Passage:
The following table provides information about the number of boys (B), number of girls (G),
average weight (in kg) of boys (AB) and average weight (in kg) of girls (AG) in eight different
classes – A to H of a particular school.
The school management decided to reduce the number of classes from eight to three by merging
the existing classes. The new classes were named as Mercury, Venus and Jupiter.
While merging the existing classes, no two students from class A were placed into two different
new classes. This holds true for students of all the other existing classes as well. Each new class
had students from at least two existing classes.
Additional Information Given:
I. In Mercury, the average weight of boys is more than 55 kgs and the average weight of girls is
more than 40 kgs.
II. In Venus, the total number of girls is not more than 55 and the average weight of girls is not
less than 50 kgs.
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
What is the average weight of boys in Venus?
Options:
1.
2.
3.
4. cannot be determined
Explanation:
Passage:
The following table provides information about the number of boys (B), number of girls (G),
average weight (in kg) of boys (AB) and average weight (in kg) of girls (AG) in eight different
classes – A to H of a particular school.
The school management decided to reduce the number of classes from eight to three by merging
the existing classes. The new classes were named as Mercury, Venus and Jupiter.
While merging the existing classes, no two students from class A were placed into two different
new classes. This holds true for students of all the other existing classes as well. Each new class
had students from at least two existing classes.
Additional Information Given:
I. In Mercury, the average weight of boys is more than 55 kgs and the average weight of girls is
more than 40 kgs.
II. In Venus, the total number of girls is not more than 55 and the average weight of girls is not
less than 50 kgs.
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
How many classes were merged to form Jupiter?
Options:
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. Either 3 or 4
Explanation:
Passage:
The following table provides information about the number of boys (B), number of girls (G),
average weight (in kg) of boys (AB) and average weight (in kg) of girls (AG) in eight different
classes – A to H of a particular school.
The school management decided to reduce the number of classes from eight to three by merging
the existing classes. The new classes were named as Mercury, Venus and Jupiter.
While merging the existing classes, no two students from class A were placed into two different
new classes. This holds true for students of all the other existing classes as well. Each new class
had students from at least two existing classes.
Additional Information Given:
I. In Mercury, the average weight of boys is more than 55 kgs and the average weight of girls is
more than 40 kgs.
II. In Venus, the total number of girls is not more than 55 and the average weight of girls is not
less than 50 kgs.
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
If the number of boys in Mercury is 15 fewer than girls, then the average weight of girls in
Mercury is
Options:
1. 55.72 kgs
2. 48 kgs
3. 52 kgs
4. Either 48 kg or 55.72 kg
Explanation:
Passage:
The following table provides information about the number of boys (B), number of girls (G),
average weight (in kg) of boys (AB) and average weight (in kg) of girls (AG) in eight different
classes – A to H of a particular school.
The school management decided to reduce the number of classes from eight to three by merging
the existing classes. The new classes were named as Mercury, Venus and Jupiter.
While merging the existing classes, no two students from class A were placed into two different
new classes. This holds true for students of all the other existing classes as well. Each new class
had students from at least two existing classes.
Additional Information Given:
I. In Mercury, the average weight of boys is more than 55 kgs and the average weight of girls is
more than 40 kgs.
II. In Venus, the total number of girls is not more than 55 and the average weight of girls is not
less than 50 kgs.
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow
Question:
If the number of boys in Jupiter is 15 less than the number of girls, then average weight of boys
in Jupiter is approximately.
Options:
1. 41.71 kg
2. 38.73 kg
3. 35.22 kgs
4. None of these
Explanation:
Passage:
Mr Kumar has 3 children - Aditya, Bill and Chanda. They are all working in different
professions, Aditya being an architect, Bill a banker and Chanda a computer engineer. The table
below shows income and savings details of the three while the pie-charts shows the detailed
percentage breakup of expenditure (where expenditure = income – savings)
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
Bill and Chanda each give their father 20% of their savings for the first 3 months. At the
beginning of the 4th month of the year, Mr. Kumar then invests the total amount so received for
the rest of the year at 24% per annum (Simple Interest). The total amount Mr. Kumar received at
the end of the year is Rs. [quizky-text]
Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard in the box provided .
Options:
1. 5310
2. Rs. 810
3. Rs 5, 310
4. Rs. 66, 960
Explanation:
The monthly savings of the two are: Bill - 4000 and Chanda - 3500. So 20% of Bill and
Chanda’s savings for three months = 20% of (4000+3500) x 3 = 4500. Investing this at 24% per
annum for 9 months gives 24/100 x 9/12 x 4500 = 810 giving a total of 4500 + 810 = 5310
Passage:
Mr Kumar has 3 children - Aditya, Bill and Chanda. They are all working in different
professions, Aditya being an architect, Bill a banker and Chanda a computer engineer. The table
below shows income and savings details of the three while the pie-charts shows the detailed
percentage breakup of expenditure (where expenditure = income – savings)
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
Aditya and Bill together decide to buy a house. The EMIs for the house work out to Rs 20000
per month for 15 years, which they pay from the amount they were previously spending on rent.
Since there is some amount left over, they together invest that in a smaller house. If the total
amount spent on the smaller house is half of that spent on the larger (ignoring interest and net
present value effects), in how many months will they finish paying for the smaller house?
(Assume that there is no change in their income, expenditure as well as percent breakup of
expenditure over 15 years and they together pay for EMIs for the second house from the amount
left over after paying EMIs for the first house).
Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard in the box provided below.
[quizky-text]months
Options:
1. 120
2. 15
3. 90
4. 10
Explanation:
The monthly rent of Aditya = 40% of (37250 – 2250) = 14000. Similarly that of Bill is 35% of
(64000 – 4000) = 21000. So the total amount available is 35000. 20000 out of this is being used
for the first house so every month 15000 can be used for the second house. The amount spent on
the first house is therefore 20000 x 12 x 15 = 3600000. The amount spent on the smaller house
must therefore be 1800000, and at 15000 per month it will take 1800000/15000 = 120 months.
Passage:
Mr Kumar has 3 children - Aditya, Bill and Chanda. They are all working in different
professions, Aditya being an architect, Bill a banker and Chanda a computer engineer. The table
below shows income and savings details of the three while the pie-charts shows the detailed
percentage breakup of expenditure (where expenditure = income – savings)
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
In the month of May, Chanda needs to spend a little more than usual on Equipment. So her
brothers each volunteer to donate 4% of their "miscellaneous" expenses to help her. What will
be the approximate percentage increase in her expenditure on equipment?
Options:
1. 6%
2. 10%
3. 14%
4. 17%
Explanation:
The miscellaneous expenses of Aditya are 20% of (37250 – 2250) = 7000. Those of Bill are 33%
of (64000 – 4000) = 19800. So they must be giving Chanda 4% of (7000 + 19800) = 268 x 4 =
1072. Currently, Chanda’s budget for equipment is 21% of (53500 – 3500) = 10500. So the
percentage increase will be (1072 / 10500) x 100 = 10.2%. Hence, [2].
Passage:
Mr Kumar has 3 children - Aditya, Bill and Chanda. They are all working in different
professions, Aditya being an architect, Bill a banker and Chanda a computer engineer. The table
below shows income and savings details of the three while the pie-charts shows the detailed
percentage breakup of expenditure (where expenditure = income – savings)
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow
Question:
Who has the highest monthly expenditure on Rent?
Options:
1. Aditya
2. Bill
3. Chanda
4. Cannot be determined
Explanation:
Passage:
Students of three different states – Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal appeared in the regional
olympiad. Each student took two tests – one on Math and another on Science. Given below are
three bar-graphs.
State wise distribution of students who have passed the test on Science and Math as a percentage
of total students who passed in Science and Maths tests respectively is shown in the following
graph.
State wise distribution of students who have scored more than 80% marks in each of the tests on
Math and Science as a percentage of total students who scored more than 80% in Maths and
Science tests respectively is shown in the following graph.
State wise distribution of students who have scored more than 95% marks in each of the tests on
Math and Science as a percentage of total students who scored more than 95% marks in Maths
and Science tests respectively is shown in the following graph.
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
The number of students from Bihar who have scored more than 95% marks in Math is at most
what percentage of the students who have passed the test in Math?
Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard in the box provided below.
[quizky-text]%
Options:
1. 3%
2. 5
3. 5%
4. 6%
Explanation:
Passage:
Students of three different states – Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal appeared in the regional
olympiad. Each student took two tests – one on Math and another on Science. Given below are
three bar-graphs.
State wise distribution of students who have passed the test on Science and Math as a percentage
of total students who passed in Science and Maths tests respectively is shown in the following
graph.
State wise distribution of students who have scored more than 80% marks in each of the tests on
Math and Science as a percentage of total students who scored more than 80% in Maths and
Science tests respectively is shown in the following graph.
State wise distribution of students who have scored more than 95% marks in each of the tests on
Math and Science as a percentage of total students who scored more than 95% marks in Maths
and Science tests respectively is shown in the following graph.
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
The ratio of the number of students from West Bengal who have scored more than 80% marks in
Science to those from Jharkhand who have scored more than 95% marks in Science is at least:
Options:
1. 2
2. 5/3
3. 7/3
4. 25/12
Explanation:
Passage:
Students of three different states – Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal appeared in the regional
olympiad. Each student took two tests – one on Math and another on Science. Given below are
three bar-graphs.
State wise distribution of students who have passed the test on Science and Math as a percentage
of total students who passed in Science and Maths tests respectively is shown in the following
graph.
State wise distribution of students who have scored more than 80% marks in each of the tests on
Math and Science as a percentage of total students who scored more than 80% in Maths and
Science tests respectively is shown in the following graph.
State wise distribution of students who have scored more than 95% marks in each of the tests on
Math and Science as a percentage of total students who scored more than 95% marks in Maths
and Science tests respectively is shown in the following graph.
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
If the total number of students who have passed the test on Science is 3000, then at most how
many students from Bihar scored more than 80% marks in Science?
Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard in the box provided below.
[quizky-text]
Options:
1. 360
2. 420
3. 480
4. 380
Explanation:
Passage:
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
If the number of international tourists visiting France as percentage of international tourists
visiting Europe fell from 27% in 2011 to 26% in 2012, how much was drop in number of
international tourists visiting France in 2012 over 2011?
Options:
1. 32 Lakhs
2. 17 Lakhs
3. 25 Lakhs
4. 10 Lakhs
Explanation:
Passage:
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
If number of international tourists visiting the US increased by 7% in 2012 over 2011 and the
amount earned by the US from visiting international tourists increased by 2% in 2012 over
2011, which of the following was closest to the average amount (in USD) per tourist earned by
the US from visiting international tourists in 2011?
Options:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Explanation:
Passage:
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
Number of international travellers from China and Germany visiting abroad stood at 20% and
8% respectively of the total number of international tourists in 2012. What was the difference in
the average amount spent by Chinese and German tourists on tourism abroad in 2012?
Options:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Explanation:
Passage:
Eight persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H decided to attend a pet show organized in their city.
Two persons have a dog each, two persons have a cat each, two persons have a parrot each and
two persons do not have any pet. Given below is some information about the persons, and who
reached when, to attend the pet show.
1. The person having a dog came just before the person having a parrot.
2. G, who does not have a dog reached just after B.
3. D has a dog and E has a parrot.
4. F came before H and met C when he reached the show.
5. E and B have the same type of pet.
6. The persons who reached first as well as the person who reached last have a parrot.
7. H, who has a cat, came just before the person having no pet.
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
Among the given persons, who was the fourth to reach the pet show?
Options:
1. C
2. F
3. H
4. Cannot be determined
Explanation:
Passage:
Eight persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H decided to attend a pet show organized in their city.
Two persons have a dog each, two persons have a cat each, two persons have a parrot each and
two persons do not have any pet. Given below is some information about the persons, and who
reached when, to attend the pet show.
1. The person having a dog came just before the person having a parrot.
2. G, who does not have a dog reached just after B.
3. D has a dog and E has a parrot.
4. F came before H and met C when he reached the show.
5. E and B have the same type of pet.
6. The persons who reached first as well as the person who reached last have a parrot.
7. H, who has a cat, came just before the person having no pet.
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
If no person came between the two persons having a cat, then how many persons came between
the two persons having a dog?
Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard in the box provided below.
[quizky-text]
Options:
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. either 3 or 4
Explanation:
Passage:
Eight persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H decided to attend a pet show organized in their city.
Two persons have a dog each, two persons have a cat each, two persons have a parrot each and
two persons do not have any pet. Given below is some information about the persons, and who
reached when, to attend the pet show.
1. The person having a dog came just before the person having a parrot.
2. G, who does not have a dog reached just after B.
3. D has a dog and E has a parrot.
4. F came before H and met C when he reached the show.
5. E and B have the same type of pet.
6. The persons who reached first as well as the person who reached last have a parrot.
7. H, who has a cat, came just before the person having no pet.
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
If F does not have a pet, then which of the given statements are definitely correct?
I. One person having a cat came just after a person having a parrot while the other person having
a cat came just after a person having no pet.
II. C came just after the person having a dog.
III. One of the persons having no pet came just after the person having a dog.
Options:
1. Only I and II
2. Only II and III
3. Only I and III
4. I, II and III
Explanation:
Passage:
Eight persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H decided to attend a pet show organized in their city.
Two persons have a dog each, two persons have a cat each, two persons have a parrot each and
two persons do not have any pet. Given below is some information about the persons, and who
reached when, to attend the pet show.
1. The person having a dog came just before the person having a parrot.
2. G, who does not have a dog reached just after B.
3. D has a dog and E has a parrot.
4. F came before H and met C when he reached the show.
5. E and B have the same type of pet.
6. The persons who reached first as well as the person who reached last have a parrot.
7. H, who has a cat, came just before the person having no pet.
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
When does A arrive at the pet Show?
Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard in the box provided below.
[quizky-text]th
Options:
1. 5th
2. 6
3. 7th
4. 8th
Explanation:
Passage:
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are a group of eight persons.
I. There are three couples and two singles in the group
II. P and S are of different genders but are not a couple
III. U and V are of the same gender and neither of them is single
IV. R and W are of different genders but are not a couple
V. T and U are of same gender
VI. Q is of the same gender as R.
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
Which of the following persons can be a single?
Options:
1. Q
2. R
3. S
4. None of the above
Explanation:
From (V) and (III): T, U and V are of the same gender
From (VI) and (IV): Q and R of the same gender and W is of opposite gender
From (II): P and S are of different genders
Since, there are three couples, there will be at least 3 males and at least 3 females
Case 1: T, U, V, W and S are of same gender and P, Q and R are of another gender
Case 2: T, U, V, W and P are of same gender and S, Q and R are of another gender
Of the given options Q and R cannot be single as then three couples could not be formed
Only S can be a single.
Hence, [3].
Passage:
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are a group of eight persons.
I. There are three couples and two singles in the group
II. P and S are of different genders but are not a couple
III. U and V are of the same gender and neither of them is single
IV. R and W are of different genders but are not a couple
V. T and U are of same gender
VI. Q is of the same gender as R.
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
If P and T are a couple, then which of the following must be true?
Options:
1. U and Q are a couple
2. W is a single
3. U and R are a couple
4. V and R are a couple
Explanation:
From (V) and (III): T, U and V are of the same gender
From (VI) and (IV): Q and R of the same gender and W is of opposite gender
From (II): P and S are of different genders
Since, there are three couples, there will be at least 3 males and at least 3 females
Case 1: T, U, V, W and S are of same gender and P, Q and R are of another gender
Case 2: T, U, V, W and P are of same gender and S, Q and R are of another gender
Given that P and T are a couple. Therefore, as in Case 1, W and S are single.
U, V form a couple with Q and R not necessarily in that order.
Therefore, only option (2) must be true
Hence, [2].
Passage:
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are a group of eight persons.
I. There are three couples and two singles in the group
II. P and S are of different genders but are not a couple
III. U and V are of the same gender and neither of them is single
IV. R and W are of different genders but are not a couple
V. T and U are of same gender
VI. Q is of the same gender as R.
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
If exactly two persons out of T, W and S are females, then which of the following pairs contains
two males and one female?
Options:
1. S, Q and P
2. U, P and Q
3. T, V and R
4. R, S and Q
Explanation:
From (V) and (III): T, U and V are of the same gender
From (VI) and (IV): Q and R of the same gender and W is of opposite gender
From (II): P and S are of different genders
Since, there are three couples, there will be at least 3 males and at least 3 females
Case 1: T, U, V, W and S are of same gender and P, Q and R are of another gender Q and R are of
another gender
Case 2: T, U, V, W and P are of same gender and S, Q and R are of another gender
Given that two persons out of T, W and S are females.
Case 2 is applicable and T, U, V, W and P are females and S, Q and R are males.
Only option (1) contains two males and one female
Hence, [1].
Passage:
Eight teams - Australia, England, India, New Zealand, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, West Indies and
Zimbabwe participated in a cricket tournament.
The teams were divided into two groups - Group A and Group B. In League Matches, each
team in a group played two matches against every other team in the group. After all the league
matches were over, the team were ranked in descending order of number of matches won. In case
of a tie, the team having better run-rate was ranked higher.
In semi finals, team ranked first in a group played against the team ranked second in the other
group. Final was played between the winners of the two semi-finals.
Further it is known that:
1. No team won all the League matches while exactly two teams lost all the league matches.
2. In Group A, two teams that qualified for the semi finals won equal number of matches,
which was higher than the number of matches won by other teams in the Group.
3. In Group B, all the teams won different number of matches. In Group B, the team ranked
first at the end of League matches did not lose to the team ranked second.
4. Out of India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka, two teams were in one Group while the third team
was in the other Group. Similarly out of England, New Zealand and Australia, two teams were in
one Group while the third team was in the other Group.
5. Australia, England, India and Pakistan qualified for semifinals.
6. Zimbabwe lost to New Zealand in both the League matches. On the other hand New
Zeland lost to Australia in both the League matches.
7. Sri Lanka lost to West Indies in both the League matches.
8. Toppers in both groups lost in the semifinals.
9. West Indies won at least one match against two other teams.
10. All the matches were played as per schedule and there was no tie in any of the League
matches.
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
If it is known that the final was played between Australia and England, What was the result of
the two League matches played between England and West Indies?
Options:
1. England won both matches
2. Third ranked team won both matches
3. Both England and West Indies won one match each
4. England and West Indies did not play against each other in the League matches stage
Explanation:
Each team played against other three teams in the Group two matches. Therefore each team played 6
matches. Total number of matches played in the Group was 12.
From statements (i) and (ii), we can say that in Group A, the teams that qualified for semifinals won 5
matches out of 6 they played. Therefore the third team in the Group won 2 matches. Thus in Group A, the
teams won 5, 5, 2 and 0 matches respectively. Thus out of the two League matches played between first
two teams, each team won one match.
From statements (i) and (iii), we can say that in Group B, the teams won 5, 4, 3 and 0 matches
respectively. The team ranked first lost to the team ranked third. Therefore the team ranked third won
three matches"”two against the team ranked fourth and one against the team ranked first.
From statement (vi), Zimbabwe, Australia and New Zealand are in the same Group. From statement (iv),
England has to be in the other Group.
From statement (vii), Sri Lanka and West Indies are in the same Group.
Therefore we have the following distribution of teams:
First Group: Zimbabwe, Australia, New Zealand, India/Pakistan
Second Group: England, Sri Lanka and West Indies, India/Pakistan
Australia, England, India and Pakistan qualified for semifinals. Therefore Zimbabwe, Sri Lanka, New
Zealand and West Indies were ranked 3rd or 4th in their respective Groups. Out of these, Sri Lanka and
Zimbabwe are ranked 4th and New Zealand and West Indies are ranked 3rd in their respective Groups.
From statement (ix), West Indies won at least one match against two teams. Thus West Indies has won 3
games and therefore it is in Group B.
Therefore we have distribution of the teams in Groups as follows
If it is known that the final was played between Australia and England, India and Pakistan are
ranked first in their respective Groups while Australia is ranked 2nd in Group A and England is
ranked 2nd in Group B. In Group B, the team ranked 3rd (West Indies) has won one match against
the team ranked 1st and two matches against the team ranked 4th. Therefore West Indies has lost
both the matches against the team ranked 2nd (England). Hence, [1].
Passage:
Eight teams - Australia, England, India, New Zealand, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, West Indies and
Zimbabwe participated in a cricket tournament.
The teams were divided into two groups - Group A and Group B. In League Matches, each
team in a group played two matches against every other team in the group. After all the league
matches were over, the team were ranked in descending order of number of matches won. In case
of a tie, the team having better run-rate was ranked higher.
In semi finals, team ranked first in a group played against the team ranked second in the other
group. Final was played between the winners of the two semi-finals.
Further it is known that:
1. No team won all the League matches while exactly two teams lost all the league matches.
2. In Group A, two teams that qualified for the semi finals won equal number of matches,
which was higher than the number of matches won by other teams in the Group.
3. In Group B, all the teams won different number of matches. In Group B, the team ranked
first at the end of League matches did not lose to the team ranked second.
4. Out of India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka, two teams were in one Group while the third team
was in the other Group. Similarly out of England, New Zealand and Australia, two teams were in
one Group while the third team was in the other Group.
5. Australia, England, India and Pakistan qualified for semifinals.
6. Zimbabwe lost to New Zealand in both the League matches. On the other hand New
Zeland lost to Australia in both the League matches.
7. Sri Lanka lost to West Indies in both the League matches.
8. Toppers in both groups lost in the semifinals.
9. West Indies won at least one match against two other teams.
10. All the matches were played as per schedule and there was no tie in any of the League
matches.
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
Which of the following pairs of teams were definitely in Group A?
Options:
1. India and Australia
2. Pakistan and Australia
3. Australia and Zimbabwe
4. Pakistan and New Zealand
Explanation:
Each team played against other three teams in the Group two matches. Therefore each team played 6
matches. Total number of matches played in the Group was 12.
From statements (i) and (ii), we can say that in Group A, the teams that qualified for semifinals won 5
matches out of 6 they played. Therefore the third team in the Group won 2 matches. Thus in Group A, the
teams won 5, 5, 2 and 0 matches respectively. Thus out of the two League matches played between first
two teams, each team won one match.
From statements (i) and (iii), we can say that in Group B, the teams won 5, 4, 3 and 0 matches
respectively. The team ranked first lost to the team ranked third. Therefore the team ranked third won
three matches - two against the team ranked fourth and one against the team ranked first.
From statement (vi), Zimbabwe, Australia and New Zealand are in the same Group. From statement (iv),
England has to be in the other Group.
From statement (vii), Sri Lanka and West Indies are in the same Group.
Therefore we have the following distribution of teams:
First Group: Zimbabwe, Australia, New Zealand, India/Pakistan
Second Group: England, Sri Lanka and West Indies, India/Pakistan
Australia, England, India and Pakistan qualified for semifinals. Therefore Zimbabwe, Sri Lanka, New
Zealand and West Indies were ranked 3rd or 4th in their respective Groups. Out of these, Sri Lanka and
Zimbabwe are ranked 4th and New Zealand and West Indies are ranked 3rd in their respective Groups.
From statement (ix), West Indies won at least one match against two teams. Thus West Indies has won 3
games and therefore it is in Group B.
Therefore we have distribution of the teams in Groups as follows
Australia and Zimbabwe are definitely in Group A. Hence, [3].
Passage:
Eight teams - Australia, England, India, New Zealand, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, West Indies and
Zimbabwe participated in a cricket tournament.
The teams were divided into two groups - Group A and Group B. In League Matches, each
team in a group played two matches against every other team in the group. After all the league
matches were over, the team were ranked in descending order of number of matches won. In case
of a tie, the team having better run-rate was ranked higher.
In semi finals, team ranked first in a group played against the team ranked second in the other
group. Final was played between the winners of the two semi-finals.
Further it is known that:
1. No team won all the League matches while exactly two teams lost all the league matches.
2. In Group A, two teams that qualified for the semi finals won equal number of matches,
which was higher than the number of matches won by other teams in the Group.
3. In Group B, all the teams won different number of matches. In Group B, the team ranked
first at the end of League matches did not lose to the team ranked second.
4. Out of India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka, two teams were in one Group while the third team
was in the other Group. Similarly out of England, New Zealand and Australia, two teams were in
one Group while the third team was in the other Group.
5. Australia, England, India and Pakistan qualified for semifinals.
6. Zimbabwe lost to New Zealand in both the League matches. On the other hand New
Zeland lost to Australia in both the League matches.
7. Sri Lanka lost to West Indies in both the League matches.
8. Toppers in both groups lost in the semifinals.
9. West Indies won at least one match against two other teams.
10. All the matches were played as per schedule and there was no tie in any of the League
matches.
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
Which of the following statements is definitely correct?
Options:
1. The team ranked second in Group B won five matches in the League matches stage
2. West Indies won three matches in the League Matches stage
Out of the two matches India played against Pakistan in the League matches stage, one was
3.
won by India while the other was won by Pakistan
Out of the two matches Pakistan played against England in the League matches stage,
4.
Pakistan won both the matches.
Explanation:
Each team played against other three teams in the Group two matches. Therefore each team played 6
matches. Total number of matches played in the Group was 12.
From statements (i) and (ii), we can say that in Group A, the teams that qualified for semifinals won 5
matches out of 6 they played. Therefore the third team in the Group won 2 matches. Thus in Group A, the
teams won 5, 5, 2 and 0 matches respectively. Thus out of the two League matches played between first
two teams, each team won one match.
From statements (i) and (iii), we can say that in Group B, the teams won 5, 4, 3 and 0 matches
respectively. The team ranked first lost to the team ranked third. Therefore the team ranked third won
three matches - two against the team ranked fourth and one against the team ranked first.
From statement (vi), Zimbabwe, Australia and New Zealand are in the same Group. From statement (iv),
England has to be in the other Group.
From statement (vii), Sri Lanka and West Indies are in the same Group.
Therefore we have the following distribution of teams:
First Group: Zimbabwe, Australia, New Zealand, India/Pakistan
Second Group: England, Sri Lanka and West Indies, India/Pakistan
Australia, England, India and Pakistan qualified for semifinals. Therefore Zimbabwe, Sri Lanka, New
Zealand and West Indies were ranked 3rd or 4th in their respective Groups. Out of these, Sri Lanka and
Zimbabwe are ranked 4th and New Zealand and West Indies are ranked 3rd in their respective Groups.
From statement (ix), West Indies won at least one match against two teams. Thus West Indies has won 3
games and therefore it is in Group B.
Therefore we have distribution of the teams in Groups as follows
Hence, [2].
Passage:
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven cities in Vidarbha region of Maharashtra. Out of these cities,
city D is located at a distance of 100 km, 200 km and 300 km each from two other cities each.
Cities A,B,C,E and F are located at distances of 100 km from one other city, 200 km from two
other cities and 300 km from three other cities.
Further it is known that
1. Distance of C from D is 100km less than that from G.
2. F is at a distance of 300 km from A, C and D.
3. G is equidistant from C, D and E.
4. C is at a distance of 200 km from E and 300 km from A.
5. B is at a distance of 100 km from D and at a distance of 200 km from F.
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
For how many cities, its exact distance from each of the other cities can be exactly determined?
Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard in the box provided below.
[quizky-text]
Options:
1. 7
2. 6
3. 5
4. 4
Explanation:
Passage:
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven cities in Vidarbha region of Maharashtra. Out of these cities,
city D is located at a distance of 100 km, 200 km and 300 km each from two other cities each.
Cities A,B,C,E and F are located at distances of 100 km from one other city, 200 km from two
other cities and 300 km from three other cities.
Further it is known that
1. Distance of C from D is 100km less than that from G.
2. F is at a distance of 300 km from A, C and D.
3. G is equidistant from C, D and E.
4. C is at a distance of 200 km from E and 300 km from A.
5. B is at a distance of 100 km from D and at a distance of 200 km from F.
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
From how many cities, city G is located at a distance of 200 km?
Enter your response (as an integer) using the virtual keyboard in the box provided below.
[quizky-text]
Options:
1. 4
2. 2
3. 3
4. 1
Explanation:
Passage:
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven cities in Vidarbha region of Maharashtra. Out of these cities,
city D is located at a distance of 100 km, 200 km and 300 km each from two other cities each.
Cities A,B,C,E and F are located at distances of 100 km from one other city, 200 km from two
other cities and 300 km from three other cities.
Further it is known that
1. Distance of C from D is 100km less than that from G.
2. F is at a distance of 300 km from A, C and D.
3. G is equidistant from C, D and E.
4. C is at a distance of 200 km from E and 300 km from A.
5. B is at a distance of 100 km from D and at a distance of 200 km from F.
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Options:
1. Distance of E from F is less than the distance of E from C.
2. E and F are equidistant from G.
3. E is equidistant from A and B.
4. None of the above
Explanation:
Passage:
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven cities in Vidarbha region of Maharashtra. Out of these cities,
city D is located at a distance of 100 km, 200 km and 300 km each from two other cities each.
Cities A,B,C,E and F are located at distances of 100 km from one other city, 200 km from two
other cities and 300 km from three other cities.
Further it is known that
1. Distance of C from D is 100km less than that from G.
2. F is at a distance of 300 km from A, C and D.
3. G is equidistant from C, D and E.
4. C is at a distance of 200 km from E and 300 km from A.
5. B is at a distance of 100 km from D and at a distance of 200 km from F.
Direction:
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Question:
For how many pairs of cities is the distance between them equal to 300 km?
Options:
1. 8
2. 9
3. 10
4. 11
