20/04/2020 CODE-B

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 9
Topics covered :
Physics : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments, Wave Optics, Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation, Atoms
and Nuclei, Semiconductor Devices
Chemistry : Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids, Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen,
Biomolecules, Polymers, Chemistry in Everyday Life
Botany : Ecosystem, Biodiversity and Conservation, Environmental Issues
Zoology : Strategies for Enhancement of Food Production, Biotechnology: Principles and Processes,
Biotechnology and Its Applications

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. The given plot represents the I-V characteristics 2. The V-I characteristics of a silicon diode is as
shown in the figure. The ratio of resistance at
for a semiconductor device
ID = 15 mA to resistance at VD = –10 V is nearly

Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) It is I-V characteristics of solar cell
(2) It is I-V characteristics of photodiode (1) 106
connected in forward bias
(2) 10–6
(3) It is I-V characteristics of LED in forward bias
(4) It is I-V characteristics of photodiode (3) 10
connected in reverse bias (4) 0.1
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Test-9 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

3. Which of the following symbols, represents the 8. The truth table for the circuit shown in the figure
symbol of optoelectronic device? will be

(1) (2)

(3) (4) Both (1) and (3)

4. The input signal given to a CE amplifier having a

 π
voltage gain of 100
= is v i 4 sin  100πt +  . The A B Y A B Y
 4
corresponding output signal will be 0 0 0 0 0 0
(1) 0 1 0 (2) 0 1 1
 π
(1) 400 sin  100πt +  1 0 0 1 0 1
 4
1 1 1 1 1 1
 5π 
(2) 400 sin  100πt + 
 4  A B Y A B Y
 π 0 0 1 0 0 1
(3) 0.04 sin  100πt + 
 4 (3) 0 1 0 (4) 0 1 1
 3π  1 0 0 1 0 1
(4) 0.04 sin  100πt + 
 4  1 1 0 1 1 0
5. A 110 2 V ac supply is connected between 9. The common emitter amplifier is shown in the
points A and B as shown in the figure. The figure. The input voltage applied is 10 V and
potential difference across the capacitor will be VBE = 0 and VCE = 4 V. The value of current gain
β for the amplifier is

(1) 110 2 V (2) 110 V

(3) 220 V (4) Zero
6. A half wave rectifier is shown in the figure.
Choose the correct statement(s) (1) 100 (2) 150
(3) 200 (4) 50
10. An electron having mass (me) and charge (– e)
 
moving with an initial velocity v = v 0 j (v0 > 0)

enters in an electric field E = −E0 ˆj
(E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. The de-Broglie
(1) The output across diode will be zero all time
wavelength associated with electron at time t is
(2) Output across diode D will be like a half wave (wavelength at t = 0 is λ 0 )
rectifier with negative cycle in output
(1) λ0
(3) Output across resistance R will be like a half
wave rectifier with positive cycle in output (2) λ0t
(4) Both (2) and (3)
 eE0t 
7. Three photodiodes D1, D2 and D3 are made of (3) λ0  1 + 
semiconductors having band gaps of 2.43 eV,  m v
e 0 
1.8 eV and 2.52 eV, respectively. The light of
λ0
wavelength 6000 Å can be detected by diode(s) (4)
 eE0t 
(1) D1 (2) D2 1 + 
(3) D3 (4) D2 and D3 both  mev 0 

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-9 (Code-B)

11. When an electron is excited to excited energy

nth 19. The Q value of the decay
state in hydrogen atom, then the possible number A A
X →Z+1 Y + e-1 + ν (where M is mass of
of spectral lines emitted are Z
atom)
(1) n (2) 2n

(3)
n ( n − 1)
(4)
n ( n + 1) (1) M ( zA X ) − M ( Z +A1Y ) c 2
2 2
12. If the radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is
(2) M ( zA X ) − M ( Z +A1Y ) − 2me  c 2
5.29 × 10–11 m. The radius of the third orbit will be
(1) 21.16 × 10–11 m (2) 47.61 × 10–11 m
(3) M
 ( zA X ) − M ( Z +A1Y ) − me  c 2
(3) 15.87 × 10–11 m (4) 10.8 × 10–11 m (4) M ( zA X ) − M ( Z +A1Y ) + 2me  c 2
13. The energy of H-atom in its ground state is
–13.6 eV. The ionization energy of electron from 20. If 5.2 × 10–13 J energy is released per fusion
first excited state of H-atom is reaction, 1H2 + 1H2 → 2 He3 + 0n1 . The mass
(1) –3.4 eV (2) 3.4 eV of H2 consumed in a fusion reactor of power
1
(3) –13.6 eV (4) 13.6 eV 1 MW in one day is nearly
14. The ratio of angular speed to the tangential (1) 11.9 g (2) 2.7 g
speed of electron in nth orbit of hydrogen atom
is (3) 1.1 g (4) 4.1 g
(1) Directly proportional to n2 21. The 92
U238 nucleus, hypothetically undergoes
(2) Directly proportional to n4 successively 9α and 8β− decays. The resulting
(3) Inversely proportional to n2 nucleus will be
(4) Independent of n (1) Pb202 (2) Pb220
82 82
15. A deutron strikes O16 nucleus with the
8 (3) 94
Pu238 (4) 93
Np232
subsequent emission of an α particle. The atomic
number and mass number of element produced 22. An electron and a neutron have same
will be respectively momentum. The ratio of their respective
de-Broglie wavelength is
(1) 7, 16 (2) 7, 15
(3) 7, 14 (4) 8, 15 12.27 12.27
(1) (2)
0.286 0.202
16. The half life of a radioactive isotope X is 100
years. It decays to another element Y which is 1.227 1
(3) (4)
stable. The two elements X and Y were found to 1.101 1
be in the ratio 1 : 31 in a sample of a given rock.
23. The work function for metal X, Y and Z are
The age of rock was estimated to be
2.5 eV, 4.28 eV and 3.3 eV respectively. The
(1) 200 years (2) 400 years maximum kinetic energy of electrons emitted
(3) 1000 years (4) 500 years from the respective metal surfaces are in order, if
energy of incident photon Ephoton (> 5 eV) is
17. In a radioactive material the activity at time
1 1 same for all cases
t1 = is A1 and at later time t2 = , is A2
2λ λ (1) K X > KY > K Z (2) K X > K Z > KY
where λ is decay constant of the material. The
relation between A1 and A2 is (3) KY > K Z > K X (4) K=
X
K=
Y
KZ
24. Choose the incorrect statement for photocell
(1) A2 = A1e1/2 (2) A2 = A1e −1/2
(1) These are used for detection of traffic law
(3) A2 = A1e −3/2 (4) A2 = A1e3/2 defaulters
(2) To increase the photocurrent, a photocell is
18. The radius of a nuclide X is measured to be twice
filled with suitable inert gas
the radius of 94 Be . The number of nucleons in
(3) It is a device which converts electrical energy
nuclide X are into light energy.
(1) 18 (2) 36 (4) These helps in counting the person entering
(3) 72 (4) 54 an auditorium

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Test-9 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

25. The distance between the slits as shown in the 31. Consider a light beam incident to a glass slab
figure is d = 5λ, where λ is the wavelength of light from air at Brewster’s angle as shown in the
used. The angle θ, where central maximum is figure
obtained, will be

A polaroid P is placed in the path of the emergent

ray and rotated about an axis passing through
(1) 45° (2) 60° centre and perpendicular to the plane of the
(3) 30° (4) 53° polaroid :
26. When the angle of incidence is 53° on the surface (1) For a particular orientation, there shall be
of glass slab, it is found that the reflected ray is darkness as observed through the polaroid
completely polarised. The velocity of light in the (2) The intensity of light as seen through the
glass is polaroid shall go through a minima but not
(1) 2.25 × 108 m/s (2) 2 × 108 m/s zero for two orientation of the polaroid
(3) 1.5 × 108 m/s (4) 3 × 108 m/s (3) The intensity of the light as seen through the
27. Light of wavelength 600 nm is incident on a slit of polaroid shall be independent of the rotation
width 1 mm. The resulting diffraction pattern is (4) The intensity of the light as seen through the
observed on a screen at a distance D. If the polaroid shall go through a maxima for eight
fringe width of central maxima is equal to 2 mm, orientation of the polaroid
the D is equal to 32. Choose the correct option(s) regarding optical
3 instruments (symbols have their usual meaning)
(1) 1 m (2) m
2 (1) Resolving power of microscope is
2 5 proportional to refractive index of medium
(3) m (4) m between object and objective
3 3
(2) Resolving power is proportional to
28. In young’s double slit experiment, the fringe
wavelength λ of light used
width is found to be 0.6 mm. If the whole
apparatus is immersed in a liquid having (3) Resolving power is inversely proportional to
refractive index 1.5, without disturbing the wavelength λ of light used
geometrical arrangement, then the new fringe (4) Both (1) and (3)
width will be
33. A bulb is 1 m below the surface of a pond. If the
(1) 0.6 mm (2) 0.9 mm critical angle is 45°, then the maximum area of
(3) 0.4 mm (4) 0.3 mm surface of water from which light will come out?
29. The two sources with equal intensity I0, have a (1) 3.14 m2 (2) 6.28 m2
varying phase difference φ(t). If the waves from (3) 4.71 m2 (4) 1.57 m2
these sources interfere, then the resultant
maximum intensity will be given by 34. The angle of minimum deviation produced by a
prism having prism angle 60° is 46°.
(1) I0 (2) 4I0 The refractive index of the material of the prism is
3l 0 (1) 1.5 (2) 1.6
(3) (4) 2I0
2 (3) 1.43 (4) 1.2
30. For light diversing from a point source, choose 35. The focal length of the objective and eyepiece of
the correct option(s) an astronomical telescope are 50 cm and 5 cm
(1) Wave front is cylindrical respectively. The magnifying power of this
(2) Wave front is spherical telescope when image is formed at near point will
be
(3) Intensity increases in proportional to the
square of distance from point source (1) 14 (2) 14.4
(4) Both (2) and (3) (3) 10 (4) 12

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-9 (Code-B)

36. The ray diagram for rays before and after 41. For a normal eye, the distance between retina and
reflection from a mirror is as shown in the figure. 5
the cornea-eyelens is cm approximately.
3
If the cornea of eye provides a converging power
of 40 D and converging power of eye lens behind
the cornea is 21 D. To see the distant object the
power of lens required to the person is

(1) +1 D (2) –1 D
The nature of mirror is (3) +2 D (4) –2 D
(1) Diverging 42. Photoelectric effect supports quantum nature of
light because
(2) Converging (1) Photoelectric effect is an instantaneous
(3) Plane process
(4) Either plane or Diverging (2) There is a minimum frequency of light below
which no photoelectrons are emitted
37. Choose the correct statement(s)
(3) The maximum kinetic energy of
(1) Shining of air bubble in water is due to TIR photoelectrons depends on intensity
(2) Shining of diamond is increased if it is dipped (4) Both (1) and (2)
in a transparent oil 43. If the electron in H–atom jumps from second
(3) Blue colour has longer wavelength than red, Bohr’s orbit to ground state and difference
therefore blue colour scattered more strongly between energies of the two states is radiated in
the form of a photon. If the work function of the
(4) Both (1) and (3) material is 4.7 eV, then stopping potential is
38. A concave spherical surface of radius of (1) 6 V (2) 4.5 V
curvature 60 cm, separates two media of (3) 5 V (4) 5.5 V
refractive indices 1.2 and 1.5. An object is placed 44. Hydrogen atom from excited state comes to the
in first medium (µ = 1.2) at a distance 10 cm from ground state by emitting a photon of wavelength
the surface. The position of the image from pole λ. If R is Rydberg constant, the principal quantum
of surface is number n of the excited state is
(1) 12 cm λ
(1)
(2) 30 cm λR − 1
(3) 20 cm λR
(2)
(4) 24 cm λR − 1
39. Water drop in glass behaves as λR − 1
(3)
(1) Converging lens λR
(2) Diverging lens λR
(4)
(3) Rectangular glass slab R −1
(4) Plane mirror 45. The output (Y) of the logic circuit shown in the
figure will be.
40. If the focal length of a concave lens is 30 cm as
shown in the figure, then distance of image from
the lens is

(1) 20 cm (2) 15 cm (1) AB + AB (2) AB + AB

(3) 45 cm (4) 30 cm (3) AB + AB (4) A + B

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Test-9 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

CHEMISTRY
46. Consider the following compounds 50. The compound which will react fastest with
NaHSO3 is

(1) (2) CH3CHO

(3) PhCHO (4)

51. Correct order of basic strength of the given
amines in aqueous medium is
The correct acidity order is
(1) CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH
(1) (ii) > (i) > (iii) (2) (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(2) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N
(3) (ii) > (iii) > (i) (4) (i) > (iii) > (ii)
(3) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2 NH > CH3NH2
47. The compound which will not liberate CO2 on
reaction with aqueous NaHCO3 solution is (4) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2 NH > (CH3)3N
52. The pair of compounds which can be
distinguished by iodoform test is

(1) (2)
(1) CH3OH and
(2) CH3CO2CH3 and CH3CH2CH2OH
(3) CH3CHO and CH3CH2OH
(4) CH3CHO and PhCHO
(3) (4)
53. Consider the following reaction sequence

48. The compound which will not reduce Fehling’s

solution is
Major product C is
(1) D-Glucose
(2) D-Mannose
(3) (+) Lactose (1) (2)
(4) (+) Sucrose
49. Consider the following reaction sequence

(3) (4)
Product B is
54. The compound which is hydrolyzed fastest in
presence of alkali is
(1)

(1) (2)
(2)

(3)

(3) (4)
(4)

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-9 (Code-B)

55. Incorrect statement among the following is 62. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Glycogen is known as animal starch (1) Formalin is used to preserve biological
specimens
(2) Cellulose is composed of only β-D-glucose
units (2) Paracetamol contains one –CHO group
(3) Amylopectin is insoluble in water (3) Benzaldehyde is used in dye industries
(4) Vanillin contains one –OH group
(4) Amylose is branched chain polymer of α-D-
glucose units 63. Which compound on reaction with CH3MgBr
56. Number of chiral carbon atoms in followed by acidic work up gives tertiary alcohol?
α-D-(+)-glucopyranose is (1) Acetaldehyde (2) Acetone
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) Formaldehyde (4) Benzaldehyde
(3) 6 (4) 3 64. Which polymer is used in the manufacture of
paints and lacquers?
57. Which among the following is not an essential
amino acid ? (1) Bakelite (2) Glyptal
(3) PVC (4) Polystyrene
(1) Lysine (2) Tryptophan
65. Cimetidine is used as an
(3) Serine (4) Arginine
(1) Antacid (2) Antihistamine
58. Which among the following is a purine base?
(3) Analgesic (4) Antibiotic
(1) Adenine (2) Cytosine
66. Sweetest compound among the following is
(3) Thymine (4) Uracil
(1) Aspartame (2) Sucrose
59. Monomer of orlon is (3) Sucralose (4) Alitame
(1) Caprolactam (2) Acrylonitrile 67. Which among the following is an antiseptic?
(3) Vinyl chloride (4) Tetrafluoroethene (1) Furacine (2) Tetracycline
60. The reagent which converts benzoyl chloride to (3) Valium (4) Aspirin
benzaldehyde is 68. Pernicious anaemia is caused by the deficiency
(1) Zn-Hg/conc.HCl (2) H2/Pd-BaSO4 of which vitamin?
(3) SnCl2/HCl (4) LiAlH4 (1) Thiamine (2) Riboflavin
(3) Cyanocobalamine (4) Pyridoxine
61. In the given reaction sequence products P and Q
are 69. Condensation polymer(s) among the following
is/are
(1) Nylon 6, 6 (2) Polythene
(3) Dacron (4) Both (1) and (3)
70. Consider the following reaction sequence

(1) CH2Cl2 and

Major product B is
(2) CHCl3 and

(1) (2)

(3) CCl4 and

(3) (4)
(4) CH3Cl and

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Test-9 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

71. When benzamide is treated with Br2/NaOH then 74. Which among the following is not obtained by
the product obtained is Gabriel phthalimide synthesis?
(1) Benzylamine (2) Aniline
(3) Benzyl alcohol (4) Benzaldehyde
72. Consider the following reaction sequence (1) (2)

Product C is (3) (4)

75. The incorrect statement among the following is

(1) (1) Ethylmethylamine and Isopropylamine can be
chemically distinguished by Hinsberg’s
reagent
(2) Benzenediazonium chloride forms benzene
(2) on reaction with ethanol
(3) Arenediazonium salt is more stable than
alkyldiazonium salt
(4) Benzenediazonium chloride is water insoluble
(3) 76. Consider the following reaction sequence

(4)
Product (C) is

73. Major product of the given reaction is

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

(1)
77. Cross linked polymer among the following is/are
(1) Bakelite
(2) Melamine-formaldehyde polymer
(2) (3) PVC
(4) Both (1) and (2)
78. Major product (P) of the given reaction is
(i) Br /red P
CH3CH2CH2COOH 
2
→ P (Major)
(ii) H2O
(3) (1)

(2) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br
(3)
(4)

(4) CH3CH2CH2COBr

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-9 (Code-B)

79. Glucose does not react with which of the 85. Consider the following reactions
following reagents?
(1) Tollen’s reagent
(2) NH2OH
(3) NaHSO3
(4) Br2/Water Product B is

80. Incorrect statement among the following is

(1) Sugar component of DNA is β-D-2- (1) (2)
deoxyribose
(2) Adenine is absent in DNA
(3) In DNA molecule, adenine forms hydrogen
bond with thymine
(4) Nucleoside does not contain phosphate (3) (4)
group
81. Which among the following is/are biodegradable
polymer(s) 86. The given reaction is known as
(1) Nylon-2-nylon-6
(2) PHBV
(3) Buna-N (1) Etard reaction
(4) Both (1) and (2) (2) Gatterman -Koch reaction
82. Antifertility drug among the following is (3) Clemmensen reduction
(1) Novestrol (4) Rosenmund reduction
(2) Chloramphenicol 87. Which among the following is least soluble in
water?
(3) Salvarsan
(1) Acetone (2) Formaldehyde
(4) Phenelzine
(3) Acetaldehyde (4) Benzaldehyde
83. Nitrobenzene on reaction with zinc in presence of
88. Consider the following compounds
NaOH forms
(1) Azobenzene
(i) CH3CHO (ii)
(2) Hydrazobenzene
(3) Aniline
(4) Azoxybenzene (iii) (iv)
84. Consider the following reaction
The compound(s) which will not give aldol
condensation reaction is/are
(1) (i), (iii) and (iv) only (2) (iii) and (iv) only
Product P is
(3) (iv) only (4) (ii) and (iv) only
(1)
89. Acetonitrile on reaction with phenylmagnesium
bromide followed by acidic hydrolysis gives
(2) (1) Benzophenone (2) Acetophenone
(3) Benzoic acid (4) Benzaldehyde
(3) 90. Which among the following is a water-soluble
vitamin?
(4) (1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin E
(3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin D

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Test-9 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

BOTANY
91. Largest anthropogenic ecosystem is 100. During hydrarch succession, which of the given is
(1) Lake (2) Agroecosystem pioneer community?
(3) Grassland (4) Estuaries (1) Lichens
92. Autotrophic components of marine ecosystem (2) Phytoplanktons
includes (3) Reed-swamp
(1) Phytoplanktons (2) Zooplanktons (4) Shrubs
(3) Fungi (4) All bacteria 101. Select the incorrect feature w.r.t climax
93. The rate of organic matter build up by producers community
in excess of respiratory utilisation per unit time
(1) Biomass is high
and area is called
(2) Niche becomes more specialized
(1) Gross primary productivity
(2) Secondary productivity (3) Low humus content

(3) Net primary productivity (4) Utilize the resource efficiently

(4) Standing crop 102. Plants capture

94. Detritus is changed into fine particles by (1) 50% of incident solar radiation
earthworms in the process of (2) 60 % of photosynthetically active radiation
(1) Mineralisation (2) Leaching (3) 2 – 10% of PAR
(3) Fragmentation (4) Humification (4) 10 – 20% of incident solar radiation
95. Which of the following is not correct w.r.t. factors 103. Which of the given statements is not related to
affecting decomposition process? secondary succession?
(1) It is largely an oxygen requiring process (1) Soil is already formed in it
(2) Its rate is slower when detritus is rich in water
(2) Rate of succession is faster
soluble sugars
(3) Occurs at abandoned farm lands
(3) Warm and moist environment favour
decomposition (4) It takes very long time to reach climax
(4) Low temperature inhibits decomposition 104. Select the odd one w.r.t key industry organisms.
process (1) Grasshopper
96. Which of the following organisms can behave as
(2) Phytoplanktons
both primary consumer and secondary
consumer? (3) Zooplanktons
(1) Grass (2) Snake (4) Cow
(3) Sparrow (4) Hawk 105. India although has only 2.4 % of world’s land
97. Climax community in hydrarch succession under area and how much species diversity of the world
favourable conditions is it possess?

(1) Lichens (2) Forest (1) 8.1 %

(3) Reed-swamp (4) Shrubs (2) 21 %
98. Sedimentary nutrient cycle is (3) 22 %
(1) Nitrogen cycle (2) Carbon cycle (4) 62 %
(3) Sulphur cycle (4) Both (1) and (2) 106. Which of the given equation is correct w.r.t.
species-area relationship?
99. Most of the carbon is
(1) log C = log S + Z log A
(1) Found in atmosphere
(2) Dissolved in oceans (2) log S = log C + Z log A

(3) Immobilised in microbes (3) log Z = log C + S log A

(4) Found in dead organisms (4) log A = log Z + S log C

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-9 (Code-B)

107. Species-Area relationship was described by 116. Match the column I with column II.
(1) Paul Ehrlich Column I Column II
(2) Robert May
a. Quagga (i) Extinct species of
(3) Alexander von Humboldt
Russia
(4) Edward Wilson
108. All of the following are alien species for India b. Dodo (ii) Extinct species of
except Africa
(1) Parthenium c. Steller’s (iii) Extinct, species of
(2) Lantana Sea Cow Mauritius
(3) Eichhornia (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
(4) Rauwolfia vomitoria
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
109. Major causes of biodiversity or “The Evil Quartet”
117. Select the broadly utilitarian ecosystem services
includes all of the following, except
from the given options.
(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(1) Construction material
(2) Over-exploitation
(2) Industrial products
(3) Cryopreservation
(3) Aesthetic pleasure
(4) Alien species invasion
(4) Food
110. To conserve the biodiversity, on-site conservation
118. Which of the following was introduced by
strategies are used. It includes
Europeans in India and become major threat to
(1) Home gardens (2) Seed bank several aquatic plants and animals
(3) Cryopreservation (4) Biosphere reserve (1) Lantana (2) Carrot grass
111. Mark the incorrect match (3) Ficus religiosa (4) Eichhornia
(1) The amazon rain – Lung of the planet 119. Degree of biodiversity decreases from
forest
(1) Poles to equator
(2) Western Ghats of – Very low level of
India species richness. (2) Tropics to temperate areas
(3) Fruit eating birds – Frugivores (3) High latitude to low latitude
(4) Higher biodiversity – High productivity (4) High altitude to low altitude
112. The zone of biosphere reserve which is managed 120. Slope of regression (z) for frugivorous birds and
to accommodate greater research and mammal in the tropical forests of different
educational activities, is continents is
(1) Buffer zone (2) Transition zone (1) 0.6 (2) 0.1
(3) Core zone (4) Both (2) and (4) (3) 1.15 (4) 0.2
113. World summit on sustainable development held 121. Gamete preservation using the extreme low
in 2002, in temperature is done via
(1) Johannesburg (2) Rio de Janeiro (1) Seed bank (2) Field gene bank
(3) Sri Lanka (4) Colombia (3) Home garden (4) Cryopreservation
114. Find the incorrect match w.r.t sacred groves and 122. Loss of biodiversity in a region leads to
their locations. (1) High productivity
(1) Khasi and Jaintia Hills – Meghalaya (2) High resistance
(2) Aravalli hills – Rajasthan (3) Decline in plant production
(3) Western Ghats – Karnataka (4) Decreased variability of ecosystem
(4) Bastar – Maharashtra processes
115. According to the ‘Rivet popper hypothesis’ 123. Government of India passed the Environment Act
airplane represents the in
(1) Extinct species (2) Ecosystem (1) 1971 (2) 1986
(3) Alien species (4) Biodiversity (3) 1981 (4) 2002

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Test-9 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

124. Temperature of earth has increased by 130. Which of the following is responsible for snow
____during the last three decades blindness?
(1) 0.6°C (2) 2°C (1) UV-B rays
(3) 6°C (4) 0.3°C (2) Radioactive leakage
125. Thinning of egg shell in hawks is because of (3) Biomagnification
(1) Eutrophication (4) Eutrophication
(2) Acid rain 131. Scrubber can remove the pollutant such as
(3) Biomagnification (1) CO2 (2) SO2
(4) Reduced BOD of water (3) CaCO3 (4) CH4
126. Mark the correctly matched pair 132. Algal bloom in a lake
(1) Excessive – Pure water body (1) Increases O2 in water
growth of
planktonic algae (2) Kills the fishes in water
(3) Decreases the BOD of water
(2) Low BOD – Lake with low
organic matter (4) Increases both BOD and DO level in water
(3) PM with 2.5 – Least harmful for 133. EcoSan is a system responsible for
micrometer size human health (1) Handling the human excreta using dry
composting toilets
(4) D.D.T and aldrin – Major role in
eutrophication (2) Protection of Marsh lands
(3) Thermal pollution control
127. Find the odd one out w.r.t Greenhouse gases
(4) Air pollution control
(1) CO2 and CH4 (2) CH4 and CFCs
134. Montreal Protocol was signed for
(3) O3 and O2 (4) N2O and CFCs
(1) Decreasing the global warming
128. Ramesh Chandra Dagar, is famous for
(2) Controlling the ozone depletion
(1) Reforestation
(3) Disposal of radioactive waste
(2) Chipko movement
(4) Biosphere reserves declaration in world
(3) Remedy for plastic
135. Select the odd one w.r.t persons related with
(4) Integrated organic farming conservation of forest
129. Three mile island and Chernobyl incident are (1) Amrita Devi
related to
(2) Chandi Prasad Bhatt
(1) Radioactive leakage (2) Ozone depletion
(3) Ahmed Khan
(3) Air pollution (4) Soil erosion
(4) Sundar Lal Bahuguna

ZOOLOGY
136. Pullorum in poultry is caused by 138. Choose the odd one w.r.t type of ends produced
after restriction enzyme digestion.
(1) Bacillus anthracis
(1) Sma I
(2) Salmonella
(2) Hind III
(3) Agrobacterium
(3) Bam HI
(4) Pseudomonas
(4) Sal I
137. Which of the following enzymes is responsible for 139. DNA ligases are primarily responsible for the
restricting the growth of bacteriophage in formation of _____ bonds. Choose the option that
E. coli? fills the blank correctly.
(1) Exonuclease (1) Disulphide
(2) Alkaline phosphatase (2) Phosphodiester
(3) Restriction endonuclease (3) Hydrogen
(4) Polymerase (4) Glycosidic

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-9 (Code-B)

140. A cluster of unique restriction enzyme sites in 145. Gel electrophoresis causes separation of DNA
close proximity in a plasmid forms a region called fragments which can then be viewed by staining
(1) Origin of replication with A followed by exposure to B .
(2) Selectable marker Choose the option that fills A and B correctly.
(3) Multiple cloning sites
A B
(4) Chimeric DNA
141. Match column I and column II w.r.t. transgenic (1) Ethidium bromide X-rays
product and its use in treatment of disease. (2) Bromophenol UV rays
Column I Column II (3) Ethidium bromide UV rays
a. α −1 (i) Haemophilia (4) Bromophenol X-rays
antitrypsin
146. Pebrine of silk worm is caused by
b. Streptokinase (ii) Myocardial
(1) Virus (2) Bacteria
infarction
(3) Protozoans (4) Fungus
c. Factor VIII (iii) Emphysema
147. Bioprocess engineering involves
d. Erythropoeitin (iv) Anaemia (1) Alteration of chemistry of genetic material
Choose the correct option. (2) Formation of chimeric DNA in genetic
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) engineering process
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (3) Isolation of only desirable genes for RDT
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) Maintenance of sterile ambience in chemical
engineering process
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
148. Vectorless gene transfer can be carried out by
142. A precursor of vitamin A can be obtained from
using
(1) Flavr Savr tomato
(1) Polyethylene glycol (2) BAC
(2) Bt tomato
(3) YAC (4) Cosmid
(3) Golden rice
149. Commercially grown Bt cotton is resistant to
(4) Bt rice
(1) Nematode infestation
143. Read the following statements.
(2) Insects
(a) DNA is a hydrophilic molecule.
(3) Fungus infection
(b) Treatment with calcium chloride causes
precipitation of DNA on cell surface. (4) Viruses
(c) Biolistics are always used to deliver alien 150. Read the following statements.
DNA directly into the nucleus of animal cell. Statement A : Enzyme replacement therapy
(d) Electroporation increases nuclear membrane involves intravenous delivery of functional
permeability making DNA entry easy. enzyme to the patient.
Choose option with the incorrect statements Statement B : The above is an effective and
only. permanent cure for enzyme deficiency in all
(1) (a) and (b) patients.
(2) (b) and (c) Choose the correct options.
(3) (c) and (d) (1) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
(4) (a) and (d) (2) Statement B is correct but A is incorrect
144. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. Taq (3) Both statements are incorrect
polymerase used during PCR. (4) Both statements are correct
(1) It is a thermostable enzyme and can survive 151. Which of the following cannot be used as a
temperatures upto 195°C bioweapon in its native state?
(2) It is obtained from Thermus aquaticus (1) Bacillus anthracis
(3) Its addition eliminated the need to add fresh
(2) Clostridium botulinum
polymerase in every PCR cycle
(3) Escherichia coli
(4) It is used for primer extension to synthesise a
new DNA strand (4) Ebola virus

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Test-9 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

152. An organisation of Indian Government which take 157. In vitro amplification of nucleic acids can be
decisions regarding validity of GM research is carried out by
(1) EFB (2) GEAC (1) Northern blotting
(3) ICMR (4) CSIR (2) RAPD
153. Study the following diagram (3) HPLC
(4) PAGE
158. Plant mediated targeted silencing of genes in
plant parasitic nematodes which resulted in effect
resistance, was done using
(1) RNA
(2) DNA
(3) Proteins
(4) Polysaccharides
159. Maturation of proinsulin into insulin requires
(1) Removal of B peptide
(2) Addition of C peptide
In the above figures, the part labelled ‘A’ (3) Removal of C peptide
facilitates (4) Addition of A peptide
(1) Maintenance of optimum temperature 160. Choose the correct match w.r.t. genes and
(2) Foam control restriction sites present in them in pBR322
(3) Addition of fresh substrate (1) ampR – Pst I, Pvu II
(4) Oxygen availability throughout the reactor (2) tetR – Bam HI, Sal I
154. If recombinant and non recombinant pUC8 is to (3) rop – Pvu I
be differentiated using X-gal, which of the (4) ori – Hind III
following is/are true?
161. Agrobacterium tumefaciens inspite of being
(a) Recombinants appear blue and are resistant pathogenic to several dicot plants is used as a
to ampicillin. vector because
(b) Non recombinants appear white and are (a) It transforms normal cells into tumor cells.
sensitive to tetracycline.
(b) Its plasmid is disarmed and can deliver gene
(c) Recombinants appear white and are resistant
of interest.
to ampicillin.
(c) T-DNA of Ti plasmid is replaced by gene of
(d) Non recombinant transformants appear blue
interest.
and are sensitive to tetracycline.
(d) Gene of interest can integrate at random
Choose the correct option.
position in plant cell’s chromosome.
(1) (a) only
Choose the option with correct statements only.
(2) (c) only
(1) (a) and (b) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(4) (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only
155. The first recombinant DNA was synthesised
using the native plasmid of (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(1) Pneumococcus pneumonia 162. Laws against exploitation of bioresources are
being developed because of all the following
(2) Salmonella typhimurium
except
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(1) Misappropriation of indigenous people’s
(4) Escherichia coli knowledge and biological diversity
156. The first transgenic cow produced human protein (2) Unauthorised commercial use of
enriched milk which was nutritionally more bioresources
balanced for human babies because it contained
(3) Patenting of innovative biological entities
(1) α1 - antitrypsin (2) α - lactalbumin
(4) Inadequate compensation for traditional
(3) β - lactamase (4) Somatotrophin native resources and related information
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-9 (Code-B)

163. Gene gun which is used to deliver rDNA to plant 170. A permanent cure for a patient suffering from
cells uses high velocity microparticles which are SCID could be
made up of (1) Gene therapy in early embryonic stages
(1) Gold or platinum (2) Immunotherapy after attaining puberty
(2) Gold or tungsten
(3) Radiotherapy in fetal life
(3) Tungsten or palladium
(4) Surgical intervention during infancy
(4) Silver or gold
171. A retrovirus cannot
164. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. agarose
(1) Be used as vector to transfer genes in
gel electrophoresis
humans
(1) It is employed to check the progression of
(2) Contain RNA as genetic material
restriction enzyme digestion
(2) Longest DNA fragment is nearest to the (3) Transform cancerous cells into normal cells
anode (4) Be disarmed and is always pathogenic
(3) The matrix is obtained from sea weeds 172. Exonucleases remove nucleotides from
(4) DNA fragments separate due to sieving effect (1) Ends of DNA
provided by agarose gel (2) Within the DNA
165. DNA threads which have been precipitated by (3) Palindromic sequences
addition of chilled ethanol are removed by
(4) Specific recognition sequences
(1) Threading
173. During cloning or multiplication of any alien piece
(2) Splicing
of DNA in an organism, its replication is initiated
(3) Spooling at
(4) DNase (1) MCS
166. The toxin coded by gene cry I Ab controls (2) Ori
(1) Cotton bollworms (3) Selectable marker
(2) Fungus (4) Antibiotic resistance gene
(3) Viruses 174. Green revolution made use of all the following
(4) Corn borer except.
167. Bt toxin protein crystals formed in the bacteria are (1) Agriculture using high yielding varieties
activated in insects because of (2) Genetically engineered crop-based
(1) Acidic pH of gut agriculture
(2) Alkaline pH of gut (3) Agrochemical based agriculture
(3) Optimum electrolyte conditions (4) Herbicide and pesticide resistant farming
(4) Enzymatic action of digestive juices 175. In a continuous culture system,
168. Transgenic animals can be used for all the (1) Fresh medium is not added
following purposes except (2) Cells remain in physiologically active state for
(1) Vaccine safety testing a brief duration
(2) Study of genetic diseases (3) Larger biomass is produced as compared to
(3) Obtaining biological products other culture systems
(4) Production of restriction endonucleases (4) Used medium is recycled to obtain maximum
yield
169. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. ELISA
176. Downstream processing takes place
(1) It is based on principle of antigen antibody
interaction (1) During biosynthetic stage
(2) It can be used for diagnosis of pregnancy (2) So that the product can be marketed
(3) It can detect the presence of antigens as well (3) To facilitate increased production of desired
as antibodies synthesised against pathogen protein
(4) It primarily makes use of enzymes, DNA and (4) To ensure sterile conditions during
RNA polymerases manufacturing of desired product

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Test-9 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

177. Genetically modified plants are 179. The first clinical gene therapy was given in the
(1) Sensitive to abiotic stresses year
(2) Low yield providing (1) 1990
(3) Of low nutritional value (2) 1991
(4) Less reliant on chemical pesticides (3) 1992
178. The consequence of RNAi in tobacco plant is that (4) 1993
(1) Tumour does not occurs in plant 180. Hisardale is the result of
(2) The nematode can not survive in transgenic (1) Cross breeding
plants
(2) Inbreeding
(3) Parasite causes killing of host cells by
secreting toxins (3) Outcrossing
(4) The tobacco plant became insect resistant (4) Interspecific hybridisation

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