TECHNICIAN SKILLS / KNOWLEDGE TEST

FOR AGRICULTURAL AND CONSTRUCTION DEALERS

This test has been developed as a member service by the Mid-America Equipment Retailers
Association and The Ohio State University. Its purpose is to help members identify qualified
applicants for the position of service technician. It covers nine topics that are generally encountered in
servicing agricultural and construction equipment. Dealers are encouraged to use this test as only one
of many factors during the hiring process, and never as the deciding factor.

Contents
General Shop Knowledge, Tools, and Safety
Engine Basics
Engine Troubleshooting / Tune-up
Power Trains / Drivelines
Electrical Principles
Electrical Circuits and Schematics
Hydraulics
Diesel Engines
Air Conditioning Systems

Under our licensing agreement, MAERA members have the right to use the test without fee. Members may
use the test in its entirety, or separately, by section. Members may also select questions from various
sections to customize a smaller, less comprehensive test for their dealership, as long as the questions
themselves are not altered. Members may also make photocopies as needed in their dealership. In
whatever form the test is used, the copyright line must appear on the test.

Provided as a member service by:

Mid-America Equipment Retailers Association

9302 North Meridian Street, Suite 100
Indianapolis, IN 46260-1818
317.844.5259
800.243.5259
FAX: 317.843.1964

© The Ohio State University, 2005. This test was developed by The Ohio State University at the request of and with input from
the Ohio-Michigan Equipment Dealers Association and the Ohio Equipment Distributors Association.
 SERVICE TECHNICIAN SKILLS/KNOWLEDGE TEST
This test consists of multiple choice questions to help measure your level of knowledge. Circle the letter of your answer for each
question.
General Shop Knowledge, Tools, and Safety

1) The head of the bolt shown below indicates: 6) MSDS sheets:

A) the bolt is metric. A) are generally not required in an equipment shop.
B) the bolt is Grade 3. B) are required to be given to a customer when a machine is
C) the bolt was made in the US returned.
D) the bolt is Grade 5. C) are useful in troubleshooting electrical problems.
E) only 6-point sockets are to be used on this bolt. D) should be returned to the manufacturer when a new piece of
equipment is sold.
2) A fire involving flammable liquids such as diesel fuel: E) describe proper safety and handling techniques of various
A) should be put out with water. chemicals and fluids.
B) requires a Type A extinguisher.
C) requires a Type BC extinguisher. 7) Which answer best describes the advantage/purpose of a brass
hammer?
3) Used engine oil: A) The hammer is heavier and therefore more effective.
A) must be recycled, or disposed of as a hazardous material. B) Eye protection is not required for its use.
B) is a very effective dust suppressant for gravel driveways. C) The hammer face is softer and less likely to damage parts.
C) is generally disposed of through the sanitary sewer system. D) It is used for metal working and machine shop activities only.
D) should be filtered and reused in an engine. E) There is no advantage to using a brass hammer.
E) must be returned to the customer along with any used parts.
8) A metric bolt can be identified by the fact that:
4) The proper tool to correctly tighten bolts on a cylinder head A) it has a class number as opposed to grade marks on the head.
would be a: B) it says "metric" right on the bolt.
A) breaker bar and 6-point socket. C) only non-US manufacturers use metric fasteners.
B) pneumatic impact wrench. D) the heads always have 12 points as opposed to 6 points.
C) combination wrench. E) there is no "class" or "grade" marking on the head.
D) torque wrench.
E) ratchet and 12-point socket. 9) Which of the following applies to metal welding and cutting
operations?
5) A 0 - 1" micrometer is used to take a measurement on a wrist pin for A) One must be certified to weld.
wear. The micrometer appears as shown. The pin diameter is: B) Aluminum can be cut effectively with an Oxy-Acetylene torch.
A) 0.115" C) Cast iron is easier to weld than steel.
B) 1.115" D) Appropriate shaded eye protection is required.
C) 0.015" E) Welding does not create metal distortion, but brazing does.
D) 0.215"
E) 0.190" 10) The equipment shop term "Flat Rate" means:
A) that a customer is billed at a specified cost per hour, regardless
of how long a job requires.
B) that the manufacturer is reimbursing the dealer for warranty work
performed.
C) a discounted hourly shop rate for preferred customers.
D) that the customer’s equipment has to be repaired by a specific
time.
E) a specified, predetermined time that a particular job is supposed
to require to complete.

© The Ohio State University, 2005. This test was developed by The Ohio State University at the request of and with input of OMEDA and OEDA. Page 2
 SERVICE TECHNICIAN SKILLS/KNOWLEDGE TEST
This test consists of multiple choice questions to help measure your level of knowledge. Circle the letter of your answer for each
question.
Engine Basics

1) The proper order of strokes for a 4 stroke cycle engine is: 8) Measurements are taken to determine the extent of cylinder wear
A) Intake, Power, Compression, Exhaust on a used engine. The diagram below indicates the readings
B) Compression, Power, Intake, Exhaust obtained. The manufacturer has specified a maximum "out-of-
C) Intake, Exhaust, Compression, Power round" limit of 0.003" and a maximum taper of 0.002". The
D) Intake, Compression, Power, Exhaust conclusion that should be reached from the measurements and
E) Power, Exhaust, Compression, Intake the specifications is:

2) The statements below describe overhead valve engines. Four are

true. Which is false?
A) The engines are simpler because no camshaft is required.
B) The manifold is attached to the cylinder head as opposed to
the block.
C) Valves can be serviced by removing the cylinder head.
D) The cylinder head contains the valves.
E) The cylinder heads are heavier than "flat head" engines.

3) Which of the following list of engine oils is best suited for a wide
range of operating temperatures? A) both the out-of-round and taper measurements are within
A) SAE 20 specified limits.
B) SAE 20W B) both the out-of-round and taper measurements exceed
C) SAE 30 specified limits.
D) SAE 50 C) the out-of-round measurement is acceptable, but the taper is
E) SAE 10W-40 too great.
D) the taper measurement is acceptable, but the out-of-round is
4) Compression releases are sometimes used on engines to: too great.
A) provide easier starting. E) the piston ring end gap should be checked.
B) facilitate troubleshooting of compression problems.
C) provide a convenient place to install a compression tester. 9) Given the chart below, determine the proper torque value of a 1/2"
D) make the engine run more smoothly. fine thread Grade 8 bolt:
E) permit use of lower octane or cetane fuels. A) 76 ft. lbs.
B) 85 ft. lbs.
5) A fuel stabilizer/anti-gel compound is to be added to a diesel tank C) 120 in. lbs.
on a piece of equipment for winterization. The stabilizer product D) 120 ft. lbs.
indicates a desired treatment of 1 quart per 100 gallons of fuel. E) 106 ft. lbs.
There is an estimated 50 gallons of fuel in the tank at the time of
treatment. The proper amount of stabilizer compound to add is: Torque Chart (ft. lb.) Torque Chart (ft. lb.)
A) 1 cup Size Grade 5 Grade 8 Size Grade 5 Grade 8
B) 8 ounces
C) 16 ounces 1/4 - 20 8 12 9/16 - 12 109 153
D) 4 cups 1/4 - 28 10 14 9/16 - 18 122 172
E) 1/2 pint 5/16 - 18 17 25 5/8 - 11 150 212
5/16 - 24 19 27 5/8 - 18 170 240
6) Valve tappet clearances that are set too small: 3/8 - 16 31 44 3/4 - 10 266 376
A) may result in burned valves. 3/8 - 24 35 49 3/4 - 16 297 420
B) will make the engine run too hot. 7/16 - 14 50 70 7/8 - 9 430 606
C) will make a cold engine hard to start. 7/16 - 20 55 78 7/8 - 14 474 668
D) will cause excessive valve train noise. 1/2 - 13 76 106 1- 8 644 909
E) may result in excessive crankshaft wear. 1/2 - 20 85 120 1 - 12 705 995
7) A 4 stroke cycle diesel engine operates at 1800 rpm. The injector
in each cylinder delivers fuel to that cylinder times every second: 10) Excessive crankcase "blow by" is an indication of:
A) 15 A) leaking intake valves.
B) 30 B) leaking exhaust valves.
C) 60 C) improper oil in the engine.
D) 450 D) worn piston rings and cylinder.
E) 900 E) high octane fuel being used in the engine.

© The Ohio State University, 2005. This test was developed by The Ohio State University at the request of and with input of OMEDA and OEDA. Page 3
 SERVICE TECHNICIAN SKILLS/KNOWLEDGE TEST
This test consists of multiple choice questions to help measure your level of knowledge. Circle the letter of your answer for each
question.
Engine Troubleshooting/Tune-Up

1) A 4 stroke cycle diesel engine turns over but fails to start. Listed 6) An appropriate check or inspection to perform on an engine which
below are five items that could be checked. Select the answer runs hot is:
that best describes the appropriate sequence you would follow in A) injector opening pressure too high.
the five checks. This engine recently ran fine. B) coolant thermostat stuck open.
1) Compression C) fuel shut-off lever partially pulled out.
2) Fuel level D) clogged air filter.
3) Fuel filter E) clogged radiator fins.
4) Electrical wiring on the injection pump
5) Air filter 7) When draining used engine oil from a 4 stroke cycle engine, it is
best to:
A) 1, 2, 3, 4, then 5 A) drain the oil with the engine cold so that all the oil is in the
B) 3, 2, 1, 5, then 4 bottom of the crankcase.
C) 2, 4, 3, 5, then 1 B) drain the oil after running the engine so the oil holds
D) 5, 1, 4, 2, then 3 contaminants in suspension.
E) 5, 4, 3, 2, then 1 C) only drain part of the oil so the crankcase never goes
completely dry.
2) The valve tappet adjustments on an engine are set with the D) make sure the piston is on top dead center.
engine cold, but the specifications used to set the valve tappet E) drain the oil either hot or cold.
clearances were for a hot engine. Which of the following could
occur? 8) Electronic engine control systems:
A) The engine will not start. A) can not detect faults in engine components.
B) The engine may not develop full power. B) will control injection timing, but not the amount of fuel
C) Injector pump timing will be affected and the engine will smoke delivered.
excessively. C) can typically store fault codes to facilitate
D) The valves and seats may burn prematurely. diagnosis/troubleshooting.
E) Both B and D are possible. D) require reprogramming every time the engine is serviced.
E) are not useful on engines larger than 4 cylinders.
3) The diesel injection pump static timing on a non-electronically
controlled engine generally: 9) A faulty injector will:
A) is set at #1 cylinder Top Dead Center. A) cause the engine to miss on one cylinder.
B) is set several degrees After Top Dead Center. B) cause the engine to miss slightly on all cylinders.
C) is set several degrees Before Top Dead Center. C) prevent the injection pump from delivering any fuel to all
D) can be set anywhere within the adjustment range of the pump. cylinders.
E) varies by engine manufacturer. Consult the technical manual. D) cause an increase in fuel consumption.
E) both B and D.
4) A clogged air filter will cause the:
A) air-fuel mixture to be too lean. 10) When being cranked over to start, a diesel engine briefly speeds
B) air-fuel mixture to be too rich. up, then returns to normal cranking speed. This happens several
C) engine to run too fast. times before the engine starts. The most likely cause is:
D) connecting rod to fail. A) The starter motor drive teeth or the flywheel ring gear teeth
E) both B and C are correct. are worn out.
B) One cylinder is firing early.
5) Diesel fuel left in an engine that has not run for an extended C) The injection pump timing is incorrect.
period of time: D) The glow plug in one cylinder is burned out.
A) is not a problem. E) Compression is low on one cylinder.
B) should be diluted with fresh fuel before starting.
C) will not burn.
D) may have water in it due to condensation.
E) will burn fine but cause the engine to smoke excessively.

© The Ohio State University, 2005. This test was developed by The Ohio State University at the request of and with input of OMEDA and OEDA. Page 4
 SERVICE TECHNICIAN SKILLS/KNOWLEDGE TEST
This test consists of multiple choice questions to help measure your level of knowledge. Circle the letter of your answer for each
question.

Power Trains/Drivelines

Use the diagram below for Questions 1 and 2. 6) Which of the following is used for changing the direction of rotation
of shafts in a gear type transmission?
A) Idler gear and shaft.
B) Piston pump and flywheel.
C) Chain and sprocket.
D) Tooth belt
E) None of the above.

7) Generally, the larger the pitch of a roller chain:

A) the longer the links are.
B) the higher the allowable load on the chain.
C) the less the chain needs to be lubricated.
D) the faster the chain can run.
1) What is the shaft speed (rpm) of the driven gear? E) both A and B.
A) 500 rpm
B) 1000 rpm 8) For the illustration shown below, what is the speed change
C) 2000 rpm between driven (output) and driving (input) pulley?
D) 4000 rpm
E) None of the above

2) What is the shaft speed (rpm) of the idler gear?

A) 500 rpm
B) 1000 rpm
C) 2000 rpm
D) 4000 rpm
E) None of the above

3) Once removed from an axle housing, a radial lip oil seal between A) Not enough information given to answer the question.
the axle housing and the drive axle should be: B) Input turns 4 times faster.
A) inspected for garter spring retention prior to reassembly. C) Input turns 5 times faster.
B) lightly coated with oil prior to reassembly. D) Output turns 4 times faster.
C) installed with a sealing compound. E) Output turns 5 times faster.
D) replaced.
E) A, B, and C. 9) Over-tightening a v-belt drive will:
A) increase belt life.
4) Which of the following is the proper name for a toothed belt drive B) reduce belt life.
system? C) increase pulley life.
A) Serpentine D) make the driven attachment operate at a higher speed.
B) Power Band E) have no effect on the belt or bearing life.
C) Variable Pitch
D) Synchronous 10) A planetary gear reduction set uses three different named gears;
E) Timing sun, planet, and ring. Which answer best describes a planetary
gear set?
5) The number of teeth on the bevel gears in a differential: A) Ring in the center, surrounded by planets, with the sun on the
A) determines the speed reduction of the differential. outside.
B) has no effect on differential speed reduction. B) Sun in the center, surrounded by rings, with the planets on the
C) must be the same as the number of teeth on the end of the outside.
axle shaft. C) Planets in the center, surrounded by rings, with the sun on the
D) limits the differential input speed. outside.
E) limits the differential output speed. D) Ring in the center, surrounded by the sun, with the planets on
the outside.
E) Sun in the center, surrounded by planets, with the ring on the
outside.

© The Ohio State University, 2005. This test was developed by The Ohio State University at the request of and with input of OMEDA and OEDA. Page 5
 SERVICE TECHNICIAN SKILLS/KNOWLEDGE TEST
This test consists of multiple choice questions to help measure your level of knowledge. Circle the letter of your answer for each
question.

Electrical Principles

1) An ammeter is used to test a charging circuit. It should be 7) When current flows in both directions in a conductor, this is called:
connected: A) direct current.
A) in series in the wire from the charging system. B) alternating current.
B) in series in the battery ground wire. C) either direct or alternating current.
C) in parallel with the key switch. D) an open circuit.
D) in parallel with the wire from the charging system. E) a short circuit.
E) between both battery terminals.
8) Diodes are used as:
2) A continuity test is done to check for: A) an electrical fuse.
A) voltage. B) an electrical stop for current flow in both directions.
B) a defective battery. C) an electrical stop for current flow in one direction.
C) current flow in a wire. D) relays for controlling large current loads.
D) an open circuit. E) resistors.
E) condition of the starter.
9) The resistance of a switch increases due to corrosion of the
3) A lighting circuit has two headlights wired in parallel. The rating of contacts. If voltage remains constant, the current flow through the
the fuse used to protect the circuit is unknown. The headlights switch will:
each have a resistance of 2 ohms. The unit has a 12 volt battery. A) decrease.
The correct fuse would be: B) increase.
A) 1 amp C) remain the same.
B) 2 amps D) stop completely.
C) 3 amps E) create a short circuit.
D) 6 amps
E) 12 amps 10) A key switch from a 12 volt system is being tested with an
ohmmeter. The switch is checked in the "off" position, then in the
4) If the lighting circuit, the instrument panel, and the cab air "on" position. If the switch is good, the appropriate resistance
circulation fan fail to operate when the key switch is turned on readings for these two tests would be:
prior to starting the unit, and the battery has adequate voltage, A) 12 ohms off, 0 ohms on.
the proper part of the circuit to check first would be: B) 0 ohms off, 12 ohms on.
A) the starter solenoid. C) 0 ohms off, 0 ohms on.
B) a fuse in the wire from the battery to the key switch. D) infinite ohms off, infinite ohms on.
C) the alternator. E) infinite ohms off, 0 ohms on.
D) the light switch.
E) the cab fan control switch.

5) A voltmeter is connected:
A) in series with the circuit.
B) in parallel with the circuit.
C) from the battery ground terminal to a ground on the machine.
D) from the hot battery terminal to the charging circuit.
E) only in the ignition system circuit.

6) Which device is used to indicate the rate of charge to a battery?

A) Voltmeter
B) Continuity tester.
C) Ohmmeter.
D) Ammeter.
E) Hydrometer.

© The Ohio State University, 2005. This test was developed by The Ohio State University at the request of and with input of OMEDA and OEDA. Page 6
 SERVICE TECHNICIAN SKILLS/KNOWLEDGE TEST
This test consists of multiple choice questions to help measure your level of knowledge. Circle the letter of your answer for each
question.

Electrical Circuits and Schematics

Use Diagram E-1 to answer questions 1, 2, and 3. 6) A battery voltage of 12.9 volts is read between point A and
ground. But no electrical functions on the machine are working.
1) The charging system is to be checked with a volt-ohm meter for The problem is:
proper operation. The battery voltage is 13.6 volts when the A) The starter solenoid is defective.
engine is shut off. Voltage at terminal "B" is 14.2 volts when the B) The Accessory relay is not working properly.
engine is running at mid-speed. Which of the following would be C) The Accessory fuse is blown.
an accurate conclusion regarding the charging system? D) The key switch fuse is blown.
A) The alternator is OK, but the regulator is defective. E) Not enough information to determine the cause.
B) The alternator and regulator are both OK, but the battery
needs to be replaced. 7) Test points L, M, and N all show battery voltage when the key
C) These readings are normal. Everything is OK. switch is turned on. The starter spins the engine when the switch
D) The regulator is overcharging the battery. is moved to "Start". But the engine will not fire and run. Which is
E) No conclusions can be drawn from this information. a possible cause?
A) The machine is in gear or the neutral switch is defective.
2) This system regulates the alternator output (charging) voltage by: B) The Accessory fuse is blown.
A) controlling the voltage supplied to the stator coil. C) The key switch is defective.
B) controlling the voltage supplied to the rotor coil. D) The fuel pump solenoid is defective or has faulty wiring.
C) controlling the diode bank. E) Either C or D.
D) sending excess alternator output current directly to ground.
E) grounding the center (N) wire of the stator coil. Use Diagram E-3 to answer questions 8, 9, and 10.

3) The charging system seems to be operating properly. However, 8) Which of the following will cause the buzzer to sound?
the machine battery slowly discharges when the machine is idle. A) Low fuel level.
Eventually, the battery drains completely. Which of the following B) Overheated engine.
could cause this problem? C) Loss of engine oil pressure.
A) The rotor coil is short circuited to ground. D) Hydraulic filter plug.
B) The stator coil is short circuited to ground. E) All of the above.
C) The regulator is discharging through the charging lamp circuit.
D) The alternator bearings are worn. 9) Which of the following will not work with the key in the "Off"
E) The diode bank is defective. position?
A) Radio
Use Diagram E-2 to answer questions 4, 5, 6, and 7. B) Horn
C) Power aux. socket
4) Battery voltage of 12.9 volts is read with a volt ohm-meter D) Dome light
between checkpoint A and ground. There is no voltage at
checkpoint L. Which of the following is responsible for this 10) The Two Speed function does not work. Which of the following is
situation? not a possible cause?
A) The instrument fuse is blown. A) The key is off.
B) The key switch fuse is blown. B) The console interlock switch is open.
C) The key is turned off. C) The two speed solenoid is defective.
D) The park brake is not set. D) The switched power relay is defective.
E) Insufficient information to identify the exact cause. E) One or more of the unswitched power fuses is blown.

5) The starter fails to turn the engine over when the key switch is
turned to "Start". The battery has adequate voltage. The same
voltage is also read at points C, F, and H, and I when the switch is
held to the "Start" position. The problem is:
A) The neutral switch is open.
B) The starter solenoid is defective or has bad connections.
C) The key switch fuse is blown.
D) The starter is defective or has bad connections.
E) The key switch is not functioning properly.
(Electrical Circuits and Schematics Test continued on next page.)

© The Ohio State University, 2005. This test was developed by The Ohio State University at the request of and with input of OMEDA and OEDA. Page 7
 SERVICE TECHNICIAN SKILLS/KNOWLEDGE TEST
This test consists of multiple choice questions to help measure your level of knowledge. Circle the letter of your answer for each
question.

Diagram E-1. The following diagram is used for questions 1, 2, and 3.

Diagram E-2. The following diagram is used to answer questions 4, 5, 6, and 7.

(Electrical Circuits and Schematics Test continued on next page.)

© The Ohio State University, 2005. This test was developed by The Ohio State University at the request of and with input of OMEDA and OEDA. Page 8
 SERVICE TECHNICIAN SKILLS/KNOWLEDGE TEST
This test consists of multiple choice questions to help measure your level of knowledge. Circle the letter of your answer for each
question.
Diagram E-3. The following diagram is used to answer questions 8, 9, and 10.

© The Ohio State University, 2005. This test was developed by The Ohio State University at the request of and with input of OMEDA and OEDA. Page 9
 SERVICE TECHNICIAN SKILLS/KNOWLEDGE TEST
This test consists of multiple choice questions to help measure your level of knowledge. Circle the letter of your answer for each
question.
Hydraulics

1) The minimum bend radius of a hydraulic hose is: 5) In which type of system does the pump flow continuously circulate
A) one half the outside diameter of the hose. through the directional control valve and return to the reservoir
B) the dimension to which a fitting has to be crimped when when no hydraulic functions are being used?
making a new hose. A) Closed Center
C) half the diameter of the inside of the hose. B) Open Center
D) the angle of the fitting on the end of the hose. C) Load Sensing
E) the smallest radius of a bend to which the hose should be D) Parallel
installed. E) Hydrostatic

2) What spool position allows oil to freely flow in and out of a 6) In the diagram shown below, the valve immediately to the right of
connected cylinder in either direction? the pump is a valve.
A) Raise
B) Lower
C) Neutral
D) Power beyond
E) Float

Questions 3 and 4 refer to the following diagram.

A) check
B) flow control
C) pressure relief
D) filter bypass
E) low divider

7) How much horsepower would be required to pump 20 gpm at

1500 psi? Hydraulic horsepower = P (psi) x Q (gpm)/1714.
A) 12.8
B) 15.3
C) 16.8
D) 17.5
E) 20.0
3) Which number indicates a fixed displacement motor? 8) The force a hydraulic cylinder can develop is determined by:
A) 1 A) the pressure in the system.
B) 4 B) the flow rate in the system.
C) 6 C) the size of the cylinder.
D) 7 D) temperature of the oil.
E) 9 E) both A and C.
4) Which number indicates a variable displacement pump? 9) The micron rating of a filter refers to:
A) 1 A) the dirt holding capacity of the filter.
B) 4 B) the filter change interval.
C) 6 C) the flow rate of oil that can pass through the filter.
D) 7 D) the size of particles that will be caught.
E) 9 E) the number of layers of filter media used.

10) The purpose of a system relief valve is to:

A) control cylinder speeds.
B) prevent over-pressure in the system.
C) maintain the desired flow rate.
D) prevent operation if the filter becomes plugged.
E) keep the oil cool.

© The Ohio State University, 2005. This test was developed by The Ohio State University at the request of and with input of OMEDA and OEDA. Page 10
 SERVICE TECHNICIAN SKILLS/KNOWLEDGE TEST
This test consists of multiple choice questions to help measure your level of knowledge. Circle the letter of your answer for each
question.

Diesel Engines

1) Comparing gasoline engines to diesel engines: 6) A variety of shut-down and safety devices are used on diesel
A) diesel engines are preferred because they are lighter and less powered equipment. Which of the following is NOT a possible
expensive. reason/cause for a diesel engine to shut down?
B) diesel engines do not require a spark ignition system. A) Key switch is turned off.
C) gasoline engines have higher compression ratios. B) Fuel "kill" knob is pulled out.
D) gasoline engines generally have more complex fuel delivery C) Operator leaves the seat and opens the seat switch.
systems. D) Engine oil level gets too low.
E) both engines require fuel and air to be mixed prior to entry into E) Parking brake is activated with the ground drive transmission in
the cylinder. neutral.

2) Ignition of the air-fuel mixture in the cylinder of a diesel engine is 7) Cylinder, piston, and piston ring wear can be detected by:
caused by: A) color of exhaust smoke.
A) a spark from a spark plug. B) compression testing.
B) glow plugs. C) visual inspection.
C) timing of the injector pump. D) both A and B.
D) heat of compression. E) A, B, and C.
E) compression release.
8) A typical firing order for a 4 cylinder diesel engine would be:
3) Poor starting could be a result of: A) 1-2-3-4
A) leaking valves. B) 1-4-3-2
B) improper injection pump timing. C) 1-3-4-2
C) worn cylinders and piston rings. D) 1-4-2-3
D) dirty injectors. E) 1-3-2-4
E) all of the above.
9) Regarding governors on diesel engines:
4) The term "wet sleeve" means/describes: A) diesel engines do not use governors.
A) that a shaft must be lubricated before a seal is installed over it. B) the governor is an internal component in the injection pump.
B) a cylinder liner that directly contacts the liquid coolant in the C) the governor is driven directly off the crankshaft.
engine. D) the governor will fail to function if the drive belt breaks.
C) a piston (wrist) pin that receives forced lubrication. E) governors are optional, but most engines have them.
D) a filter installed in the fuel tank to trap foreign particles in the fuel.
E) that the cylinder of an engine must be bored oversized and re- 10) A plugged or restricted air filter will result in:
sleeved. A) high intake vacuums.
B) decreased horsepower.
5) A diesel engine turns over but fails to start. Which of the following C) harder starting.
could be the problem? D) A and B.
A) No power to the ignition system. E) A, B, and C.
B) Cetane rating of fuel too high.
C) Intake vacuum too low.
D) Low compression.
E) Intake air temperature too high.

© The Ohio State University, 2005. This test was developed by The Ohio State University at the request of and with input of OMEDA and OEDA. Page 11
 SERVICE TECHNICIAN SKILLS/KNOWLEDGE TEST
This test consists of multiple choice questions to help measure your level of knowledge. Circle the letter of your answer for each
question.

Air Conditioning Systems

1) To charge an air conditioning system while it is running, the 7) The principle reason that R-134a has replaced R-12 as the
refrigerant should be added to: primary off-road air conditioning refrigerant is because it:
A) the high side. A) is less expensive.
B) the low side. B) is more efficient because its heat absorption capacity is
C) either side. greater.
D) both sides simultaneously. C) is more environmentally friendly.
E) neither side. Shut the system off before charging. D) has a lower boiling point.
E) is less toxic to people.
2) The purpose of the expansion valve in an air conditioning system
is to: 8) Which of the following are necessary steps when converting an air
A) prevent liquid refrigerant from entering the compressor. conditioning system from R-12 to R-134a?
B) provide a surplus reservoir of coolant to make up for small A) Recover all of the R-12 refrigerant.
leakages. B) Completely evacuate the system.
C) lower the pressure of the compressed refrigerant so that it can C) Replace seals and O-rings with R-134a compatible seals.
evaporate. D) Both B and C.
D) maintain a high pressure on the refrigerant in the evaporator. E) A, B and C.
E) isolate the compressor from the remainder of the system for
service. 9) When checking the operation of an air conditioning system with a
High-Low Manifold Gauge Set, which of the following is true?
3) The condenser in an air conditioning system: A) The low side pressure will change depending on the ambient
A) is located in the cab. air temperature.
B) is a part of the "low" side of the system. B) The high side pressure will change depending on the ambient
C) receives the refrigerant after it leaves the expansion valve. air temperature.
D) will be damaged if adequate lubricant is not used in the C) Both operating pressures will be independent of ambient air
charge. temperature.
E) is located at the engine radiator and is cooled by the engine D) Both operating pressures will change with ambient air
fan air flow. temperature.
E) Both pressures will be dependent on ambient air temperature,
4) The ideal operating temperature of the evaporator is: but the difference between them will be constant.
A) just above freezing.
B) as high as possible. 10) A vacuum pump is being used to evacuate a system prior to
C) approximately the same temperature as the engine coolant. charging. The system has been successfully evacuated. After the
D) slightly hotter than the condenser. vacuum pump is shut off and the valve to the pump is shut off, the
E) inconsequential. Evaporator temperature doesn’t matter. vacuum gauge shows a slow, but steady loss of vacuum. Which
of the following is true?
5) An air conditioning system cools the air slightly, but the air is much A) There is a leak somewhere in the system that must be found
too warm to effectively cool the cab. Which of the following is and repaired.
NOT a possible cause of the problem? B) This is normal. The system should be charged.
A) Refrigerant charge is low. C) The vacuum pump is defective.
B) Condenser fins are clogged with dirt and debris. D) The desiccant in the dryer is saturated with water and must be
C) Compressor is worn out. replaced.
D) Expansion valve is defective. E) The compressor is defective.
E) Low side pressure switch is faulty.

6) The air conditioning compressor "short cycles" (the compressor

clutch rapidly engages and disengages repeatedly). A possible
cause for this is:
A) the compressor clutch is defective.
B) the system is low on refrigerant charge.
C) a blown fuse in the clutch circuit.
D) the compressor is defective.
E) the system is overcharged.

© The Ohio State University, 2005. This test was developed by The Ohio State University at the request of and with input of OMEDA and OEDA. Page 12
 SERVICE TECHNICIAN SKILLS/KNOWLEDGE TEST

Answer Key

General Engine Electrical Air

Question Shop Engine Trouble- Power Trains Electrical Circuits & Diesel Conditioning
Number Knowledge Basics shooting & Drivelines Principles Schematics Hydraulics Engines Systems

1 D D C B A C E B B

2 C A E C D B E D C

3 A E C D E E D E E

4 D A B D B C B B A

5 E C D A B D B D E

6 E A E A D D C E B

7 C A B E B E D E C

8 A B C C C C E C E

9 D D A B A B D B B

10 E D E E E D B E A

Note: Some questions, such as "Engine Troubleshooting #1" may be an "opinion" question. Not everyone may agree on the answer. This could be called a
"discussion" question for dialogue with the applicant.

A Word of Thanks

The Service Technician Skills/Knowledge Test for Agricultural and Construction Dealers is being made available to you as a member service of the
Mid-America Equipment Retailers Association.
The idea originated with the Ohio-Michigan Equipment Dealers Association and The Ohio State University. It became a reality for the benefit of dealers
throughout Indiana and Kentucky. That is what an Association is all about - members working together for the betterment of the equipment industry.
We wish to thank members of OMEDA and OEDA for the development of the Agricultural and Construction Dealers Technician Skills/Knowledge Test
as well as for their input on selecting topics and questions to be included.
We wish to thank Gregory P. Gordon and John W. Arnold for their work in developing the test. Both are Professional Engineers and serve as
professors at The Ohio State University Agricultural Technical Institute in Wooster, Ohio.

© The Ohio State University, 2005. This test was developed by The Ohio State University at the request of and with input of OMEDA and OEDA. Page 13