1. Which of the following is not applicable for IP?

a) Error reporting
b) handle addressing conventions
c) Datagram format
d) Packet handling conventions

2. Which of the following field in IPv4 datagram is not related to fragmentation?

a) Flags
b) Offset
c) TOS
d) Identifier

3. The TTL field has value 10. How many routers (max) can process this datagram?
a) 11
b) 5
c) 10
d) 1

4. If the value in protocol field is 17, the transport layer protocol used is _____________
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) ICMP
d) IGMP

5. The data field cannot carry which of the following?

a) TCP segment
b) UDP segment
c) ICMP messages
d) SMTP messages

6. What should be the flag value to indicate the last fragment?

a) 0
b) 1
c) TTl value
d) Protocol field value

7. Which of these is not applicable for IP protocol?

a) Is connectionless
b) offer reliable service
c) offer unreliable service
d) does not offer error reporting

8. Which of the following demerits does Fragmentation have?

a) complicates routers
b) open to DOS attack
c) overlapping of fragments.
d) all of the mentioned

9. Which field helps to check rearrangement of the fragments?

a) Offset
b) flag
c) ttl
d) identifier

10. Which of these is not applicable for IP protocol?

a) Connectionless
b) Offer reliable service
c) Offer unreliable service
d) Does not offer error reporting

11. Which of the following demerits does Fragmentation have?

a) Complicates routers
b) Open to DOS attack
c) Overlapping of fragments
d) All of the mentioned

12. Which field helps to check rearrangement of the fragments?

a) Offset
b) Flag
c) TTL
d) Identifier

13. In classless addressing, there are no classes but addresses are still granted in ______
a) IPs
b) Blocks
c) Codes
d) Sizes

14. In IPv4 Addresses, classful addressing is replaced with ________

a) Classless Addressing
b) Classful Addressing
c) Classful Advertising
d) Classless Advertising

15. First address in a block is used as network address that represents the ________
a) Class Network
b) Entity
c) Organization
d) Codes

16. In classful addressing, a large part of available addresses are ________

a) organized
b) Blocked
c) Wasted
d) Communicated

17. Network addresses are a very important concept of ________

a) Routing
b) Mask
c) IP Addressing
d) Classless Addressing

18. Which of this is not a class of IP address?

a) Class E
b) Class C
c) Class D
d) Class F

19. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) has been designed to compensate
_________
a) Error-reporting
b) Error-correction
c) Host and management queries
d) All of the mentioned

20. Header size of the ICMP message is _________

a) 8-bytes
b) 8-bits
c) 16-bytes
d) 16-bits

21. During error reporting, ICMP always reports error messages to ________
a) Destination
b) Source
c) Next router
d) previous router

22. Which of these is not a type of error-reporting message?

a) Destination unreachable
b) Source quench
c) Router error
d) Time exceeded

23. ICMP error message will not be generated for a datagram having a special address
such as _______
a) 127.0.0.0
b) 12.1.2
c) 11.1
d) 127

24. When a router cannot route a datagram or host cannot deliver a datagram, the
datagram is discarded and the router or the host sends a ____________ message back to
the source host that initiated the datagram.
a) Destination unreachable
b) Source quench
c) Router error
d) Time exceeded

25. The source-quench message in ICMP was designed to add a kind of ____________ to
the IP.
a) Error control
b) flow control
c) router control
d) switch control

26. In case of time exceeded error, when the datagram visits a router, the value of time
to live field is _________
a) Remains constant
b) Decremented by 2
c) Incremented by 1
d) Decremented by 1

27. Two machines can use the timestamp request and timestamp replay messages to
determine the ___________ needed for an IP datagram to travel between them.
a) Half-trip time
b) Round-trip time
c) Travel time for the next router
d) Time to reach the destination/source

28. During debugging, we can use the ____________ program to find if a host is alive
and responding.
a) Trace route
b) shell
c) ping
d) java

29. In windows ____________ can be used to trace the route of the packet from the
source to the destination.
a) Trace route
b) tracert
c) ping
d) locater
30. In a simple echo-request message, the value of the sum is 01010000 01011100. Then,
value of checksum is ___________
a) 10101111 10100011
b) 01010000 01011100
c) 10101111 01011100
d) 01010000 10100011

31. What is the access point (AP) in a wireless LAN?

a) device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network
b) wireless devices itself
c) both device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network and wireless
devices itself
d) all the nodes in the network

32. In wireless ad-hoc network _________

a) access point is not required
b) access point is must
c) nodes are not required
d) all nodes are access points

33. Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN?
a) CDMA
b) CSMA/CA
c) ALOHA
d) CSMA/CD

34. In wireless distribution system __________

a) multiple access point are inter-connected with each other
b) there is no access point
c) only one access point exists
d) access points are not required

35. A wireless network interface controller can work in _______

a) infrastructure mode
b) ad-hoc mode
c) both infrastructure mode and ad-hoc mode
d) WDS mode

36. In wireless network an extended service set is a set of ________

a) connected basic service sets
b) all stations
c) all access points
d) connected access points

37. Mostly ________ is used in wireless LAN.

a) Time division multiplexing
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing
d) channel division multiplexing

38. Which one of the following event is not possible in wireless LAN?
a) Collision detection
b) acknowledgement of data frames
c) multi-mode data transmission
d) connection to wired networks

39. What is Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)?

a) Security algorithm for Ethernet
b) security algorithm for wireless networks
c) security algorithm for usb communication
d) security algorithm for emails

40. What is WPA?

a) Wi-Fi protected access
b) wired protected access
c) wired process access
d) Wi-Fi process access

41. An interconnected collection of piconet is called ___________

a) scatter-net
b) micro-net
c) mini-net
d) multi-net

42. In a piconet, there can be up to ________ parked nodes in the network.

a) 63
b) 127
c) 255
d) 511

43. Bluetooth is the wireless technology for __________

a) local area network
b) personal area network
c) metropolitan area network
d) wide area network

44. Bluetooth uses __________

a) frequency hopping spread spectrum
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) time division multiplexing
d) channel division multiplexing
45. Unauthorised access of information from a wireless device through a bluetooth
connection is called _________
a) blue making
b) bluesnarfing
c) blue string
d) bluescoping

46. What is A2DP (advanced audio distribution profile)?

a) a Bluetooth profile for streaming audio
b) a bluetooth profile for streaming video
c) a bluetooth profile for security
d) a bluetooth profile for file management

47. In a piconet, one master device ________

a) cannot be slave
b) can be slave in another piconet
c) can be slave in the same piconet
d) can be master in another piconet

48. Bluetooth transceiver devices operate in ______ band.

a) 2.4 GHz ISM
b) 2.5 GHz ISM
c) 2.6 GHz ISM
d) 2.7 GHz ISM

49. Bluetooth supports _______

a) point-to-point connections
b) point-to-multipoint connection
c) both point-to-point connections and point-to-multipoint connection
d) multipoint to point connection

50. A scatternet can have maximum __________

a) 10 piconets
b) 20 piconets
c) 30 piconets
d) 40 piconets

51. Ethernet frame consists of ____________

a) MAC address
b) IP address
c) Default mask
d) Network address

52. What is start frame delimeter (SFD) in Ethernet frame?

a) 10101010
b) 10101011
c) 00000000
d) 11111111

53. MAC address is of ___________

a) 24 bits
b) 36 bits
c) 42 bits
d) 48 bits

54. What is auto-negotiation?

a) a procedure by which two connected devices choose common transmissionparameters
b) a security algorithm
c) a routing algorithm
d) encryption algorithm

55. Ethernet in metropolitan area network (MAN) can be used as ___________

a) pure Ethernet
b) Ethernet over SDH
c) Ethernet over MPLS
d) all of the mentioned

56. A point-to-point protocol over ethernet is a network protocol for __________

a) encapsulating PPP frames inside ethernet frames
b) encapsulating ehternet frames inside PPP frames
c) for security of ethernet frames
d) for security of PPP frames

57. High speed ethernet works on _________

a) coaxial cable
b) twisted pair cable
c) optical fiber
d) unshielded twisted pair cable

58. The maximum size of payload field in ethernet frame is __________

a) 1000 bytes
b) 1200 bytes
c) 1300 bytes
d) 1500 bytes

59. What is interframe gap?

a) idle time between frames
b) idle time between frame bits
c) idle time between packets
d) idle time between networks
60. An ethernet frame that is less than the IEEE 802.3 minimum length of 64 octets is
called _______
a) short frame
b) runt frame
c) mini frame
d) man frame

61. A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network.

a) Packet switched
b) Circuit switched
c) Bit switched
d) Line switched

62. Most packet switches use this principle ____________

a) Stop and wait
b) Store and forward
c) Store and wait
d) Stop and forward

63. If there are N routers from source to destination, the total end to end delay in
sending packet P(L-> number of bits in the packet R-> transmission rate) is equal to
______________
a) N
b) (N*L)/R
c) (2N*L)/R
d) L/R

64. What are the Methods to move data through a network of links and switches?
a) Packet switching and Line switching
b) Circuit switching and Line switching
c) Line switching and bit switching
d) Packet switching and Circuit switching

65. The required resources for communication between end systems are reserved for the
duration of the session between end systems in ________ method.
a) Packet switching
b) Circuit switching
c) Line switching
d) Frequency switching

66. As the resources are reserved between two communicating end systems in circuit
switching, ___________ is achieved.
a) Authentication
b) guaranteed constant rate
c) reliability
d) store and forward
67. In _________ systems, resources are allocated on demand.
a) Packet switching
b) circuit switching
c) line switching
d) frequency switching

68. Which of the following is not an application layer service?

a) Network virtual terminal
b) File transfer, access, and management
c) Mail service
d) Error control

69. The network layer is concerned with __________ of data.

a) Bits
b) frames
c) packets
d) bytes

70. Which one of the following is not a function of network layer?

a) Routing
b) inter-networking
c) congestion control
d) error control

71. A 4 byte IP address consists of __________

a) only network address
b) only host address
c) network address & host address
d) network address & MAC address

72. In virtual circuit network each packet contains ___________

a) full source and destination address
b) a short VC number
c) only source address
d) only destination address

73. Which of the following routing algorithms can be used for network layer design?
a) shortest path algorithm
b) distance vector routing
c) link state routing
d) all of the mentioned

74. Which of the following is not correct in relation to multi-destination routing?

a) is same as broadcast routing
b) contains the list of all destinations
c) data is not sent by packets
d) there are multiple receivers

75. A subset of a network that includes all the routers but contains no loops is called
________
a) spanning tree
b) spider structure
c) spider tree
d) special tree

76. Which one of the following algorithm is not used for congestion control?
a) traffic aware routing
b) admission control
c) load shedding
d) routing information protocol

77. The network layer protocol for internet is __________

a) ethernet
b) internet protocol
c) hypertext transfer protocol
d) file transfer protocol

78. ICMP is primarily used for __________

a) error and diagnostic functions
b) addressing
c) forwarding
d) routing

79. Which of this is not a constituent of residential telephone line?

a) A high-speed downstream channel
b) A medium-speed downstream channel
c) A low-speed downstream channel
d) An ultra-high speed downstream channel

80. DSL telcos provide which of the following services?

a) Wired phone access
b) ISP
c) Wired phone access and ISP
d) Network routing and ISP

81. The function of DSLAM is to __________

a) Convert analog signals into digital signals
b) Convert digital signals into analog signals
c) Amplify digital signals
d) De-amplify digital signals
82. Which of the following terms is not associated with DSL?
a) DSLAM
b) CO
c) Splitter
d) CMTS

83. HFC contains _______

a) Fibre cable
b) Coaxial cable
c) A combination of Fibre cable and Coaxial cable
d) Twisted Pair Cable

84. Which of the following statements is not applicable for cable internet access?
a) It is a shared broadcast medium
b) It includes HFCs
c) Cable modem connects home PC to Ethernet port
d) Analog signal is converted to digital signal in DSLAM

85. Among the optical-distribution architectures that are essentially switched ethernet is
__________
a) AON
b) PON
c) NON
d) MON

86. Star Band provides __________

a) FTTH internet access
b) Cable access
c) Telephone access
d) Satellite access

87. Home Access is provided by __________

a) DSL
b) FTTP
c) Cable
d) All of the mentioned

88. ONT is connected to splitter using _________

a) High speed fibre cable
b) HFC
c) Optical cable
d) Twisted pair cable

89. Which of the following factors affect transmission rate in DSL?

a) The gauge of the twisted-pair line
b) Degree of electrical interference
c) Shadow fading
d) The gauge of the twisted-pair line and degree of electrical interference

90. IPSec is designed to provide security at the _________

a) Transport layer
b) Network layer
c) Application layer
d) Session layer

91. In tunnel mode, IPSec protects the ______

a) Entire IP packet
b) IP header
c) IP payload
d) IP trailer

92. Which component is included in IP security?

a) Authentication Header (AH)
b) Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
c) Internet key Exchange (IKE)
d) All of the mentioned

93. WPA2 is used for security in _______

a) Ethernet
b) Bluetooth
c) Wi-Fi
d) Email

94. An attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users is called
______
a) Denial-of-service attack
b) Virus attack
c) Worms attack
d) Botnet process

95. Extensible authentication protocol is authentication framework frequently used in

______
a) Wired personal area network
b) Wireless networks
c) Wired local area network
d) Wired metropolitan area network

96. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in ______

a) Browser security
b) Email security
c) FTP security
d) Wi-Fi security
97. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher called ______
a) International data encryption algorithm
b) Private data encryption algorithm
c) Internet data encryption algorithm
d) Local data encryption algorithm

98. When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect information from a host that has no
authority giving that information, then it is called _________
a) DNS lookup
b) DNS hijacking
c) DNS spoofing
d) DNS authorizing

99. Complex networks today are made up of hundreds and sometimes thousands of
_________
a) Documents
b) Components
c) Servers
d) Entities

100. Performance management is closely related to _________

a) Proactive Fault Management
b) Fault management
c) Reactive Fault Management
d) Preventive Fault Management

101. Configuration management can be divided into two subsystems: reconfiguration

and __________
a) Documentation
b) Information
c) Servers
d) Entity

102. In Network Management System, the term that is responsible for controlling access
to network based on predefined policy is called ___________
a) Fault Management
b) Secured Management
c) Active Management
d) Security Management

103. Control of users’ access to network resources through charges is the main
responsibility of ______________
a) Reactive Fault Management
b) Reconfigured Fault Management
c) Accounting Management
d) Security Management
104. The physical connection between an end point and a switch or between two
switches is __________
a) Transmission path
b) Virtual path
c) Virtual circuit
d) Transmission circuit

105. Which of the following networks supports pipelining effect?

a) Circuit-switched networks
b) Message-switched networks
c) Packet-switched networks
d) Stream-switched networks

106. In Network Management System, maps track each piece of hardware and its
connection to the _________
a) IP Server
b) Domain
c) Network
d) Data

107. MIB is a collection of groups of objects that can be managed by __________

a) SMTP
b) UDP
c) SNMP
d) TCP/IP

108. A network management system can be divided into ___________

a) three categories
b) five broad categories
c) seven broad categories
d) ten broad categories

109. Ping can _________

a) Measure round-trip time
b) Report packet loss
c) Report latency
d) All of the mentioned

110. Ping sweep is a part of _________

a) Traceroute
b) Nmap
c) Route
d) Ipconfig

111. ICMP is used in _________

a) Ping
b) Traceroute
c) Ipconfig
d) Both Ping & Traceroute

112. __________ command is used to manipulate TCP/IP routing table.

a) route
b) Ipconfig
c) Ifconfig
d) Traceroute

113. If you want to find the number of routers between a source and destination, the
utility to be used is ___________
a) route
b) Ipconfig
c) Ifconfig
d) Traceroute

114. Which of the following is not related to ipconfig in Microsoft Windows?

a) Display all current TCP/IP network configuration values
b) Modify DHCP settings
c) Modify DNS settings
d) Trace the routers in the path to destination

115. __________ allows checking if a domain is available for registration.

a) Domain Check
b) Domain Dossier
c) Domain Lookup
d) Domain registers

116. Choose the wrong statement from the following.

a) Nslookup is used to query a DNS server for DNS data
b) Ping is used to check connectivity
c) Pathping combines the functionality of ping with that of route
d) Ifconfig can configure TCP/IP network interface parameters

117. IPSec is designed to provide security at the _________

a) transport layer
b) network layer
c) application layer
d) session layer

118. In tunnel mode, IPSec protects the ______

a) Entire IP packet
b) IP header
c) IP payload
d) IP trailer
119. Network layer firewall works as a ________
a) frame filter
b) packet filter
c) signal filter
d) content filter

120. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories called ____________

a) stateful firewall and stateless firewall
b) bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall
c) frame firewall and packet firewall
d) network firewall and data firewall

121. WPA2 is used for security in _______

a) ethernet
b) bluetooth
c) Wi-Fi
d) e-mail

122. An attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users is called
______
a) denial-of-service attack
b) virus attack
c) worms attack
d) botnet process

123. Extensible authentication protocol is authentication framework frequently used in

______
a) wired personal area network
b) wireless networks
c) wired local area network
d) wired metropolitan area network

124. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in ______

a) browser security
b) email security
c) FTP security
d) Wi-Fi security

125. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher called ______

a) international data encryption algorithm
b) private data encryption algorithm
c) internet data encryption algorithm
d) local data encryption algorithm

126. When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect information from a host that has no
authority giving that information, then it is called _________
a) DNS lookup
b) DNS hijacking
c) DNS spoofing
d) DNS authorizing

127. Which protocol should you select if the network diameter is more than 17 hops?
a) RIPv1
b) RIPv2
c) EIGRP
d) Both RIPv1 and RIPv2

128. How often does a RIPv1 router broadcast its routing table by default?
a) Every 30 seconds
b) Every 60 seconds
c) Every 90 seconds
d) RIPv1 does not broadcast periodically

129. Which command displays RIP routing updates?

a) Show IP route
b) Debug IP rip
c) Show protocols
d) Debug IP route

130. Two connected routers are configured with RIP routing. What will be the result
when a router receives a routing update that contains a higher-cost path to a network
already in its routing table?
a) The updated information will be added to the existing routing table Debug IP rip
b) The update will be ignored and no further action will occur Debug IP route
c) The updated information will replace the existing routing table entry
d) The existing routing table entry will be deleted from the routing table and all routers will
exchange routing updates to reach convergence

131. You type debug IP rip on your router console and see that 172.16.10.0 is being
advertised to you with a metric of 16. What does this mean?
a) The route is 16 hops away Debug IP rip
b) The route has a delay of 16 microseconds Debug IP route
c) The route is inaccessible
d) The route is queued at 16 messages a second

132. Default administrative distance of a static route is ________

a) 0
b) 90
c) 100
d) 1
133. Which protocol gives a full route table update every 30 seconds?
a) IEGRP
b) RIP
c) ICMP
d) IP

134. _________ is the default administrative distance of RIP.

a) 0
b) 90
c) 120
d) 130

135. Which statement is true regarding classless routing protocol?

a) The use of discontinuous networks is not allowed
b) Use of variable length subnet masks is permitted
c) RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol
d) IGRP supports classes routing within the same autonomous system

136. Where should we use default routing?

a) On stub networks- which have only one exit path out of the network
b) Which have more than one exit path out of the network
c) Minimum five exit paths out of the network
d) Maximum five exit paths out of the network

137. Which statement is true regarding classless routing protocols?

a) The use of discontinuous networks is not allowed
b) The use of variable length subnet masks is permitted
c) RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol
d) RIPv2 supports classless routing

138. What is route poisoning?

a) It sends back the protocol received from a router as a poison pill, which stops the regular
updates. The use of variable length subnet masks are permitted
b) It is information received from a router that can’t be sent back to the originating
router.RIPv2 supports classless routing
c) It prevents regular update messages from reinstating a route that has just come up
d) It describes when a router sets the metric for a downed link to infinity

139. Which of the following is true regarding RIPv2?

a) It has a lower administrative distance than RIPv1
b) It converges faster than RIPv1
c) It has the same timers as RIPv1
d) It is harder to configure than RIPv1

140. Which of the situations might not require multiple routing protocols in a network?
a) When a new Layer 2-only switch is added to the network
b) when you are migrating from one routing protocol to another
c) When you are using routers from multiple vendors
d) when there are host-based routers from multiple vendors

141. Which two routing protocols can be redistributed into OSPF by a Cisco router?
a) IP EIGRP and AppleTalk EIGRP
b) AppleTalk EIGRP and RIPv2
c) RIPv2 and IP EIGRP
d) IPX RIP & AppleTalk EIGRP

142. Which is a reason for avoiding doing route redistribution on two routers between
the same two routing domains?
a) Higher cost of two routers
b) Routing feedback
c) Cisco IOS incompatibility
d) Not possible to use two routers

143. What does administrative distance rank?

a) Metrics
b) Sources of routing information
c) Router reliability
d) Best paths

144. Which protocol maintains neighbour adjacencies?

a) RIPv2 and EIGRP
b) IGRP and EIGRP
c) RIPv2
d) EIGRP

145. Which routing protocol implements the diffusing update algorithm?

a) IS-IS
b) IGRP
c) EIGRP
d) OSPF

146. Which protocol should you select if the network diameter is more than 17 hops?
a) RIPv1
b) RIPv2
c) EIGRP
d) OSPF

147. WiMAX stands for ___________

a) wireless maximum communication
b) worldwide interoperability for microwave access
c) worldwide international standard for microwave access
d) wireless internet maximum communication
148. WiMAX provides ________
a) simplex communication
b) half duplex communication
c) full duplex communication
d) no communication

149. WiMAX uses the _________

a) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
b) time division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing
d) channel division multiplexing

150. Which of the following modulation schemes is supported by WiMAX?

a) binary phase shift keying modulation
b) quadrature phase shift keying modulation
c) quadrature amplitude modulation
d) all of the mentioned

151. WiMAX MAC layer provides an interface between ___________

a) higher transport layers and physical layer
b) application layer and network layer
c) data link layer and network layer
d) session layer and application layer

152. For encryption, WiMAX supports _______

a) advanced encryption standard
b) triple data encryption standard
c) advanced encryption standard and triple data encryption standard
d) double data encryption standard

153. WiMAX provides _______

a) VoIP services
b) IPTV services
c) Both VoIP and IPTV services
d) no IPTV services

154. Devices that provide the connectivity to a WiMAX network are known as
_________
a) subscriber stations
b) base stations
c) gateway
d) switch stations

155. WiMAX is mostly used for __________

a) local area network
b) metropolitan area network
c) personal area network
d) wide area network

156. Which of the following frequencies is not used in WiMAX for communication?
a) 2.3 GHz
b) 2.4 GHz
c) 2.5 GHz
d) 3.5 GHz

157. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is also called as _____________

a) Link state protocol
b) Error-correction protocol
c) Routing information protocol
d) Border gateway protocol

158. The computation of the shortest path in OSPF is usually done by ____________
a) Bellman-ford algorithm
b) Routing information protocol
c) Dijkstra’s algorithm
d) Distance vector routing

159. Which of the following is false with respect to the features of OSPF?
a) Support for fixed-length sub-netting by including the subnet mask in the routing message
b) More flexible link cost than can range from 1 to 65535
c) Use of designated router
d) Distribution of traffic over multiple paths that have equal cost to the destination

160. In OSPF, which protocol is used to discover neighbour routers automatically?

a) Link state protocol
b) Error-correction protocol
c) Routing information protocol
d) Hello protocol

161. Which of the following is not a type of OSPF packet?

a) Hello
b) Link-state request
c) Link-state response
d) Link-state ACK

162. What is the correct order of the operations of OSPF?

i – Hello packets
ii – Propagation of link-state information and building of routing tables
iii – Establishing adjacencies and synchronization of database
a) i-ii-iii
b) i-iii-ii
c) iii-ii-i
d) ii-i-iii

163. In OSPF header, which field is used to detect errors in the packet?
a) Type
b) Area ID
c) Authentication type
d) Checksum

164. In OSPF database descriptor packet, if there are more database descriptor packets
in the flow, ‘M’ field is set to ____________
a) 1
b) 0
c) more
d) -1

165. In OSPF database descriptor packet, which field is used to indicate that the router
is master?
a) M
b) MS
c) I
d) Options

166. In OSPF database descriptor packet, which field is used to detect a missing packet?
a) LSA header
b) MS
c) Database descriptor sequence number
d) Options

167. An OSPF router receives an LSA, the router checks its sequence number, and this
number matches the sequence number of the LSA that the receiving router already has.
What does the receiving router do with the LSA?
a) Ignores the LSA
b) Adds it to the database
c) Sends newer LSU update to source router
d) Floods the LSA to the other routers

168. An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router checks its sequence number and
finds that this number is higher than the sequence number it already has. Which two
tasks does the router perform with the LSA?
a) Ignores the LSA
b) Adds it to the database
c) Sends newer LSU update to source router
d) Floods the LSA to the other routers
169. An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router checks its sequence number and
finds that this number is lower than the sequence number it already has. What does the
router do with the LSA?
a) ignores the LSA
b) adds it to the database
c) sends newer LSU update to source router
d) floods the LSA to the other routers

170. Each LSA has its own age timer. By default, how long does an LSA wait before
requiring an update?
a) 30 seconds
b) 1 minute
c) 30 minutes
d) 1 hour

171. Distance vector protocols use the concept of split horizon, but link-state routing
protocols, such as OSPF, do not.
a) True
b) False

172. The outcome of Dijkstra’s calculation is used to populate the __________

a) Topology table
b) Routing table
c) Neighbour table
d) Adjacency table

173. What is the IP protocol number for OSPF packets?

a) 89
b) 86
c) 20
d) 76

174. Which packet is NOT an OSPF packet type?

a) LSU
b) LSR
c) DBD
d) Query

175. Which multicast address does the OSPF Hello protocol use?
a) 224.0.0.5
b) 224.0.0.6
c) 224.0.0.7
d) 224.0.0.8
176. The Hello protocol sends periodic updates to ensure that a neighbour relationship
is maintained between adjacent routers.
a) True
b) False

177. Datagram switching is done at which layer of OSI model?

a) Network layer
b) Physical layer
c) Application layer
d) Transport layer

178. Packets in datagram switching are referred to as ________

a) Switches
b) Segments
c) Datagrams
d) Data-packets

179. Datagram networks mainly refers to _________

a) Connection oriented networks
b) Connection less networks
c) Telephone networks
d) Internetwork

180. Datagrams are routed to their destinations with the help of ________
a) Switch table
b) Segments table
c) Datagram table
d) Routing table

181. The main contents of the routing table in datagram networks are ___________
a) Source and Destination address
b) Destination address and Output port
c) Source address and Output port
d) Input port and Output port

182. Which of the following remains same in the header of the packet in a datagram
network during the entire journey of the packet?
a) Destination address
b) Source address
c) Checksum
d) Padding

183. Which of the following is true with respect to the delay in datagram networks?
a) Delay is greater than in a virtual circuit network
b) Each packet may experience a wait at a switch
c) Delay is not uniform for the packets of a message
d) All of the mentioned

184. During datagram switching, the packets are placed in __________ to wait until the
given transmission line becomes available.
a) Stack
b) Queue
c) Hash
d) Routing table

185. The probability of the error in a transmitted block _________ with the length of
the block
a) Remains same
b) Decreases
c) Increases
d) Is not proportional

186. Which of the following is false with respect to the datagram networks?
a) Number of flows of packets are not limited
b) Packets may not be in order at the destination
c) Path is not reserved
d) Delay is the same for all packets in a flow

187. Network layer firewall works as a __________

a) Frame filter
b) Packet filter
c) Content filter
d) Virus filter

188. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories as _________

a) State full firewall and stateless firewall
b) Bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall
c) Frame firewall and packet firewall
d) Network layer firewall and session layer firewall

189. A firewall is installed at the point where the secure internal network and untrusted
external network meet which is also known as __________
a) Chock point
b) Meeting point
c) Firewall point
d) Secure point

190. Which of the following is / are the types of firewall?

a) Packet Filtering Firewall
b) Dual Homed Gateway Firewall
c) Screen Host Firewall
d) Dual Host Firewall

191. A proxy firewall filters at _________

a) Physical layer
b) Data link layer
c) Network layer
d) Application layer

192. A packet filter firewall filters at __________

a) Physical layer
b) Data link layer
c) Network layer or Transport layer
d) Application layer

193. What is one advantage of setting up a DMZ with two firewalls?

a) You can control where traffic goes in three networks
b) You can do stateful packet filtering
c) You can do load balancing
d) Improved network performance

194. What tells a firewall how to reassemble a data stream that has been divided into
packets?
a) The source routing feature
b) The number in the header’s identification field
c) The destination IP address
d) The header checksum field in the packet header

195. A stateful firewall maintains a ___________ which is a list of active connections.

a) Routing table
b) Bridging table
c) State table
d) Connection table

196. A firewall needs to be __________ so that it can grow proportionally with the
network that it protects.
a) Robust
b) Expansive
c) Fast
d) Scalable

197. Complex networks today are made up of hundreds and sometimes thousands of
_________
a) Documents
b) Components
c) Servers
d) Entities

198. Performance management is closely related to _________

a) Proactive Fault Management
b) Fault management
c) Reactive Fault Management
d) Preventive Fault Management

199. Configuration management can be divided into two subsystems: reconfiguration

and __________
a) Documentation
b) Information
c) Servers
d) Entity

200. In Network Management System, the term that is responsible for controlling access
to network based on predefined policy is called ___________
a) Fault Management
b) Secured Management
c) Active Management
d) Security Management