.5 million
productivity
61. Match the trophic levels with their correct
(4) Gross primary productivity is always less
species examples in grassland ecosystem.
than net primary productivity
(a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow
54. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination
(b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture
takes place by :
(c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit
(1) Water currents only
(d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass
(2) Wind and water
Select the correct option
(3) Insects and water
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) Insects or wind
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
55. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
sludge digester for further sewage treatment?
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) Floating debris
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) Effluents of primary treatment
62. The first phase of translation is
(3) Activated sludge (1) Recognition of DNA molecule
(4) Primary sludge (2) Aminoacylation of tRNA
56. The process responsible for facilitating loss (3) Recognition of an anti-codon
of water in liquid form from the tip of grass
(4) Binding of mRNA to ribosome
blades at night and in early morning is
63. Strobili or cones are found in
(1) Root pressure (2) Imbibition
(1) Pteris (2) Marchantia
(3) Plasmolysis (4) Transpiration
(3) Equisetum (4) Salvinia
57. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of 64. Match the following columns and select the
microvilli is found in correct option.
(1) Ducts of salivary gland Column-I Column-II
(2) Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron (a) 6-15 pairs of (i) Trygon
(3) Eustachian tube gill slits
(b) Heterocercal (ii) Cyclostomes
(4) Lining of intestine
caudal fin
58. Select the correct statement. (c) Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes
(1) Glucagon is associated with (d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes
hypoglycemia.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
adipocytes.
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(3) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

65. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and 70. Match the following columns and select the
enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called correct option.
quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at Column-I Column-II
the end of (a) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle
(1) G1 phase ear and pharynx

(2) S phase (b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the

labyrinth
(3) G2 phase
(c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the oval
(4) M phase window
66. Identify the correct statement with reference (d) Stapes (iv) Located on the
to human digestive system. basilar membrane

(1) Serosa is the innermost layer of the (a) (b) (c) (d)
alimentary canal (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(2) IIeum is a highly coiled part (2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(3) Vermiform appendix arises from (3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
duodenum (4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(4) IIeum opens into small intestine 71. The ovary is half inferior in :

67. In which of the following techniques, the (1) Mustard

embryos are transferred to assist those (2) Sunflower
females who cannot conceive? (3) Plum
(1) GIFT and ZIFT (4) Brinjal
(2) ICSI and ZIFT 72. Identify the basic amino acid from the
following.
(3) GIFT and ICSI
(1) Glutamic Acid
(4) ZIFT and IUT
(2) Lysine
68. The plant parts which consist of two
(3) Valine
generations - one within the other
(4) Tyrosine
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther
73. Match the following columns and select the
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male correct option.
gametes
Column-I Column-II
(c) Seed inside the fruit (a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule (b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (c) Neutrophils (iii) Release
histaminase,
(2) (c) and (d)
destructive
(3) (a) and (d) enzymes
(4) (a) only (d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules
containing
69. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex histamine
occurs during
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Zygotene
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) Diplotene (2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) Leptotene (3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) Pachytene (4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

74. Match the following 78. Identify the wrong statement with reference
to immunity.
(a) Inhibitor of (i) Ricin
(1) When ready-made antibodies are directly
catalytic activity
given, it is called “Passive immunity”.
(b) Possess peptide (ii) Malonate (2) Active immunity is quick and gives full
bonds response.
(c) Cell wall material (iii) Chitin (3) Foetus receives some antibodies from
in fungi mother, it is an example for passive
immunity.
(d) Secondary (iv) Collagen
(4) When exposed to antigen (living or dead)
metabolite
antibodies are produced in the host’s
Choose the correct option from the following body. It is called “Active immunity”.
(a) (b) (c) (d) 79. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion
of
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(1) trypsinogen into trypsin
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) caseinogen into casein
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (3) pepsinogen into pepsin
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (4) protein into polypeptides
75. Identify the correct statement with regard to 80. The specific palindromic sequence which is
G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase. recognized by EcoRl is

(1) Reorganisation of all cell components (1) 5 - GGAACC - 3

takes place. 3 - CCTTGG - 5

(2) Cell is metabolically active, grows but (2) 5 - CTTAAG - 3

does not replicate its DNA. 3 - GAATTC - 5

(3) Nuclear Division takes place. (3) 5 - GGATCC - 3

3 - CCTAGG - 5
(4) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
(4) 5 - GAATTC - 3
76. Name the plant growth regulator which upon
spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the 3 - CTTAAG - 5
length of stem, thus increasing the yield of 81. Match the following columns and select the
sugarcane crop. correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(1) Gibberellin
(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy
(2) Ethylene
(b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence
(3) Abscisic acid deaminase
(4) Cytokinin deficiency
(c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV
77. Identify the wrong statement with reference
infection
to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.
(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus
(1) A person will have only two of the three thuringiensis
alleles. (a) (b) (c) (d)
IA IB
(2) When and are present together, they (1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
express same type of sugar.
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar. (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) The gene (I) has three alleles. (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

82. Floridean starch has structure similar to (3) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation
(1) Amylopectin and glycogen of oxyhaemoglobin

(2) Mannitol and algin (4) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is

mainly related to partial pressure of O2
(3) Laminarin and cellulose
87. The process of growth is maximum during
(4) Starch and cellulose
(1) Lag phase
83. Which of the following statements is
not correct? (2) Senescence
(1) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called (3) Dormancy
C-peptide.
(4) Log phase
(2) The functional insulin has A and B chains
88. Which of the following regions of the globe
linked together by hydrogen bonds.
exhibits highest species diversity?
(3) Genetically engineered insulin is produced
(1) Madagascar
in E.Coli.
(2) Himalayas
(4) In man insulin is synthesised as a
proinsulin (3) Amazon forests
84. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are (4) Western Ghats of India
examples of
89. The sequence that controls the copy number
(1) Convergent evolution of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed
(2) Industrial melanism (1) Ori site
(3) Natural selection (2) Palindromic sequence
(4) Adaptive radiation (3) Recognition site
85. Which of the following refer to correct (4) Selectable marker
example(s) of organisms which have evolved
90. Match the following columns and select the
due to changes in environment brought about
correct option.
by anthropogenic action?
Column-I Column-II
(a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.
(a) Placenta (i) Androgens
(b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
Gonadotropin
(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated
animals like dogs. (hCG)

(1) (a) and (c) (c) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the ovum

(2) (b), (c) and (d) glands

(3) only (d) (d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the

(4) only (a) Penis

86. Identify the wrong statement with reference (a) (b) (c) (d)
to transport of oxygen.
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(1) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
O2 binding with haemoglobin
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) Higher H + conc. in alveoli favours the
formation of oxyhaemoglobin (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

10
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

91. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives: 95. HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2,
MgCl 2 and NaCl. Which of the following
(1) -D-Glucose +-D-Glucose compound(s) crystallise(s)?
(2) -D-Glucose +-D-Fructose (1) Only NaCl
(3) -D-Fructose +-D-Fructose (2) Only MgCl2
(4) -D-Glucose +-D-Fructose (3) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2

92. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to (4) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2

form pent-2-ene is:
96. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH) 2 in
(a) -Elimination reaction 0.1 M NaOH. Given that the ionic product of
Ni(OH)2 is 2 × 10–15
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule
(1) 2 × 10–8 M
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
(2) 1 × 10–13 M
(d) Dehydration reaction
(3) 1 × 108 M
(1) (a), (c), (d)
(4) 2 × 10–13 M
(2) (b), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (b), (d) 97. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) 

 Cl 2 (g), the
correct option is :
(4) (a), (b), (c)
(1) rH > 0 and rS < 0
93. The number of Faradays(F) required to
produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (2) rH < 0 and rS > 0
(Atomic mass of Ca = 40 g mol–1) is:
(3) rH < 0 and rS < 0
(1) 2
(4) rH > 0 and rS > 0
(2) 3
98. Which of the following is the correct order of
(3) 4 increasing field strength of ligands to form
coordination compounds?
(4) 1
(1) SCN– < F – < CN– < C2 O2–
4
94. An element has a body centered cubic (bcc)
structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The
atomic radius is: (2) F – < SCN– < C2 O2–
4 < CN
–

2 (3) CN– < C2 O24 – < SCN– < F –

(1)  288 pm
4
(4) SCN– < F – < C2 O2–
4 < CN
–

4
(2)  288 pm 99. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of
3
Cr2+ ion is

4 (1) 4.90 BM
(3)  288 pm
2 (2) 5.92 BM

(3) 2.84 BM
3
(4)  288 pm
4 (4) 3.87 BM

11
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

100. Which of the following set of molecules will 103. The rate constant for a first order reaction is
have zero dipole moment? 4.606 × 10–3 s–1. The time required to reduce
2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is :
(1) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride,
carbon dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene (1) 200 s

(2) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, (2) 500 s

water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
(3) 1000 s
(3) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
(4) 100 s
carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
104. Reaction between acetone and
(4) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water,
methylmagnesium chloride followed by
1,4-dichlorobenzene
hydrolysis will give :
101. The following metal ion activates many
(1) Sec. butyl alcohol (2) Tert. butyl alcohol
enzymes, participates in the oxidation of
glucose to produce ATP and with Na, is (3) Isobutyl alcohol (4) Isopropyl alcohol
responsible for the transmission of nerve
signals. 105. Which of the following is a natural polymer?

(1) Copper (1) poly (Butadiene-styrene)

(2) Calcium (2) polybutadiene

(3) Potassium (3) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)

(4) Iron (4) cis-1, 4-polyisoprene

102. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as 106. Identify the correct statements from the
one of the product. Its structure is following :

(a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream

CH2 – CH2 – CH3 and frozen food.

(b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six

(1) carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings.

(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert

alcohols into gasoline.
CH2 – CH = CH2
(d) CO is colorless and odourless gas.

(2) (1) (a) and (c) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (c) and (d) only

CH2CH2CH3
(4) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) 107. The correct option for free expansion of an
ideal gas under adiabatic condition is

(1) q = 0, T < 0 and w > 0

CH = CH – CH3
(2) q < 0, T = 0 and w = 0

(4) (3) q > 0, T > 0 and w > 0

(4) q = 0, T = 0 and w = 0
12
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

108. Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has 112. Which of the following is a cationic
– O – O – linkage? detergent?
(1) H2SO4, sulphuric acid (1) Sodium stearate
(2) H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid (2) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
(3) H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid (3) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
(4) H2SO3, sulphurous acid (4) Sodium lauryl sulphate
109. Identify compound X in the following sequence 113. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of
of reactions benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1. The freezing point
depression for the solution of molality
CH3 CHO 0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in
benzene is (rounded off upto two decimal
Cl2/h H2O places) :
X 373 K
(1) 0.80 K (2) 0.40 K
(3) 0.60 K (4) 0.20 K
CH2Cl CHCl2 114. Identify the incorrect match.
Name IUPAC Official Name
(1) (2) (a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium
(b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium
(c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium
CCl3 Cl
(d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium

(3) (4) (1) (b), (ii) (2) (c), (iii)

(3) (d), (iv) (4) (a), (i)

110. The number of protons, neutrons and 115. The mixture which shows positive deviation
175
from Raoult’s law is
electrons in 71Lu, respectively, are
(1) Benzene + Toluene
(1) 104, 71 and 71
(2) Acetone + Chloroform
(2) 71, 71 and 104
(3) Chloroethane + Bromoethane
(3) 175, 104 and 71
(4) Ethanol + Acetone
(4) 71, 104 and 71
116. Match the following :
111. Identify the incorrect statement.
Oxide Nature
(1) The transition metals and their
compounds are known for their catalytic (a) CO (i) Basic
activity due to their ability to adopt (b) BaO (ii) Neutral
multiple oxidation states and to form
complexes. (c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic

(2) Interstitial compounds are those that are (d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric
formed when small atoms like H, C or N Which of the following is correct option?
are trapped inside the crystal lattices of
metals. (a) (b) (c) (d)

(3) The oxidation states of chromium in (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

CrO24 and Cr2O72 are not the same. (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) Cr2+ (d4) is a stronger reducing agent than
Fe2+ (d6) in water. (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

13
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

117. Which one of the followings has maximum 122. Urea reacts with water to form A which will
number of atoms ? decompose to form B. B when passed through
Cu 2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is
(1) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24] formed. What is the formula of C from the
following ?
(2) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]
(1) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(3) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]
(2) Cu(OH)2
(4) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108] (3) CuCO3Cu(OH)2

118. Reaction between benzaldehyde and (4) CuSO4

acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is
123. A mixture of N 2 and Ar gases in a cylinder
known as
contains 7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total
(1) Cannizzaro’s reaction pressure of the mixture of the gases in the
cylinder is 27 bar, the partial pressure of N2
(2) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction is :

(3) Cross Aldol condensation [Use atomic masses (in g mol –1 ) : N = 14,
Ar = 40]
(4) Aldol condensation (1) 12 bar (2) 15 bar
119. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable (3) 18 bar (4) 9 bar
than a secondary butyl carbocation because
of which of the following ? 124. Identify the correct statement from the
following :
(1) + R effect of – CH3 groups (1) Blister copper has blistered appearance
due to evolution of CO2.
(2) – R effect of – CH3 groups
(2) Vapour phase refining is carried out for
(3) Hyperconjugation Nickel by Van Arkel method.

(4) – I effect of – CH3 groups (3) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of
shapes.
120. Which of the following is not correct about
(4) Wrought iron is impure iron with 4%
carbon monoxide ?
carbon.
(1) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.
125. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following
(2) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin reaction.
bound to CO) is less stable than
 Glucose  Fructose
Sucrose  H2 O 
oxyhaemoglobin.
If the equilibrium constant (KC) is 2 × 1013 at
(3) It is produced due to incomplete
combustion. 300 K, the value of r G○ at the same
temperature will be :
(4) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin
(1) 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013)
121. Which of the following is a basic amino
(2) 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(3 × 1013)
acid ?
(3) –8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(4 × 1013)
(1) Alanine
(4) –8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013)
(2) Tyrosine
126. Identify a molecule which does not exist.
(3) Lysine (1) Li2 (2) C2
(4) Serine (3) O2 (4) He2

14
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

127. An increase in the concentration of the 132. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives
reactants of a reaction leads to change in
I
(1) heat of reaction

(2) threshold energy (1) + CH3OH

(3) collision frequency OH

(4) activation energy
(2) + C2H5I
128. Which of the following alkane cannot be made
in good yield by Wurtz reaction?
I
(1) 2,3-Dimethylbutane

(2) n-Heptane (3) + C2H5OH

(3) n-Butane
OH
(4) n-Hexane

129. Which of the following amine will give the (4) + CH3I
carbylamine test?
133. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in
NHCH3 N(CH3)2 determining which property of colloidal
solution?
(1) (2) (1) Solubility
(2) Stability of the colloidal particles
(3) Size of the colloidal particles
NHC2H5 NH2
(4) Viscosity
(3) (4) 134. Paper chromatography is an example of
(1) Partition chromatography
130. On electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid using (2) Thin layer chromatography
Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained (3) Column chromatography
at anode will be (4) Adsorption chromatography
(1) Oxygen gas 135. Match the following and identify the correct
option.
(2) H2S gas (a) CO(g) + H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2 +
(3) SO2 gas Ca(HCO3)2
(b) Temporary (ii) An electron
(4) Hydrogen gas
hardness of deficient hydride
131. What is the change in oxidation number of water
carbon in the following reaction? (c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas
(d) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar
CH4 (g)  4Cl2 (g)  CCl4 (l)  4HCl(g)
structure
(1) 0 to + 4 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) – 4 to + 4
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) 0 to – 4 (3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(4) + 4 to + 4 (4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

15
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

136. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac 142. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on
voltage source. When L is removed from the a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence
circuit, the phase difference between current having surface area 20 cm 2 . The energy
 received by the surface during time span of
and voltage is . If instead C is removed from 1 minute is :
3
 (1) 12 × 103 J (2) 24 × 103 J
the circuit, the phase difference is again
3
between current and voltage. The power factor (3) 48 × 103 J (4) 10 × 103 J
of the circuit is : 143. An electron is accelerated from rest through a
(1) 0.5 (2) 1.0 potential difference of V volt. If the
de Broglie wavelength of the electron is
(3) –1.0 (4) zero
1.227 × 10–2 nm, the potential difference is :
137. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is
hanging from a fixed support. The length of the (1) 102 V (2) 103 V
wire changes to L1 when mass M is suspended (3) 104 V (4) 10 V
from its free end. The expression for Young’s 144. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the
modulus is : earth. What is the gravitational force on it, at a
Mg(L1  L) MgL height equal to half the radius of the earth?
(1) (2) AL
AL 1 (1) 32 N (2) 30 N
MgL MgL1 (3) 24 N (4) 48 N
(3) A(L  L) (4)
1 AL 145. Which of the following graph represents the
138. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 variation of resistivity () with temperature (T)
turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic for copper?
field at the centre of the solenoid is :
(1)
(0 = 4 × 10–7 T m A–1)
(1) 3.14 × 10–4 T (2) 6.28 × 10–5 T
(3) 3.14 × 10–5 T (4) 6.28 × 10–4 T
139. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on
one surface of a small angle prism (with angle
T
of prism A) and emerges normally from the
opposite surface. If the refractive index of the
material of the prism is , then the angle of (2)
incidence is nearly equal to :
2A
(1) (2) A

A A T
(3) (4)
2 2
(3)
140. In a certain region of space with volume
0.2 m3, the electric potential is found to be 5 V
throughout. The magnitude of electric field in
this region is :
(1) 0.5 N/C (2) 1 N/C
(3) 5 N/C (4) zero T

141. For which one of the following, Bohr model is (4)

not valid ?
(1) Singly ionised helium atom (He+)
(2) Deuteron atom
(3) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
(4) Hydrogen atom T

16
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

146. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold 153. The phase difference between displacement
frequency is incident on a photosensitive and acceleration of a particle in a simple
material. What will be the photoelectric harmonic motion is :
current if the frequency is halved and intensity
is doubled? 3 
(1) rad (2) rad
2 2
(1) four times (2) one-fourth
(3) zero (4)  rad
(3) zero (4) doubled
154. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected
147. A 40 F capacitor is connected to a 200 V,
to a magnetising field of 1200 A m –1 . The
50 Hz ac supply. The rms value of the current
permeability of the material of the rod is :
in the circuit is, nearly :
(0 = 4× 10–7 T m A–1)
(1) 2.05 A (2) 2.5 A
(1) 8.0 × 10–5 T m A–1
(3) 25.1 A (4) 1.7 A
(2) 2.4× 10–5 T m A–1
148. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is
(3) 2.4 × 10–7 T m A–1
coming from a star. The limit of resolution of
telescope whose objective has a diameter of 2 (4) 2.4 × 10–4 T m A–1
m is : 155. The quantities of heat required to raise the
(1) 1.83 × 10–7 rad (2) 7.32 × 10–7 rad temperature of two solid copper spheres of
radii r1 and r2 (r1 = 1.5 r2) through 1 K are in
(3) 6.00 × 10–7 rad (4) 3.66 × 10–7 rad the ratio :
149. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a
9 3
velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It (1) (2)
hits the ground after some time with a velocity 4 2
of 80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g = 10 m/
5 27
s2) (3) (4)
3 8
(1) 340 m (2) 320 m
156. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to
(3) 300 m (4) 360 m the ends of a massless string. The string
150. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure passes over a pulley which is frictionless
of 249 kPa and temperature 27°C. (see figure). The acceleration of the system in
terms of acceleration due to gravity (g) is :
Its density is : (R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1)
(1) 0.2 kg/m3 (2) 0.1 kg/m3
(3) 0.02 kg/m3 (4) 0.5 kg/m3

235
151. When a uranium isotope 92 U is bombarded
4 kg
89
with a neutron, it generates 36 Kr , three
neutrons and : 6 kg

91 101
(1) 40 Zr
(2) 36 Kr (1) g/2 (2) g/5

103 144 (3) g/10 (4) g

(3) 36 Kr (4) 56 Ba
157. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular
152. The increase in the width of the depletion diameter d and number density n can be
region in a p-n junction diode is due to : expressed as :
(1) reverse bias only 1 1
(1) 2 (2)
(2) both forward bias and reverse bias 2 nd 2 n2  d2
(3) increase in forward current 1 1
(3) 2 2 2 (4)
(4) forward bias only 2n  d 2 nd

17
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

158. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of 165. Find the torque about the origin when a force
16 × 10–9 C m. The electric potential due to the of 3j N acts on a particle whose position
dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from
vector is 2k m .
the centre of the dipole, situated on a line
making an angle of 60° with the dipole axis is :
(1) 6j Nm (2) 6 i Nm
 1 
  9  109 N m2 /C2 
 4  0  (3) 6k Nm (4) 6i Nm
(1) 200 V (2) 400 V
166. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of
(3) zero (4) 50 V
a metre bridge balances a 10  resistance in
159. Dimensions of stress are : the right gap at a point which divides the
(1) [ML2T–2] (2) [ML0T–2] bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the
resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 
(3) [ML–1 T–2] (4) [MLT–2]
of the resistance wire is :
160. The energy required to break one bond in DNA
is 10–20 J. This value in eV is nearly (1) 1.0 × 10–1 m (2) 1.5 × 10–1 m
(1) 0.6 (2) 0.06 (3) 1.5 × 10–2 m (4) 1.0 × 10–2 m
(3) 0.006 (4) 6 167. For transistor action, which of the following
161. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same statements is correct?
material are slightly out of tune and produce
(1) Base, emitter and collector regions should
beats of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is
have same size.
slightly decreased, the beat frequency
increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is (2) Both emitter junction as well as the
530 Hz, the original frequency of B will be collector junction are forward biased.
(1) 524 Hz (2) 536 Hz (3) The base region must be very thin and
(3) 537 Hz (4) 523 Hz lightly doped.
162. The color code of a resistance is given below (4) Base, emitter and collector regions should
have same doping concentrations.
168. The ratio of contributions made by the electric
field and magnetic field components to the
intensity of an electromagnetic wave is : ( c =
The values of resistance and tolerance, speed of electromagnetic waves)
respectively, are (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : c
(1) 47 k, 10% (2) 4.7 k, 5%
(3) 1 : c2 (4) c : 1
(3) 470 , 5% (4) 470 k, 5%
163. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be 169. A charged particle having drift velocity of
7.5 × 10 –4 m s –1 in an electric field of
(1) 30° < ib < 45° (2) 45° < ib < 90°
3 × 10–10 Vm–1, has a mobility in m2 V–1 s–1 of :
(3) ib = 90° (4) 0° < ib < 30°
(1) 2.5 × 106 (2) 2.5 × 10–6
164. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor
with air as medium is 6 F. With the (3) 2.25 × 10–15 (4) 2.25 × 1015
introduction of a dielectric medium, the 170. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a
capacitance becomes 30 F. The permittivity of charge of 3.2 × 10–7 C distributed uniformly.
the medium is : What is the magnitude of electric field at a
(0 = 8.85 × 10–12 C2 N–1 m–2) point 15 cm from the centre of the sphere?
(1) 1.77 × 10–12 C2 N–1 m–2  1 
  9  109 Nm2 C2 
(2) 0.44 × 10–10 C2 N–1 m–2  4  0 

(3) 5.00 C2 N–1 m–2 (1) 1.28 × 105 N/C (2) 1.28 × 106 N/C
(4) 0.44 × 10–13 C2 N–1 m–2 (3) 1.28 × 107 N/C (4) 1.28 × 104 N/C
18
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

171. Taking into account of the significant figures, (1) A B Y

what is the value of 9.99 m – 0.0099 m? 0 0 0
(1) 9.98 m (2) 9.980 m 0 1 1
(3) 9.9 m (4) 9.9801 m
1 0 1
172. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the
1 1 1
separation between coherent sources is halved
and the distance of the screen from the (2) A B Y
coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe 0 0 1
width becomes :
0 1 1
(1) half (2) four times
1 0 1
(3) one-fourth (4) double
1 1 0
173. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are
(3) A B Y
connected to each other via a stop cock. A
contains an ideal gas at standard temperature 0 0 1
and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The 0 1 0
entire system is thermally insulated. The stop
1 0 0
cock is suddenly opened. The process is :
1 1 0
(1) adiabatic (2) isochoric
(4) A B Y
(3) isobaric (4) isothermal
0 0 0
174. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance
is : 0 1 0
(1) 4.5 × 1013 J (2) 1.5 × 1013 J 1 0 0
(3) 0.5 × 1013 J (4) 4.5 × 1016 J 1 1 1
175. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in 178. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic
water and water rises in it to a height h. The gas is : (k B is Boltzmann constant and T,
mass of the water in the capillary is 5 g. absolute temperature)
Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed
3 5
in water. The mass of water that will rise in this (1) kB T (2) kB T
2 2
tube is :
7 1
(1) 5.0 g (2) 10.0 g (3) kB T (4) kB T
2 2
(3) 20.0 g (4) 2.5 g
179. The solids which have the negative
176. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and temperature coefficient of resistance are:
there are 50 divisions in its circular scale.
(1) insulators only
The pitch of the screw gauge is :
(2) semiconductors only
(1) 0.25 mm
(3) insulators and semiconductors
(2) 0.5 mm
(4) metals
(3) 1.0 mm
180. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg
(4) 0.01 mm respectively are attached to the two ends of a
177. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is: rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible mass.
The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg
A
particle is nearly at a distance of :
Y
(1) 50 cm (2) 67 cm
B
(3) 80 cm (4) 33 cm



19