Audit Planning, Understanding the Client, Assessing Risks, and Responding

Answer Key
True / False Questions

1. Audit committees should be made up of the most qualified directors regardless of whether
they are part of management of the company.
FALSE

2. Analytical procedures are seldom used for planning an audit engagement because they are
substantive procedures.
FALSE

3. Preliminary arrangements with clients should be set forth in the management letter.
FALSE

4. An audit plan includes a detailed listing of the audit procedures to be performed in the
verification of items in the financial statements.
FALSE

5. The auditors' tests of controls are designed to substantiate the fairness of specific financial
statement accounts.
FALSE

6. At least a portion of the auditors' consideration of internal control usually is performed at

an interim date rather than at the balance sheet date.
TRUE

7. The substantive approach to an audit is appropriate for many small businesses.

TRUE

8. Confirming a bank account establishes existence but not rights to the cash balance.
FALSE

9. The completeness of recording of assets is generally verified by tracing from the source
documents to the recorded entry.
TRUE
10. Vouching the acquisition of assets is an audit procedure that is often performed to
establish the valuation of the assets.
TRUE

Multiple Choice Questions

11. Which of the following factors most likely would cause a CPA to not accept a new audit
engagement?
A. The prospective client has fired its prior auditor.
B. The CPA lacks a thorough understanding of the prospective client's operations and
industry.
C. The CPA is unable to review the predecessor auditor's working papers.
D. The prospective client is unwilling to make financial records available to the CPA.

12. Which of the following factors most likely would heighten an auditor's concern about the
risk of fraudulent financial reporting?
A. Large amounts of liquid assets that are easily convertible into cash.
B. Low growth and profitability as compared to other entity's in the same industry.
C. Financial management's participation in the initial selection of accounting principles.
D. An overly complex organizational structure involving unusual lines of authority.

13. Which of the following factors would most likely cause a CPA to decide not to accept a
new audit engagement?
A. Lack of understanding of the potential client's internal auditors' computer-assisted audit
techniques.
B. Management's disregard for internal control.
C. The existence of related party transactions.
D. Management's attempt to meet earnings per share growth rate goals.

14. Which of the following matters is generally included in an auditor's engagement letter?
A. Limitations of the engagement.
B. Factors to be considered in establishing preliminary judgments about materiality.
C. Management's liability for illegal acts committed by its employees.
D. The auditor's responsibility to obtain negative assurance relating to the occurrence of
illegal acts.
15. Which of the following would heighten an auditor's concern about the risk of fraudulent
financial reporting?
A. Inability to generate positive cash flows from operations, while reporting large increases in
earnings.
B. Management's lack of interest in increasing the dividend paid on common stock.
C. Large amounts of liquid assets that are easily convertible into cash.
D. Inability to borrow necessary capital without obtaining waivers on debt covenants.

16. To best test existence, an auditor would sample from the:

A. General Ledger to source documents.
B. General Ledger to the financial statements.
C. Source documents to the general ledger.
D. Source documents to journals.

17. The auditors' understanding established with a client should be established through a(an)
A. Oral communication with the client.
B. Written communication with the client.
C. Written or oral communication with the client.
D. Completely detailed audit plan.

18. Which of the following would be least likely to be considered an audit planning
procedure?
A. Use an engagement letter.
B. Develop the overall audit strategy
C. Perform the risk assessment.
D. Develop the audit plan.

19. While assessing the risks of material misstatement auditors identify risks, relate risk to
what could go wrong, consider the magnitude of risks and
A. Assess the risk of misstatements due to illegal acts.
B. Consider the complexity of the transactions involved.
C. Consider the likelihood that the risks could result in material misstatements.
D. Determine materiality levels.

20. Which of the following is correct concerning requirements about auditor communications
about fraud?
A. Fraud that involves senior management should be reported directly to the audit committee
regardless of the amount involved.
B. All fraud with a material effect on the financial statements should be reported directly by
the auditor to the Securities and Exchange Commission.
C. Fraud with a material effect on the financial statements should ordinarily be disclosed by
the auditor through use of an "emphasis of a matter" paragraph added to the audit report.
D. The auditor has no responsibility to disclose fraud outside the entity under any
circumstances.
21. A predecessor auditor is required to attempt to initiate communication with the successor
auditor:

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

22. Which measure of materiality (or both) considers quantitative

considerations?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

23. Which of the following factors most likely would lead a CPA to conclude that a potential
audit engagement should not be accepted?
A. There are significant related party transactions that management claims occurred in the
ordinary course of business.
B. Internal control activities requiring the segregation of duties are subject to management
override.
C. Management continues to employ an inefficient system of information technology to
record financial transactions.
D. It is unlikely that sufficient evidence is available to support an opinion on the financial
statements.

24. In using the information on the statement of cash flows while obtaining an understanding
of a profitable, growing company, which of the following would ordinarily be least surprising
to an auditor?
A. Decreases in accounts payable.
B. Decreases in accounts receivable.
C. Negative cash flows from investing.
D. Negative operating cash flows.
25. Audits of financial statements are designed to obtain reasonable assurance of detecting
material misstatements due to:

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

26. Which of the following is not one of the assertions made by management about an
account balance?
A. Relevance.
B. Existence.
C. Valuation.
D. Rights and obligations.

27. When a company has changed auditors, according to the Professional Standards:
A. The successor auditor has the responsibility to initiate contact with the predecessor auditor
to ask about the client before the engagement is accepted; the predecessor has no
responsibility to initiate this contact, even when aware of matters bearing on the integrity of
management.
B. The predecessor must respond fully to all inquiries made by the successor auditor.
C. The successor must discuss with the predecessor matters bearing on the engagement prior
to accepting the engagement.
D. The successor may choose not to attempt any communication with the predecessor auditor.

28. Which of the following procedures is not performed as a part of planning an audit
engagement?
A. Reviewing the working papers of the prior year.
B. Performing analytical procedures.
C. Confirmation of all major accounts.
D. Designing an audit program.
29. The risk of a material misstatement occurring in an account, assuming an absence of
internal control, is referred to as:
A. Account risk.
B. Control risk.
C. Detection risk.
D. Inherent risk.

30. Which of the following is least likely to be considered a financial statement audit risk
factor?
A. Management operating and financing decisions are dominated by top management.
B. A new client with no prior audit history.
C. Rate of change in the entity's industry is rapid.
D. Profitability of the entity relative to its industry is inconsistent.

31. Which of the following is an example of fraudulent financial reporting?

A. Company management falsifies inventory count tags thereby overstating ending inventory
and understating cost of goods sold.
B. An employee diverts customer payments to his personal use, concealing his actions by
debiting an expense account, thus overstating expenses.
C. An employee steals inventor and the "shrinkage" is recorded in cost of goods sold.
D. An employee "borrows" tools from the company and neglects to return them; the cost is
reported as a miscellaneous operating expense.

32. Which of the following is most likely to be considered a risk factor relating to fraudulent
financial reporting?
A. Low turnover of senior management.
B. Extreme degree of competition within the industry.
C. Capital structure including various operating subsidiaries.
D. Sales goals in excess of any of the preceding three years.

33. Which of the following conditions identified during the audit increases the risk of
employee fraud?
A. Large amounts of cash in the bank.
B. Existence of a mandatory vacation policy for employees performing key functions.
C. Inventory items of small size, but high value.
D. Presence of reconciling items on a client prepared year-end proof of cash.
34. Which of the following statements is accurate about "fraud risk factors" considered when
conducting an audit?
A. Factors whose presence indicates that fraud exists.
B. Factors whose presence often have been observed in circumstances where frauds have
occurred.
C. Factors whose presence will require modification to planned audit procedures.
D. Factors obtained during the audit which lead to required communications with the audit
committee.

35. Which of the following is not an example of a likely adjustment in the auditors' overall
audit approach when significant risk is found to exist?
A. Apply increased professional skepticism about material transactions.
B. Increase the assessed level of detection risk.
C. Assign personnel with particular skill to areas of high risk.
D. Obtain increased evidence about the appropriateness of management's selection of
accounting principles.

36. Which of the following is least likely to be required on an audit?

A. Evaluate the business rationale for significant, unusual transactions.
B. Make a legal determination of whether fraud has occurred.
C. Review accounting estimates for biases.
D. Test appropriateness of journal entries and adjustments.

37. Which of the following is (are) considered a further audit procedure(s) that may be
designed after assessing the risks of material
misstatement?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
38. Which of the following circumstances would an auditor most likely consider a risk factor
relating to misstatements arising from fraudulent financial reporting?
A. Several members of management have recently purchased additional shares of the entity's
stock.
B. Several members of the board of directors have recently sold shares of the entity's stock.
C. The entity distributes financial forecasts to financial analysts that predict conservative
operating results.
D. Management is interested in maintaining the entity's earnings trend by using aggressive
accounting practices.

39. A successor auditor is required to attempt communication with the predecessor auditor
prior to
A. Performing test of controls.
B. Testing beginning balances for the current year.
C. Making a proposal for the audit engagement.
D. Accepting the engagement.

40. If the business environment is experiencing a recession, the auditor most likely would
focus increased attention on which of the following accounts?
A. Purchase returns and allowances.
B. Allowance for doubtful accounts.
C. Common stock.
D. Noncontrolling interest of a subsidiary purchased during the year.

41. The risk that the auditors' procedures will lead them to conclude that a material
misstatement does not exist in an account balance when in fact such a misstatement does exist
is referred to as:
A. Account risk.
B. Control risk.
C. Detection risk.
D. Inherent risk.

42. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the auditor's determination of
materiality?
A. The planning level of materiality should normally be the larger of the amount considered
for the balance sheet versus the income statement.
B. The auditors' planning level of materiality may be disaggregated into smaller "tolerable
misstatements" for the various accounts.
C. Auditors may use various rules of thumb to arrive at an evaluation level of materiality, but
not for determining the planning level of materiality.
D. The amount used for the planning should equal that used for evaluation.
43. The auditors must consider materiality in planning an audit engagement. Materiality for
planning purposes is:
A. The auditors' preliminary estimate of the largest amount of misstatement that would be
material to any one of the client's financial statements.
B. The auditors' preliminary estimate of the smallest amount of misstatement that would be
material to any one of the client's financial statements.
C. The auditors' preliminary estimate of the amount of misstatement that would be material to
the client's balance sheet.
D. An amount that cannot be quantitatively stated since it depends on the nature of the item.

44. Which of the following topics is not normally included in an engagement letter?
A. The auditors' preliminary assessment of internal control.
B. The auditors' estimate of the fee for the engagement.
C. Limitations on the scope of the engagement.
D. A description of responsibility for the detection of fraud.

45. Which of the following is most likely to be an overall response to fraud risks identified in
an audit?
A. Only use certified public accountants on the engagement.
B. Place increased emphasis on the audit of objective transactions rather than subjective
transactions.
C. Supervise members of the audit team less closely and rely more upon judgment.
D. Use less predictable audit procedures.

46. Which of the following is not an assertion that is made in the financial statements by
management concerning each major account balance?
A. Completeness.
B. Rights and obligations.
C. Legality.
D. Valuation.

47. Tests for unrecorded assets typically involve tracing from:

A. Source documents to recorded journal entries.
B. Source documents to observations.
C. Recorded journal entries to documents.
D. Recorded journal entries to observations.
48. Tracing from source documents forward to ledgers is most likely to address which
assertion related to posted entries:
A. Completeness.
B. Existence.
C. Rights.
D. Valuation.

49. Determining that receivables are presented at net-realizable value is most directly related
to which management assertion?
A. Existence.
B. Rights.
C. Valuation.
D. Presentation and disclosure.

50. Which of the following is not a general objective for the audit of asset accounts?
A. Establishing existence of assets.
B. Establishing proper valuation of assets.
C. Establishing proper liabilities relating to assets.
D. Establishing the completeness of assets.

51. Which of the following is not used by auditors to establish the completeness of recorded
assets?
A. Assessing control risk.
B. Tracing from source documents to entries in the accounting records.
C. Performing analytical procedures.
D. Vouching transactions.

52. To test for unsupported entries in the journals, the direction of audit testing should be to
the:
A. Ledger entries.
B. Journal entries.
C. Original source documents.
D. Financial statements.

53. A form filed with the SEC when a company changes auditors is a:
A. Form 8-K.
B. Form 10-K.
C. Form S-1.
D. Form B-1.
54. Which of the following is least likely to render material a quantitatively small
misstatement material?
A. Affects the registrant's compliance with regulatory requirements.
B. Masks a change in earnings or other trends.
C. Arises from an item not capable of precise measurement.
D. The Transaction involves a related party.

55. A successor auditor has accepted an engagement that was previously performed by a
predecessor auditor and, prior to accepting the engagement, has communicated with the
predecessor. When the successor believes that the predecessor has performed satisfactory
previous audits, which of the following is correct?
A. A second communication is required and must include details of previous audits.
B. Ordinarily the successor auditors may be able to accept the opening balances of the current
year with a minimum of verification work.
C. Absent ongoing litigation, a predecessor must provide all working papers requested by the
predecessor.
D. The client should be informed of the need to perform a detailed audit of all opening
balances.

56. The first standard of field work recognizes that early appointment of the independent
auditors has many advantages to the auditors and the client. Which of the following
advantages is least likely to occur as a result of early appointment of the auditors?
A. The auditors will be able to plan the audit work so that it may be done expeditiously.
B. The auditors will be able to complete substantive procedures prior to year-end.
C. The auditors will be able to better plan for the observation of the physical inventories.
D. The auditors will be able to perform the examination more efficiently and will be finished
at an early date after the year-end.

57. Preliminary arrangements agreed to by the auditors and the client should be reduced to
writing by the auditors. The best place to set forth these arrangements is in:
A. A memorandum to be placed in the permanent section of the auditing working papers.
B. An engagement letter.
C. A client representation letter.
D. A confirmation letter attached to the constructive services letter.
58. The auditors are planning an audit engagement for a new client in a business that is
unfamiliar to the auditors. Which of the following would be the most useful source of
information for the auditors during the preliminary planning stage when they are trying to
obtain a general understanding of audit problems that might be encountered?
A. Client manuals of accounts and charts of accounts.
B. AICPA Industry Audit Guides.
C. Prior-year working papers of the predecessor auditors.
D. Latest annual and interim financial statements issued by the client.

59. The auditors will not ordinarily initiate discussion with the audit committee concerning
the:
A. Extent to which the work of internal auditors will influence the scope of the examination.
B. Extent to which change in the company's organization will influence the scope of the
examination.
C. Details of potential problems which the auditors believe might cause a qualified opinion.
D. Details of the procedures which the auditors intend to apply.

60. Which statement is correct relating to a potential successor auditor's responsibility for
communicating with the predecessor auditors in connection with a prospective new audit
client?
A. The successor auditors have no responsibility to contact the predecessor auditors.
B. The successor auditors should obtain permission from the prospective client to contact the
predecessor auditors.
C. The successor auditors should contact the predecessors regardless of whether the
prospective client authorizes contact.
D. The successor auditors need not contact the predecessors if the successors are aware of all
available relevant facts.

61. Which of the following situations would most likely require special audit planning by the
auditors?
A. Some items of factory and office equipment do not bear identification numbers.
B. Depreciation methods used on the client's tax return differ from those used on the books.
C. Assets costing less than $500 are expensed even though the expected life exceeds one year.
D. Inventory is comprised of precious stones.

62. When planning an audit, an auditor should:

A. Consider whether the extent of substantive procedures may be reduced based on the results
of the internal control questionnaire.
B. Make preliminary judgments about materiality levels for audit purposes.
C. Conclude whether changes in compliance with prescribed control procedures justifies
reliance on them.
D. Prepare a preliminary draft of the management representation letter.
63. An auditor who accepts an audit engagement and does not possess the industry expertise
of the business entity, should:
A. Engage financial experts familiar with the nature of the business entity.
B. Obtain a knowledge of matters that relate to the nature of the entity's business.
C. Refer a substantial portion of the audit to another CPA who will act as the principal
auditor.
D. First inform management that an unqualified opinion cannot be issued.

64. With respect to the auditor's planning of a year-end audit, which of the following
statements is always true?
A. An engagement should not be accepted after the fiscal year-end.
B. An inventory count must be observed at the balance sheet date.
C. The client's audit committee should not be told of any specific audit procedures which will
be performed.
D. It is an acceptable practice to carry out parts of the examination at interim dates.

65. Hawkins requested permission to communicate with the predecessor auditor and review
certain portions of the predecessor auditor's working papers. The prospective client's refusal
to permit this will bear directly on Hawkins' decision concerning the:
A. Adequacy of the preplanned audit program.
B. Ability to establish consistency in application of accounting principles between years.
C. Apparent scope limitation.
D. Integrity of management.

66. The auditor faces a risk that the audit will not detect material misstatements in the
financial statements. In regard to minimizing this risk, the auditor primarily relies on:
A. Substantive procedures.
B. Tests of controls.
C. Internal control.
D. Statistical analysis.

67. An abnormal fluctuation in gross profit that might suggest the need for extended audit
procedures for sales and inventories would most likely be identified in the planning phase of
the audit by the use of:
A. Tests of transactions and balances.
B. An assessment of internal control.
C. Specialized audit programs.
D. Analytical procedures.
68. Before accepting an audit engagement, a successor auditor should make specific inquiries
of the predecessor auditor regarding the predecessor's:
A. Awareness of the consistency in the application of generally accepted accounting
principles between accounting periods.
B. Evaluation of all matters of continuing accounting significance.
C. Opinion of any subsequent events occurring since the predecessor's audit report was
issued.
D. Understanding as to the reasons for the change of auditors.

69. Which of the following is least likely to be included in an auditor's inquiry of

management while obtaining information to identify the risks of material misstatement due to
fraud?
A. Are all financial reporting operations at one location?
B. Does it have knowledge of fraud or suspect fraud?
C. Does it have programs to mitigate fraud risks?
D. Has it reported to the audit committee the nature of the company's internal control?

70. An auditor selects a sample from the file of shipping documents to determine whether
invoices were prepared. This test is performed to satisfy the audit objective of:
A. Accuracy.
B. Completeness.
C. Control.
D. Existence.

71. Individuals who commit fraud are ordinarily able to rationalize the act and also have

an:
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

72. Which of the following is not a required source of information for the auditors' assessment
of fraud risk?
A. Discussion among audit team members.
B. Fraud risk factors.
C. Results of tests of controls.
D. Inquiry of management and others.
73. Auditors must assess fraud risk on every audit and respond to the risks that are identified.
Which of the following is not a procedure required to further address the fraud risk of
management override of internal control?
A. Reviewing accounting estimates for biases.
B. Examining physical controls over assets.
C. Evaluating the business rationale for significant unusual transactions.
D. Examining journal entries and other adjustments for evidence of fraud.